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Question ID f1bfbed3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: f1bfbed3

Marta Coll and colleagues’ 2010 Mediterranean Sea biodiversity census reported approximately 17,000 species, nearly double the number reported in Carlo Bianchi and Carla Morri’s 2000 census—a difference only partly attributable to the description of new invertebrate species in the interim. Another factor is that the morphological variability of microorganisms is poorly understood compared to that of vertebrates, invertebrates, plants, and algae, creating uncertainty about how to evaluate microorganisms as species. Researchers’ decisions on such matters therefore can be highly consequential. Indeed, the two censuses reported similar counts of vertebrate, plant, and algal species, suggesting that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • Coll and colleagues reported a much higher number of species than Bianchi and Morri did largely due to the inclusion of invertebrate species that had not been described at the time of Bianchi and Morri’s census.

  • some differences observed in microorganisms may have been treated as variations within species by Bianchi and Morri but treated as indicative of distinct species by Coll and colleagues.

  • Bianchi and Morri may have been less sensitive to the degree of morphological variation displayed within a typical species of microorganism than Coll and colleagues were.

  • the absence of clarity regarding how to differentiate among species of microorganisms may have resulted in Coll and colleagues underestimating the number of microorganism species.

ID: f1bfbed3 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically completes the text’s discussion of the different counts of species in the Mediterranean Sea. The text states that Coll and colleagues reported almost double the number of species that Bianchi and Morri reported in their study ten years earlier. According to the text, this difference can only be partly attributed to new invertebrate species being described in the years between the two studies, which means there must be an additional factor that made Coll and colleagues’ count so much higher than Bianchi and Morri’s count. The text goes on to explain that factor: researchers have a relatively poor understanding of microorganisms’ morphological variability, or the differences in microorganisms’ structure and form. This poor understanding makes it hard to classify microorganisms by species and means that researchers’ decisions about classifying microorganisms can have a large effect on the overall species counts that researchers report. Additionally, the text says that the two censuses reported similar numbers of vertebrate, plant, and algal species, which means that the difference in overall species did not come from differences in those categories. Given all this information, it most logically follows that Coll and colleagues may have treated some of the differences among microorganisms as indicative of the microorganisms being different species, whereas Bianchi and Morri treated those differences as variations within species, resulting in Coll and colleagues reporting many more species than Bianchi and Morri did.

Choice A is incorrect because the text explicitly addresses this issue by stating that the description of new invertebrate species in the years between the two studies can explain only part of the difference in the number of species reported by the studies. The focus of the text is on explaining the difference between Coll and colleagues’ count and Bianchi and Morri’s count that cannot be accounted for by the inclusion of invertebrate species that had not been described at the time of Bianchi and Morri’s study. Choice C is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that Bianchi and Morri may have been less sensitive to how much the form and structure of microorganisms vary within the same species than Coll and colleagues were. If Bianchi and Morri had been less sensitive to within-species variation than Coll and colleagues were, Bianchi and Morri would likely have reported more species than Coll and colleagues did, since less sensitivity to within-species variation would lead researchers to classify as different species microorganisms that more sensitive researchers would classify as variations within the same species. The text indicates, however, that Bianchi and Morri reported far fewer species than Coll and colleagues did; since the text also excludes other explanations for this difference, it suggests that in fact Bianchi and Morri were more sensitive to within-species variation than Coll and colleagues were, leading Bianchi and Morri to report fewer overall species. Choice D is incorrect because the text is focused on explaining why Coll and colleagues reported many more species than Bianchi and Morri did, and an underestimate of the number of microorganism species by Coll and colleagues would not explain that difference—it would suggest, in fact, that the difference in the number of species should have been even larger. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 87aa7bab

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 87aa7bab

A common assumption among art historians is that the invention of photography in the mid-nineteenth century displaced the painted portrait in the public consciousness. The diminishing popularity of the portrait miniature, which coincided with the rise of photography, seems to support this claim. However, photography’s impact on the portrait miniature may be overstated. Although records from art exhibitions in the Netherlands from 1820 to 1892 show a decrease in the number of both full-sized and miniature portraits submitted, this trend was established before the invention of photography.

Based on the text, what can be concluded about the diminishing popularity of the portrait miniature in the nineteenth century?  

  • Factors other than the rise of photography may be more directly responsible for the portrait miniature’s decline.

  • Although portrait miniatures became less common than photographs, they were widely regarded as having more artistic merit.     

  • The popularity of the portrait miniature likely persisted for longer than art historians have assumed. 

  • As demand for portrait miniatures decreased, portrait artists likely shifted their creative focus to photography. 

ID: 87aa7bab Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The text says that the impact of photography on the portrait miniature might be "overstated," as some records show a decrease in the number of portrait miniatures before the invention of photography. From this, we can conclude that factors other than the rise of photography may be more directly responsible for the portrait miniature’s decline.

Choice B is incorrect. The text never discusses the "artistic merit" of either art form. Choice C is incorrect. The text never suggests that the portrait miniature was popular for longer than historians thought—if anything, it suggests that the portrait miniature started losing its popularity earlier than historians thought. Choice D is incorrect. The text never suggests that portrait painters shifted to become photographers.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID d73a908a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: d73a908a

Believing that living in an impractical space can heighten awareness and even improve health, conceptual artists Madeline Gins and Shusaku Arakawa designed an apartment building in Japan to be more fanciful than functional. A kitchen counter is chest-high on one side and knee-high on the other; a ceiling has a door to nowhere. The effect is disorienting but invigorating: after four years there, filmmaker Nobu Yamaoka reported significant health benefits.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Although inhabiting a home surrounded by fanciful features such as those designed by Gins and Arakawa can be rejuvenating, it is unsustainable.

  • Designing disorienting spaces like those in the Gins and Arakawa building is the most effective way to create a physically stimulating environment. 

  • As a filmmaker, Yamaoka has long supported the designs of conceptual artists such as Gins and Arakawa.

  • Although impractical, the design of the apartment building by Gins and Arakawa may improve the well-being of the building’s residents. 

ID: d73a908a Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. According to the text, conceptual artists Gins and Arakawa have designed an apartment building that is disorienting because of several unconventional elements, such as uneven kitchen counters and “a door to nowhere.” The text goes on to suggest that there may be benefits to this kind of design because filmmaker Yamaoka lived in the apartment building for four years and reported health benefits. Thus, although the design is impractical, it may improve the well-being of the apartment building’s residents. 

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text mentions that Yamaoka lived in the apartment for four years, it doesn’t address how long someone can beneficially live in a home surrounded by fanciful features or whether doing so can be sustained. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text mentions the potential benefits of living in a home with disorienting design features, it doesn’t suggest that this is the most effective method to create a physically stimulating environment. Choice C is incorrect because the text refers to Yamaoka to support the claim that Gins and Arakawa’s apartment building design may be beneficial, but the text doesn’t indicate that Yamaoka supports the designs of other conceptual artists. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID d748c3fd

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: d748c3fd

In her 2021 article “Throwaway History: Towards a Historiography of Ephemera,” scholar Anne Garner discusses John Johnson (1882–1956), a devoted collector of items intended to be discarded, including bus tickets and campaign pamphlets. Johnson recognized that scholarly institutions considered his expansive collection of ephemera to be worthless—indeed, it wasn’t until 1968, after Johnson’s death, that Oxford University’s Bodleian Library acquired the collection, having grasped the items’ potential value to historians and other researchers. Hence, the example of Johnson serves to blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • demonstrate the difficulties faced by contemporary historians in conducting research at the Bodleian Library without access to ephemera.

  • represent the challenge of incorporating examples of ephemera into the collections of libraries and other scholarly institutions.

  • lend support to arguments by historians and other researchers who continue to assert that ephemera holds no value for scholars.

  • illustrate both the relatively low scholarly regard in which ephemera was once held and the later recognition of ephemera’s possible utility.

ID: d748c3fd Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. Johnson collected “ephemera,” or things that are meant to be thrown away. Scholars thought his collection was worthless to them, then later realized that it was potentially valuable. This suggests that scholars went from disregarding ephemera to recognizing their usefulness.

Choice A is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text tells us that the Bodleian Library acquired Johnson’s large collection of ephemera back in 1968, so we can assume that contemporary historians conducting research there do have access to that collection. Choice B is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text tells us that “Oxford University’s Bodleian Library acquired the collection,” but it never suggests that it was a challenge to do so. Choice C is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text actually suggests the opposite: the example of Johnson’s collection lends support to arguments that ephemera does hold value for scholars.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 6b8a7c74

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 6b8a7c74

One recognized social norm of gift giving is that the time spent obtaining a gift will be viewed as a reflection of the gift’s thoughtfulness. Marketing experts Farnoush Reshadi, Julian Givi, and Gopal Das addressed this view in their studies of norms specifically surrounding the giving of gift cards, noting that while recipients tend to view digital gift cards (which can be purchased online from anywhere and often can be redeemed online as well) as superior to physical gift cards (which sometimes must be purchased in person and may only be redeemable in person) in terms of usage, 94.8 percent of participants surveyed indicated that it is more socially acceptable to give a physical gift card to a recipient. This finding suggests that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • gift givers likely overestimate the amount of effort required to use digital gift cards and thus mistakenly assume gift recipients will view them as less desirable than physical gift cards.

  • physical gift cards are likely preferred by gift recipients because the tangible nature of those cards offers a greater psychological sense of ownership than digital gift cards do.

  • physical gift cards are likely less desirable to gift recipients than digital gift cards are because of the perception that physical gift cards require unnecessary effort to obtain.

  • gift givers likely perceive digital gift cards as requiring relatively low effort to obtain and thus wrongly assume gift recipients will appreciate them less than they do physical gift cards.

ID: 6b8a7c74 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of perceptions of digital versus physical gift cards. The text begins by explaining that the perception of "the time spent obtaining a gift…as a reflection of the gift’s thoughtfulness" is a social norm of gift giving. The text then explains that although those who receive digital gift cards view them as easier to use than physical gift cards, a marketing study nonetheless showed that 94.8% of participants found physical gift cards more "socially acceptable" to give. The text specifically contrasts the ease with which digital gift cards "can be purchased online from anywhere" with the fact that physical gift cards "sometimes must be purchased in person"—suggesting the greater difficulty of obtaining physical cards. Given the text’s initial premise that gift-giving norms equate the thoughtfulness of a gift with the effort involved in acquiring that gift, it is reasonable to infer that people perceive digital gift cards as requiring less effort to obtain and thus assume recipients will appreciate them less, even though recipients actually prefer gift cards in the more usable digital format.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text does discuss recipients’ preference of digital versus physical gift cards and the relative ease with which the two formats can be used, it doesn’t consider the misconceptions that gift givers may have of these factors. Moreover, the text establishes that recipients regard digital gift cards as easier to use and therefore preferable to physical gift cards. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t consider whether recipients of gift cards feel a sense of ownership toward them, nor does the text touch on the greater tangibility of physical versus digital gift cards. Instead, the text contrasts the two formats of gift cards in terms of their respective usability and the difficulty involved in acquiring them and discusses how those factors influence people’s perceptions of the two formats. Choice C is incorrect because it contradicts the text, which explains that recipients regard digital gift cards as superior to physical ones because they are easier to use than physical cards, not because physical gift cards require greater effort to obtain than digital gift cards do. Moreover, the text doesn’t characterize the effort required to obtain physical gift cards as "unnecessary."

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID a15b3219

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: a15b3219
1,300 1,200 1,100 1,000 900 800 700 600 500 400 300 200 100 0Number of municipalities no response responded to inquiry offered incentiveMunicipalities’ Responses to Inquiries about Potential Incentives for Firm announcement before election announcement after election
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown: 
    • announcement before election
    • announcement after election
  • The data for the 3 categories are as follows: 
    • no response:
      • announcement before election: 1,252
      • announcement after election: 1,248
    • responded to inquiry:
      • announcement before election: 207
      • announcement after election: 205
    • offered incentive:
      • announcement before election: 128
      • announcement after election: 122

In the United States, firms often seek incentives from municipal governments to expand to those municipalities. A team of political scientists hypothesized that municipalities are much more likely to respond to firms and offer incentives if expansions can be announced in time to benefit local elected officials than if they can’t. The team contacted officials in thousands of municipalities, inquiring about incentives for a firm looking to expand and indicating that the firm would announce its expansion on a date either just before or just after the next election. 

Which choice best describes data from the graph that weaken the team’s hypothesis?

  • A large majority of the municipalities that received an inquiry mentioning plans for an announcement before the next election didn’t respond to the inquiry.

  • The proportion of municipalities that responded to the inquiry or offered incentives didn’t substantially differ across the announcement timing conditions. 

  • Only around half the municipalities that responded to inquiries mentioning plans for an announcement before the next election offered incentives. 

  • Of the municipalities that received an inquiry mentioning plans for an announcement date after the next election, more than 1,200 didn’t respond and only around 100 offered incentives.

ID: a15b3219 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The lighter bars show what happened when the announcement was to come before the election, and the darker bars show what happened when the announcement was to come after the election. For all three of the outcomes, the light and dark bars are virtually the same, demonstrating that the announcement timing didn’t actually make a difference.

Choice A is incorrect. This accurately describes some data from the graph, but it doesn’t weaken the hypothesis. It doesn’t include the “announcement after election” data for comparison. Choice C is incorrect. This accurately describes some data from the graph, but it doesn’t weaken the hypothesis. It doesn’t include the “announcement after election” data for comparison. Choice D is incorrect. This accurately describes some data from the graph, but it doesn’t weaken the hypothesis. It doesn’t include the “announcement before election” data for comparison.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID ed314256

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: ed314256

The most recent iteration of the immersive theater experience Sleep No More, which premiered in New York City in 2011, transforms its performance space—a five-story warehouse—into a 1930s-era hotel. Audience members, who wander through the labyrinthine venue at their own pace and follow the actors as they play out simultaneous, interweaving narrative loops, confront the impossibility of experiencing the production in its entirety. The play’s refusal of narrative coherence thus hinges on the sense of spatial fragmentation that the venue’s immense and intricate layout generates.

What does the text most strongly suggest about Sleep No More’s use of its performance space? 

  • The choice of a New York City venue likely enabled the play’s creators to experiment with the use of theatrical space in a way that venues from earlier productions could not. 

  • Audience members likely find the experience of the play disappointing because they generally cannot make their way through the entire venue.

  • The production’s dependence on a particular performance environment would likely make it difficult to reproduce exactly in a different theatrical space. 

  • Audience members who navigate the space according to a recommended itinerary will likely have a better grasp of the play’s narrative than audience members who depart from that itinerary.

ID: ed314256 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The text says that the production’s use of its large, winding space has a very specific effect on the audience. Given that the space itself is so important to creating this effect, it would be difficult to reproduce the production in a different space.

Choice A is incorrect. The fact that the venue is in New York City isn’t connected to the experimental nature of the performance. It’s the size of the venue, not its location in New York, that affects the theatrical experience. Choice B is incorrect. The text never suggests that audience members are disappointed because they can’t see the entire production. In fact, it suggests that that’s an important part of the experience. Choice D is incorrect. The text doesn’t mention a recommended itinerary for audience members.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 8c1be131

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 8c1be131

During the World War II era, some Mexican American women adopted a striking new look called pachuca style. They wore altered men’s jackets or zoot suits (wide-legged, long-coated suits) and dramatic makeup, and they combed their hair into high, rounded shapes. Some people criticized pachuca style, saying it was dangerous and women should dress traditionally. But historians see things differently. They see pachuca style as a form of rebellion against the era’s rigid social expectations for women. They say that it showed a desire for self-expression and freedom on the part of women who adopted the style.

According to the text, how do historians view pachuca style?

  • They think that pachuca style was such a popular trend that it continues to influence fashion in the United States to the present day. 

  • They think that pachuca style was a way for some Mexican American women to express themselves and resist strict social expectations.

  • They think that pachuca style was celebrated because it enabled some Mexican American women to show their support for the United States during World War II.

  • They think that pachuca style was similar to other fashion trends that different groups of women adopted in the same period. 

ID: 8c1be131 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a statement about how historians view pachuca style that is supported by the text. The text first describes the distinctive pachuca style of dress adopted by some Mexican American women during World War II, saying that some criticized it and asserted that women should dress traditionally. The text then goes on to contrast this position with that of historians, who "see things differently": according to these historians, the pachuca style showed a wish for freedom and self-expression, and it acted as a kind of rebellion against what society expected of women at the time. Therefore, according to the text, historians think that the pachuca style was a way for Mexican women to express themselves and resist strict social expectations.

Choice A is incorrect because the text explicitly describes the pachuca style as a distinctive look adopted during the World War II era. It does not indicate that the pachuca style influences fashion in the United States in the present day. Choice C is incorrect because the text does not indicate that Mexican American women wore the pachuca style to show support for the United States during World War II; rather, the style was a means of self-expression and rebellion against social expectations. Choice D is incorrect because the text does not compare the pachuca style to other fashion trends: the pachuca style is the only style mentioned.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 92c2564d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 92c2564d

Utah is home to Pando, a colony of about 47,000 quaking aspen trees that all share a single root system. Pando is one of the largest single organisms by mass on Earth, but ecologists are worried that its growth is declining in part because of grazing by animals. The ecologists say that strong fences could prevent deer from eating young trees and help Pando start thriving again.

According to the text, why are ecologists worried about Pando?

  • It isn’t growing at the same rate it used to.

  • It isn’t producing young trees anymore.

  • It can’t grow into new areas because it is blocked by fences.

  • Its root system can’t support many more new trees.

ID: 92c2564d Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents an explanation that is directly stated in the text for why ecologists are worried about Pando. The text states that Pando is a colony of about 47,000 quaking aspen trees that represents one of the largest organisms on Earth. According to the text, ecologists are worried that Pando’s growth is declining, partly because animals are feeding on the trees. In other words, the ecologists are worried that Pando isn’t growing at the same rate it used to.

Choice B is incorrect. Rather than indicating that Pando isn’t producing young trees anymore, the text reveals that Pando is indeed producing young trees, stating that those trees can be protected from grazing deer by strong fences. Choice C is incorrect because the text states that fences can be used to prevent deer from eating Pando’s young trees, not that Pando itself can’t grow in new areas because it’s blocked by fences. Choice D is incorrect because the text offers no evidence that Pando’s root system is incapable of supporting new trees or is otherwise a cause of worry for ecologists.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 22e4d633

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 22e4d633

Although many transposons, DNA sequences that move within an organism’s genome through shuffling or duplication, have become corrupted and inactive over time, those from the long interspersed nuclear elements (LINE) family appear to remain active in the genomes of some species. In humans, they are functionally important within the hippocampus, a brain structure that supports complex cognitive processes. When the results of molecular analysis of two species of octopus—an animal known for its intelligence—were announced in 2022, the confirmation of a LINE transposon in Octopus vulgaris and Octopus bimaculoides genomes prompted researchers to hypothesize that that transposon family is tied to a species’ capacity for advanced cognition.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ hypothesis?

  • The LINE transposon in O. vulgaris and O. bimaculoides genomes is active in an octopus brain structure that functions similarly to the human hippocampus.

  • The human genome contains multiple transposons from the LINE family that are all primarily active in the hippocampus.

  • A consistent number of copies of LINE transposons is present across the genomes of most octopus species, with few known corruptions.

  • O. vulgaris and O. bimaculoides have smaller brains than humans do relative to body size, but their genomes contain sequences from a wider variety of transposon families.

ID: 22e4d633 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The text says that LINE transposons are important in the human hippocampus, which supports complex cognition. If the LINE transposon found in octopuses is active in a similar part of their brain, that would suggest that LINE transposons support complex cognition in octopuses too, which in turn supports the hypothesis that LINE transposons are linked to advanced cognition in general.

Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the hypothesis. It doesn’t include anything about how LINE transposons function in species other than humans. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the hypothesis. It doesn’t include anything about how the LINE transposon in octopuses might support advanced cognition. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the hypothesis. It doesn’t include anything about how the LINE transposon in octopuses might support advanced cognition.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 458b4a11

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 458b4a11

To understand how temperature change affects microorganism-mediated cycling of soil nutrients in alpine ecosystems, Eva Kaštovská et al. collected plant-soil cores in the Tatra Mountains at elevations around 2,100 meters and transplanted them to elevations of 1,700–1,800 meters, where the mean air temperature was warmer by 2°C. Microorganism-mediated nutrient cycling was accelerated in the transplanted cores; crucially, microorganism community composition was unchanged, allowing Kaštovská et al. to attribute the acceleration to temperature-induced increases in microorganism activity. 

It can most reasonably be inferred from the text that the finding about the microorganism community composition was important for which reason?

  • It provided preliminary evidence that microorganism-mediated nutrient cycling was accelerated in the transplanted cores. 

  • It suggested that temperature-induced changes in microorganism activity may be occurring at increasingly high elevations. 

  • It ruled out a potential alternative explanation for the acceleration in microorganism-mediated nutrient cycling. 

  • It clarified that microorganism activity levels in the plant-soil cores varied depending on which microorganisms comprised the community. 

ID: 458b4a11 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it accurately describes why the finding about the microorganism community composition was important. The text describes an experiment by Eva Kaštovská and her team in which they collected plant-soil cores at one elevation and transplanted them to sites at a lower elevation, where the mean air temperature was warmer. Kaštovská and her team observed that microorganism-mediated nutrient cycling was accelerated in the transplanted cores and that "crucially, microorganism community composition was unchanged," which allowed the team to attribute the acceleration to changes in microorganism activity brought about by the difference in temperature. This strongly implies that the team wouldn’t have been able to make that attribution otherwise, meaning that a change in microorganism composition represented another possible explanation for the acceleration that had to be ruled out.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text says microorganism-mediated cycling of soil nutrients increased in the transplanted cores, this is unrelated to what’s important about the finding that the microorganism composition didn’t change—that it allowed the team to attribute the change in activity solely to the change in temperature. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text compares activity in one core at two different elevations, the text doesn’t address changes in activity at various elevations over time. Choice D is incorrect. Although different microorganisms likely exhibit different levels of activity, the text indicates that there was no change in microorganism composition, and there is nothing in the text about different microorganisms having different activity levels.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 0d7f4966

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 0d7f4966

Jean-Bernard Caron and colleagues recently discovered a cache of jellyfish fossils in the Burgess Shale, a site in the Canadian Rockies that is rich in fossils from the Cambrian period (over 500 million years ago). Caron and colleagues claim that these are the oldest jellyfish fossils ever discovered. In the past twenty years, two sites in China and the United States have yielded fossils of a similar age that some experts believe are most likely jellyfish due to their shapes and the appearance of projecting tentacles. But Caron and colleagues argue that the apparent tentacles are in fact the comb rows of ctenophores, gelatinous animals that are only distantly related to jellyfish.

Which statement, if true, would most directly weaken the claim by Caron and colleagues about the fossils found in China and the United States?

  • Sites in the Canadian Rockies from later periods than the Cambrian period have yielded fossils that have been conclusively identified as ctenophore fossils.

  • The fossils found in China and the United States are so poorly preserved that though they cannot be conclusively identified as jellyfish, they cannot be conclusively identified as ctenophores either.

  • While ctenophore fossils have been discovered in China and the United States, they have never been discovered in the Burgess Shale.

  • The fossils discovered by Caron and colleagues in the Burgess Shale were better preserved than the fossils discovered by other researchers in China and the United States.

ID: 0d7f4966 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a statement that, if true, would most directly weaken Caron and colleagues’ claim that the apparent tentacles in the Chinese and American fossils are actually ctenophore comb rows. If the fossils are so poorly preserved that they cannot be conclusively identified as either organism, neither the claim that they are jellyfish nor, as Caron claims, that they are ctenophores would be supported.

Choice A is incorrect. Caron’s claim is that fossils from the US and China are ctenophores, not jellyfish. These fossils are said to be "of a similar age" to the Cambrian fossils found in the Canadian Rockies. And nothing in the text or this choice suggests that the presence or absence of ctenophores after the Cambrian would have any bearing on whether the Cambrian fossils from the US and China are ctenophores. Choice C is incorrect. Caron’s claim is that fossils from the US and China are ctenophores, not jellyfish. Nothing in the text suggests that the presence or absence of ctenophores in the Burgess Shale (in Canada) would affect whether the fossils found in the US and China are ctenophores. Choice D is incorrect. Caron’s claim is that fossils from the US and China are ctenophores, not jellyfish. Although fossil quality is a plausible issue for the research described in the text, nothing in the text or this choice suggests that the fossils from US and China would have been too poorly preserved for proper identification.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 3543e6e2

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 3543e6e2

The following text is from Jane Austen’s 1811 novel Sense and Sensibility. Elinor lives with her younger sisters and her mother, Mrs. Dashwood.

Elinor, this eldest daughter, whose advice was so effectual, possessed a strength of understanding, and coolness of judgment, which qualified her, though only nineteen, to be the counsellor of her mother, and enabled her frequently to counteract, to the advantage of them all, that eagerness of mind in Mrs. Dashwood which must generally have led to imprudence. She had an excellent heart;—her disposition was affectionate, and her feelings were strong; but she knew how to govern them: it was a knowledge which her mother had yet to learn; and which one of her sisters had resolved never to be taught.

According to the text, what is true about Elinor?

  • Elinor often argues with her mother but fails to change her mind.

  • Elinor can be overly sensitive with regard to family matters.

  • Elinor thinks her mother is a bad role model.

  • Elinor is remarkably mature for her age.

ID: 3543e6e2 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it provides a detail about Elinor that is established in the text. The text indicates that although Elinor is “only nineteen,” she gives good advice and exhibits such a high level of understanding and judgment that she serves as “the counsellor of her mother.” Thus, Elinor is mature beyond her years.   

Choice A is incorrect because it isn’t supported by the text: although the text says that Elinor advises her mother and often counteracts her mother’s impulses, there’s no mention of Elinor arguing with her mother or failing to change her mother’s mind. Choice B is incorrect because it isn’t supported by the text: although the text mentions that Elinor has strong feelings, it doesn’t indicate that she’s excessively sensitive when it comes to family issues. Choice C is incorrect because it isn’t supported by the text: there’s no mention of what Elinor thinks about her mother and no suggestion that she thinks her mother is a bad role model. Because she’s described as having “an excellent heart,” Elinor likely doesn’t think ill of her mother.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 75e07a4d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 75e07a4d

Sample of Food Items from Gemini Mission Menus

Food item Day Meal
Sugar cookie cubes 1 B
Chicken and vegetables 2 B
Shrimp cocktail 4 C
Hot cocoa 3 A

To make sure they got the nutrition they needed while in space, the astronauts of NASA’s Gemini missions were given menus for three meals a day (meals A, B, and C) on a four-day rotating schedule. Looking at the sample of food items from these menus, a student notes that on day 1, the menu included blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • shrimp cocktail for meal B.

  • hot cocoa for meal C.

  • sugar cookie cubes for meal B.

  • chicken and vegetables for meal A.

ID: 75e07a4d Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement. The table shows that on day 1, the menu for NASA’s Gemini missions included sugar cookie cubes for meal B.

Choice A is incorrect because according to the table, shrimp cocktail was served on day 4, not day 1; moreover, the item was served for meal C, not meal B, as this choice claims. Choice B is incorrect because according to the table, hot cocoa was served on day 3, not on day 1; moreover, the item was served for meal A, not for meal C, as this choice claims. Choice D is incorrect because according to the table, chicken and vegetables were served on day 2, not on day 1; moreover, the item was served for meal B, not for meal A, as this choice claims.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 1ba5ad7a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 1ba5ad7a

Many literary theorists distinguish between fabula, a narrative’s content, and syuzhet, a narrative’s arrangement and presentation of events. In the film The Godfather Part II, the fabula is the story of the Corleone family, and the syuzhet is the presentation of the story as it alternates between two timelines in 1901 and 1958. But literary theorist Mikhail Bakhtin maintained that fabula and syuzhet are insufficient to completely describe a narrative—he held that systematic categorizations of artistic phenomena discount the subtle way in which meaning is created by interactions between the artist, the work, and the audience.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Literary theorist Mikhail Bakhtin argued that there are important characteristics of narratives that are not fully encompassed by two concepts that other theorists have used to analyze narratives.

  • Literary theorist Mikhail Bakhtin claimed that meaning is not inherent in a narrative but is created when an audience encounters a narrative so that narratives are interpreted differently by different people.

  • The storytelling methods used in The Godfather Part II may seem unusually complicated, but they can be easily understood when two concepts from literary theory are utilized.

  • Narratives that are told out of chronological order are more difficult for audiences to understand than are narratives presented chronologically.

ID: 1ba5ad7a Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text begins by explaining that many literary theorists rely on the concepts of fabula (a narrative’s content) and syuzhet (a narrative’s arrangement and presentation of events) and illustrates these concepts by explaining how they can be applied to the film The Godfather Part II. The text then discusses how Mikhail Bakhtin, a literary theorist, argued that fabula and syuzhet can’t fully describe a narrative, since systematic categorizations such as these fail to account for all the ways in which interactions between the artist, the work, and the audience produce meaning. Thus, the main idea is that Bakhtin argued that there are important characteristics of narratives that are not fully encompassed by two concepts that other theorists have used to analyze narratives.

Choice B is incorrect because according to the text, Mikhail Bakhtin believed that meaning was created through the interactions of the artist, narrative, and audience, not simply through the interaction between the audience and narrative; moreover, the text doesn’t address whether Bakhtin focused on the ways in which different people interpret narratives differently. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text implies that the storytelling methods used in The Godfather Part II are complicated, it discusses the film only to illustrate how the concepts of fabula and syuzhet may be applied to a narrative. The film’s storytelling methods aren’t the primary focus of the text. Choice D is incorrect. The text discusses The Godfather Part II, whose narrative doesn’t adhere to a single chronological order, only to illustrate the concepts of fabula (a narrative’s content) and syuzhet (a narrative’s arrangement and presentation of events). The primary focus of this text isn’t the structure of this film or of other narratives that are told out of chronological order; moreover, the text doesn’t consider whether such structures make it harder for audiences to understand narratives.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 602b47c7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 602b47c7

Biologists have predicted that birds’ feather structures vary with habitat temperature, but this hadn’t been tested in mountain environments. Ornithologist Sahas Barve studied feathers from 249 songbird species inhabiting different elevations—and thus experiencing different temperatures—in the Himalaya Mountains. He found that feathers of high-elevation species not only have a greater proportion of warming downy sections to flat and smooth sections than do feathers of low-elevation species, but high-elevation species’ feathers also tend to be longer, providing a thicker layer of insulation.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Barve’s investigation shows that some species of Himalayan songbirds have evolved feathers that better regulate body temperature than do the feathers of other species, contradicting previous predictions.

  • Barve found an association between habitat temperature and feather structure among Himalayan songbirds, lending new support to a general prediction.

  • Barve discovered that songbirds have adapted to their environment by growing feathers without flat and smooth sections, complicating an earlier hypothesis.

  • The results of Barve’s study suggest that the ability of birds to withstand cold temperatures is determined more strongly by feather length than feather structure, challenging an established belief.

ID: 602b47c7 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The text describes how Barve found an association between habitat temperature and feather structure among Himalayan songbirds, which supports the general prediction that birds’ feather structures vary with habitat temperature.

Choice A is incorrect. Barve’s study isn’t said to contradict previous predictions. In fact, the study supports the prediction described in the first sentence, which is that birds’ feather structures vary with habitat temperature. Choice C is incorrect. Barve’s study isn’t said to “complicate an earlier hypothesis.” In fact, the study supports the earlier prediction described in the first sentence, which is that birds’ feather structures vary with habitat temperature. Choice D is incorrect. The text doesn’t compare the importance of feather length and feather structure, and it doesn’t say that Barve’s study challenges any established beliefs. In fact, the study supports the prediction described in the first sentence, which is that birds’ feather structures vary with habitat temperature.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 068f939b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 068f939b

The ancient Greek concept of “mimesis,” a term used in the works of Plato, Aristotle, and other Greek philosophers in discussions of representational art—visual, performance, or literary art that aims to depict the real world—is a foundational concept of the Western philosophy of aesthetics. Mimesis is typically translated as “imitation” in modern editions of ancient Greek texts, but scholar Stephen Halliwell warns that this is overly reductive: “imitation” implies that art merely copies—and is thus by definition entirely derivative of—a reality that exists outside and prior to the work of art, and translating “mimesis” thusly obscures the multifaceted ways in which the ancient Greeks understood the relationship between art and reality.

Which statement, if true, would most directly support the claim by Halliwell presented in the text?

  • One of the earliest appearances of mimesis’s root word, mimos, can be found in an ancient Greek tragedy in reference to dramatic impersonation, and the mim- root came to be generally associated with the musical and poetic arts by the fifth century BCE.

  • Both Plato’s and Aristotle’s theorizations of mimesis examine the psychological effects that works of art induce in the viewer or listener.

  • Although several of Plato’s earliest philosophical works discuss aesthetic ideas, the term “mimesis” doesn’t appear in Plato’s discussions of art until Cratylus, a relatively late work.

  • Although Plato’s writings typically characterize representational art as an inferior reflection of the physical world, Aristotle suggests that mimesis can refer to art’s capacity to envision hypothetical conditions that could, but don’t yet, exist.

ID: 068f939b Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a statement that would support Halliwell’s claim that "imitation" is an overly simplified translation of the word "mimesis" in the context of ancient Greek philosophical discussions of representational art and that, because it suggests a view of art as merely copying things that exist in reality, the translation obscures the fact that Plato, Aristotle, and other ancient Greeks understood the relationship between art and reality in varied ways. If Plato’s works tend to treat representational art as an inferior or inadequate reflection of the physical world (consistent with the idea of mere imitation), while Aristotle’s works suggest that the term "mimesis" can refer to art’s ability to show conditions that don’t currently exist but could exist (going beyond imitation into novel creation), that evidence would support the claim that the term "mimesis" means more than just "imitation" and that ancient Greek philosophers held different views of the relationship between art and reality.

Choice A is incorrect because information about the root word mimos first being used in drama and the root mim- coming to be associated with music and poetry wouldn’t indicate anything about the meaning of the specific term "mimesis" as it was used by ancient Greek philosophers in discussions of representational art; thus, the information would have no bearing on Halliwell’s claim that a common translation of the specific term is an oversimplification. Choice B is incorrect because the issue of art’s psychological effects on audiences gets at how people respond to works of art instead of how art itself is related to reality, so the idea that Plato and Aristotle both addressed such effects in their considerations of mimesis wouldn’t have any bearing on Halliwell’s claim that a common translation of that term oversimplifies the relationship between art and reality. Further, this idea would touch on one general similarity in approaches to mimesis instead of illustrating the multifaceted, or varied, ways Halliwell claims ancient Greek philosophers understood art’s relation to reality. Choice C is incorrect because the idea that Plato discussed aesthetics in his early works but didn’t use the term "mimesis" until later doesn’t give any indication of how Plato or any other ancient Greek philosophers understood the relation between art and reality, so it would have no bearing on Halliwell’s claim that a common translation of the term "mimesis" is oversimplified and fails to reflect the varied ways the philosophers understood that relationship.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 702eb7e3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 702eb7e3
200 150 100 50 0Uncertainty(larger values = more uncertainty)   2005   2006   2007   2008   2009   2010Economic Policy Uncertainty in the United Kingdom, 2005–2010Year tax and public spending policy trade policy general economic policy
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • Tax and public spending policy
    • Trade policy
    • General economic policy
  • The data for the 6 categories are as follows:
    • 2005:
      • Tax and public spending policy: 98
      • Trade policy: 160
      • General economic policy: 90
    • 2006:
      • Tax and public spending policy: 65
      • Trade policy: 105
      • General economic policy: 72
    • 2007:
      • Tax and public spending policy: 61
      • Trade policy: 75
      • General economic policy: 77
    • 2008:
      • Tax and public spending policy: 90
      • Trade policy: 71
      • General economic policy: 73
    • 2009:
      • Tax and public spending policy: 76
      • Trade policy: 70
      • General economic policy: 81
    • 2010:
      • Tax and public spending policy: 165
      • Trade policy: 71
      • General economic policy: 118

High levels of public uncertainty about which economic policies a country will adopt can make planning difficult for businesses, but measures of such uncertainty have not tended to be very detailed. Recently, however, economist Sandile Hlatshwayo analyzed trends in news reports to derive measures not only for general economic policy uncertainty but also for uncertainty related to specific areas of economic policy, like tax or trade policy. One revelation of her work is that a general measure may not fully reflect uncertainty about specific areas of policy, as in the case of the United Kingdom, where general economic policy uncertainty blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to illustrate the claim?

  • aligned closely with uncertainty about tax and public spending policy in 2005 but differed from uncertainty about tax and public spending policy by a large amount in 2009.

  • was substantially lower than uncertainty about tax and public spending policy each year from 2005 to 2010.

  • reached its highest level between 2005 and 2010 in the same year that uncertainty about trade policy and tax and public spending policy reached their lowest levels.

  • was substantially lower than uncertainty about trade policy in 2005 and substantially higher than uncertainty about trade policy in 2010.

ID: 702eb7e3 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it uses data from the graph to effectively illustrate the text’s claim about general economic policy uncertainty in the United Kingdom. The graph presents values for economic policy uncertainty in tax and public spending policy, trade policy, and general economic policy in the UK from 2005 to 2010. The graph shows that in 2005, the value for general economic policy uncertainty (approximately 90) was substantially lower than the value for uncertainty about trade policy specifically (approximately 160). It also shows that in 2010, the value for general economic policy uncertainty (approximately 120) was substantially higher than the value for uncertainty about trade policy (approximately 70). The substantial differences between these values in 2005 and 2010 support the claim that a general measure may not fully reflect uncertainty about specific areas of policy.

Choice A is incorrect because the graph shows that the level of general economic policy uncertainty was similar to the level of uncertainty about tax and public spending policy in both 2005 (with values of approximately 90 and 100, respectively) and 2009 (with values of approximately 80 and 75, respectively). Choice B is incorrect because the graph shows that general economic policy uncertainty was higher than uncertainty about tax and public spending policy in 2006, 2007, and 2009, not that it was lower each year from 2005 to 2010. Choice C is incorrect because the graph shows that general economic policy uncertainty reached its highest level in 2010, which was when uncertainty about tax and public spending policy also reached its highest level, not its lowest level.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 29f5c8c2

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 29f5c8c2

Fish whose DNA has been modified to include genetic material from other species are known as transgenic. Some transgenic fish have genes from jellyfish that result in fluorescence (that is, they glow in the dark). Although these fish were initially engineered for research purposes in the 1990s, they were sold as pets in the 2000s and can now be found in the wild in creeks in Brazil. A student in a biology seminar who is writing a paper on these fish asserts that their escape from Brazilian fish farms into the wild may have significant negative long-term ecological effects.

Which quotation from a researcher would best support the student’s assertion?

  • “In one site in the wild where transgenic fish were observed, females outnumbered males, while in another the numbers of females and males were equivalent.”

  • “Though some presence of transgenic fish in the wild has been recorded, there are insufficient studies of the impact of those fish on the ecosystems into which they are introduced.”

  • “The ecosystems into which transgenic fish are known to have been introduced may represent a subset of the ecosystems into which the fish have actually been introduced.”

  • “Through interbreeding, transgenic fish might introduce the trait of fluorescence into wild fish populations, making those populations more vulnerable to predators.”

ID: 29f5c8c2 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because this quotation would best support the student’s assertion that the escape of transgenic fish from Brazilian fish farms into the wild may have significant negative long-term ecological effects. The text explains that transgenic fish have DNA that includes genetic material from other species, that some transgenic fish have genes from jellyfish that make them glow in the dark, and that glow-in-the-dark transgenic fish can now be found in the wild in Brazilian creeks. The quotation indicates why the escape of these fish may have negative long-term ecological effects: glow-in-the-dark transgenic fish might introduce fluorescence into wild fish populations by breeding with wild fish, causing wild fish to glow in the dark and thereby allowing predators to prey on them much more easily.

Choice A is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t mention any negative effects of the introduction of fluorescent transgenic fish into the wild. The quotation merely compares the ratio of females to males at two sites in the wild where transgenic fish have been observed. Choice B is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t support the idea that the escape of fluorescent transgenic fish from Brazilian fish farms may have significant negative long-term ecological effects. Rather, the quotation suggests that more research is needed to understand the effects. Choice C is incorrect because this quotation supports the idea that transgenic fish may be present in more ecosystems than has been observed; it doesn’t address whether the presence of fluorescent transgenic fish affects these ecosystems.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 1281dfd5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 1281dfd5
9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0Number of lizard species 30–39 40–49 50–59 60–69 70–79 80–89 90–100Number of Lizard Species by Average Percent of Maximal Speed Used When Pursuing Prey or Escaping PredatorsPercent of maximal speed escaping pursuing
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • escaping
    • pursuing
  • The data for the 7 categories are as follows:
    • 30–39 percent of maximal speed:
      • escaping: 0 species
      • pursuing: 1 species
    • 40–49 percent of maximal speed:
      • escaping: 0 species
      • pursuing: 0 species
    • 50–59 percent of maximal speed:
      • escaping: 2 species
      • pursuing: 1 species
    • 60–69 percent of maximal speed:
      • escaping: 1 species
      • pursuing: 1 species
    • 70–79 percent of maximal speed:
      • escaping: 2 species
      • pursuing: 0 species
    • 80–89 percent of maximal speed:
      • escaping: 3 species
      • pursuing: 1 species
    • 90–100 percent of maximal speed:
      • escaping: 8 species
      • pursuing: 3 species

It may seem that the optimal strategy for an animal pursuing prey or escaping predators is to move at maximal speed, but the energy expense of exploiting full speed capacity can disfavor such a strategy even in escape contexts, as evidenced by the fact that blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the text?

  • most lizard species use about the same percentage of their maximal speed when escaping predation as they do when pursuing prey.

  • multiple lizard species move at an average of less than 90% of their maximal speed while escaping predation.

  • more lizard species use, on average, 90%–100% of their maximal speed while escaping predation than use any other percentage of their maximal speed.

  • at least 4 lizard species use, on average, less than 100% of their maximal speed while pursuing prey.

ID: 1281dfd5 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it describes data from the graph that complete the text’s discussion of lizard species’ use of maximal speed when escaping predators. According to the text, moving at maximal speed (the highest speed possible) requires so much energy that it is not always an effective strategy for animals, even when they are escaping predators. The graph displays data on the average percent of maximal speed used by lizard species while either escaping predators or pursuing prey. The graph categorizes the data for both pursuing and escaping by the number of species using 30%–39% of maximal speed, 40%–49% of maximal speed, 50%–59% of maximal speed, 60%–69% of maximal speed, 70%–79% of maximal speed, 80%–89% of maximal speed, and 90%–100% of maximal speed, respectively. In the graph, there is at least one species in each of the following percent categories for maximal speed while escaping predators: 50%–59%, 60%–69%, 70%–79%, and 80%–89%. Thus, the data in the graph show that multiple lizard species move at an average of less than 90% of their maximal speed while escaping predation.

Choice A is incorrect because the data in the graph isn’t organized in such a way that a comparison of the percentage of maximal speed used when escaping predation with the percentage used when pursuing prey is possible at the level of individual species. Choice C is incorrect. It is true that in the graph, the percent category with the largest number of species using maximal speed while escaping predators is 90%–100% (8 species total). However, these data don’t complete the text, which is concerned instead with how animals are discouraged from using maximal speed even when escaping predators because of the amount of energy required to use it. Choice D is incorrect because these data from the graph pertain to maximal speed while pursuing prey and therefore don’t complete the text’s discussion of lizard species’ use of maximal speed when escaping predators.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID d83c3d54

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: d83c3d54
140,000 120,000 100,000 80,000 60,000 40,000 20,000 0Area (square meters) 1987 1993 2006Characteristics of the Banks of the Provo River Downstream of the Jordanelle DamYear grass cover bare soil forest cover
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • grass cover
    • bare soil
    • forest cover
  • All values are approximate.
  • The data for the 3 categories are as follows:
    • 1987:
      • grass cover: 57,000 square meters
      • bare soil: 65,000 square meters
      • forest cover: 75,000 square meters
    • 1993:
      • grass cover: 95,000 square meters
      • bare soil: 16,000 square meters
      • forest cover: 57,500 square meters
    • 2006: 
      • grass cover: 130,000 square meters
      • bare soil: 35,000 square meters
      • forest cover: 45,000 square meters

The Jordanelle Dam was built on the Provo River in Utah in 1992. Earth scientist Adriana E. Martinez and colleagues tracked changes to the environment on the banks of the river downstream of the dam, including how much grass and forest cover were present. They concluded that the dam changed the flow of the river in ways that benefited grass plants but didn’t benefit trees.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that support Martinez and colleagues’ conclusion?

  • The lowest amount of grass cover was approximately 58,000 square meters, and the highest amount of forest cover was approximately 75,000 square meters.

  • There was more grass cover than forest cover in 1987, and this difference increased dramatically in 1993 and again in 2006.

  • There was less grass cover than bare soil in 1987 but more grass cover than bare soil in 1993 and 2006, whereas there was more forest cover than bare soil in all three years.

  • Grass cover increased from 1987 to 1993 and from 1993 to 2006, whereas forest cover decreased in those periods.

ID: d83c3d54 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it describes data from the graph that support Martinez and colleagues’ conclusion that the Jordanelle Dam led to changes that benefited grass plants but not trees. The graph shows characteristics of the banks of the Provo River downstream of the Jordanelle Dam in three different years—1987, 1993, and 2006. Specifically, the graph shows the amount of grass cover, bare soil, and forest cover in those years. The text indicates that the Jordanelle Dam was built in 1992, meaning that the data from the graph for 1987 reflect conditions before the dam was built, whereas the data for 1993 and 2006 reflect conditions after the dam was built. The data show that grass cover increased substantially from 1987 to 1993 and again from 1993 to 2006. The data also show that forest cover declined over those periods. Together, these data support Martinez and colleagues’ conclusion that the dam was beneficial for grass plants but not for trees—grass cover increased significantly after the dam was built, while forest cover declined. 

Choice A is incorrect. Although it is true that, in the graph, the lowest value for grass cover is approximately 58,000 square meters and the highest value for forest cover is approximately 75,000 square meters, both values are from 1987, before the Jordanelle Dam was built in 1992. Therefore, this information alone cannot support Martinez and colleagues’ conclusion about changes in grass and tree cover following the construction of the dam. Choice B is incorrect because it presents an inaccurate description of data from the graph. The graph shows that there was more forest cover than grass cover in 1987, not that there was more grass cover than forest cover that year. Choice C is incorrect because, while it accurately reflects data from the graph when it compares grass cover and forest cover to bare soil, these data alone cannot support Martinez and colleagues’ conclusion that the dam led to changes that benefited grass plants but not trees. An increase in grass cover relative to bare soil following the construction of the dam might indicate that the dam benefited grass plants, but the fact that there was more forest cover than bare soil in all three years doesn’t indicate that the dam failed to benefit trees. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID ca5a3fb4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: ca5a3fb4

The practice of logging (cutting down trees for commercial and other uses) is often thought to be at odds with forest conservation (the work of preserving forests). However, a massive study in forest management and preservation spanning 700,000 hectares in Oregon’s Malheur National Forest calls that view into question. So far, results of the study suggest that forest plots that have undergone limited logging (the careful removal of a controlled number of trees) may be more robust than plots that haven’t been logged at all. These results, in turn, suggest that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • logging may be useful for maintaining healthy forests, provided it is limited.

  • other forest management strategies are more effective than limited logging.

  • as time passes, it will be difficult to know whether limited logging has any benefits.

  • the best way to support forest health may be to leave large forests entirely untouched.

ID: ca5a3fb4 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the potential effects of logging on forest conservation. The text begins by stating that logging practices are often thought of as being contrary to forest conservation efforts. Then, the text presents the results of a research study examining the effect of limited logging practices on specific forest plots, finding that the plots with limited logging may be "more robust" (healthier) than the plots that hadn’t been logged at all. Given these results, it follows that logging may be a useful practice for maintaining healthy forests if it is practiced in a limited way.

Choice B is incorrect because the study referenced in the text only provides information on limited logging as a potential forest management strategy. There is no information in the text about how other forest management strategies support forest conservation efforts. Therefore, the text does not support the assertion that other forest management strategies are more successful than limited logging. Choice C is incorrect because the text presents a research study with findings that specific plots of forest with limited logging may be more robust than the forest plots that were not logged. Rather than suggesting that it is hard to know whether limited logging might be beneficial, the text suggests that the practice could be useful in forest conservation efforts. Choice D is incorrect. The text discusses the results of a research study that compares the health of forest plots with limited logging to forest plots that were not logged. It does not take a position on the best way to support forest health but rather presents a research study with findings that question conventionally held thoughts regarding the practice of logging.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 98d0a5d7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 98d0a5d7

Almost all works of fiction contain references to the progression of time, including the time of day when events in a story take place. In a 2020 study, Allen Kim, Charuta Pethe, and Steven Skiena claim that an observable pattern in such references reflects a shift in human behavior prompted by the spread of electric lighting in the late nineteenth century. The researchers drew this conclusion from an analysis of more than 50,000 novels spanning many centuries and cultures, using software to recognize and tally both specific time references—that is, clock phrases, such as 7 a.m. or 2:30 p.m.—and implied ones, such as mentions of meals typically associated with a particular time of day.

Which finding from the study, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ conclusion?

  • Novels published after the year 1800 include the clock phrase 10 a.m. less often than novels published before the year 1800 do.

  • Novels published after 1880 contain significantly more references to activities occurring after 10 p.m. than do novels from earlier periods.

  • Among novels published in the nineteenth century, implied time references become steadily more common than clock phrases as publication dates approach 1900.

  • The time references of noon (12 p.m.) and midnight (12 a.m.) are used with roughly the same frequency in the novels.

ID: 98d0a5d7 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ conclusion that an observable pattern in time references in novels reflects a shift in human behavior prompted by the spread of electric lighting in the late nineteenth century. If novels published after 1880 contain significantly more references to activities occurring after 10 p.m. than novels from earlier periods do, this would suggest a change in human behavior and daily routines enabled by the availability of electric lighting. Before electric lighting—which provided illumination more easily than other available forms of light—many activities ceased after nightfall, so references to late-night activities would be less common in earlier novels. An increase in such references after 1880 would align with the researchers’ conclusion, reflecting an increase in late-night activities made possible by electric lighting.

Choice A is incorrect because a decrease in references to 10 a.m. after the year 1800 would not support the researchers’ conclusion involving a shift in human behavior prompted by the spread of electric lighting toward the end of the 1800s. The time of 10 a.m. is in the morning and, in most places, characterized by daylight, so a change in references to that time would not be clearly linked to the impact of electric lighting. Choice C is incorrect because while an increase in implied time references relative to clock phrases in nineteenth-century novels could suggest a change in writing style or conventions, it does not directly support the conclusion involving a shift in human behavior prompted by the spread of electric lighting. The text indicates that the researchers’ conclusion is based on the content of the time references themselves, not the phrasing used. Choice D is incorrect. If references to noon and midnight are used with roughly the same frequency in all the novels analyzed by the researchers, this would reflect a lack of change in human behavior with regard to time and therefore would not support the researchers’ conclusion involving a shift in human behavior that occurred in response to the spread of electric lighting.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID cf956802

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: cf956802

When fashion designer Lloyd Henri Kiva New opened his store in Scottsdale, Arizona, in 1945, he quickly became known for creating delicately crafted leather goods, like belts and hats. He was perhaps most renowned for his colorful handbags, which he made by hand using a long and painstaking process. As he gained more customers, New began using sewing machines and other tools to help him produce bags more efficiently, though he continued to handcraft the crucial details that made each bag unique.

Based on the text, what would have been the most likely consequence if New had not begun using sewing machines?

  • He would have been unable to ensure that each bag included unique, handcrafted details.

  • He would have struggled to meet the increasing demand for his bags.

  • He would have had to individually design each bag he produced.

  • He would not have been able to generate as much interest in his bags.

ID: cf956802 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents the most likely consequence if New had not begun using sewing machines. The text states that New gained new customers and that sewing machines allowed him to make bags more efficiently, or in less time than he could when sewing by hand. It’s reasonable to conclude that if New hadn’t reduced the time it took to make each bag by starting to use sewing machines, it would have been hard for him to keep up with the increased demand.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that New added unique, handcrafted details to his bags before he started using sewing machines and continued to do so after he started using them. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that individually designing each bag would have been a consequence of not using sewing machines, since New was already designing unique details for each bag before he started using sewing machines and continued to do so after he started using them. Choice D is incorrect because the text indicates that people were already interested in New’s bags before he started using sewing machines. Rather than allowing New to generate more interest in his bags, sewing machines helped New keep up with the interest that had already grown.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 95388117

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 95388117

Land Area Covered by Native Flowering Plants at a Site in Antarctica

Species Area covered in 2009 (in square meters) Area covered in 2018 (in square meters) Percent increase in area covered from 2009 to 2018
Deschampsia antarctica 1,230 1,576 28%
Colobanthus quitensis 6.9 10.7 55%

The only flowering plant species native to Antarctica, Colobanthus quitensis and Deschampsia antarctica grow in places where the earth remains free of ice for much of the year. Botanist Niccoletta Cannone wondered how the warming of Antarctica’s climate in recent years had affected these species, so she visited a site in Antarctica, first in 2009 and later in 2018, to count the number of plants growing there. Cannone found that the area of land covered by the two species had significantly expanded during the nine-year period. While both species likely benefited from warming temperatures, Colobanthus quitensis blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the comparison?

  • suppressed the growth of Deschampsia antarctica, which covered a smaller area of land in 2018 than it had in 2009.

  • saw a greater expansion than Deschampsia antarctica did, increasing the area of land it covered by more than half.

  • showed a greater increase in the average size of individual plants than Deschampsia antarctica did.

  • covered land newly freed from ice at a rate 55% faster than that of Deschampsia antarctica.

ID: 95388117 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the comparison of how Colobanthus quitensis benefited from warming temperatures with how Deschampsia antarctica benefited from them. The table shows the land area covered by these two plant species at a site in Antarctica. According to the table, Colobanthus quitensis increased the area it covered by 55% from 2009 to 2018, whereas Deschampsia antarctica increased the area it covered by 28% during the same period. It therefore follows that Colobanthus quitensis saw a greater expansion than Deschampsia antarctica did and that Colobanthus quitensis increased the area of land it covered by more than half.

Choice A is incorrect because according to the table, Deschampsia antarctica covered 1,230 square meters of land in 2009 and 1,576 square meters of land in 2018. Deschampsia antarctica therefore covered a larger, not a smaller, area of land in 2018 than in 2009. Moreover, there’s no information in the text or the table that suggests that one species of the plant suppressed the other. Choice C is incorrect because it inaccurately describes the data in the table. The table shows the land area covered by Colobanthus quitensis and Deschampsia antarctica and the percent increase in area covered by the two species from 2009 to 2018, not the average size of individual plants belonging to the two species. The data in the table therefore can’t be used to make a comparison of the increase in individual plants’ average size. Choice D is incorrect because the table shows the land area covered by Colobanthus quitensis and Deschampsia antarctica and the percent increase in area covered by the two species from 2009 to 2018, not the rate at which the species increased the area they covered. Moreover, there’s nothing in the table or the text that suggests that the areas covered by the two species were newly freed from ice.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 403fb4e4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 403fb4e4
60 55 50 45 40 35 30 25 20 15 10 5 0Female farmersas a percentage of total north Ondo central Ondo south OndoPercentage of Ondo State Small-Scale Farmers Who Are Female, by Main Crop GrownOndo State region cereals root crops non–root vegetables
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • cereals
    • root crops
    • non–root vegetables
  • The data for the 3 categories are as follows:
    • north Ondo:
      • cereals: 30.4%
      • root crops: 16.73%
      • non–root vegetables: 58.69%
    • central Ondo:
      • cereals: 36.9%
      • root crops: 19.93%
      • non–root vegetables: 45.1%
    • south Ondo:
      • cereals: 35.9%
      • root crops: 18.78%
      • non–root vegetables: 53.27%

Geographer Adebayo Oluwole Eludoyin and his colleagues surveyed small-scale farmers in three locations in Ondo State, Nigeria—which has mountainous terrain in the north, an urbanized center, and coastal terrain in the south—to learn more about their practices, like the types of crops they mainly cultivated. In some regions, female farmers were found to be especially prominent in the cultivation of specific types of crops and even constituted the majority of farmers who cultivated those crops; for instance, blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the example?

  • most of the farmers who mainly cultivated cereals and most of the farmers who mainly cultivated non–root vegetables in south Ondo were women. 

  • more women in central Ondo mainly cultivated root crops than mainly cultivated cereals.

  • most of the farmers who mainly cultivated non–root vegetables in north and south Ondo were women.  

  • a relatively equal proportion of women across the three regions of Ondo mainly cultivated cereals. 

ID: 403fb4e4 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it uses data from the graph to effectively complete the example of Eludoyin and his colleagues’ findings concerning female farmers in some regions of Ondo State, Nigeria. The graph presents values for the percentage of Ondo State small-scale farmers who are female, by type of crop and region. The graph shows that of the farmers mainly cultivating non-root vegetables, approximately 57% in north Ondo and approximately 54% in south Ondo are female; in other words, most of those farmers are female, which exemplifies the idea that female farmers make up the majority (more than half) of the farmers cultivating specific types of crops in some regions.

Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately cites data from the graph: the graph shows that in south Ondo, most of the farmers mainly cultivating non-root vegetables are women (approximately 54%), but that only about 35% (less than half) of the farmers mainly cultivating cereals are women. Choice B is incorrect because it inaccurately cites data from the graph: the graph shows that more women in central Ondo mainly cultivate cereals than mainly cultivate root crops (approximately 36% and 20%, respectively). Additionally, it doesn’t effectively complete the example because the graph shows that female farmers don’t make up the majority (more than half) of the farmers for any type of crop in central Ondo. Choice D is incorrect because it doesn’t effectively complete the example; it simply states that a relatively equal proportion of women across the three regions mainly cultivate cereals, which doesn’t address the value for that proportion and thus doesn’t show that a majority (more than half) of the farmers cultivating certain crops are female.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 3091f805

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 3091f805

Ochre sea stars live in tidal pools along the shoreline of the Pacific Ocean. At night, they move to higher shore levels in search of prey. But scientists Corey Garza and Carlos Robles noticed that ochre sea stars stayed at lower levels at night after heavy rains. Garza and Robles hypothesized that a layer of fresh water formed by rainfall was a barrier to the sea stars. To test their hypothesis, the scientists did an experiment. They placed some sea stars in a climbable tank of seawater and other sea stars in a similar tank of seawater with a layer of fresh water on top. Then, the scientists watched the sea stars’ behavior at night. 

Which finding from the experiment, if true, would most directly support Garza and Robles’s hypothesis?

  • None of the sea stars climbed to the tops of the tanks, but sea stars in the tank with only seawater moved around the bottom of the tank more than sea stars in the other tank did.

  • Sea stars in the tank with only seawater climbed to the top of the tank, but sea stars in the other tank stopped climbing just below the layer of fresh water.

  • Both groups of sea stars climbed to the tops of the tanks, but sea stars in the tank with only seawater climbed more slowly than sea stars in the other tank did.

  • Sea stars in the tank with only seawater mostly stayed near the bottom of the tank, but sea stars in the other tank climbed into the layer of fresh water.

ID: 3091f805 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support Garza and Robles’s hypothesis that a layer of fresh water forms a barrier to ochre sea stars. The text explains that the sea stars tend to move to higher shore levels at night in search of prey, but after a heavy rain, the sea stars stay at lower shore levels. Garza and Robles hypothesize that rainfall results in a layer of fresh water that the sea stars don’t cross. To determine whether fresh water forms a barrier to sea stars, Garza and Robles observed how sea stars behaved in a tank of only seawater and in a tank of seawater with a layer of fresh water on top. If the sea stars climbed to the top of the tank with only seawater but stopped climbing just below the layer of fresh water in the other tank, that would suggest that fresh water does indeed serve as a barrier to the sea stars, thereby supporting Garza and Robles’s hypothesis.

Choice A is incorrect because finding that sea stars in the tank with only seawater moved around the bottom of the tank more than sea stars in the other tank did but that none of the stars in either tank climbed to the top would be irrelevant to Garza and Robles’s hypothesis. Such a finding would reveal nothing about whether fresh water serves as a barrier to sea stars. Choice C is incorrect because finding that sea stars climbed to the top of both tanks would weaken, not support, Garza and Robles’s hypothesis, since it would indicate that the layer of fresh water wasn’t a barrier to the sea stars. Choice D is incorrect because finding that sea stars in the tank with only seawater mostly stayed near the bottom of the tank but sea stars in the other tank climbed into the layer of fresh water wouldn’t support Garza and Robles’s hypothesis. Instead, such a finding would suggest that the layer of fresh water wasn’t a barrier to the sea stars, thereby weakening Garza and Robles’s hypothesis.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 94c54577

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 94c54577

While attending school in New York City in the 1980s, Okwui Enwezor encountered few works by African artists in exhibitions, despite New York’s reputation as one of the best places to view contemporary art from around the world. According to an arts journalist, later in his career as a renowned curator and art historian, Enwezor sought to remedy this deficiency, not by focusing solely on modern African artists, but by showing how their work fits into the larger context of global modern art and art history.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the journalist’s claim?

  • As curator of the Haus der Kunst in Munich, Germany, Enwezor organized a retrospective of Ghanaian sculptor El Anatsui’s work entitled El Anatsui: Triumphant Scale, one of the largest art exhibitions devoted to a Black artist in Europe’s history. 

  • In the exhibition Postwar: Art Between the Pacific and the Atlantic, 1945–1965, Enwezor and cocurator Katy Siegel brought works by African artists such as Malangatana Ngwenya together with pieces by major figures from other countries, like US artist Andy Warhol and Mexico’s David Siqueiros.

  • Enwezor’s work as curator of the 2001 exhibition The Short Century: Independence and Liberation Movements in Africa, 1945–1994 showed how African movements for independence from European colonial powers following the Second World War profoundly influenced work by African artists of the period, such as Kamala Ibrahim Ishaq and Thomas Mukarobgwa.

  • Enwezor organized the exhibition In/sight: African Photographers, 1940 to the Present not to emphasize a particular aesthetic trend but to demonstrate the broad range of ways in which African artists have approached the medium of photography.

ID: 94c54577 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly support the arts journalist’s claim about Enwezor’s work as a curator and art historian. In the text, the arts journalist asserts that Enwezor wished not just to focus on modern African artists but also to show “how their work fits into the larger context of global modern art and art history,” or how their work relates to artistic developments and work by other artists elsewhere in the world. The description of Postwar: Art Between the Pacific and the Atlantic, 1945–1965 indicates that Enwezor and Siegel’s exhibition brought works by African artists together with works by artists from other countries, thus supporting the arts journalist’s claim that Enwezor sought to show works by African artists in a context of global modern art and art history.

Choice A is incorrect because it describes a retrospective that wouldn’t support the arts journalist’s claim that Enwezor wanted to show how works by modern African artists fit into the larger context of global modern art and art history. The description of El Anatsui: Triumphant Scale indicates that the retrospective focused only on the work of a single African artist, El Anatsui. The description doesn’t suggest that the exhibition showed how El Anatsui’s works fit into a global artistic context. Choice C is incorrect because it describes an exhibition that wouldn’t support the arts journalist’s claim that Enwezor wanted to show how works by modern African artists relate to the larger context of global modern art and art history. The description of The Short Century: Independence and Liberation Movements in Africa, 1945–1994 indicates that the exhibition showed how African artists were influenced by movements for independence from European colonial powers following the Second World War. Although this suggests that Enwezor intended the exhibition to place works by African artists in a political context, it doesn’t indicate that the works were placed in a global artistic context. Choice D is incorrect because it describes an exhibition that wouldn’t support the arts journalist’s claim that Enwezor wanted to show how works by modern African artists relate to the larger context of global modern art and art history. The description of In/sight: African Photographers, 1940 to the Present indicates that the exhibition was intended to reveal the broad range of approaches taken by African photographers, not that the exhibition showed how photography by African artists fits into a global artistic context.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID ce4448b7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: ce4448b7

Researchers recently found that disruptions to an enjoyable experience, like a short series of advertisements during a television show, often increase viewers’ reported enjoyment. Suspecting that disruptions to an unpleasant experience would have the opposite effect, the researchers had participants listen to construction noise for 30 minutes and anticipated that those whose listening experience was frequently interrupted with short breaks of silence would thus blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • find the disruptions more irritating as time went on. 

  • rate the listening experience as more negative than those whose listening experience was uninterrupted.

  • rate the experience of listening to construction noise as lasting for less time than it actually lasted.

  • perceive the volume of the construction noise as growing softer over time.

ID: ce4448b7 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. It most logically completes the text. The text tells us that disruptions to an enjoyable experience increase viewers’ enjoyment. It also says that researchers suspect the opposite is true for disruptions to an unpleasant experience. Thus, we can infer that the researchers expect to find that the interrupted unpleasant experience was worse for listeners than the uninterrupted unpleasant experience.  

Choice A is incorrect. It doesn’t logically complete the text. The text never makes any claims about how irritating the disruptions themselves are perceived to be. Rather, the text says that pleasant experiences are perceived as more enjoyable with interruptions, and that the opposite is suspected to be true of unpleasant experiences. Choice C is incorrect. It doesn’t logically complete the text. The text never makes any claims about how long any experience is perceived to be. Rather, the text says that pleasant experiences are perceived as more enjoyable with interruptions, and that the opposite is suspected to be true of unpleasant experiences. Choice D is incorrect. It doesn’t logically complete the text. The text never makes any claims about how interruptions affect the perceived volume of the unpleasant or pleasant experience. Rather, the text says that pleasant experiences are perceived as more enjoyable with interruptions, and that the opposite is suspected to be true of unpleasant experiences. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 0147b080

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 0147b080

Pyramids in Egypt and the Americas

Pyramid Country Height (meters) Age (years before present)
The Great Pyramid Mexico 33 2,050 to 2,400
The Pyramid of Djoser Egypt 60 4,600 to 4,700
The Pyramid of Sahure Egypt 47 4,400 to 4,500
El Castillo Belize 40 1,100 to 1,400

A student is writing an essay about four pyramids for a history class and wants to note how long ago each pyramid was built and how tall each pyramid is. Consulting the table, the student finds that el Castillo was built 1,100 to 1,400 years ago and is  blank 

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the text?

  • 33 meters tall.

  • 47 meters tall.

  • 40 meters tall.

  • 60 meters tall.

ID: 0147b080 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the text about the el Castillo pyramid. The table presents information for the location, height, and age of four pyramids, and the task is to use the data from the table to complete the text by choosing the correct height for el Castillo, which the table shows is 40 meters.

Choice A is incorrect because, according to the table, el Castillo is 40 meters tall, not 33 meters, which is the height of the Great Pyramid in Mexico. Choice B is incorrect because, according to the table, el Castillo is 40 meters tall, not 47 meters, which is the height of the Pyramid of Sahure in Egypt. Choice D is incorrect because, according to the table, el Castillo is 40 meters tall, not 60 meters, which is the height of the Pyramid of Djoser in Egypt.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 60c6b64d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 60c6b64d

Male túngara frogs make complex calls to attract mates, but their calls also attract frog-biting midges, insects that feed on the frogs’ blood. Researchers Ximena Bernal and Priyanka de Silva wondered if the calls alone are sufficient for midges to locate the frogs or if midges use carbon dioxide emitted by frogs as an additional cue to their prey’s whereabouts, like mosquitoes do. In an experiment, the researchers placed two midge traps in a túngara frog breeding area. One trap played recordings of túngara frog calls and the other released carbon dioxide along with playing the calls. Bernal and de Silva concluded that carbon dioxide does not serve as an additional cue to frog-biting midges.

Which finding from the experiment, if true, would most directly support Bernal and de Silva’s conclusion?

  • Only a small number of midges were found in the traps, though the majority were found in the trap that played calls and released carbon dioxide.

  • Midges entered the trap that released carbon dioxide and played calls only during or immediately after periods of carbon dioxide release. 

  • More midges were found in the trap that only played calls than in the trap that played calls and released carbon dioxide. 

  • The trap that released carbon dioxide and played calls attracted few midges when carbon dioxide concentrations were low but attracted many midges when carbon dioxide concentrations were high.

ID: 60c6b64d Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ conclusion that carbon dioxide does not serve as an additional cue to frog-biting midges regarding the location of male túngara frogs. The text begins by stating that the mating call of the male túngara frogs also attracts frog-biting midges, which prey on the frogs’ blood. Researchers Bernal and de Silva were curious if the mating calls were sufficient signals for the midges to locate the frogs or if midges also used carbon dioxide emitted by the frogs to locate their prey. The text then details the procedure the researchers used to investigate their question and summarizes their conclusion—that carbon dioxide does not serve as an additional cue to the midges. Thus, if more midges were found in the researchers’ trap that only played calls than in the trap that played calls and released carbon dioxide, it follows that the frog calls seem sufficient without the carbon dioxide cue. This finding supports the researchers’ conclusion that carbon dioxide does not serve as an additional cue to frog-biting midges.

Choice A is incorrect because finding that the majority of frog-biting midges were found in the traps that both played the mating call and released carbon dioxide would present evidence that directly refutes the researchers’ conclusion—that carbon dioxide does not serve as an additional cue to the frog-biting midges regarding the location of túngara frogs. Choice B is incorrect because if the midges entered the trap that played calls and released carbon dioxide only during or immediately after carbon dioxide was released, that would suggest that the midges used the carbon dioxide as a way to locate their prey, a finding that would contradict the researchers’ conclusion that carbon dioxide was not an additional cue to the midges. Choice D is incorrect because a trap attracting larger numbers of midges with high carbon dioxide concentrations than a trap with low carbon dioxide concentrations suggests that carbon dioxide might serve as an additional cue to the midges as to the location on the frogs, a finding contrary to the researchers’ conclusion.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 1f3be847

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 1f3be847

“Loon Point” is a 1912 poem by Amy Lowell. In the poem, which presents a nighttime scene on a body of water, Lowell describes an element of nature as an active participant in the experience, writing, blank

Which quotation from “Loon Point” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “Through the water the moon writes her legends / In light, on the smooth, wet sand.”

  • “Softly the water ripples / Against the canoe’s curving side.”

  • “Or like the snow-white petals / Which drop from an overblown rose.”

  • “But the moon in her wayward beauty / Is ever and always the same.”

ID: 1f3be847 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively illustrates the claim that Lowell describes an element of nature as an active participant in the experience of a nighttime scene on a body of water. The quotation presents the image of the moon shining on a body of water. However, instead of describing the moon in passive terms or simply stating that it reflects through the water and onto the sandy shore, the quotation portrays the moon as being engaged in the humanlike action of writing a legend. In other words, the moon is participating actively in the nighttime scene.

Choice B is incorrect. Although the quotation describes a nighttime scene on a body of water, the element of nature in these lines—the waves—isn’t portrayed as an active participant in an experience; instead, the waves merely ripple softly against a canoe, as waves would normally do. Choice C is incorrect because the quotation doesn’t present a nighttime scene on a body of water; instead, it describes petals falling from a rose. Choice D is incorrect. Although the quotation presents an image of an element of nature—the moon—it doesn’t mention a body of water; moreover, it portrays the moon not as an active participant in a scene but instead as static or unchanging (“ever and always the same”).

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 040583a5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 040583a5
12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0Time (days) 14°C 16°C 18°C 20°CBanana Ripening Time at Different Temperatures with and without Ethylene TreatmentTemperature (degrees Celsius) ethylene no ethylene
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • ethylene
    • no ethylene
  • All data are approximate.
  • The Time data for the 4 categories are as follows:
    • 14 degrees Celsius:
      • ethylene: 8 days
      • no ethylene: 11 days
    • 16 degrees Celsius:
      • ethylene: 6 days
      • no ethylene: 9.5 days
    • 18 degrees Celsius:
      • ethylene: 5.5 days
      • no ethylene: 8.5 days
    • 20 degrees Celsius:
      • ethylene: 4 days
      • no ethylene: 5.5 days

A student is conducting an experiment to test the effect of temperature and ethylene treatment on the ripening speed of bananas. The student treated some bananas with ethylene while leaving others untreated, then allowed both types of bananas to ripen at one of four different temperatures. Comparing the data for bananas with and without ethylene, the student concluded that blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the student’s conclusion?

  • 20°C is the ideal temperature at which to store bananas to slow ripening time. 

  • for those bananas that were not treated with ethylene, differences in temperature were not associated with absolute differences in ripening time.

  • bananas treated with ethylene ripen faster at 14°C and 16°C than at 18°C and 20°C.

  • ethylene was associated with a greater absolute change in ripening time at 14°C, 16°C, and 18°C than at 20°C.

ID: 040583a5 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the student’s conclusion about banana ripening time with and without ethylene at different temperatures. The graph shows that at 20°C, the gap between the two bars showing ripening times for ethylene-treated bananas and untreated bananas crosses fewer than 2 gridlines (from about 4 days for ethylene-treated bananas to about 5.5 days for untreated bananas). Meanwhile, the graph shows that at 14°C, 16°C, and 18°C, the gap between the bars crosses more than 2 gridlines (from about 8 days for treated bananas to about 11 days for untreated bananas at 14°C; from about 6 days for treated bananas to about 9.5 days for untreated bananas at 16°C; and from about 5.5 days for treated bananas to about 8.5 days for untreated bananas at 18°C). Since the gap between the bars at each of these temperatures crosses more than 2 gridlines, and since each of these gaps is larger than the gap between the bars at 20°C, it can be concluded that ethylene was associated with a greater absolute change in ripening time at 14°C, 16°C, and 18°C than at 20°C.

Choice A is incorrect because the graph shows that ethylene-treated bananas stored at 20°C ripen more quickly than ethylene-treated bananas stored at the other temperatures do (about 4 days at 20°C vs. about 5.5, 6, and 8 days at 18°C, 16°C, and 14°C, respectively) and that untreated bananas stored at 20°C ripen more quickly than untreated bananas stored at the other temperatures do (about 5.5 days at 20°C vs. about 8.5, 9.5, and 11 days at 18°C, 16°C, and 14°C, respectively). The information in the graph therefore indicates that storing bananas at 20°C speeds up ripening time relative to storing bananas at the other temperatures shown, not that this storage temperature slows ripening time. Choice B is incorrect because the graph shows that as temperature increases, the ripening time of untreated bananas decreases, from about 11 days at 14°C to about 5.5 days at 20°C, with no exceptions to this trend. The graph therefore shows that differences in temperature were associated with absolute differences in ripening time, not that there was no association between differences in temperature and differences in ripening time. Choice C is incorrect because the graph shows that ripening times of ethylene-treated bananas at 14°C and 16°C were about 8 and 6 days, respectively, which is greater than, not less than, ripening times of ethylene-treated bananas at 18°C and 20°C, which were about 5.5 and 4 days, respectively. In other words, bananas treated with ethylene ripen more slowly, not faster, at 14°C and 16°C than at 18°C and 20°C.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 7a1877be

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 7a1877be

Nucleobase Concentrations from Murchison Meteorite and Soil Samples in Parts per Billion

Nucleobase Murchison meteorite sample 1 Murchison meteorite sample 2 Murchison soil sample
Isoguanine 0.5 0.04 not detected
Purine 0.2 0.02 not detected
Xanthine 39 3 1
Adenine 15 1 40
Hypoxanthine 24 1 2

Employing high-performance liquid chromatography—a process that uses pressurized water to separate material into its component molecules—astrochemist Yashiro Oba and colleagues analyzed two samples of the Murchison meteorite that landed in Australia as well as soil from the landing zone of the meteorite to determine the concentrations of various organic molecules. By comparing the relative concentrations of types of molecules known as nucleobases in the Murchison meteorite with those in the soil, the team concluded that there is evidence that the nucleobases in the Murchison meteorite formed in space and are not the result of contamination on Earth.

Which choice best describes data from the table that support the team’s conclusion?

  • Isoguanine and purine were detected in both meteorite samples but not in the soil sample.

  • Adenine and xanthine were detected in both of the meteorite samples and in the soil sample.

  • Hypoxanthine and purine were detected in both the Murchison meteorite sample 2 and in the soil sample.

  • Isoguanine and hypoxanthine were detected in the Murchison meteorite sample 1 but not in sample 2.

ID: 7a1877be Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The researchers concluded that the meteorite’s nucleobases weren’t the result of soil contamination. Presence of nucleobases in the meteorite and not in soil provides evidence that those nucleobases likely didn’t come from the soil.

Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t justify the conclusion. The researchers concluded that the meteorite’s nucleobases weren’t the result of soil contamination. If the nucleobases are present in both the soil and meteorite, then it’s possible that these nucleobases came from the soil. Choice C is incorrect. This choice misreads the table. Purine was not detected in the soil sample. Choice D is incorrect. This choice misreads the table. Both isoguanine and hypoxanthine were detected in both Murchison meteorite samples.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 11a9f635

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 11a9f635

Paleontologists searching for signs of ancient life have found many fossilized specimens of prehistoric human ancestors, including several from the Pleistocene era discovered in a geological formation in the Minatogawa quarry in Japan. However, to study the emergence of the earliest multicellular organisms to appear on Earth, researchers must turn elsewhere, such as to the Ediacaran geological formation at Mistaken Point in Canada. A UNESCO World Heritage Site, the 146-hectare reserve contains more than 10,000 fossils that together document a critical moment in evolutionary history.

What does the text indicate about the geological formation at Mistaken Point? 

  • It holds a greater number of fossils but from a smaller variety of species than the formation in the Minatogawa quarry does.

  • It has provided evidence that the earliest human species may have emerged before the Pleistocene era.

  • It is widely considered by paleontologists to be the most valuable source of information about prehistoric life forms.

  • It contains specimens from an older time period than those found in the formation in the Minatogawa quarry.

ID: 11a9f635 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The text says that the formation at Mistaken Point contains fossils of “the earliest multicellular organisms,” which implies that these fossils are from an older time period than the fossils of “prehistoric human ancestors” found in the Minatogawa quarry.

Choice A is incorrect. The text says that the formation at Mistake Point contains “more than 10,000 fossils,” but it doesn’t compare this number to the number of fossils in the Minatogawa quarry. It also doesn’t say anything about the variety of species in either formation. Choice B is incorrect. The text says that the formation at Mistaken Point contains fossils of “the earliest multicellular organisms,” but it never says that the site contains early human fossils too. Rather, the early human fossils mentioned in the text were found in the formation at Minatogawa quarry. Choice C is incorrect. The text says that the fossils at Mistaken Point “document a critical moment in evolutionary history,” but it never says that Mistaken Point is the most valuable source of information about prehistoric life forms.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 2312021b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 2312021b

In a study by Mika R. Moran, Daniel A. Rodriguez, and colleagues, residents of Quito, Ecuador, and Lima, Peru, were surveyed about parks in their cities. Of the 618 respondents from Quito, 82.9% indicated that they use the city’s parks, and of the 663 respondents from Lima, 72.7% indicated using city parks. Given that the percentage of Quito respondents who reported living within a 10-minute walk of a park was much lower than that reported by Lima respondents, greater proximity alone can’t explain the difference in park use.

The text makes which point about the difference between the proportions of Quito residents and Lima residents using parks?

  • It was much larger than the researchers conducting the study expected.

  • It is caused by something other than the parks’ proximity to city residents.

  • It could be due to inaccuracies in the survey results.

  • It was calculated using sources that predate the survey. 

ID: 2312021b Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a statement about the difference between the proportions of Quito residents and Lima residents using parks that is supported by the text. The text states that 82.9% of surveyed Quito residents and 72.7% of surveyed Lima residents reported using their city’s parks. The text then notes that compared to Lima respondents, a much smaller percentage of Quito respondents said they live within a 10-minute walk of a park. The text concludes that because a greater proportion of Quito respondents used parks despite generally living farther from them than Lima respondents did, "greater proximity"—being closer to a park—"can’t explain the difference in park use." That is, the text makes the point that the difference between the proportions of Quito residents and Lima residents using parks is caused by something other than the distance of the parks from city residents.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t address whether the researchers had expected a particular result and doesn’t indicate that they were surprised by the difference in park usage between the two cities’ residents. The text simply presents the survey findings without stating the researchers’ expectations. Choice C is incorrect because the text gives no indication that there might be inaccuracies in the survey results; the text presents the findings as factual information and uses them as the basis for a conclusion that a certain factor doesn’t explain differences in park usage between Quito and Lima residents. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention any sources that predate the survey or suggest that the difference in proportions was calculated using such sources. According to the text, the information about park usage came directly from the survey of residents in Quito and Lima.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 57485f5e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 57485f5e

The following text is adapted from Johanna Spyri’s 1881 novel Heidi (translated by Elisabeth Stork in 1915). Eight-year-old Heidi and her friend’s grandmother are looking at some illustrated books.

Heidi had come and was looking with wondering eyes at the splendid pictures in the large books, that Grandmama was showing her. Suddenly she screamed aloud, for there on the picture she saw a peaceful flock grazing on a green pasture. In the middle a shepherd was standing, leaning on his crook. The setting sun was shedding a golden light over everything. With glowing eyes Heidi devoured the scene.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Heidi is upset until she sees a serene image of a pasture in one of Grandmama’s books.

  • Heidi is delighted and fascinated by an image she sees in one of Grandmama’s books.

  • Heidi is initially frightened by an image in one of Grandmama’s books but quickly comes to appreciate its beauty.

  • Heidi is inspecting an image in one of Grandmama’s books because she has never seen a shepherd with his sheep before.

ID: 57485f5e Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most effectively states the main idea of the text, which is that Heidi is delighted and fascinated by an image she sees in one of Grandmama’s books. In the text, Heidi screams upon first seeing the picture of the green pasture. In another context, such a reaction might suggest fear, but here the reaction is followed by descriptions of an image that’s peaceful rather than scary. The text goes on to describe Heidi’s eyes as “glowing” and states that she “devoured the scene,” suggesting that the image delights and fascinates her so much that she wants to examine every detail. Together, these descriptions suggest that Heidi is thrilled and intrigued by the image in the book.

Choice A is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that Heidi is upset before seeing the peaceful image of the green pasture. Before Heidi sees that image, the text describes her as “looking with wondering eyes at the splendid pictures” in the book, suggesting that Heidi is intrigued, not that she’s unhappy. Choice C is incorrect. Although Heidi screams upon first seeing the image, the text’s description of the image and Heidi’s other reactions to it suggest that she is screaming with delight, not fear. The text describes the images in the book as “splendid” and the particular image that causes her to scream as peaceful rather than frightening. It also describes Heidi’s eyes as “glowing” and states that she “devoured the scene,” suggesting that the image of the green pasture delights and fascinates her so much that she wants to examine every detail. Choice D is incorrect because it’s unclear from the text whether Heidi has ever seen a shepherd with his sheep before. The text merely suggests that she is delighted and fascinated by the image of the shepherd and his sheep.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID a68fd3e7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: a68fd3e7

Many of William Shakespeare’s tragedies address broad themes that still appeal to today’s audiences. For instance, Romeo and Juliet, which is set in the Italy of Shakespeare’s time, tackles the themes of parents versus children and love versus hate, and the play continues to be read and produced widely around the world. But understanding Shakespeare’s so-called history plays can require a knowledge of several centuries of English history. Consequently, blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • many theatergoers and readers today are likely to find Shakespeare’s history plays less engaging than the tragedies.

  • some of Shakespeare’s tragedies are more relevant to today’s audiences than twentieth-century plays.

  • Romeo and Juliet is the most thematically accessible of all Shakespeare’s tragedies.

  • experts in English history tend to prefer Shakespeare’s history plays to his other works.

ID: a68fd3e7 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the relative appeal of different kinds of plays by Shakespeare to today’s audiences. According to the text, Shakespeare’s tragedies address broad themes that continue to appeal to today’s audiences. Indeed, the text suggests that these themes are timeless, as illustrated by the example of Romeo and Juliet, which the text states is still read and widely performed despite being set in the Italy of Shakespeare’s time. In contrast, the text indicates that audiences and readers may need to be familiar with several centuries of English history in order to understand Shakespeare’s history plays. Because many theatergoers and readers are unlikely to possess such extensive historical knowledge, it follows that they are likely to find Shakespeare’s history plays less engaging than his more accessible tragedies.

Choice B is incorrect because the text never introduces a comparison between Shakespeare’s tragedies and twentieth-century plays, only between Shakespeare’s tragedies and his history plays. Since twentieth-century plays aren’t mentioned, there’s no basis in the text for the idea that some of Shakespeare’s tragedies are more relevant than twentieth-century plays to today’s audiences. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text indicates that Romeo and Juliet is thematically accessible to today’s audiences, it doesn’t suggest that Romeo and Juliet is more accessible than Shakespeare’s other tragedies. Rather, the text presents Romeo and Juliet as an example to support the idea that Shakespeare’s tragedies hold continued appeal for today’s readers and theatergoers. Choice D is incorrect. Although experts in English history would likely possess the knowledge needed to understand Shakespeare’s history plays, the text never mentions such experts or suggests that they would enjoy the history plays more than Shakespeare’s other works.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID e677fa6c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: e677fa6c

The following text is adapted from Edgar Allan Poe’s 1849 story “Landor’s Cottage.”

During a pedestrian trip last summer, through one or two of the river counties of New York, I found myself, as the day declined, somewhat embarrassed about the road I was pursuing. The land undulated very remarkably; and my path, for the last hour, had wound about and about so confusedly, in its effort to keep in the valleys, that I no longer knew in what direction lay the sweet village of B——, where I had determined to stop for the night.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • The narrator remembers a trip he took and admits to getting lost.

  • The narrator recalls fond memories of a journey that he took through some beautiful river counties.

  • The narrator describes what he saw during a long trip through a frequently visited location.

  • The narrator explains the difficulties he encountered on a trip and how he overcame them.

ID: e677fa6c Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The narrator is “embarrassed” about the route he took, which ends up leaving him lost and confused about how to get to his destination for the evening.

Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t match the passage. The narrator is embarrassed, rather than fond, and he doesn’t describe the beauty of the place. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t match the passage. We don’t know from this excerpt whether or not the narrator has visited this part of New York multiple times. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t match the passage. The narrator doesn’t explain how he overcame being lost in this excerpt.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID bc7b1a04

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: bc7b1a04

Three Studies' Estimated Average Velocity of LMC

Researchers Study year Estimated average velocity
Murai and Fujimoto 1980 344 km/s
Kallivayalil and colleagues 2006 378 km/s
Gardiner and colleagues 1994 297 km/s

In 2006, Nitya Kallivayalil and colleagues calculated the most accurate estimate yet of the average velocity (in kilometers per second) of the Large Magellanic Cloud (LMC) galaxy. Before the 2006 study, estimates of the average velocity were low enough for the LMC to maintain an orbit around the Milky Way galaxy, but according to an analysis by Gurtina Besla and colleagues, the estimated velocity from the 2006 study is too high for the LMC to maintain such an orbit. Therefore, if Besla and colleagues are correct, the maximum average velocity for the LMC that would allow it to maintain orbit around the Milky Way is likely blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • above 344 km/s but below 378 km/s.

  • above 297 km/s but below 344 km/s.

  • above 378 km/s.

  • below 297 km/s.

ID: bc7b1a04 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it uses data from the table to give the range of velocities for the LMC from the 1980 value (344 km/s) to the 2006 value (378 km/s), thereby effectively completing the text. The text indicates that before 2006, all the estimated velocities of the LMC were within the range necessary to maintain orbit around the Milky Way galaxy. It then indicates that, according to Besla and colleagues, the 2006 estimate of 378 km/s is too high to maintain that orbit. This strongly implies that if the 1980 value (344 km/s) is below the orbital threshold, and if Besla and colleagues are correct that the 2006 value (378 km/s) is above that threshold, the maximum orbital velocity for the LMC must be somewhere in the range from above 344 km/s to below 378 km/s.

Choice B is incorrect. The text indicates that the 2006 velocity estimate for the LMC (378 km/s) was the first estimate that exceeded the velocity needed to maintain orbit around the Milky Way. Thus, the 1980 estimate of 344 km/s and the 1994 estimate of 297 km/s must both be below the maximum possible orbital velocity for the LMC. Choice C is incorrect. The text states that Besla and colleagues’ analysis found that the velocity from the 2006 study (378 km/s) was too high for the LMC to maintain orbit around the Milky Way. Therefore, if a velocity of 378 km/s is too high, an even higher velocity will also be too high. Choice D is incorrect. The text indicates that the 2006 velocity estimate for the LMC (378 km/s) was the first to exceed the velocity range required to maintain orbit around the Milky Way. Thus, the 1994 estimate of 297 km/s must be below the maximum possible orbital velocity for the LMC.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 3d91c973

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 3d91c973

Mosasaurs were large marine reptiles that lived in the Late Cretaceous period, approximately 100 million to 66 million years ago. Celina Suarez, Alberto Pérez-Huerta, and T. Lynn Harrell Jr. examined oxygen-18 isotopes in mosasaur tooth enamel in order to calculate likely mosasaur body temperatures and determined that mosasaurs were endothermic—that is, they used internal metabolic processes to maintain a stable body temperature in a variety of ambient temperatures. Suarez, Pérez-Huerta, and Harrell claim that endothermy would have enabled mosasaurs to include relatively cold polar waters in their range.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support Suarez, Pérez-Huerta, and Harrell’s claim?

  • Mosasaurs’ likely body temperatures are easier to determine from tooth enamel oxygen-18 isotope data than the body temperatures of nonendothermic Late Cretaceous marine reptiles are.

  • Fossils of both mosasaurs and nonendothermic marine reptiles have been found in roughly equal numbers in regions known to be near the poles during the Late Cretaceous, though in lower concentrations than elsewhere.

  • Several mosasaur fossils have been found in regions known to be near the poles during the Late Cretaceous, while relatively few fossils of nonendothermic marine reptiles have been found in those locations. 

  • During the Late Cretaceous, seawater temperatures were likely higher throughout mosasaurs’ range, including near the poles, than seawater temperatures at those same latitudes are today. 

ID: 3d91c973 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents the finding that, if true, would best support Suarez, Pérez-Huerta, and Harrell’s claim about mosasaurs. The text states that Suarez, Pérez-Huerta, and Harrell’s research on mosasaur tooth enamel led them to conclude that mosasaurs were endothermic, which means that they could live in waters at many different temperatures and still maintain a stable body temperature. The researchers claim that endothermy enabled mosasaurs to live in relatively cold waters near the poles. If several mosasaur fossils have been found in areas that were near the poles during the period when mosasaurs were alive and fossils of nonendothermic marine reptiles are rare in such locations, that would support the researchers’ claim: it would show that mosasaurs inhabited polar waters but nonendothermic marine mammals tended not to, suggesting that endothermy may have been the characteristic that enabled mosasaurs to include polar waters in their range.

Choice A is incorrect because finding that it’s easier to determine mosasaur body temperatures from tooth enamel data than it is to determine nonendothermic reptile body temperatures wouldn’t support the researchers’ claim. Whether one research process is more difficult than another indicates nothing about the results of those processes and therefore is irrelevant to the issue of where mosasaurs lived and what enabled them to live in those locations.   Choice B is incorrect because finding roughly equal numbers of mosasaur and nonendothermic marine reptile fossils in areas that were near the poles in the Late Cretaceous would suggest that endothermy didn’t give mosasaurs any particular advantage when it came to expanding their range to include relatively cold polar waters, thereby weakening the researchers’ claim rather than supporting it. Choice D is incorrect because finding that the temperature of seawater in the Late Cretaceous was warmer than seawater today wouldn’t weaken the researchers’ claim. Seawater in the Late Cretaceous could have been warmer than seawater today but still cold enough for endothermy to be advantageous to mosasaurs, so this finding wouldn’t provide enough information to either support or weaken the researchers’ claim.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 11c68ded

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 11c68ded

A contraction of “you all,” the pronoun “y’all” has long been used as a plural version of “you” in the South and in Black communities around the US. In recent decades, most other English-speaking communities in the US have begun to use “y’all.” What explains its rise in popularity? Many varieties of English have no pronoun that specifically addresses more than one person and instead must use “you” to address both one person and more than one. But “y’all” always refers to two or more people. As a result, it conveys the speaker’s meaning more precisely than “you” can.

Which question does the text most directly attempt to answer?

  • How many other plural versions of the pronoun “you” are there in English, besides “y’all”?

  • Why has the pronoun “y’all” become more widely used in the US?

  • When was the first recorded use of the pronoun “y’all” in the English language?

  • Is “y’all” commonly used in English-speaking regions of the world besides the US?

ID: 11c68ded Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a question that the text is attempting to answer: why has the pronoun "y’all" become more widely used in the US? The text begins by explaining where and how the plural pronoun "y’all" originated and then goes on to state that its use has been rising in popularity, even in areas outside of its place of origin. The text then attributes this rise in popularity to the fact that many varieties of English do not have a pronoun to address more than one person, and thus "you" must function as both a singular and plural pronoun.

Choice A is incorrect because while the text states that "y’all" is used as a plural of "you" in English, it does not discuss other plural forms of the word. Choice C is incorrect because while the text discusses the general origins of the pronoun "y’all," it does not state when the use of the pronoun was first recorded in the English language. Choice D is incorrect because though the text addresses the use of the pronoun "y’all" within English-speaking communities in the US, it does not address its use outside of that geographic area.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 7cbb9764

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 7cbb9764

Accomplished printmaker and sculptor Elizabeth Catlett (1915–2012) used her art to explore the Black experience in the United States. In a paper for an art history class, a student claims that Catlett had a particular talent for unifying various artistic traditions and styles in her work.

Which quotation from a scholar describing Catlett’s work would best support the student’s claim?

  • “In Mother and Child, a sculpture of two Black figures, Catlett used an ancient Indigenous sculpting technique and combined the visual aesthetic of modern Mexican muralists with that of German artist Kathe Kollwitz.” 

  • “In her collage New Generation, Catlett overlaid fabric onto the canvas to represent the clothing of a father and his toddler, positioned to evoke classic images of a mother and child.”

  • “Created in 1968, Catlett’s sculpture Black Unity, a stylized fist sculpted from mahogany and measuring two feet across, remains an important piece and has received renewed and well-deserved attention in recent years.”

  • “One series of Catlett’s prints, made by the artist using the linoleum cut method, depicts several notable African American women, including Harriet Tubman and Sojourner Truth.” 

ID: 7cbb9764 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents a quotation about Elizabeth Catlett that supports the student’s claim that this artist had a talent for unifying various traditions and styles in her work. The quotation explains that to create the work, Catlett combined Indigenous sculpture with the visual aesthetic of modern muralists from Mexico as well as that of German artist Kathe Kollwitz. In other words, Catlett was able to unify several artistic traditions and styles within a single sculpture.

Choice B is incorrect because in discussing the technique and subject matter of Catlett’s collage, the quotation makes no reference to particular traditions or styles. Choice C is incorrect because in describing the sculpture, the quotation doesn’t mention any artistic traditions or styles that Catlett may have synthesized to create the work. Choice D is incorrect because in discussing Catlett’s prints of notable African American women, the quotation doesn’t characterize those prints as having fused different traditions or styles.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 4b3d6062

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 4b3d6062

The Mammillaria cactus M. boolii occurs naturally only in the state of Sonora in Mexico, and the smallness of its range makes it especially vulnerable to extinction. The traditional single-species approach to conservation emphasizes the need to focus on individual species most at risk, like M. boolii, but recently, conservationists have argued that an ecosystem-based approach that incorporates the many interactions between the climate, terrain, and various species of a given geographical area may lead to better outcomes for all the species in a given location. If this view is correct, the single-species approach to the conservation of M. boolii could thus blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • lead to a better understanding of how the distribution of Mammillaria species throughout Mexico has affected their survival.

  • allow conservationists to better consider how climatic changes affecting Sonora may reduce the number of species competing with M. boolii.

  • erroneously shift the focus of conservation efforts away from M. boolii itself.

  • fail to consider the ways in which the survival of M. boolii may be influenced by changes in the populations of other species that inhabit Sonora.

ID: 4b3d6062 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of conservation approaches for the Mammillaria cactus M. boolii. The text establishes that M. boolii only grows naturally in the state of Sonora in Mexico, which makes it particularly vulnerable to extinction. The text then contrasts two approaches to conservation: the traditional single-species approach that individually focuses on at-risk species and a newer ecosystem-based approach that considers the interactions between climate, terrain, and various species in a geographical area. According to the text, conservationists have recently argued that this ecosystem-based approach may lead to better outcomes for all species in a location. If this ecosystem view is correct, then the single-species approach to conserving M. boolii would likely fail to consider how the cactus’s survival depends on its interactions with other species in Sonora’s ecosystem.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t address the distribution of Mammillaria species besides M. boolii throughout Mexico or discuss how that distribution affects survival. The text focuses specifically on M. boolii in Sonora and different approaches to its conservation. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that climatic changes in Sonora would reduce competition for M. boolii or that conservation efforts are focused on understanding this specific dynamic. In fact, the text implies that an ecosystem-based approach would consider climate among many other factors but doesn’t specify how climatic changes might affect competition between species. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the single-species approach would shift the focus of conservation efforts away from M. boolii itself—rather, it suggests that this approach might be too narrowly focused on M. boolii alone without considering the broader ecosystem-related factors that affect its survival.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 94ca8ebd

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 94ca8ebd

A student is examining a long, challenging poem that was initially published in a quarterly journal without explanatory notes, then later republished in a stand-alone volume containing only that poem and accompanying explanatory notes written by the poet. The student asserts that the explanatory notes were included in the republication primarily as a marketing device to help sell the stand-alone volume.

Which statement, if true, would most directly support the student’s claim?

  • The text of the poem as published in the quarterly journal is not identical to the text of the poem published in the stand-alone volume.

  • Many critics believe that the poet’s explanatory notes remove certain ambiguities of the poem and make it less interesting as a result.

  • The publishers of the stand-alone volume requested the explanatory notes from the poet in order to make the book attractive to readers who already had a copy of the poem in a journal issue.

  • Correspondence between the poet and the publisher reveals that the poet’s explanatory notes went through several drafts.

ID: 94ca8ebd Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it would most directly support the student’s claim about the motivation for including explanatory notes with the stand-alone volume of the poem. The text explains that the poem had previously been published without the notes in a quarterly journal. It stands to reason that readers who had purchased the journal issue containing the poem would be unlikely to purchase an unchanged version of the poem in a stand-alone volume. However, the inclusion of notes in that volume would encourage the purchase of a stand-alone volume, since the later text would differ from the original by including the author’s own explanation of the poem. Therefore, if it were true that the publishers of the stand-alone volume had requested the notes to make the book attractive to readers who already had a copy of the journal issue, this fact would support the student’s claim that the notes were included primarily as a marketing device.

Choice A is incorrect because the student’s claim is about the motivation for including the explanatory notes in the stand-alone volume, not about changes that might have been made to the poem itself for publication in that volume; moreover, the text never suggests that such changes were made. Choice B is incorrect because the student’s claim is about why the explanatory notes were included in the stand-alone volume, not about how the notes affected readers’ and critics’ subsequent experience of the poem. Choice D is incorrect because the fact that the poet drafted multiple versions of the explanatory notes doesn’t directly address the issue of whether the notes were intended as a marketing device, as the student claims; the correspondence would support this claim only if it showed that the poet had revised the notes specifically to make them useful to the marketing of the stand-alone volume.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 66c47028

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 66c47028

In 1934 physicist Eugene Wigner posited the existence of a crystal consisting entirely of electrons in a honeycomb-like structure. The so-called Wigner crystal remained largely conjecture, however, until Feng Wang and colleagues announced in 2021 that they had captured an image of one. The researchers trapped electrons between two semiconductors and then cooled the apparatus, causing the electrons to settle into a crystalline structure. By inserting an ultrathin sheet of graphene above the crystal, the researchers obtained an impression—the first visual confirmation of the Wigner crystal.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Researchers have obtained the most definitive evidence to date of the existence of the Wigner crystal.

  • Researchers have identified an innovative new method for working with unusual crystalline structures.

  • Graphene is the most important of the components required to capture an image of a Wigner crystal.

  •  It’s difficult to acquire an image of a Wigner crystal because of the crystal’s honeycomb structure.

ID: 66c47028 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. According to the text, Eugene Wigner hypothesized that a crystal could exist that would be composed of electrons and have a honeycomb-like shape. The text goes on to say that the existence of the Wigner crystal remained unconfirmed until Feng Wang and colleagues were able to make an impression of one using two semiconductors and an ultrathin sheet of graphene. Thus, the main idea is that researchers have obtained the most definitive evidence to date of the existence of the Wigner crystal.

Choice B is incorrect because the text focuses on one kind of crystal—the Wigner crystal— and doesn’t discuss crystalline structures in general. And although the text conveys that Wang and colleagues figured out a way to capture an image of a Wigner crystal, it doesn’t address the idea of applying this approach to other types of crystals. Choice C is incorrect because the text describes in general the process Wang and colleagues followed to obtain an impression of the Wigner crystal; it doesn’t address the relative importance of each component in that process. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t state that researchers had a hard time getting an impression of the Wigner crystal because of its honeycomb structure. Nothing in the text indicates why it took so long to prove the existence of this crystal or take an impression of it.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 0770b53d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 0770b53d

O Pioneers! is a 1913 novel by Willa Cather. In the novel, Cather portrays Alexandra Bergson as having a deep emotional connection to her natural surroundings: blank

Which quotation from O Pioneers! most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “She had never known before how much the country meant to her. The chirping of the insects down in the long grass had been like the sweetest music. She had felt as if her heart were hiding down there, somewhere, with the quail and the plover and all the little wild things that crooned or buzzed in the sun. Under the long shaggy ridges, she felt the future stirring.”

  • “Alexandra talked to the men about their crops and to the women about their poultry. She spent a whole day with one young farmer who had been away at school, and who was experimenting with a new kind of clover hay. She learned a great deal.”

  • “Alexandra drove off alone. The rattle of her wagon was lost in the howling of the wind, but her lantern, held firmly between her feet, made a moving point of light along the highway, going deeper and deeper into the dark country.”

  • “It was Alexandra who read the papers and followed the markets, and who learned by the mistakes of their neighbors. It was Alexandra who could always tell about what it had cost to fatten each steer, and who could guess the weight of a hog before it went on the scales closer than John Bergson [her father] himself.”

ID: 0770b53d Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents the quotation that most directly illustrates the claim that Cather portrays Alexandra as having a deep emotional connection to her natural surroundings. This quotation states that the country meant a great deal to Alexandra and then goes on to detail several ways in which her natural surroundings affect her emotionally: the insects sound like “the sweetest music,” she feels as though “her heart were hiding” in the grass “with the quail and the plover,” and near the ridges she feels “the future stirring.”

Choice B is incorrect because the quotation doesn’t suggest that Alexandra had a deep emotional connection to her natural surroundings but instead describes how she interacts with the people around her to learn more about crops, poultry, and experiments with clover hay. Choice C is incorrect because the quotation doesn’t suggest that Alexandra has a deep emotional connection to her natural surroundings but instead describes her nighttime departure in a wagon. The quotation says nothing about Alexandra’s emotional state. Choice D is incorrect because the quotation doesn’t convey Alexandra’s deep emotional connection to her natural surroundings; instead, this quotation describes how well she understands the markets and livestock. 

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 58e9e497

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 58e9e497

In the early nineteenth century, some Euro-American farmers in the northeastern United States used agricultural techniques developed by the Haudenosaunee (Iroquois) people centuries earlier, but it seems that few of those farmers had actually seen Haudenosaunee farms firsthand. Barring the possibility of several farmers of the same era independently developing techniques that the Haudenosaunee people had already invented, these facts most strongly suggest that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • those farmers learned the techniques from other people who were more directly influenced by Haudenosaunee practices.

  • the crops typically cultivated by Euro-American farmers in the northeastern United States were not well suited to Haudenosaunee farming techniques.

  • Haudenosaunee farming techniques were widely used in regions outside the northeastern United States.

  • Euro-American farmers only began to recognize the benefits of Haudenosaunee farming techniques late in the nineteenth century.

ID: 58e9e497 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Euro-American farmers’ use of Haudenosaunee agricultural techniques. According to the text, some Euro-American farmers were using these techniques in the early nineteenth century despite few of the farmers having seen Haudenosaunee farms. One explanation for these facts might be that the farmers developed techniques on their own that already had been invented centuries earlier by the Haudenosaunee people, but the text explicitly bars, or rules out, this explanation. If Euro-American farmers didn’t learn these techniques from direct observation of Haudenosaunee practices and didn’t invent the techniques independently, then the most logical explanation is that they learned the techniques from other people who were more directly influenced by Haudenosaunee practices than the farmers themselves were. Once they learned about Haudenosaunee agricultural practices, Euro-American farmers could then apply those practices to their own farming.

Choice B is incorrect because the fact that some Euro-American farmers in the northeastern United States were using Haudenosaunee techniques suggests that the techniques were likely useful for the crops the farmers raised, not that the crops typically cultivated by the farmers were not well suited to Haudenosaunee farming techniques. If the farmers’ crops were ill suited to the techniques, it’s unlikely that the farmers would have used those techniques. Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates only that Haudenosaunee agricultural techniques were used by Euro-American farmers in the northeastern United States, not that these techniques were widely used outside this region. Choice D is incorrect because the text states that some Euro-American farmers were using Haudenosaunee farming techniques early in the nineteenth century. This suggests that some Euro-American farmers were beginning to recognize the benefits of these techniques near the start of the century, not that such farmers only began to recognize the benefits of the techniques much later.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 1a2b29c9

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 1a2b29c9

The following text is adapted from María Cristina Mena’s 1914 short story “The Vine-Leaf.”

It is a saying in the capital of Mexico that Dr. Malsufrido carries more family secrets under his hat than any archbishop.

The doctor’s hat is, appropriately enough, uncommonly capacious, rising very high, and sinking so low that it seems to be supported by his ears and eyebrows, and it has a furry look, as if it had been brushed the wrong way, which is perhaps what happens to it if it is ever brushed at all. When the doctor takes it off, the family secrets do not fly out like a flock of parrots, but remain nicely bottled up beneath a dome of old and highly polished ivory.

Based on the text, how do people in the capital of Mexico most likely regard Dr. Malsufrido?

  • Many have come to tolerate him despite his disheveled appearance.

  • Few feel concerned that he will divulge their confidences.

  • Some dislike how freely he discusses his own family.

  • Most would be unimpressed by him were it not for his professional expertise.

ID: 1a2b29c9 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The text describes a saying in the capital that Malsufrido keeps more secrets than an archbishop. It also says that when he takes off his hat, “the family secrets do not fly out… but remain nicely bottled up,” suggesting that he will not betray his confidences.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t reflect the text. While his hat is large and appears to have been brushed in the wrong direction, Dr. Malsufrido does not seem to be regarded as ill-dressed or disheveled. Choice C is incorrect. This choice is the opposite of what the text says. The secrets of families (his and others’) remain “bottled up” in his head. Choice D is incorrect. This choice isn’t supported by the text. His professional expertise is not discussed in the passage.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 71904085

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 71904085

Linguist Deborah Tannen has cautioned against framing contentious issues in terms of two highly competitive perspectives, such as pro versus con. According to Tannen, this debate-driven approach can strip issues of their complexity and, when used in front of an audience, can be less informative than the presentation of multiple perspectives in a noncompetitive format. To test Tannen’s hypothesis, students conducted a study in which they showed participants one of three different versions of local news commentary about the same issue. Each version featured a debate between two commentators with opposing views, a panel of three commentators with various views, or a single commentator.

Which finding from the students’ study, if true, would most strongly support Tannen’s hypothesis?

  • On average, participants perceived commentators in the debate as more knowledgeable about the issue than commentators in the panel.

  • On average, participants perceived commentators in the panel as more knowledgeable about the issue than the single commentator.

  • On average, participants who watched the panel correctly answered more questions about the issue than those who watched the debate or the single commentator did.

  • On average, participants who watched the single commentator correctly answered more questions about the issue than those who watched the debate did.

ID: 71904085 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents the finding that, if true, would most strongly support Tannen’s hypothesis. According to the text, Tannen’s hypothesis is that multiple perspectives presented in a noncompetitive format is more informative than a debate between opposing viewpoints is. If participants who saw a panel of three commentators with various views about an issue answered more questions about the issue correctly than did participants who saw a debate, that would support Tannen’s hypothesis since it would show that participants who heard multiple varied perspectives were better informed than were participants who heard a debate between opposing viewpoints.

Choice A is incorrect because finding that participants perceived commentators in the debate as more knowledgeable than commentators in the panel is irrelevant to Tannen’s hypothesis, which is that presenting multiple perspectives on an issue is more informative to the audience than presenting opposing views of the issue is. Participants’ perception of how knowledgeable panelists are has no bearing on how much participants learn from the panelists. Choice B is incorrect because finding that participants perceived commentators in the panel as more knowledgeable than a single commentator is irrelevant to Tannen’s hypothesis, which is that presenting multiple perspectives on an issue is more informative to the audience than presenting opposing views of the issue is. Participants’ perception of how knowledgeable panelists are has no bearing on how much participants learn from the panelists, and Tannen’s hypothesis says nothing about how informative single commentators are. Choice D is incorrect because finding that participants who watched a single commentator answered more questions correctly than participants who watched the debate did wouldn’t be relevant to Tannen’s hypothesis, which is that hearing multiple varying perspectives is more informative than hearing a debate. Tannen’s hypothesis says nothing about how informative single commentators are.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 3190835d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 3190835d

Some businesses believe that when employees are interrupted while doing their work, they experience a decrease in energy and productivity. However, a team led by Harshad Puranik, who studies management, has found that interruptions by colleagues can have a social component that increases employees’ sense of belonging, resulting in greater job satisfaction that benefits employees and employers. Therefore, businesses should recognize that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • the interpersonal benefits of some interruptions in the workplace may offset the perceived negative effects.

  • in order to maximize productivity, employers should be willing to interrupt employees frequently throughout the day.

  • most employees avoid interrupting colleagues because they don’t appreciate being interrupted themselves.

  • in order to cultivate an ideal workplace environment, interruptions of work should be discouraged.

ID: 3190835d Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of potential benefits of interruptions in the workplace. The text indicates that a common belief in business is that interruptions to working employees decrease energy and productivity levels. However, the text goes on to explain that a research team led by Harshad Puranik has found that there could be a social benefit to these interruptions.  Since the team found that workplace interruptions can increase employees’ sense of belonging and job satisfaction, it follows that the interpersonal benefits of some interruptions can offset the perceived negative effects. 

Choice B is incorrect. Although the text presents research findings that suggest some workplace interruptions can have a positive effect on employee job satisfaction, no further information is presented to suggest at what frequency these interruptions are ideal. Furthermore, the text doesn’t tie workplace interruptions to increased productivity, but rather links it to social benefits such as sense of belonging. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t address employees’ motives for choosing not to interrupt their colleagues. The text presents research findings that suggest that there are some positive interpersonal effects of workplace interruptions that can increase employee job satisfaction. Choice D is incorrect because asking businesses to discourage workplace interruptions doesn’t follow from the team’s research about the benefits of workplace interruptions, nor does the text describe an ideal work environment. Instead, the text presents research suggesting that there may be positive aspects to workplace interruptions that haven’t previously been considered.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 04cbeca3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 04cbeca3

In 1534 CE, King Henry VIII of England split with the Catholic Church and declared himself head of the Church of England, in part because Pope Clement VII refused to annul his marriage to Catherine of Aragon. Two years later, Henry VIII introduced a policy titled the Dissolution of the Monasteries that by 1540 had resulted in the closure of all Catholic monasteries in England and the confiscation of their estates. Some historians assert that the enactment of the policy was primarily motivated by perceived financial opportunities.

Which quotation from a scholarly article best supports the assertion of the historians mentioned in the text?

  • “At the time of the Dissolution of the Monasteries, about 2 percent of the adult male population of England were monks; by 1690, the proportion of the adult male population who were monks was less than 1 percent.”

  • “A contemporary description of the Dissolution of the Monasteries, Michael Sherbrook’s Falle of the Religious Howses, recounts witness testimony that monks were allowed to keep the contents of their cells and that the monastery timber was purchased by local yeomen.”

  • “In 1535, the year before enacting the Dissolution of the Monasteries, Henry commissioned a survey of the value of church holdings in England—the work, performed by sheriffs, bishops, and magistrates, began that January and was swiftly completed by the summer.”

  • “The October 1536 revolt known as the Pilgrimage of Grace had several economic motives: high food prices due to a poor harvest the prior year; the Dissolution of the Monasteries, which closed reliable sources of food and shelter for many; and rents and taxes throughout Northern England that were not merely high but predatory.”

ID: 04cbeca3 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The fact that Henry VIII commissioned a survey of church holdings just before enacting the Dissolution of the Monasteries suggests that he was interested in the potential profits from claiming their assets. This supports the historians’ assertion.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice describes a potential effect of the Dissolution of the Monasteries. The decrease in the proportion of monks in England isn’t relevant to the question of Henry VIII’s motivations. Choice B is incorrect. Details about how the monks were treated during the dissolution don’t address Henry VIII’s motivations for enacting the policy in the first place. That the monks could keep the content of their cells (their rooms) and sell off the timber they’d harvested has no impact on the value of the monasteries’ estates—their land holdings. Choice D is incorrect. This choice mentions one impact that the Dissolution of the Monasteries contributed to, two years after it happened. But it doesn’t help explain why Henry VIII might have wanted to enact the policy in the first place.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID d5b9ed0d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: d5b9ed0d
7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0Participants’ mean rating(1–9; higher values = more positive) Helpfulness of review Attitude toward reviewed productParticipants’ Responses to Three Review Conditions no anger (control) high anger low anger
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • no anger (control)
    • high anger
    • low anger
  • The data for the 2 categories are as follows: 
    • Helpfulness of review:
      • no anger (control): 6.75
      • high anger: 6.08
      • low anger: 6.85
    • Attitude toward reviewed product:
      • no anger (control): 2.23
      • high anger: 1.83
      • low anger: 2.15

To understand how expressions of anger in reviews of products affect readers of those reviews, business scholar Dezhi Yin and colleagues measured study participants’ responses to three versions of the same negative review—a control review expressing no anger, a review expressing a high degree of anger, and a review expressing a low degree of anger. Reviewing the data, a student concludes that the mere presence of anger in a review may not negatively affect readers’ perceptions of the review, but a high degree of anger in a review does worsen readers’ perceptions of the review.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that support the students’ conclusion?

  • On average, participants’ ratings of the helpfulness of the review were substantially higher than were participants’ ratings of the reviewed product regardless of which type of review participants had seen.

  • Compared with participants who saw the control review, participants who saw the low-anger review rated the review as slightly more helpful, whereas participants who saw the high-anger review rated the review as less helpful. 

  • Participants who saw the low-anger review rated the review as slightly more helpful than participants who saw the control review did, but participants’ attitude toward the reviewed product was slightly worse when participants saw the low-anger review than when they saw the no-anger review. 

  • Compared with participants who saw the low-anger review, participants who saw the high-anger review rated the review as less helpful and had a less positive attitude toward the reviewed product. 

ID: d5b9ed0d Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The claim is that low anger does not negatively affect readers’ perceptions of the review, while high anger does negatively affect readers’ perceptions of the review. This choice accurately expresses the supporting data from the “helpfulness of review” part of the graph: that low-anger reviews were rated as slightly more helpful than no-anger reviews, while high-anger reviews were rated as less helpful than no-anger reviews.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice does not support the conclusion. The conclusion is only about how participants feel about the review itself—the participants’ ratings of the reviewed product are not relevant. Choice C is incorrect. This choice does not support the conclusion. The conclusion is only about how participants feel about the review itself—the participants’ attitude towards the reviewed product is not relevant. Choice D is incorrect. This choice does not support the conclusion. The conclusion is only about how participants feel about the review itself—the participants’ attitude towards the reviewed product is not relevant.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 2fdfe002

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 2fdfe002

The following text is adapted from Countee Cullen’s 1926 poem “Thoughts in a Zoo.” 

They in their cruel traps, and we in ours,  

Survey each other’s rage, and pass the hours  

Commiserating each the other’s woe,  

To mitigate his own pain’s fiery glow.  

Man could but little proffer in exchange  

Save that his cages have a larger range.  

That lion with his lordly, untamed heart  

Has in some man his human counterpart,

Some lofty soul in dreams and visions wrapped,  

But in the stifling flesh securely trapped.

Based on the text, what challenge do humans sometimes experience?

  • They cannot effectively tame certain wild animals because of a lack of compassion.

  • They cannot focus on setting attainable goals because of a lack of motivation.

  • They quickly become frustrated when faced with difficult tasks because of a lack of self-control.

  • They have aspirations that cannot be fulfilled because of certain limitations.

ID: 2fdfe002 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The text metaphorically likens humans to animals in a zoo, suggesting that humans have dreams that they cannot fulfill because they are trapped.

Choice A is incorrect. The speaker says that the lion has an “untamed heart,” but the speaker doesn’t actually mention anything about humans taming wild animals or a lack of compassion. Choice B is incorrect. The speaker doesn’t suggest that humans lack motivation. Rather, the speaker thinks that humans are “trapped” and prevented from achieving their dreams. Choice C is incorrect. The speaker doesn’t mention anything about humans becoming frustrated or lacking self-control. Rather, the speaker thinks that humans are “trapped” and prevented from achieving their dreams.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 6a6bbac3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 6a6bbac3

Number and Origin of Clamshell Tools Found at Different Levels Below the Surface in Neanderthal Cave

Depth of tools found below surface in cave (meters) Clamshells that Neanderthals collected from the beach Clamshells that Neanderthals harvested from the seafloor
3–4 99 33
6–7 1 0
4–5 2 0
2–3 7 0
5–6 18 7

Studying tools unearthed at a cave site on the western coast of Italy, archaeologist Paola Villa and colleagues have determined that prehistoric Neanderthal groups fashioned them from shells of clams that they harvested from the seafloor while wading or diving or that washed up on the beach. Clamshells become thin and eroded as they wash up on the beach, while those on the seafloor are smooth and sturdy, so the research team suspects that Neanderthals prized the tools made with seafloor shells. However, the team also concluded that those tools were likely more challenging to obtain, noting that blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to support the research team’s conclusion?

  • at each depth below the surface in the cave, the difference in the numbers of tools of each type suggests that shells were easier to collect from the beach than to harvest from the seafloor. 

  • the highest number of tools were at a depth of 3–4 meters below the surface, which suggests that the Neanderthal population at the site was highest during the related period of time.

  • at each depth below the surface in the cave, the difference in the numbers of tools of each type suggests that Neanderthals preferred to use clamshells from the beach because of their durability.

  • the higher number of tools at depths of 5–6 meters below the surface in the cave than at depths of 4–5 meters below the surface suggests that the size of clam populations changed over time.

ID: 6a6bbac3 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to support the researchers’ conclusion about the harvesting of clamshells by Neanderthals for use as tools. The text explains that Neanderthals used clamshells to make tools and that the sturdiest, and therefore the most desirable, shells for this purpose are found on the seafloor, not on the beach. However, the researchers also concluded that the clamshell tools made from shells from the seafloor are rarer than those made from shells from the beach. Meanwhile the table shows that at each depth, the number of tools made from shells from the beach exceeds the number made from the more desirable shells from the seafloor. The fact that the more desirable shells are less common suggests that it was significantly more difficult to harvest shells from the seafloor than from the beach.

Choice B is incorrect because knowing which depth represents the period of time with the highest Neanderthal population does not help answer the question of why the Neanderthals consistently made more tools from the less desirable shells from the beach than they made from the more desirable shells from the seafloor. Choice C is incorrect because it claims that the beach shells are more durable than the seafloor shells, which contradicts the text’s description of shells from the seafloor as smoother and sturdier than shells from the beach. Choice D is incorrect because knowing which depth has the most artifacts or whether the clam population fluctuated does not help explain why tools made from the less desirable shells from the beach outnumber tools made from the more desirable shells from the seafloor.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 6f626ae5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 6f626ae5

“To You” is an 1856 poem by Walt Whitman. In the poem, Whitman suggests that readers, whom he addresses directly, have not fully understood themselves, writing, blank

Which quotation from “To You” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “You have not known what you are, you have slumber’d upon yourself / all your life, / Your eyelids have been the same as closed most of the time.”

  • “These immense meadows, these interminable rivers, you are immense / and interminable as they.”

  • “I should have made my way straight to you long ago, / I should have blabb’d nothing but you, I should have chanted nothing / but you.”

  • “I will leave all and come and make the hymns of you, / None has understood you, but I understand you.”

ID: 6f626ae5 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents the quotation that most directly illustrates the claim that Whitman’s poem suggests that its readers haven’t fully understood themselves. This quotation makes that point directly by saying to readers, “You have not known what you are.” The quotation goes on to reinforce this point using a metaphor of sleep, saying that readers have “slumber’d” and that their “eyelids have been the same as closed most of the time.” 

Choice B is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t suggest that readers haven’t fully understood themselves but instead characterizes readers as “immense” and “interminable.” Although immense and interminable things can be difficult to understand, this quotation doesn’t make that point. Choice C is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t suggest that readers haven’t fully understood themselves but instead conveys the speaker’s regret over not having celebrated readers sooner. In fact, this quotation says nothing at all about readers themselves—it’s focused solely on the speaker’s feelings about readers. Choice D is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t suggest that readers haven’t fully understood themselves; instead, this quotation makes the point that the speaker has understood readers and is determined to create “hymns” about them.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID ccb1ab92

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: ccb1ab92

180 160 140 120 100 80 60 40 20 0REM sleep as % of baseline (mean difference from baseline was not statisticallysignificant) Day 1 Day 2Fur Seal REM Sleep on Land after an Extended Period in WaterSleep on land Seal B Seal A Seal C

Research suggests that REM sleep in animals is homeostatically regulated: animals compensate for periods of REM sleep deprivation by increasing subsequent REM sleep. When on land, fur seals get enough REM sleep, but during the weeks they’re in the water, they get almost none. In a study of fur seals’ sleep habits, researchers recorded the REM sleep (as a percentage of baseline) of fur seals once they had returned to land. They concluded that REM sleep may not be homeostatically regulated in fur seals, citing as evidence the fact that the seals in the study blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the text?

  • didn’t show significantly less REM sleep during the second day after returning to land than they did during the first day.

  • showed no significant differences from one another in baseline levels of REM sleep.

  • didn’t consistently demonstrate a significant increase in REM sleep after their period of deprivation in the water.

  • showed no significant difference between REM sleep after returning to land and REM sleep while in the water.

ID: ccb1ab92 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. If REM sleep were homeostatically regulated in fur seals, then all the seals would compensate with REM levels significantly over baseline after going weeks without REM. We’d also expect the seals to maintain those elevated REM levels for some time. Since seals B and C return very quickly to baseline REM levels, this suggests that REM sleep in fur seals may not be regulated homeostatically.

Choice A is incorrect. This doesn’t support the conclusion. If REM sleep were homeostatically regulated in fur seals, then we’d suspect the seals to sustain REM levels well above baseline for a prolonged period in order to compensate for weeks of REM deprivation while in the water. Whether or not there’s a reduction in REM sleep from day 1 to day 2 doesn’t tell us how REM sleep on those days relates to baseline, which is where our focus should be. Choice B is incorrect. The y-axis of this graph doesn’t depict baseline levels of REM sleep, but rather shows REM sleep as a percent of baseline. Choice D is incorrect. The graph doesn’t depict REM sleep while in the water for the seals in the study. Additionally, we’re told fur seals get no REM sleep while in the water, which is significantly different to the values shown in the graph for after they return to land.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 0d81b7d9

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 0d81b7d9

Paleontologist Alan Tennyson and colleagues studied fossil bones found in New Zealand that are more than 55 million years old. The researchers determined that the fossil bones belonged to two previously unknown species of prehistoric penguins. Moreover, they estimated that one of the two penguin species was more than three times the size of the emperor penguin, which is the largest penguin species that exists today.

Based on the text, which choice best describes the two previously unknown penguin species?

  • They are frequently studied by paleontologists.

  • They are no longer living species.

  • They were smaller than penguin species that exist today.

  • They spent little of their lives in water.

ID: 0d81b7d9 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a statement about the two previously unknown penguin species that is supported by the text. According to the text, Alan Tennyson and colleagues studied fossil bones belonging to two previously unknown penguin species that are described as prehistoric, or ancient. The text goes on to say that one of the two species was considerably larger than the emperor penguin, which is currently the largest penguin in existence. Thus, the text indicates that the other species aren’t in existence today, or that the two previously unknown penguin species are no longer living species.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text states that Alan Tennyson is a paleontologist who studied the fossils of two previously unknown penguin species, it doesn’t say whether these penguins are frequently studied by paleontologists. Choice C is incorrect because the text says that one of the two previously unknown penguin species was three times larger than the emperor penguin (a penguin alive today), not that they were both smaller than penguin species that exist today. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss whether the two previously unknown penguin species spent any time in water.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID be19faa1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: be19faa1

90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0Percentage of all sites analyzed 0% Up to 25% More than 25%Home Heating Needs Met with Subsurface Thermal Pollution for Two Temperature Conditions, by Percentage of SitesLocal heating needs met Current surface temperature Maximum plausible surface, temperature

Urbanization, industrialization, and the warming climate create thermal pollution (excess heat) in the shallow subsurface soil. Susanne A. Benz and colleagues analyzed thousands of sites on three continents under one scenario in which surface temperature remains at the current level and under another in which the surface reaches the maximum plausible temperature. They then categorized each site according to the percentage of local home heating needs that could be met using this excess subsurface heat. The team concluded that if surface temperature approaches the maximum plausible level, the percentage of sites where thermal pollution could feasibly contribute to meeting home heating needs will increase.

Which choice best describes data in the graph that support Benz and colleagues’ conclusion?

  • Under both temperature conditions, less than 10% of sites were in the up-to-25% group, but at the maximum plausible surface temperature, almost 80% of sites could have all their local heating needs met by thermal pollution.

  • At current surface temperatures, more than 80% of the sites have no need for supplemental local home heating from subsurface thermal pollution, but at the maximum plausible surface temperature, more than 70% of sites exhibit significantly greater home heating needs.

  • At current surface temperatures, more than 80% of sites can meet, at most, 25% of local home heating needs with subsurface thermal pollution, but at the maximum plausible surface temperature, more than 80% of sites can meet greater than 25% of local home heating needs.

  • At current surface temperatures, more than 80% of the sites cannot use subsurface thermal pollution to meet any portion of local home heating needs, but at the maximum plausible surface temperature, that percentage drops below 20%. 

ID: be19faa1 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The researchers concluded that as we approach maximum plausible surface temperatures, there will be a larger percentage of sites where thermal pollution could contribute to meeting home heating needs. By showing that only a small percentage of homes can currently use thermal pollution for home heating, and that this percentage would grow much larger at maximum plausible surface temperatures, this choice supports the researchers’ conclusion.

Choice A is incorrect. We do not know how many sites could have all (i.e., 100%) of their local heating needs met by thermal pollution, as the graph only classifies sites by whether "0%," "Up to 25%," and "More than 25%" of heating needs could be met. Choice B is incorrect. The graph is not depicting need for supplemental heating from thermal pollution, but rather potential to use thermal pollution for supplemental heating. Choice C is incorrect. The graph indicates that, at current surface temperatures, less than 10% of sites can meet 25% of local home heating needs and that more than 80% of sites cannot meet any local home heating needs.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 645fd11a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 645fd11a
7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0Average number of individuals directly reporting to CEO 1991–1995 1996–2001 2001–2008Average Number of IndividualsReporting Directly to CEOsYears managers department leaders
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • managers
    • department leaders
  • All values are approximate.
  • The data for the 3 categories are as follows:
    • 1991–1995:
      • managers: 2
      • department leaders: 3.2
    • 1996–2001:
      • managers: 2.5
      • department leaders: 4
    • 2001–2008:
      • managers: 3
      • department leaders: 6.9

Considering a large sample of companies, economics experts Maria Guadalupe, Julie Wulf, and Raghuram Rajan assessed the number of managers and leaders from different departments who reported directly to a chief executive officer (CEO). According to the researchers, the findings suggest that across the years analyzed, there was a growing interest among CEOs in connecting with more departments in their companies.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that support the researchers’ conclusion?

  • The average numbers of managers and department leaders reporting directly to their CEO didn’t fluctuate from the 1991–1995 period to the 2001–2008 period.

  • The average number of managers reporting directly to their CEO was highest in the 1996–2001 period.

  • The average number of department leaders reporting directly to their CEO was greater than the average number of managers reporting directly to their CEO in each of the three periods studied.

  • The average number of department leaders reporting directly to their CEO rose over the three periods studied.

ID: 645fd11a Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it describes data from the graph that support the researchers’ conclusion that there is a growing interest among CEOs in connecting with more departments in their companies. The graph shows the average number of individuals reporting directly to CEOs during three different time periods: the individuals are divided into managers and department leaders. The average number of department leaders directly reporting to their CEO during the 1991–1995 period was slightly more than three, during the 1996–2001 period it was four, and during the 2001–2008 period it was almost seven. Thus, the average number of department leaders reporting directly to their CEO rose over the three periods studied, which suggests that CEOs were connecting with more departments.

Choice A is incorrect because the average number of managers and department leaders reporting directly to their CEO rose for both categories between the 1991–1995 and 2001–2008 periods; thus, it isn’t true that the average numbers didn’t fluctuate. Choice B is incorrect because the average number of managers reporting directly to their CEO was highest in the 2001–2008 period, not in the 1996–2001 period. Choice C is incorrect. Although it correctly describes a feature of the graph, the observation that more department leaders than managers are reporting to CEOs does not by itself address the question of whether CEOs are connecting with more departments over time—to address that question, one needs to know whether the number of department leaders reporting to CEOs is increasing over time.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 85439572

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 85439572

Roasted green chiles are a popular ingredient in Southwestern cuisine, but the traditional roasting method of burning propane is not environmentally friendly. To see if solar power could provide a better alternative, engineer Kenneth Armijo and his team roasted batches of green chiles using between 38 and 42 heliostats, which are devices that concentrate sunlight. The team was successful in reaching the same roasting temperature used in traditional propane roasting, but they found that propane yielded faster results. While the fastest solar-roasted green chiles took six minutes, batches using propane took only four. Armijo hypothesizes that they can reduce the roasting time for solar-roasted green chiles by using more heliostats. 

Which finding, if true, would most directly support Armijo’s hypothesis?

  • The temperature inside the roasting drum is distributed more evenly when roasting green chiles with solar power than with propane.

  • Attempts to roast green chiles using 50 heliostats yields results in fewer than six minutes.

  • Green chile connoisseurs prefer the flavor of solar-roasted green chiles over the flavor of propane-roasted green chiles.

  • The skins of solar-roasted green chiles are easier to peel than the skins of propane-roasted green chiles.

ID: 85439572 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. Armijo believes that using more heliostats will speed up the roasting process, and this finding shows that with 50 heliostats—more than the number of heliostats already used—the roasting time is indeed reduced.

Choice A is incorrect. The evenness of temperature in the roasting drum doesn’t tell us about the speed of the roasting process, which is what Armijo’s hypothesis is concerned with. Choice C is incorrect. Armijo’s hypothesis is focused on the speed of the roasting process, not the flavor of the resulting roasted chiles. Choice D is incorrect. Though Armijo’s hypothesis mentions a benefit of solar-roasting green chiles (easier peeling), it doesn’t address the speed of the roasting process.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 356ad646

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 356ad646

Baltimore, Maryland, has installed engineered structures along 71% of its shoreline to protect infrastructure from wave erosion and other hazards, a practice known as shoreline hardening. To evaluate the responses of waterbirds to two types of hardening structures—riprap and bulkheads—Diann Prosser et al. surveyed waterbird communities consisting of the tundra swan, the great blue heron, and 62 other species at different sites in the Chesapeake Bay on the US East Coast. Utilizing the Index of Waterbird Community Integrity (IWCI), on which a high score corresponds to high community integrity, the researchers found that bulkheads are more strongly negatively correlated with waterbird community integrity than is riprap.

Which finding, if true, would most directly illustrate the researchers’ finding?

  • The difference in average IWCI scores for waterbird communities at Stony and Old Road, two sites with a higher percentage of shoreline consisting of bulkheads than of riprap, was statistically insignificant.

  • Waterbird communities at Old Road, a site with a relatively high percentage of shoreline consisting of bulkheads, had lower average IWCI scores than did waterbird communities at Miles, a site with a relatively high percentage of shoreline consisting of riprap.

  • Waterbird communities at Curtis, a site with a high percentage of shoreline consisting of bulkheads and riprap, had lower average IWCI scores than did waterbird communities at Onancock, a site with a low percentage of shoreline consisting of bulkheads and riprap.

  • Waterbird communities at Curtis, a site with equal percentages of shoreline consisting of bulkheads and riprap, had higher average IWCI scores than did waterbird communities at Miles, a site with different percentages of shoreline consisting of bulkheads and riprap.

ID: 356ad646 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly illustrate the researchers’ finding about waterbird responses to shoreline hardening structures. The text explains that using the IWCI, an index on which higher scores indicate higher community integrity, researchers found that bulkheads are more strongly negatively correlated with waterbird community integrity than riprap is—that is, that bulkheads reduce the integrity of waterbird communities more than riprap does. The finding that waterbird communities at a site with a relatively high percentage of bulkheads along the shoreline (Old Road) had lower average IWCI scores than waterbird communities at a site with a relatively high percentage of riprap along the shoreline (Miles) did would illustrate the researchers’ finding, since it would be an example of lower waterbird community integrity in a location with substantial bulkhead presence than in a location with substantial riprap presence.

Choice A is incorrect because a finding of similar waterbird community integrity in two sites predominated by bulkheads wouldn’t reveal anything about waterbird community integrity at sites predominated by riprap or how waterbird community integrity compares between the two types of sites. Thus, the finding wouldn’t illustrate the discovery of a difference in how bulkheads and riprap correlate with waterbird community integrity. Choice C is incorrect because it presents a finding that compares waterbird community integrity at sites with different overall amounts of shoreline hardening but without distinguishing between bulkheads and riprap. Such a distinction would be necessary to illustrate the researchers’ finding of a difference in how bulkheads and riprap each correlate with waterbird community integrity. Choice D is incorrect because it presents a finding that addresses a difference in waterbird community integrity between one site with equal percentages of bulkheads and riprap along its shoreline (Curtis) and one site with unequal percentages of bulkheads and riprap (Miles) but without indicating whether bulkheads or riprap were more prevalent at Miles. This finding wouldn’t provide any clear information about how bulkheads and riprap each correlate with waterbird community integrity, so it wouldn’t illustrate the researchers’ finding of a difference between those correlations.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 701126bc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 701126bc

In superfluorescence, electrical charges known as dipoles emit light in synchronized bursts so intense that they are visible to the eye. Until recently, this phenomenon has only been observed at extremely cold temperatures because dipoles cannot synchronize at higher temperatures. But in a study, Melike Biliroglu and colleagues observed superfluorescence at room temperature in thin films made of perovskite and other similarly crystalline materials; the researchers propose that the formation of shock-absorbing quasiparticles called polarons in the material protects dipoles from thermal interference.

Based on the text, how are polarons believed to be involved in the superfluorescence observed in Biliroglu and colleagues’ study?

  • Polarons enable superfluorescent bursts to cross from one crystalline material to another.

  • Polarons allow for the dipoles to synchronize despite higher temperatures. 

  • Polarons accelerate the dipoles’ release of superfluorescent bursts.

  • Polarons decrease the intensity of the superfluorescent burst.

ID: 701126bc Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately describes Biliroglu and colleagues’ claim about how the polarons function in relation to superfluorescence. The text indicates that “until recently,” superfluorescence (intense, synchronized bursts of light emitted by dipoles) has solely been observed at very cold temperatures. However, it also states that, recently, Biliroglu and colleagues report observing the phenomenon at room temperature. They achieved this using “thin films made of perovskite and other similarly crystalline materials,” which the researchers claim allows for the formation of polarons. They also suggest that these polarons might absorb the thermal shocks that typically disrupt dipole synchronization at warmer temperatures. Thus, based on the text, Biliroglu and colleagues believe that polarons help dipoles synchronize at temperatures well above those at which superfluorescence had previously been observed.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t address the prospect of a superfluorescent burst moving between crystalline materials or any other mediums. Choice C is incorrect because the text’s discussion of polarons is about how they might enable superfluorescence at higher temperatures than those at which it had previously been observed. Rather than suggesting that polarons speed up superfluorescent bursts, the text suggests that no superfluorescence can occur at room temperature in the absence of polarons. Thus, the text indicates that polarons make superfluorescent bursts more likely to occur at higher temperatures than those at which it had previously been observed, not that polarons accelerate the bursts. Choice D is incorrect because the text’s discussion of polarons is about how they might enable superfluorescence at higher temperatures than those at which it had previously been observed. In the absence of polarons, the text suggests there would be no superfluorescence at room temperature. Thus, rather than decrease the intensity of superfluorescent bursts, polarons make them more likely to occur under certain circumstances.  

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID c83e0b43

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: c83e0b43

O Pioneers! is a 1913 novel by Willa Cather. In the novel, Cather depicts Alexandra Bergson as a person who takes comfort in understanding the world around her: blank

Which quotation from O Pioneers! most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “She looked fixedly up the bleak street as if she were gathering her strength to face something, as if she were trying with all her might to grasp a situation which, no matter how painful, must be met and dealt with somehow.“

  • “She had never known before how much the country meant to her. The chirping of the insects down in the long grass had been like the sweetest music. She had felt as if her heart were hiding down there, somewhere, with the quail and the plover and all the little wild things that crooned or buzzed in the sun. Under the long shaggy ridges, she felt the future stirring.“

  • “Alexandra drove off alone. The rattle of her wagon was lost in the howling of the wind, but her lantern, held firmly between her feet, made a moving point of light along the highway, going deeper and deeper into the dark country.”

  • “Alexandra drew her shawl closer about her and stood leaning against the frame of the mill, looking at the stars which glittered so keenly through the frosty autumn air. She always loved to watch them, to think of their vastness and distance, and of their ordered march. It fortified her to reflect upon the great operations of nature, and when she thought of the law that lay behind them, she felt a sense of personal security.”

ID: c83e0b43 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most effectively uses a quotation from O Pioneers! to illustrate the claim that Alexandra Bergson takes comfort in understanding the world around her. In the quotation, Alexandra is described as enjoying looking at the stars and feeling a “sense of personal security” when she contemplates nature’s order and its governing laws. This suggests that Alexandra takes comfort in understanding the world around her. 

Choice A is incorrect because the quotation expresses how Alexandra Bergson attempts to meet difficult situations with determination, not how she takes comfort in understanding the world around her. Choice B is incorrect because the quotation expresses “how much the country meant to” Alexandra Bergson, not how she takes comfort in understanding the world around her. In detailing some of the wildlife surrounding Alexandra, the quotation conveys that nature is important to her but not necessarily that it gives her comfort. Choice C is incorrect because the quotation describes Alexandra driving her wagon down a highway at night; it doesn’t describe how she takes comfort in understanding the world around her or address how she’s feeling as she drives off. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 6177abc5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 6177abc5

Video Game Availability by Initial Release Years

Initial release years Percentage of games still available
1975–1979 0.89
1980–1984 3.65
1985–1989 15.38
1990–1994 19.33
1995–1999 14.22

 

In a recent study, researchers found that relatively few video games released over the decades remain available today. For example, only 14.22 percent of games are still available that were initially released in blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • 2000–2004.

  • 1995–1999.

  • 1970–1974.

  • 1985–1989.

ID: 6177abc5 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement about video game availability. The text states that just a few games released in the past are available today and then indicates that there is a period of years from which only 14.22 percent of the games released are available. The table shows that 14.22 percent of games are still available from the years 1995–1999.

Choice A is incorrect because the years 2000–2004 are not represented in the table. Choice C is incorrect because the years 1970–1974 are not represented in the table. Choice D is incorrect because the years 1985–1989 correspond to a percentage of games still available of 15.38 percent, not 14.22 percent.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID a9040290

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: a9040290
200 175 150 125 100 75 50 25 0Electricity (in thousands of MWh)  Amount of Additional Electricity WindTurbines Could Generate WhenWinds Were Stronger Than Forecast West Midwest
  • The data for the 2 categories are as follows: 
    • West: 150.2 thousand megawatt-hours
    • Midwest: 182.6 thousand megawatt-hours

Electric companies that use wind turbines rely on weather forecasts to predict the maximum amount of power, in megawatt-hours (MWh), they can generate using wind so that they can determine how much they’ll need to generate from other sources. When winds are stronger than they were forecast to be, however, the predicted maximum amount of electricity wind turbines could generate will be too low. For example, the graph shows that for the West region, the winds were blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the example?

  • strong enough to generate about 150 thousand more MWh of electricity from wind turbines.

  • so weak that the electricity from wind turbines was about 175 thousand MWh less than predicted.

  • so weak that the electricity from wind turbines was about 150 thousand MWh less than predicted.

  • strong enough to generate about 175 thousand more MWh of electricity from wind turbines.

ID: a9040290 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The claim is that when winds are stronger than forecasted, wind turbines can generate more energy than predicted. The supporting graph shows the additional amount (above the predicted amount) that the turbines generated under those conditions, with the West generating about 150 thousand additional MWh.

Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t complete the example. The graph shows the additional amount of electricity that the wind turbines generated. The West bar is greater than 0, so the West generated more than the predicted amount. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t complete the example. The graph shows the additional amount of electricity that the wind turbines generated. The West bar is greater than 0, so the West generated more than the predicted amount. Choice D is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. The graph shows us that the West (the bar on the left) generated about 150 thousand additional MWh.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID bc1b8a42

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: bc1b8a42

Percentage of Bus Shelters with Shade in a County by Areas’ Highest Average Summer Surface Temperature

Highest average surface temperature (Fahrenheit) Percentage of bus stops with shaded shelter
90.2° 15%
97.7° 22%
102.7° 24%
111.2° 28%
125.6° 29%

A student is researching a bus system in a large county where surface temperatures vary by area and are hot in the summer. The student claims that all areas of the county should have more bus stops with shaded shelter, noting that the highest percentage of bus stops with shaded shelter for any area is only blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the student’s claim? 

  • 50%.

  • 15%.

  • 90%.

  • 29%.

ID: bc1b8a42 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it effectively uses data from the table to complete the student’s claim about the highest percentage of bus stops with shaded shelter in the areas represented. The table shows the highest average surface temperature of five areas and the percentage of bus stops with shaded shelter in each area, and 29% is the highest percentage listed.

Choice A is incorrect because the list of percentages of bus stops with shaded shelter does not include 50%; the highest percentage in the table is 29%. Choice B is incorrect because 15% is the lowest value in the listed percentages of bus stops with shaded shelter, not the highest value. Choice C is incorrect because the list of percentages of bus stops with shaded shelter does not include 90%; the highest percentage in the table is 29%.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID ac285054

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: ac285054

The domestic sweet potato (Ipomoea batatas) descends from a wild plant native to South America. It also populates the Polynesian Islands, where evidence confirms that Native Hawaiians and other Indigenous peoples were cultivating the plant centuries before seafaring first occurred over the thousands of miles of ocean separating them from South America. To explain how the sweet potato was first introduced in Polynesia, botanist Pablo Muñoz-Rodríguez and colleagues analyzed the DNA of numerous varieties of the plant, concluding that Polynesian varieties diverged from South American ones over 100,000 years ago. Given that Polynesia was peopled only in the last three thousand years, the team concluded that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • the cultivation of the sweet potato in Polynesia likely predates its cultivation in South America.

  • Polynesian peoples likely acquired the sweet potato from South American peoples only within the last three thousand years.

  • human activity likely played no role in the introduction of the sweet potato in Polynesia.

  • Polynesian sweet potato varieties likely descend from a single South American variety that was domesticated, not wild.

ID: ac285054 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the sweet potato in Polynesia. The text indicates that the sweet potato is found in Polynesia but originated in South America, and that the sweet potato was being cultivated by Native Hawaiians and other Indigenous peoples in Polynesia long before sea voyages between South America and Polynesia began. The text goes on to note that research by Muñoz-Rodríguez and colleagues has established that the Polynesian varieties of sweet potato split from South American varieties more than 100,000 years ago, which is thousands of years before humans settled in Polynesia. If Polynesian peoples were cultivating the sweet potato before sea voyages between Polynesia and South America began, and if Polynesian varieties of sweet potato diverged from South American varieties well before people were in Polynesia, it can reasonably be concluded that humans didn’t play a role in bringing the sweet potato to Polynesia. 

Choice A is incorrect. The text doesn’t provide any information about when the sweet potato began to be cultivated in South America, so there’s no support for the conclusion that cultivation began in Polynesia before it began in South America. Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that the sweet potato was being cultivated in Polynesia long before sea journeys between Polynesia and South America began. Therefore, it wouldn’t be reasonable to conclude that Polynesian peoples acquired the sweet potato from South American peoples. Additionally, the text indicates that the Polynesian varieties of sweet potato diverged from the South American varieties thousands of years before people settled in Polynesia, which suggests that the sweet potato was already present in Polynesia when people arrived. Choice D is incorrect because the text states that the domestic sweet potato, which is found in Polynesia, descends from a wild South American plant, not from a domesticated South American plant. The only people that the text describes as cultivating the sweet potato are Native Hawaiians and other Indigenous peoples of Polynesia. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 01989d77

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 01989d77

Microbes that live in shallow lakes and ponds produce methane, a harmful greenhouse gas. Ecologist Ralf Aben and his team wanted to see how different types of shallow-water plants might affect the amount of methane that escapes into the atmosphere. Aben’s team set up some water tanks with soil and microbes from local ponds. Some tanks had a type of underwater plant that grows in the soil called watermilfoil. Other tanks had either duckweed, a type of plant that floats on the water’s surface, or algae. Aben and his team found that tanks with duckweed and algae released higher levels of methane than tanks with watermilfoil did. This finding suggests that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • the presence of some kinds of underwater plants like watermilfoil helps prevent methane from escaping shallow lakes and ponds.

  • shallow lakes and ponds release more methane than deeper bodies of water because shallow bodies of water usually have more plants than deep bodies of water do.    

  • shallow lakes and ponds are more likely to contain algae than to contain either watermilfoil or duckweed.

  • having a mix of algae, underwater plants, and floating plants is the best way to reduce the amount of methane in shallow lakes and ponds. 

ID: 01989d77 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The passage tells us that “tanks with duckweed (a floating plant) and algae released higher levels of methane than tanks with watermilfoil (an underwater plant) did.” This suggests that the presence of some kinds of underwater plants like watermilfoil may help prevent methane from escaping shallow lakes and ponds.

Choice B is incorrect. The passage doesn’t mention deeper bodies of water at all, so there’s no basis for this inference. Choice C is incorrect. The passage doesn’t compare the likelihood of shallow lakes and ponds containing algae, watermilfoil, or duckweed. Choice D is incorrect. The study didn’t include any tanks with a mix of plants, so there’s no basis for this inference.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID a13541c0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: a13541c0

Sandra Cisneros’s 1984 novella The House on Mango Street made a lasting impact on US literature. Its depiction of Mexican American culture inspired later authors to examine their own heritage within their fictional works. Also influential was the book’s portrayal of the main character, Esperanza, during a pivotal year of her youth. This insightful depiction of a preteen girl encouraged authors who, like Cisneros herself, are Latina to use fictional works to examine experiences from their own youth.

Which statement, if true, would most strongly support the claim in the underlined sentence?

  • In interviews, a number of Latina authors say that The House on Mango Street inspired them to write about their own adolescence in their novels.

  • In published writings, several prominent authors who are not Latina say that reading The House on Mango Street influenced their approach to writing fiction.

  • The House on Mango Street has sold over six million copies and is one of the most commonly read books among high school and university students in the US.

  • Since 1984, new novels about young Latina characters by Latina authors have often been compared to The House on Mango Street. 

ID: a13541c0 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most strongly support the claim in the underlined sentence. The text begins by explaining that the portrayal of Mexican American culture in Sandra Cisneros’s The House on Mango Street inspired later authors to explore their own heritage. Noting that Cisneros’s novella was also influential for its depiction of a formative year in a female character’s youth, the text then claims that this depiction inspired other Latina authors to use fiction to explore their own experiences of youth. Since this claim addresses how Cisneros encouraged Latina authors specifically to portray their youthful experiences, it would be directly supported by such authors stating that her novella influenced them to write about their own adolescence, or the transitional period between childhood and adulthood.

Choice B is incorrect. The text states that with its portrayal of Mexican American culture, The House on Mango Street inspired later authors to explore their own heritage, and since this statement isn’t limited to only Latina authors, it can be inferred that authors who aren’t Latina were also likely influenced by the novella. But because the claim in the underlined sentence concerns the novella’s influence on Latina authors specifically, the finding that the book also influenced authors who weren’t Latina would fail to provide support for the claim. Choice C is incorrect because the finding that The House on Mango Street has sold millions of copies and is widely read among students in the US doesn’t relate directly to the text’s claim that the novella has influenced Latina authors specifically. Choice D is incorrect. While comparisons of new novels about young Latina characters by Latina authors to Cisneros’s The House on Mango Street would likely be founded on similarities between those novels and Cisneros’s novella, such similarities wouldn’t necessarily be evidence of the novella’s influence; such similarities might arise if Cisneros and younger Latina authors alike depicted certain basic cultural and historical features of their communities. Testimony from younger Latina authors about how The House on Mango Street had inspired them would be far more persuasive evidence of the novella’s influence. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 8a8236e1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 8a8236e1

Scent is tightly interwoven with our daily lives, often evoking significant memories and important social events. This connection is of growing interest to archaeologists who hope to use it to better understand ancient rituals, trade, social hierarchies, and medicine. Although the speed at which odor molecules dissipate makes identifying ancient scents challenging, advancements in biomolecular technologies show promise in unlocking ancient aromas from preserved artifacts. Archaeological studies making use of these advancements may provide new insights into past societies.

According to the text, what is one reason some archaeologists are interested in recovering scents from ancient artifacts?

  • They are investigating whether people’s sense of smell has declined in recent centuries.

  • They believe the scents could illuminate important aspects of ancient life.

  • They think that ancient scents would be enjoyable to people today. 

  • They hope to develop new medicines using ancient scent molecules. 

ID: 8a8236e1 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The text states that archaeologists are interested in using scents to better understand "ancient rituals, trade, social hierarchies, and medicine," all of which are important aspects of ancient life.

Choice A is incorrect. The text doesn’t say anything about investigating if people’s sense of smell has declined in recent centuries. It says that scents fade over time—not that people have gotten worse at smelling scents. Choice C is incorrect. The text says that archaeologists are interested in using scents to better understand "ancient rituals, trade, social hierarchies, and medicine," but it doesn’t say anything about ancient scents being enjoyable to people today. Choice D is incorrect. The text doesn’t say anything about developing new medicines. Rather, it says that archaeologists are interested in using scents to better understand "ancient rituals, trade, social hierarchies, and medicine."

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 7c1e5880

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 7c1e5880

Scholars have noted that F. Scott Fitzgerald’s writings were likely influenced in part by his marriage to Zelda Fitzgerald, but many don’t recognize Zelda as a writer in her own right. Indeed, Zelda authored several works herself, such as the novel Save Me the Waltz and numerous short stories. Thus, those who primarily view Zelda as an inspiration for F. Scott’s writings blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • overlook the many other factors that motivated F. Scott to write.

  • risk misrepresenting the full range of Zelda’s contributions to literature.

  • may draw inaccurate conclusions about how F. Scott and Zelda viewed each other’s works.

  • tend to read the works of F. Scott and Zelda in an overly autobiographical light.

ID: 7c1e5880 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Zelda Fitzgerald’s contributions to literature. The text begins by saying that many scholars view Zelda mainly in terms of her marriage to F. Scott Fitzgerald and “don’t recognize Zelda as a writer in her own right.” The text then mentions a novel and “numerous short stories” that she wrote and that such scholars tend to ignore. Therefore, those scholars who focus on Zelda only as an inspiration for F. Scott’s writings risk misrepresenting the full range of Zelda’s contributions to literature.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text does mention that Zelda Fitzgerald “likely influenced” her husband’s literary work, its focus is on Zelda’s own writing, not on her husband’s writing or factors that might have influenced it. Choice C is incorrect because the text does not discuss F. Scott and Zelda Fitzgerald’s opinions of each other’s works. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text does suggest that F. Scott Fitzgerald’s works were “likely influenced in part” by his marriage to Zelda, it does not discuss autobiographical interpretations of the works of either F. Scott or Zelda.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID dd1757fd

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: dd1757fd

Neural networks are computer models intended to reflect the organization of human brains and are often used in studies of brain function. According to an analysis of 11,000 such networks, Rylan Schaeffer and colleagues advise caution when drawing conclusions about brains from observations of neural networks. They found that when attempting to mimic grid cells (brain cells used in navigation), while 90% of the networks could accomplish navigation-related tasks, only about 10% of those exhibited any behaviors similar to those of grid cells. But even this approximation of grid-cell activity has less to do with similarity between the neural networks and biological brains than it does with the rules programmed into the networks.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the claim in the underlined sentence?

  • The rules that allow for networks to exhibit behaviors like those of grid cells have no equivalent in the function of biological brains.

  • The networks that do not exhibit behaviors like those of grid cells were nonetheless programmed with rules that had proven useful in earlier neural-network studies.

  • Neural networks can often accomplish tasks that biological brains do, but they are typically programmed with rules to model multiple types of brain cells simultaneously.

  • Once a neural network is programmed, it is trained on certain tasks to see if it can independently arrive at processes that are similar to those performed by biological brains.

ID: dd1757fd Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. While many networks can perform navigation tasks, or even mimic grid cells, it doesn’t mean they’re actually behaving like biological brains—this finding suggests that the rules that govern neural network behavior are completely unlike the way real brains work.

Choice B is incorrect. Although it mentions the rules that are programmed into the networks, this finding wouldn’t clarify whether or not these rules have anything to do with the function of biological brains. Choice C is incorrect. This choice suggests that neural networks are modeled after multiple types of brain cells, which sidesteps the question of whether these rule-based networks are genuinely similar to biological brains. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t address the key point of the claim, which is that the apparent similarity between neural networks and biological brains is only due to the rules programmed into the networks. It focuses on training tasks, not the originally programmed rules.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 15873d14

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 15873d14
90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0Percent 2009/2010 2010/2011 2011/2012 2012/2013 2013/2014Percentage of Maize Exported by Three Countries for Marketing Years 2009/2010–2013/2014Marketing year Argentina Brazil United States
  • The following 3 lines are shown:
    • Argentina
    • Brazil
    • United States
  • The Argentina line:
    • Begins at 2009/2010, 66.5%
    • Falls gradually to 2010/2011, 66%
    • Rises sharply to 2011/2012, 81%
    • Falls sharply to 2012/2013, 70%
    • Falls gradually to 2013/2014, 65%
  • The Brazil line:
    • Begins at 2009/2010, 21%
    • Falls gradually to 2010/2011, 15%
    • Rises sharply to 2011/2012, 34%
    • Falls gradually to 2012/2013, 31%
    • Falls gradually to 2013/2014, 27%
  • The United States line:
    • Begins at 2009/2010, 15%
    • Remains level to 2010/2011, 15%
    • Falls gradually to 2011/2012, 13%
    • Falls gradually to 2012/2013, 7.5%
    • Rises gradually to 2013/2014, 13.5%

Argentina, Brazil, and the United States are among the world’s leading producers of maize (corn), and each country exports a certain percentage of maize each marketing year, which runs from March to February in Argentina and Brazil and from September to August in the United States. A student is researching those percentages and finds that for the marketing year 2012/2013, the percentage of maize exported by blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the text?

  • Brazil increased from the previous marketing year but remained lower than the percentage exported by the United States.

  • Brazil exceeded the percentage exported by Argentina for the first time.

  • Argentina decreased from the previous marketing year but remained the highest among the three countries.

  • the United States reached its highest point during the five marketing years. 

ID: 15873d14 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the text’s discussion of the percentages of maize exported in the marketing year 2012/2013. The graph presents percentages of maize exported by Argentina, Brazil, and the United States in marketing years 2009/2010 to 2013/2014 and indicates that for the marketing year 2012/2013, the percentage of maize exported by Argentina decreased to about 70 percent from about 80 percent in the previous marketing year. The graph also shows that the percentage of maize exported by Argentina remained highest among the three countries in the marketing year 2012/2013, surpassing the percentage exported by Brazil (about 31 percent) and by the United States (about 8 percent).

Choice A is incorrect because for the marketing year 2012/2013, the graph indicates that the percentage of maize exported by Brazil didn’t increase from the previous year; rather, it decreased from about 34 percent to about 31 percent. Moreover, the graph shows that the percentage of maize exported by Brazil remained higher, not lower, than the percentage exported by the United States in the marketing year 2012/2013. Choice B is incorrect because the graph indicates that the percentage of maize exported by Brazil never exceeded the percentage exported by Argentina for any of the marketing years represented. Choice D is incorrect because the graph indicates that the percentage of maize exported by the United States reached its lowest point, not its highest, during the five marketing years in 2012/2013, with the United States exporting only about 8 percent of its maize in that marketing year.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID b38935ab

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: b38935ab

Historians point to the rule of the Piast dynasty as crucial to the formation of the Polish state. However, some differentiate between members of the dynasty like Mieszko II Lambert, who ruled as king from 1025 to 1031 CE, and less well-documented figures like Siemomysł, who is said to have ruled in the 10th century but whose historical actuality is disputed. Siemomysł appears in the Gesta principum Polonorum, a chronicle of medieval Polish history written between 1112 and 1118. However, the chronicle’s documentation of Siemomysł relies on oral tradition, unlike its records of later rulers.

According to the text, what is a difference between how historians view Siemomysł and how they view Mieszko II Lambert?

  • Historians agree that Mieszko II Lambert existed, but disagree about whether Siemomysł existed.

  • Historians believe that the Gesta principum Polonorum provides more evidence for Siemomysł’s existence than it does for Mieszko II Lambert’s existence.

  • Historians agree that Siemomysł ruled Poland much later than Mieszko II Lambert.

  • Historians find the orally transmitted stories affirming the existence of Mieszko II Lambert to be more convincing than similar stories about Siemomysł.

ID: b38935ab Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents a statement about how historians view Siemomysł and Mieszko II Lambert that is supported by the text. The text states that the Piast dynasty had a number of different members. The text refers to two of the rulers in the Piast dynasty by name: Mieszko II Lambert, whose rule was known to have occurred from 1025 to 1031 CE, and Siemomysł ("whose historical actuality is disputed"), for whom less is known and who therefore is the subject of debate among historians. The text further casts doubt about Siemomysł by stating that he is "said to have ruled" during the 10th century, or the 900s, which suggests the possibility that he didn’t rule. The text also mentions that the chronicle’s documentation of Siemomysł relies on oral tradition, unlike its records of later rulers, including Mieszko II Lambert. This indicates that historians agree that Mieszko II Lambert was an actual historical figure, but they disagree about whether Siemomysł existed.

Choice B is incorrect because the text states that the Gesta principum Polonorum’s documentation of Siemomysł comes from oral tradition—spoken rather than written documentation—unlike its records of rulers who came after Siemomysł. This suggests that the chronicle provides less reliable evidence rather than more evidence for Siemomysł’s existence in the 900s (or the 10th century) than it does for later rulers like Mieszko II Lambert, who ruled from 1025 to 1031 CE. Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates the opposite: Siemomysł supposedly ruled earlier in the 10th century, while Mieszko II Lambert ruled from 1025 to 1031 CE. The 10th century spans the years from 901 to 1000 CE, so Siemomysł is believed to have ruled earlier than Mieszko II Lambert did, not later as this choice states. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text mentions that information in the written chronicle Gesta principum Polonorum draws its information about Siemomysł from the oral tradition, it doesn’t mention orally transmitted stories about Mieszko II Lambert. Instead, it states that the chronicle’s documentation of Siemomysł relies on oral tradition unlike the records of later rulers do, which suggests that the documentation of later rulers such as Mieszko II Lambert did not rely on oral tradition. Thus, no comparison can be made about how convincing the orally transmitted stories of each ruler are to historians.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 8a584241

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 8a584241

100 90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0Seeds germinated (%) 24 48 72 168Seed Germination with and withoutH₂S Treatment Time (hours) 500 micromoles per liter 10 micromoles per liter untreated

In high concentrations, hydrogen sulfide (H₂S) is typically toxic to many plants. Frederick D. Dooley and colleagues wanted to understand what effects low doses of H₂S might have on plant growth. They treated bean, corn, wheat, and pea seeds with various concentrations (measured in micromoles per liter) of H₂S and tracked the germination of those seeds along with the germination of untreated seeds. Treatment with particular concentrations of H₂S was associated with accelerated germination: for example, blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the statement?

  • at 24 hours, less than 10% of seeds treated with H₂S at a concentration of 10 micromoles per liter had germinated, whereas more than 90% of those seeds had germinated at 168 hours.

  • at 48 hours, more than 70% of seeds treated with H₂S at a concentration of 10 micromoles per liter had germinated, whereas only approximately 50% of untreated seeds had germinated. 

  • at 168 hours, more than 90% of seeds treated with H₂S at concentrations of 10 or 500 micromoles per liter had germinated, whereas less than 70% of untreated seeds had germinated.

  • at 48 hours, approximately 50% of seeds treated with H₂S at a concentration of 10 micromoles per liter had germinated, whereas only approximately 30% of untreated seeds had germinated.

ID: 8a584241 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The claim is that some concentrations of H₂S led to increased germination rates, and this choice accurately shows that seeds treated with 10 micromoles per liter of H₂S tended to germinate faster than untreated seeds.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t justify the claim. The claim compares the germination rates of seeds exposed to certain concentrations of H₂S to untreated seeds, but this choice only discusses one concentration of H₂S, so it can’t support any comparison between treated and untreated groups. Choice C is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. At 168 hours, only about 85% of seeds treated with H₂S at 500 micromoles per liter and well over 70% of untreated seeds had germinated (about 80%). Choice D is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. At 48 hours, about 70% of seeds treated with H₂S at 10 micromoles per liter and about 50% of untreated seeds had germinated.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID dd72993d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: dd72993d

Rivers rich in sediment appear yellow, while increases in red algae make rivers appear red. To track things like the sediment or algae content of large US rivers, John R. Gardner and colleagues used satellite data to determine the dominant visible wavelengths of light measured for various segments of these rivers. The researchers classified wavelengths of 495 nanometers (nm) and below as red, wavelengths between 495 and 560 nm as blue, and wavelengths of 560 nm and above as yellow. The researchers concluded that for the Missouri River, segments flowing into lakes tend to carry more sediment than those flowing out of lakes.  

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ conclusion?

  • The segments of the Missouri River that had higher levels of chlorophyll-a, which contributes to the green color of photosynthetic organisms, have dominant wavelengths of light between 490 and 560 nm.

  • In lakes through which segments of the Missouri River pass, the dominant wavelength of light tended to be above 560 nm near the lakes’ shores and below 560 nm in the lakes’ centers.

  • The majority of the segments of the Missouri River were found to have dominant wavelengths of light significantly higher than 560 nm.  

  • Segments of the Missouri River flowing into lakes typically had dominant wavelengths of light above 560 nm, while segments flowing out of lakes typically had dominant wavelengths below 560 nm.

ID: dd72993d Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support Gardner and colleagues’ conclusion that segments of the Missouri River flowing into lakes tend to carry more sediment than do segments of the river flowing out of lakes. The text says that rivers appear yellow when they contain a lot of sediment and appear red when they contain a lot of algae. It goes on to explain that Gardner and colleagues measured the wavelengths of light for different segments of rivers in the United States and classified those wavelength measurements into colors: red for wavelengths of 495 nanometers and below, blue for wavelengths between 495 and 560 nanometers, and yellow for wavelengths of 560 nanometers and above. Combined with the earlier information about river colors, this suggests that rivers rich in sediment will have wavelengths of 560 nanometers and above (since such rivers appear yellow). If researchers found that Missouri River segments flowing into lakes tend to have wavelengths above 560 nanometers and segments flowing out of lakes tend to have wavelengths below 560 nanometers, this finding would support Gardner and colleagues’ conclusion, since it would suggest that the river tends to carry more sediment when it flows into lakes than when it flows out of lakes. 

Choice A is incorrect because finding that sections of the Missouri River with high chlorophyll-a levels have wavelengths between 490 and 560 nanometers would be irrelevant to the researchers’ conclusion that segments of the river flowing into lakes are richer in sediment than are segments of the river flowing out of lakes. This finding would not indicate anything about segments flowing into or out of lakes. Choice B is incorrect because finding that lakes through which the Missouri River passes have higher wavelengths near their shores than in the center would not support the researchers’ conclusion that segments of the river flowing into lakes have more sediment than segments flowing out of lakes. This finding would suggest only that there is more sediment around the edges of lakes than in their centers, which does not have any direct bearing on the researchers’ conclusion about river segments flowing into and out of lakes. Choice C is incorrect because finding that most segments of the Missouri River have wavelengths significantly higher than 560 nanometers would suggest that most segments of the river are high in sediment, not that segments flowing into lakes are higher in sediment than segments flowing out of lakes. Only a comparison of river segments flowing into lakes with segments flowing out of lakes can support the researchers’ conclusion. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 4603d1f7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 4603d1f7

In their book Smart Pricing, Jagmohan Raju and Z. John Zhang consider musicians’ use of the nontraditional “pay as you wish” pricing model. This model generally offers listeners the choice to pay more or less than a suggested price for a song or album—or even to pay nothing at all. As the authors note, that’s the option most listeners chose for an album by the band Harvey Danger. Only about 1% opted to pay for the album, resulting in earnings below the band’s expectations. But the authors also discuss musician Jane Siberry, who saw significant earnings from her “pay as you wish” online music store as a result of many listeners choosing to pay more than the store’s suggested prices. Hence, the “pay as you wish” model may blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • prove financially successful for some musicians but disappointing for others.

  • hold greater financial appeal for bands than for individual musicians.

  • cause most musicians who use the model to lower the suggested prices of their songs and albums over time.

  • more strongly reflect differences in certain musicians’ popularity than traditional pricing models do.

ID: 4603d1f7 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. In one example, musicians made less money than expected by using the “pay as you wish” model. In the other example, a musician made more money than expected. This suggests that some musicians may have more success than others using the “pay as you wish” model.

Choice B is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. In the examples provided, the individual musician was more successful with the “pay as you wish” model than the band was. Choice C is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The passage provides no instances in which musicians changed the suggested prices of their songs or albums, nor does it mention this as a possibility. Choice D is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never discusses the differences in popularity of different musicians, so there is no basis to make this inference.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 6df33868

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 6df33868

 “We Are Marching” is a 1921 poem by Carrie Law Morgan Figgs. In the poem, the speaker predicts future success: blank

Which quotation from “We Are Marching” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “Can’t you hear the sound of feet?”

  • “You who are out just get in line.” 

  • “We have answered duty’s call.”

  • “We shall never know defeat.”

ID: 6df33868 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most effectively illustrates the claim that the speaker in the poem "We Are Marching" predicts future success. To say that someone will "never know" an experience—like defeat, or being unsuccessful—is to indicate that they will never personally have that experience. Thus, when the speaker says that the marching group "shall never know defeat," the speaker is predicting that the group will experience only success in the future.

Choice A is incorrect because the quotation presents a question about an activity already taking place (marching), not a statement about future success. The speaker is asking if the sound of marching feet is being heard. Choice B is incorrect because the quotation directs an immediate action instead of making a prediction about the future. The speaker is telling people to "get in line," or to join the march that’s already happening. Choice C is incorrect because the quotation describes a past action instead of making a prediction about the future. The speaker is stating that those in the march have "answered duty’s call"—that is, that they have acted out of a sense of duty.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 086dd8cc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 086dd8cc

The morphological novelty of echinoderms—marine invertebrates with radial symmetry, usually starlike, around a central point—impedes comparisons with most other animals, in which bilateral symmetry on an anterior-posterior (head to tail) axis through a trunk is typical. Particularly puzzling are sea stars, thought to have evolved a headless layout from a known bilateral origin. Applying genomic knowledge of Saccoglossus kowalevskii acorn worms (close relatives of sea stars, and thus expected to have similar markers for corresponding anatomical regions) to the body patterning genes of Patiria miniata sea stars, Laurent Formery et al. observed activity only in anterior genes across P. miniata’s entire body and some posterior genes limited to the edges, suggesting that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • despite the greater prevalence of anterior genes in sea stars’ genetic makeup, posterior genes active at the body’s perimeter are primarily responsible for the starlike layout that distinguishes sea stars’ radial symmetry from that of other echinoderms.

  • contrary to the belief that they evolved from early ancestors with the bilateral form typical of many other animals, sea stars instead originated with an atypical body layout that was neither bilaterally nor radially symmetrical.

  • although the two species are closely related, there is only minimal correspondence in the genetic markers for head, tail, and trunk region development in P. miniata sea stars and S. kowalevskii acorn worms.

  • rather than undergoing changes resulting in the eventual elimination of a head region in their radial body plan, as previously assumed, sea stars’ morphology evolved to completely lack a trunk and consist primarily of a head region.

ID: 086dd8cc Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the morphology (form and structure) of sea stars, a type of echinoderm. The text indicates that echinoderms have radially symmetrical body plans (symmetrical around a central point, usually in the form of a star), whereas most animals have bilaterally symmetrical body plans (symmetrical along an axis running from head to tail through a trunk). According to the text, sea stars are unusual echinoderms because, despite their radial body plan, they descended from known bilateral ancestors. This shift in body plan was thought to be a process of losing the genetic markers associated with the head region. The text explains that by comparing the genes of one sea star species (P. miniata) to those of a close relative, the acorn worm, researchers determined that instead, anterior (head) genes are active across the sea star’s entire body, posterior (tail) genes are active in limited, peripheral locations of the body, and no trunk-related genes are active. This finding strongly suggests that, rather than becoming "headless" as they evolved from a bilateral ancestor, sea stars developed a body plan consisting almost entirely of a head region with a minimal tail region and no trunk region present.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t identify how any particular region of sea stars’ bodies influences the layout of sea stars’ radial symmetry. Moreover, the text indicates that the radial symmetry of echinoderms is "usually starlike," not that a starlike layout distinguishes sea stars from other echinoderms. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the idea that sea stars evolved from an ancestor with bilateral symmetry is incorrect (describing the bilateral origin as "known") and doesn’t address any body plans other than those with radial or bilateral symmetry. The text strongly suggests that rather than revealing something about sea stars’ origin, Formery et al.’s findings contradict the assumption that the current body plan of sea stars is "headless." Choice C is incorrect because the text suggests that Formery et al. were able to make determinations about P. miniata sea stars’ body plan based on the comparability of genetic markers between P. miniata and S. kowalevskii acorn worms. The text indicates only that little or no activity was observed in certain types of genes associated with body development in P. miniata, not that those genes turned out to largely differ from body-development genes in S. kowalevskii.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID e185a21f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: e185a21f

One theory behind human bipedalism speculates that it originated in a mostly ground-based ancestor that practiced four-legged “knuckle-walking,” like chimpanzees and gorillas do today, and eventually evolved into moving upright on two legs. But recently, researchers observed orangutans, another relative of humans, standing on two legs on tree branches and using their arms for balance while they reached for fruits. These observations may suggest that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • bipedalism evolved because it was advantageous to a tree-dwelling ancestor of humans.

  • bipedalism must have evolved simultaneously with knuckle-walking and tree-climbing.

  • moving between the ground and the trees would have been difficult without bipedalism.

  • a knuckle-walking human ancestor could have easily moved bipedally in trees.  

ID: e185a21f Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the evolution of bipedalism in humans. According to the text, one potential explanation for humans walking upright on two legs is that the behavior evolved from an ancestor that mostly stayed on the ground and walked on four limbs, as modern chimpanzees and gorillas do. However, the finding that orangutans, also a relative of humans, sometimes stand on two legs in trees while using their arms to balance and reach for fruits suggests another possible explanation: perhaps a tree-dwelling ancestor of humans began moving on two legs because it offered an advantage, such as access to certain foods.

Choice B is incorrect because the finding that modern orangutans (a relative of humans) sometimes stand on two legs in trees doesn’t offer any insight into when either bipedalism or tree-climbing behavior emerged in human ancestors. Additionally, the text indicates that one theory is that bipedalism evolved from a mostly ground-based ancestor that was already practicing knuckle-walking, not that bipedalism and knuckle-walking developed at the same time. Choice C is incorrect because the finding that orangutans (a relative of humans) sometimes stand on two legs in trees doesn’t offer any insight into how difficult it would’ve been to move between the ground and the trees without bipedalism; there’s no suggestion that climbing or moving in trees depends on the ability to walk on two legs rather than four, even if that ability might be helpful in certain circumstances. Choice D is incorrect because the finding that orangutans (a relative of humans) sometimes stand on two legs in trees doesn’t suggest that a knuckle-walking human ancestor could’ve easily moved on two legs in trees. Although the text indicates that bipedalism may have evolved from a human ancestor that mostly stayed on the ground and walked on four limbs, it gives no indication of how easy it would’ve been for such an ancestor to move bipedally in trees. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 20000f5f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 20000f5f

Arthur Conan Doyle’s stories about detective Sherlock Holmes were published between 1887 and 1927. They have inspired countless successful adaptations, including comic strips, movies, and a television series Sherlock Hound, directed by Hayao Miyazaki, who is celebrated for his animated movies. Until 2014, these stories were copyrighted. The right to adapt was only available to those who could afford the copyright fee and gain approval from the strict copyright holders of Doyle’s estate. Some journalists predict that the number of Sherlock Holmes adaptations is likely to increase since the end of copyright means that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • Doyle’s original stories will become hard to find.

  • people will become more interested in detective stories than they were in the 1800s.

  • producing adaptations will become easier and less expensive.

  • the former copyright holders of Doyle’s estate will return fees they collected.

ID: 20000f5f Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The text tells us that because of the copyright, adapting Sherlock Holmes stories used to be expensive and difficult. This suggests that after the copyright ends, it will be less expensive and less difficult to adapt these stories.

Choice A is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never suggests that the copyright ending will make Sherlock Holmes stories harder to find. Instead, it suggests that adaptations of these stories will be easier and less expensive to make. Choice B is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never discusses people’s interest in detective stories, so there is no basis to make this inference. Choice D is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never suggests that copyright fees from the past are returned after a copyright ends, so there is no basis to make this inference.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 64cd7321

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 64cd7321

As media consumption has become increasingly multiplatform and socially mediated, active news acquisition has diminished in favor of an attitude known as “news finds me” (NFM), in which people passively rely on their social networks and ambient media environments for information about current events. Homero Gil de Zúñiga and Trevor Diehl examined data on a representative group of adults in the United States to determine participants’ strength of NFM attitude, political knowledge, and political interest. Although no major election took place sufficiently near the study for Gil de Zúñiga and Diehl to identify causality between NFM and voting behavior, they did posit that NFM may reduce voting probability through an indirect effect.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the idea advanced by Gil de Zúñiga and Diehl?

  • NFM attitude tends to increase in strength as major elections approach, and people are significantly more likely to vote in major elections than in minor elections. 

  • NFM attitude has a strong negative effect on political knowledge and interest, and there is known to be a strong positive correlation between political knowledge and interest and the likelihood of voting. 

  • Political interest is known to have a strong positive effect on likelihood of voting but shows only a weak positive effect on political knowledge, and NFM attitude shows little correlation with either political knowledge or political interest.

  • The likelihood of voting increases as political knowledge increases, and the relationship between NFM attitude and political knowledge tends to strengthen as the size of people’s social networks increases. 

ID: 64cd7321 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly support the idea advanced by Homero Gil de Zúñiga and Trevor Diehl that NFM ("news finds me") attitude may reduce voting probability through an indirect effect. The text describes NFM as an attitude that has lowered people’s interest in actively acquiring news and introduces Gil de Zúñiga and Diehl’s study on the effects of NFM on people in the United States’ political knowledge and interest. The text goes on to say that despite the fact that the study didn’t occur near a major election, Gil de Zúñiga and Diehl still conclude that NFM may reduce voting probability. If the likelihood, or probability, that a person will vote is linked to that person’s level of political knowledge and interest, that would suggest that negatively affecting a person’s level of political knowledge and interest would also negatively affect how likely that person is to vote. Thus, if NFM attitude has a negative effect on political knowledge and interest, then it would also likely reduce voting probability.

Choice A is incorrect because the finding that NFM attitude increases as major elections approach wouldn’t address the effect of NFM on the likelihood of voting, which is the idea advanced by Gil de Zúñiga and Diehl. Moreover, although the text mentions that there were no major elections that occurred near the time of the study, it doesn’t discern between major and minor elections when discussing voting probability. Choice C is incorrect because finding that NFM attitude shows little correlation with either political knowledge or political interest would undermine, not support, Gil de Zúñiga and Diehl’s idea that NFM may reduce voting probability because it suggests that NFM has no effect on political knowledge or political interest. Choice D is incorrect. Although Gil de Zúñiga and Diehl’s idea would be supported by the finding that the likelihood of voting increases as political knowledge increases, nothing in the text suggests that the researchers’ idea hinges on the size of people’s social networks.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 25176ff8

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 25176ff8

“Mrs. Spring Fragrance” is a 1912 short story by Sui Sin Far. In the story, Mrs. Spring Fragrance, a Chinese immigrant living in Seattle, is traveling in California. In letters to her husband and friend, she demonstrates her concern for what’s happening at her home in Seattle while she is away: blank

Which quotation from Mrs. Spring Fragrance’s letters most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “My honorable cousin is preparing for the Fifth Moon Festival, and wishes me to compound for the occasion some American ‘fudge,’ for which delectable sweet, made by my clumsy hands, you have sometimes shown a slight prejudice.”

  • “Next week I accompany Ah Oi to the beauteous town of San José. There will we be met by the son of the Illustrious Teacher.”

  • “Forget not to care for the cat, the birds, and the flowers. Do not eat too quickly nor fan too vigorously now that the weather is warming.”

  • “I am enjoying a most agreeable visit, and American friends, as also our own, strive benevolently for the accomplishment of my pleasure.”

ID: 25176ff8 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a quotation that illustrates the claim that Mrs. Spring Fragrance demonstrates concern for what’s happening at home while she’s in California. By giving reminders to “care for the cat, the birds, and the flowers,” “not eat too quickly,” and avoid engaging in strenuous activity in the heat, Mrs. Spring Fragrance shows that she’s thinking about what’s happening at home and wants to ensure everything is taken care of.

Choice A is incorrect because the quotation, while it does suggest that Mrs. Spring Fragrance has made fudge at home before, is focused on preparations for an upcoming festival, not on concerns for anything happening at home while Mrs. Spring Fragrance is away. Choice B is incorrect because the quotation has to do with an upcoming event during Mrs. Spring Fragrance’s trip—visiting San José and meeting someone new—rather than her concern for what’s happening at home. Choice D is incorrect because the quotation is focused on how Mrs. Spring Fragrance feels about her trip and the friends she’s seeing, not on her concern for what’s happening at home.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 67b59a67

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 67b59a67

Plants like potatoes, tomatoes, and soybeans are susceptible to bacterial wilt disease caused by the bacteria Ralstonia solanacearum. A multinational team of scientists led by Zhong Wei studied whether other microbes in the soil might influence the degree to which plants are affected by the disease. The team sampled soil surrounding individual tomato plants over time and compared the results of plants that became diseased with those that remained healthy. They concluded that the presence of certain microbes in the soil might explain the difference between healthy and diseased plants.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the team’s conclusion?

  • The soil surrounding healthy plants contained significantly higher concentrations of microbes known to inhibit Ralstonia solanacearum than the soil surrounding diseased plants did.

  • The soil surrounding the plants contained high concentrations of Ralstonia solanacearum regardless of whether the plants were affected by wilt disease.

  • The soil surrounding healthy plants tended to have significantly higher moisture levels than the soil surrounding diseased plants did. 

  • By the end of the experiment, over half the plants had been affected by wilt disease regardless of differences in the types and concentrations of microbes in the surrounding soil. 

ID: 67b59a67 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. This choice provides evidence that directly links the presence of R. solanacearum-inhibiting microbes in the soil to the health of tomato plants.

Choice B is incorrect. This choice would weaken the team’s conclusion. It suggests that the presence of the disease-causing bacteria had no effect on the health of the tomato plants. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the team’s conclusion. The conclusion is about microbes, not soil moisture. Choice D is incorrect. This choice would weaken the team’s conclusion. It suggests that the presence of the bacteria-inhibiting microbe in soil had no effect on the health of the tomato plants.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID c228bd45

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: c228bd45

The following text is adapted from Edith Nesbit’s 1906 novel The Railway Children.

Mother did not spend all her time in paying dull [visits] to dull ladies, and sitting dully at home waiting for dull ladies to pay [visits] to her. She was almost always there, ready to play with the children, and read to them, and help them to do their home-lessons. Besides this she used to write stories for them while they were at school, and read them aloud after tea, and she always made up funny pieces of poetry for their birthdays and for other great occasions.

According to the text, what is true about Mother?

  • She wishes that more ladies would visit her.

  • Birthdays are her favorite special occasion. 

  • She creates stories and poems for her children.

  • Reading to her children is her favorite activity. 

ID: c228bd45 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it describes something that is true of Mother, as presented in the text. The text indicates that in addition to other activities, Mother writes stories for her children while they are at school and makes up “funny pieces of poetry” for certain occasions. 

Choice A is incorrect because the text suggests that Mother prefers to spend her time with her children and doesn’t sit at home hoping that ladies will visit her. Choice B is incorrect because the text says only that Mother makes up poetry for the children’s birthdays, not that she likes birthdays more than other special occasions. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that Mother prefers reading to her children over the other activities she does with them, such as playing with them and writing stories and poems for them. 

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 7edfb2c5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 7edfb2c5

700 600 500 400 300 200 100 0Temperature (°C) L5_239 K5_106 K3_18 K3_9Estimated Temperatures to which Evron Quarry Artifacts Were Exposed artifact

Flint artifacts dating to 800,000 to 1,000,000 years ago have been recovered from the Evron Quarry in Israel. Likely created by the hominin Homo erectus, the artifacts have no visual features suggesting that they were exposed to fire, leading some scholars to conclude that these hominins had not acquired control of fire. But Zane Stepka and colleagues recently used a new method to determine whether these artifacts had been exposed to temperatures above 400°C (the typical temperature campfires reach) and concluded that the hominins who inhabited the site may have had control of fire. 

Which choice best describes data in the graph that support the team’s conclusion?

  • Artifacts K5_106 and K3_9 were exposed to temperatures above 400°C.

  • Artifacts L5_239 and K3_18 were exposed to temperatures of approximately 550°C and 650°C, respectively.

  • All of the artifacts were exposed to temperatures above 100°C.

  • Artifact K3_9 was exposed to a higher temperature than was artifact K5_106.

ID: 7edfb2c5 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. Campfires typically reach over 400°C, so human artifacts that were exposed to temperatures higher than this may indicate some human control over fire.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. Neither artifact K3_9 nor K5_106 was exposed to temperatures above even 200°C. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the claim. Campfires typically reach over 400°C, so exposure to temperatures of 100°C wouldn’t demonstrate exposure to fire. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the claim. Both artifacts K3_9 and K5_106 were exposed to temperatures of less than 200°C. Since campfires typically reach over 400°C, this wouldn’t demonstrate exposure to fire.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 0c622cfb

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 0c622cfb

Although it’s clear that Mars once had liquid water on its surface, astronomers have debated whether the evidence of ancient water reflects a prolonged phase of warm, wet conditions—the so-called wet and warm scenario—or a brief period of melting in an otherwise consistently frozen environment. Researchers Benjamin T. Cardenas and Michael P. Lamb recently added to this debate by using data from NASA and the Mars Orbiter Laser Altimeter to map the topography of what is now a large basin in Mars’s northern hemisphere. Cardenas and Lamb concluded that the wet and warm scenario is likely correct.  

Which finding about the basin, if true, would most directly support Cardenas and Lamb’s conclusion?

  • Its dimensions and shape indicate that it is unlikely to have formed as the result of an asteroid or comet impact. 

  • It has features suggesting that it once held an ocean that underwent gradual sea-level changes over an extended time.

  • Its physical characteristics are most consistent with it having formed as a result of a massive but short-lived influx of liquid water.

  • It is surrounded by channels that could have been formed either by running water or by flowing lava. 

ID: 0c622cfb Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. This choice provides direct support for the researchers’ conclusion. If the basin once held an ocean of liquid water for "an extended time," that supports the "wet and warm scenario" on Mars, which involved a "prolonged" period of temperate conditions (and not just a "brief period of melting").

Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t provide support for the researchers’ conclusions. The dimensions of the basin have little bearing on whether or not it was filled with liquid water, and for how long, and that’s the evidence that would support the "wet and warm" theory. Similarly, whether or not the basin was formed by an asteroid or a comet is irrelevant to the question of whether or not there was water in the basin for a long period. Choice C is incorrect. This choice does not provide support for the researchers’ conclusions, but rather the opposite. A "massive but short lived influx" of liquid water is not the same as a "prolonged phase of warm, wet conditions." It more reflects the opposing theory, a "brief period of melting." Choice D is incorrect. This choice does not support Cardenas and Lamb’s conclusion. Both theories about liquid water on Mars ("wet and warm" and "brief period of melting") involve flowing water, but lava isn’t mentioned at all in the text. Therefore, this choice doesn’t provide exclusive support for either theory.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 5fb6ed10

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 5fb6ed10

The Land of Enchantment is a 1906 travel book by Lilian Whiting. In the book, which describes the experience of traveling through the southwestern United States by train, Whiting reflects on the escape from everyday life that such a journey provides: blank 

Which quotation from The Land of Enchantment most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “The opportunities and advantages already offered and constantly increasing are greater than would at first be considered possible.”

  • “The social and the picturesque charm of the long journey is singularly enhanced by the leisurely stops made for refreshment.” 

  • “The real journey begins, of course, at Chicago, and as these trains leave in the evening the traveller fares forth in the seclusion of his berth.”

  • “One experiences a certain sense of detachment from ordinary day and daylight duties that is exhilarating.” 

ID: 5fb6ed10 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because. This quotation specifically describes a "sense of detachment from ordinary day," which matches the claim’s focus on "escape from everyday life."

Choice A is incorrect. While this quotation describes new opportunities associated with Whiting’s experience, it doesn’t frame these opportunities as "an escape," and it doesn’t directly compare Whiting’s journey with "everyday life." Choice B is incorrect. While this quotation includes a positive characterization of Whiting’s journey, it doesn’t specifically address the idea of an "escape from everyday life," which is the focus of the claim. Choice C is incorrect. This quotation focuses on where the journey begins, not on how it feels like an "escape from everyday life."

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID f452410b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: f452410b

Results of Footprint Analysis for Two Sets of Theropod Tracks

Tracks Estimated footprint length (centimeters) Average stride length (meters) Estimated mean speed (meters per second)
La Torre 6A 32.8 5.23 6.5–10.3
La Torre 6B 28.9 5.57 8.8–12.4

The table shows data from paleontologist Angélica Torices and colleagues’ 2021 study of two sets of dinosaur tracks preserved in a fossilized lake bed in Spain. The tracks, referred to as La Torre 6A and La Torre 6B, were left by two individual theropods (dinosaurs that walked on two legs). The team’s findings suggest that of the two theropods, the one that left the La Torre 6B tracks had a higher maximum mean speed, blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the claim?

  • a longer footprint, and a longer average stride.

  • a longer footprint, and a shorter average stride.

  • a shorter footprint, and a longer average stride.

  • a shorter footprint, and a shorter average stride.

ID: f452410b Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the claim about the tracks left by two therapods. The table indicates that the set of tracks labeled La Torre 6A has an estimated footprint length of 32.8 centimeters, an average stride length of 5.23 meters, and an estimated mean speed of 6.5–10.3 meters per second. For the set of tracks labeled La Torre 6B, on the other hand, the estimated footprint length is 28.9 centimeters, the average stride length is 5.57 meters, and the estimated mean speed is 8.8–12.4 meters per second. Therefore, the therapod that left the La Torre 6B tracks had a shorter footprint and a longer average stride than the one that left the La Torre 6A tracks.

Choice A is incorrect. While it is true that of the two therapods, the one that left the La Torre 6B tracks had a longer average stride, it didn’t have a longer footprint: the table shows that its estimated footprint length is 28.9 centimeters, while La Torre 6A’s estimated footprint length is 32.8 centimeters. Choice B is incorrect because the table shows that of the two therapods, the one that left the La Torre 6B tracks had a footprint length estimated at 28.9 centimeters, which is shorter than the 32.8 centimeters estimated for the other set of tracks. Moreover, the therapod that left the La Torre 6B tracks had a longer average stride, not shorter: 5.57 meters, compared with 5.23 meters for the other set of tracks. Choice D is incorrect. While it is true that of the two therapods, the one that left the La Torre 6B tracks had a shorter footprint, it didn’t have a shorter average stride: the table shows that its average stride length is 5.57 meters, while La Torre 6A’s average stride length is 5.23 meters.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID a16128e2

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: a16128e2
90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0Percentage attribution Region 1 (1970–2000) Region 1 (2000–2014) Region 2 (1970–2000) Region 2 (2000–2014)Percentage of ULE Attributed to Population Growth and GDP per Capita Growth in Two World RegionsRegion, by time period urban population growth GDP per capita growth
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • urban population growth
    • GDP per capita growth
  • The Percentage attribution data for the 4 categories are as follows:
    • Region 1 (1970–2000):
      • urban population growth: 63%
      • GDP per capita growth: 38%
    • Region 1 (2000–2014):
      • urban population growth: 74% 
      • GDP per capita growth: 26%
    • Region 2 (1970–2000):
      • urban population growth: 88%
      • GDP per capita growth: 12%
    • Region 2 (2000–2014):
      • urban population growth: 51%
      • GDP per capita growth: 49%

In a study of urban physical expansion, Richa Mahtta et al. conducted a meta-analysis of more than 300 cities worldwide to determine whether urban land expansion (ULE) was more strongly influenced by urban population growth or by growth in gross domestic product (GDP) per capita, a measure of economic activity. Because efficient national government is necessary to provide urban services and infrastructure that attract economic investment, Mahtta et al. propose that absent other factors, the importance of GDP per capita growth to ULE would likely increase relative to the importance of population growth as governments become more efficient. If true, this suggests the possibility that blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the statement?

  • national governments of countries in Region 1 experienced declines in efficiency in the period from 2000 to 2014, relative to the period from 1970 to 2000.

  • countries in Region 1 experienced a slower rate of economic growth in the period from 2000 to 2014 than countries in Region 2 did, despite increasing national government efficiency in Region 1.

  • national governments of most countries in Region 2 became more efficient in the period from 2000 to 2014 than they had been in the period from 1970 to 2000, but those of several countries in this region did not.

  • national governments of countries in Region 1 and in Region 2 generally became more efficient in the period from 2000 to 2014 than they had been in the period from 1970 to 2000, but at different rates.

ID: a16128e2 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the statement about Mahtta et al.’s proposal regarding factors that affect urban land expansion (ULE). According to the text, ULE is influenced by urban population growth and by gross domestic product (GDP) growth per capita. Reasoning that efficient national governments provide urban services and infrastructure needed to attract economic investment, Mahtta et al. suggest that, as governments become more efficient at providing urban services and infrastructure, GDP growth per capita will account for more ULE and urban population growth will account for less. But according to the graph, Region 1 saw an increase in the percentage attributed to urban population growth from 1970–2000 (between 60 and 65%) to 2000–2014 (between 70 and 75%) and a decrease in the percentage attributed to GDP growth per capita from 1970–2000 (between 35 and 40%) to 2000–2014 (about 25%). Because the percentage attributed to GDP growth per capita decreased (the opposite of what Mahtta et al. claimed would happen if the governments had become more efficient), the data suggest that the governments of Region 1 became less efficient at providing urban services and infrastructure over that period.

Choice B is incorrect. Neither the graph nor the text gives the regions’ relative levels of economic growth or what effect Mahtta et al. would expect such growth to have. Furthermore, Mahtta et al.’s proposal suggests that Region 1’s decline in the percentage of ULE attributed to GDP growth per capita from 1970–2000 (between 35 and 40%) to 2000–2014 (about 25%) would suggest decreasing, not increasing, government efficiency over this time. Choice C is incorrect. Neither the text nor the graph provides information about the relative efficiencies of different governments in Region 2. Choice D is incorrect. Mahtta et al.’s proposal suggests that more efficient governments will have a higher percentage of their ULE driven by GDP growth per capita and a lower percentage driven by urban population growth. For Region 2, the percentage of ULE attributed to GDP growth per capita increased from 1970–2000 (between 10 and 15%) to 2000–2014 (between 45 and 50%), but the opposite is true for Region 1, which saw the percentage of ULE attributed to GDP growth per capita decline over the same period. Thus, whereas the data suggest governments in Region 2 became more efficient, the data for Region 1 suggest that those governments became less efficient, not more.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 9731a22b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 9731a22b

Paleontologist Lucas E. Fiorelli and colleagues have reported the discovery at a mine in Brazil of several egg clutches, partially preserved single eggs, and egg shells from the Late Cretaceous period. The researchers have concluded that the area was once a nesting and breeding site for titanosaurs, a group of sauropod dinosaurs. The finding is significant given the previous lack of known nesting sites in northern regions of South America, which led many paleontologists to assume that titanosaurs migrated south to lay eggs.

What does the text most strongly suggest about the site discovered by the researchers?

  • It is the earliest known example of a titanosaur nesting and breeding site.

  • It was very difficult to excavate given that it was discovered in a mine.

  • It may have been occupied by other sauropods in addition to titanosaurs.

  • It is farther north than any other nesting site discovered in South America.

ID: 9731a22b Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a statement about the site discovered by the researchers that is supported by the text. The text discusses Fiorelli and colleagues’ discovery of egg clutches, single eggs, and eggshells in a Brazilian mine. According to the text, the presence of these eggs, which are from the Late Cretaceous period, led the researchers to conclude that the location was once a nesting and breeding site for titanosaurs. The text then explains that the finding is important because of the “previous lack of known nesting sites in northern regions of South America.” If there haven’t been any other discoveries of a nesting site in South America’s northern regions and the site in the Brazilian mine is the first, then the text strongly suggests that the site is farther north than other nesting sites that have been discovered in South America. 

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the site discovered by Fiorelli and colleagues is the earliest titanosaur nesting and breeding site known to paleontologists but rather that it’s the first nesting site found in northern regions of South America. Moreover, the text doesn’t suggest how the timeline of the newly discovered site compares with that of other titanosaur nesting and breeding sites. Choice B is incorrect because there is no mention in the text about any difficulties that Fiorelli and colleagues faced when they were excavating the nesting and breeding site in the Brazilian mine. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t support the idea that the nesting and breeding site in the Brazilian mine was occupied by sauropods other than titanosaurs. The text simply mentions that titanosaurs are sauropod dinosaurs and presents the researchers’ conclusion that the site they discovered was for titanosaurs. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 0cf13ece

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 0cf13ece

Recordings of Female Bottlenose Dolphins with Their Calves

Dolphin ID Recording year
FB07 2012
FB25 1989
FB43 1992
FB79 2018

 

In a study of bottlenose dolphins, biologist Laela S. Sayigh and a team of researchers analyzed recordings of female bottlenose dolphins interacting with their calves.

According to the table, in which year was the dolphin with the ID FB43 recorded with her calf?

  • 1999

  • 2012

  • 2020

  • 1992

ID: 0cf13ece Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it accurately reflects the data in the table. According to the table, the dolphin with ID FB43 has a recording year of 1992.

Choice A is incorrect. None of the dolphins in the table have a recording year of 1999. Choice B is incorrect. The table shows 2012 as the recording year for the dolphin with ID FB07, not ID FB43. Choice C is incorrect. None of the dolphins in the table have a recording year of 2020.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID db876fd5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: db876fd5

Songbirds learn to respond to and imitate their species’ songs from an early age. With each generation, small differences are introduced that result in distinct variations—called dialects—among geographically isolated populations of the same species. A research study examined whether twelve-day-old Ficedula hypoleuca (pied flycatcher) nestlings prefer local dialects over the unfamiliar dialects of nonlocal F. hypoleuca populations: the more begging calls the nestlings made in response to a song, the stronger their preference. The researchers found that nestlings produced more begging calls in response to their own dialect than to nonlocal dialects. Since song preference plays a role in songbird mate selection, the finding suggests that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • F. hypoleuca nestlings’ preference for their own dialect likely disappears as they mature to promote socialization between different F. hypoleuca populations.

  • F. hypoleuca nestlings who show an early preference for their own dialect are likely to receive more food from their caretakers than nestlings who show no preferences among any F. hypoleuca dialects. 

  • F. hypoleuca nestlings’ preference for their own dialect likely drives them when they mature to reproduce with other F. hypoleuca from local rather than nonlocal populations.  

  • F. hypoleuca nestlings show a preference for both local F. hypoleuca dialects and the songs of other local songbirds over the songs of nonlocal birds of any species.

ID: db876fd5 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. Because “song preference plays a role in songbird mate selection,” and because F. hypoleuca nestlings display a preference for local dialects, we can infer that they will be more likely to choose mates from local populations.

Choice A is incorrect. We don’t have any information suggesting that this preference disappears, so there’s no basis for this inference. Choice B is incorrect. Although the passage discusses the number of begging calls made in response to various F. hypoleuca dialects, no mention is made about the amount of food received based on dialect preference. Therefore, there’s no basis for this inference. Choice D is incorrect. There’s no mention in the passage of methods of other types of local songbirds, so there’s no basis for this inference.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 09f9edb0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 09f9edb0

In the 1980s, many musicians and journalists in the English-speaking world began to draw attention to music from around the globe—such as mbaqanga from South Africa and quan họ from Vietnam—that can’t be easily categorized according to British or North American popular music genres, typically referring to such music as “world music.” While some scholars have welcomed this development for bringing diverse musical forms to prominence in countries where they’d previously been overlooked, musicologist Su Zheng claims that the concept of world music homogenizes highly distinct traditions by reducing them all to a single category.

Which finding about mbaqanga and quan họ, if true, would most directly support Zheng’s claim?

  • Mbaqanga and quan họ developed independently of each other and have little in common musically.

  • Mbaqanga is significantly more popular in the English-speaking world than quan họ is. 

  • Mbaqanga and quan họ are now performed by a diverse array of musicians with no direct connections to South Africa or Vietnam. 

  • Mbaqanga and quan họ are highly distinct from British and North American popular music genres but similar to each other.

ID: 09f9edb0 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. Zheng’s claim is that the idea of world music “homogenizes” (meaning makes similar) distinct kinds of music by reducing them to one category. In other words, Zheng thinks the concept of world music is a harmful oversimplification of diverse musical forms. To support this claim, we need evidence that these musical traditions are so different from one another that they should not fall into the same category. If it’s true that mbaqanga and quan họ developed separately and have little in common musically, then it wouldn’t make sense to lump them into the same category.

Choice B is incorrect. If true, this wouldn’t affect the claim. To support the claim, we need evidence that these musical traditions are so different from one another that they should not fall into the same category. A difference in popularity doesn’t necessarily mean that the two musical traditions shouldn’t be categorized together: instead, we need to know if the music itself is similar or different. Choice C is incorrect. If true, this wouldn’t affect the claim. To support the claim, we need evidence that these musical traditions are so different from each other that they should not fall into the same category. This choice doesn’t do that. Choice D is incorrect. If true, this would actually weaken the claim. Zheng thinks it’s reductive or oversimplifying to put distinct musical traditions into a single category. But if mbaqanga and quan họ are similar to each other, then it would make sense to put them in the same category.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID da438257

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: da438257
3,500 3,000 2,500 2,000 1,500 1,000 500 0Imports (in hundredsof millions of dollars) ordinary imports processing with assembly processing with inputsChina’s Imports by Type, 2000–2006Import types 2000 2003 2006
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown: 
    • 2000 
    • 2003 
    • 2006 
  • All values are approximate.
  • The Imports data for the 3 categories are as follows:
    • ordinary imports:
      • 2000: 1,000 hundred million dollars
      • 2003: 1,700 hundred million dollars
      • 2006: 3,300 hundred million dollars
    • processing with assembly:
      • 2000: 250 hundred million dollars
      • 2003: 350 hundred million dollars
      • 2006: 750 hundred million dollars
    • processing with inputs:
      • 2000: 650 hundred million dollars
      • 2003: 1,250 hundred million dollars
      • 2006: 2,300 hundred million dollars

A student is researching the Chinese government’s 1992 shift to a market economy that emphasizes trade liberalization. One means of trade liberalization involves expanding from ordinary imports into an emphasis on processing imports, which have two types: processing with assembly (in which a firm obtains raw materials from a foreign trading partner without payment and sells the final goods to that partner, charging for assembly) and processing with inputs (in which a firm expends capital to buy raw materials from a trading partner, processes them into final goods, and sells those goods to whichever trading partner it chooses). The student asserts that while initial efforts at trade liberalization were shaped by Chinese firms’ limited capital, this situation resolved during the 2000s.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that support the student’s assertion?

  • Processing imports with inputs were greater than both ordinary imports and processing imports with assembly in 2006.

  • From 2000 to 2006, processing imports with inputs rose much more sharply than processing imports with assembly did.

  • From 2000 to 2006, neither processing imports with inputs nor processing imports with assembly were greater than ordinary imports.

  • Processing imports with assembly were greater in 2006 than processing imports with inputs in 2000.

ID: da438257 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it describes data from the graph that best support the student’s assertion that initial efforts at trade liberalization in China were shaped by firms having limited capital (assets available for use) and that this situation resolved during the 2000s. The text explains that an approach to trade liberalization involves engaging in processing imports, one type of which doesn’t require payment to a trade partner (processing with assembly) and one type of which requires upfront payment to a trade partner for raw materials (processing with inputs). The graph, which presents China’s imports for ordinary imports and both types of processing imports in the years 2000, 2003, and 2006, shows that while processing imports with assembly rose from about 250 hundred million dollars in 2000 to about 750 hundred million dollars in 2006, processing imports with inputs rose much more sharply, increasing from approximately 650 hundred million dollars in 2000 to about 2,300 hundred million dollars in 2006. Because processing with inputs requires firms to pay for materials (expending capital) and processing with assembly doesn’t, the sharper rise in processing imports with inputs suggests that Chinese firms’ assets—and thus their ability to engage in that type of processing imports—were relatively limited in (and before) 2000 and then substantially increased from 2000 to 2006. In other words, the data suggest that the situation of having limited capital resolved during the 2000s.

Choice A is incorrect because the graph indicates that ordinary imports were greater than both types of processing imports in 2006, not that processing imports with inputs were greater than ordinary imports and processing imports with assembly that year. Choice C is incorrect because the observation that ordinary imports were greater than both types of processing imports in 2000, 2003, and 2006 doesn’t address a change within any type of imports from 2000 to 2006, and an indication of a change in that period that might be related to the availability of assets is needed to support the assertion that the situation of having limited capital resolved during the 2000s. Choice D is incorrect because the fact that processing imports with assembly were greater at the end of the period from 2000 to 2006 than processing imports with inputs were at the start of the same period doesn’t address a change within either type of imports during the period, and an indication of such a change that might be related to the availability of assets is needed to support the assertion that the situation of having limited capital resolved during the 2000s.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID f39507a3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: f39507a3

One challenge when researching whether holding elected office changes a person’s behavior is the problem of ensuring that the experiment has an appropriate control group. To reveal the effect of holding office, researchers must compare people who hold elected office with people who do not hold office but who are otherwise similar to the office-holders. Since researchers are unable to control which politicians win elections, they therefore blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • struggle to find valid data about the behavior of politicians who do not currently hold office.

  • can only conduct valid studies with people who have previously held office rather than people who presently hold office.

  • should select a control group of people who differ from office-holders in several significant ways.

  • will find it difficult to identify a group of people who can function as an appropriate control group for their studies.

ID: f39507a3 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of the challenge researchers face when studying the effects of holding elected office on a person’s behavior. The text explains that it’s hard for researchers to test for the effects that elected office has on people because finding people to serve as a control group is difficult. The text indicates that a control group needs to be made up of people who share characteristics of the group being tested but don’t have the variable being tested (in this case, holding elected office). Because researchers aren’t able to influence who wins elections, they’re also unable to determine who would serve as an appropriately similar member of a control group. Thus, it logically follows that researchers will find it difficult to identify a group of people who can function as an appropriate control group for their studies.

Choice A is incorrect because the text focuses on the struggle to put together a control group for experiments; it doesn’t suggest that finding information about politicians’ behavior is difficult. Choice B is incorrect because the experiments mentioned in the text are testing the effects of holding elected office on a person’s behavior. Studying people who have already held elected office wouldn’t provide an opportunity to note any behavioral changes that the position might cause. Choice C is incorrect because the text defines people in a control group as those "who are otherwise similar to the office-holders"; selecting people who differ from the office-holders wouldn’t fit the criteria for an appropriate control group.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 5325b3cc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 5325b3cc

Philadelphia’s Black Pearl Chamber Orchestra, founded by Jeri Lynne Johnson, performs classical music, from well-known compositions by Beethoven to contemporary works by Jessie Montgomery. For the orchestra’s iConduct! program, Johnson invites community members to learn some basic elements of conducting and then experience conducting the Black Pearl orchestra themselves.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • The Black Pearl orchestra performs music from all over the world but mostly performs music composed by Philadelphians.

  • Johnson founded the Black Pearl orchestra to perform classical music by contemporary artist Jessie Montgomery. 

  • The Black Pearl orchestra gives community members the chance to both listen to and participate in classical music performance. 

  • Johnson has community members conduct an orchestra to demonstrate how difficult the task is.

ID: 5325b3cc Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text begins by stating that the Black Pearl orchestra performs classical music, and then goes on to explain that the orchestra offers an iConduct! program. According to the text, this program offers community members the opportunity to learn some basics about conducting and then apply what they learn by conducting the orchestra themselves. Thus, the main idea of the text is that community members can both listen to and participate in a classical music performance.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text states that the Black Pearl orchestra is based in Philadelphia, it doesn’t indicate that most of the music it plays was composed by Philadelphians. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text does state that Johnson founded the Black Pearl orchestra, this is just a detail and not the main focus of the text. Moreover, while the text does say that the orchestra sometimes plays music by Montgomery, it doesn’t assert that the orchestra was founded solely for the purpose of performing Montgomery’s work. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text explains that community members are invited to conduct the Black Pearl orchestra after participating in the iConduct! program, the text doesn’t indicate that Johnson allows community members to do this for the specific purpose of showing how difficult the task is.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 6bc0e595

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 6bc0e595

One aspect of in-person shopping that online shopping can’t replicate is the opportunity to touch a product before buying it. Does this difference matter? In an experiment, researchers asked one group of participants to touch a mug and a toy, while another group was prohibited from touching the two items. The participants were then asked how much money they’d pay for the items. People who got to touch the items were willing to pay much more money for them than were people who weren’t allowed to touch the items. This finding suggests that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • people who mainly shop online probably spend more money every month than people who mainly shop in person do.

  • in-person shopping may make products seem more valuable than they seem if only viewed online. 

  • retailers with in-person and online stores should charge the same price for a given product in both places.

  • online retailers may be able to raise the prices they charge for products that are only available online.

ID: 6bc0e595 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The text tells us that “people who got to touch the items were willing to pay much more money for them than people who weren’t allowed to touch” them. This suggests that being able to interact with a product in person may make it seem more valuable to a shopper.

Choice A is incorrect. The text doesn’t discuss how much people spend each month, so there’s not much basis for this claim. Furthermore, since being able to touch a product tends to make people “willing to pay much more money” for it, we might predict that an online shopper would be willing to spend less on the same purchases as an in-person shopper. Choice C is incorrect. The text doesn’t discuss what retailers “should charge,” so there’s not much basis for this claim. Furthermore, the study in the text suggests that in-person stores may actually be able to charge more for a given product, since shoppers can touch it. Choice D is incorrect. The text doesn’t discuss products that are only available online, so there’s not much basis for this claim. Furthermore, products only available online would still have the problem of shoppers not being able to touch them, and the study suggests that this lowers the prices shoppers are willing to pay.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 70aacc03

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 70aacc03

Elizabeth Asiedu has identified a negative correlation between the share of developing countries’ economies derived from natural-resource extraction and those countries’ receipts of foreign investment. This may appear counterintuitive—resource extraction requires initial investments (in extractive technology, for instance) at scales best met by multinational corporations—but Asiedu notes that natural-resource industries’ boom-bust cycle can destabilize local currencies and increase developing countries’ vulnerability to external shocks, creating levels of uncertainty to which foreign investors are typically averse.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Although it may seem surprising that foreign investment declines in developing countries as natural-resource extraction makes up a larger share of those countries’ economies, that decline happens because resource extraction requires initial investments too large for foreign investors to supply. 

  • Although developing countries tend to become less dependent on foreign investment as natural-resource industries make up a larger share of their economies, this change may not occur if the boom-bust cycle of those industries destabilizes local currencies or increases countries’ vulnerability to external shocks. 

  • Although one might expect that foreign investment would increase as natural-resource extraction makes up a larger share of developing countries’ economies, the opposite happens because heavy reliance on natural resources can lead to unattractive conditions for investors.  

  • Although foreign investors tend to avoid initial investments in natural-resource industries in developing countries, foreign investment may increase significantly as those industries stabilize and the risks associated with them decline. 

ID: 70aacc03 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it accurately states the main idea of the text. According to the text, contrary to what some might expect, foreign investment is typically lower in developing countries whose economies are more dependent on natural-resource extraction. The text explains that high reliance on natural-resource extraction can subject a developing country to economic shocks that can destabilize the local currency and introduce economic uncertainty that tends to keep investors away. In other words, although we may think otherwise, foreign investors are less willing to invest in projects in developing countries whose economies are heavily dependent on natural-resource extraction because those economies tend to exhibit instability that investors want to avoid.

Choice A is incorrect. The text does indicate that foreign investment is typically lower in developing countries whose economies are more dependent on natural-resource extraction; the text further indicates that natural-resource extraction requires substantial initial investments (to acquire things like required technologies) for which there are fewer investors willing to participate at this stage than one might think. But the text does not implicate the cost of these initial investments as a reason why foreign investment is less widely available than some might think. Choice B is incorrect. The text indicates that greater dependence on natural-resource extraction makes a developing country less appealing to foreign investors because of associated economic instability. Rather than arguing that the goal of developing countries is to become less dependent on foreign investment, as the phrasing of choice B suggests, the text focuses only on why foreign investors become less involved with such countries, which suggests that more investment would be preferable. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text indicates that natural-resource extraction requires substantial initial investments (to acquire things like required technologies) and that there are fewer likely investors willing to participate at this stage than one might think, the text does not address what investors are likely to do over time as the industry stabilizes itself.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 0fc0a773

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 0fc0a773

The Minneapolis Institute of Art in Minneapolis, Minnesota, has over 90,000 works of art. Digital images of thousands of those works have been put online through the museum’s website and the Google Arts & Culture project. One of the images is of Mississippi Delta, a drawing by Siah Armajani. In a paper, a student claims that putting a work from the museum online increases the number of people who experience that work.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the underlined claim?

  • The Minneapolis Institute of Art has several works by Siah Armajani.

  • Many people who have been to Minneapolis say that the Minneapolis Institute of Art is worth visiting.

  • Mississippi Delta has been praised by some art critics.

  • Each year, more people access the online image of Mississippi Delta than visit the Minneapolis Institute of Art in person.

ID: 0fc0a773 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly support the student’s claim that putting a work online increases the number of people who experience it. The text states that the Minneapolis Institute of Art has more than 90,000 artworks. It goes on to explain that images of a subset of these works can be viewed online, such as an image of Armajani’s drawing Mississippi Delta. The text then presents a student’s claim that online images of art can increase the number of people who experience the work. If more people view Armajani’s drawing online than they do in person, this finding would support the student’s claim about the benefits of putting a work from the museum online. Thus, this finding would most directly support the claim because, if it were true, more people would view Mississippi Delta online than would visit the entire museum in person.

Choice A is incorrect because information about the museum having several works by Armajani wouldn’t address the student’s claim about how putting artworks online affects the number of people who experience them. The quantity of works by one artist that are held in a museum collection wouldn’t support a claim about audience size or the impact of online accessibility. Choice B is incorrect because opinions about the museum would only relate to the institution’s reputation. This finding wouldn’t provide information about online accessibility or whether digital images increase the number of people who view specific artworks. Choice C is incorrect because critics’ praise for Mississippi Delta wouldn’t address the student’s claim about how online access increases the number of people who can experience a work. Although positive comments from art critics could affect interest in an artwork, this finding wouldn’t provide information about how many people experience the work or whether online accessibility increases that number.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 57303718

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 57303718

“Looking Back on Girlhood” is an 1892 short story by Sarah Orne Jewett. In the story, the narrator explains that she prefers her hometown to other places she has visited: blank

Which quotation from “Looking Back on Girlhood” most effectively illustrates this claim?

  • “There is always something fresh, something to be traced or discovered, something particularly to be remembered.” 

  • “Two large rivers join just below the village at the head of tide-water, and these, with the great inflow from the sea, make a magnificent stream, bordered by lovely green fields that slope gently to long lines of willows at the water’s edge.”

  • “I have had a good deal of journeying in my life, and taken great delight in it, but I have never taken greater delight than in my rides and drives and tramps and voyages within the borders of my native town.”

  • “There is never-ending pleasure in making one’s self familiar with such a region.”

ID: 57303718 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively illustrates the claim that the narrator prefers her hometown to other places she has visited. In the quotation, the narrator compares how she feels about places she has traveled to how she feels about the town she’s from. The narrator states that although the many journeys she has made in her lifetime have brought her much pleasure, she has gained the most enjoyment from her experiences inside the borders of her hometown.

Choice A is incorrect because it doesn’t express that the narrator likes her hometown better than other places she has visited; instead, the quotation describes something unspecified in positive terms, saying it continues to offer new things to explore and remember. Choice B is incorrect. Although the quotation praises a landscape surrounding a village, it doesn’t specify that this village is the narrator’s hometown, nor does it express a preference for this village over other places the narrator has visited. Choice D is incorrect. Although the quotation describes enjoyment from getting to know a region, it doesn’t compare the narrator’s feelings for this region with her feelings for her hometown.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID c538954d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: c538954d

Sense and Sensibility is an 1811 novel by Jane Austen. In the novel, Austen describes Marianne Dashwood’s ability to persuade others of the rightness of her artistic judgments, as is evident when Marianne visits with John Willoughby, a potential suitor: blank

Which quotation from Sense and Sensibility most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “Above all, when she heard him declare, that of music and dancing he was passionately fond, she gave him such a look of approbation as secured the largest share of his discourse to herself for the rest of his stay.”

  • “Their taste was strikingly alike. The same books, the same passages were idolized by each—or if any difference appeared, any objection arose, it lasted no longer than till the force of her arguments and the brightness of her eyes could be displayed.”

  • “It was only necessary to mention any favourite amusement to engage her to talk. She could not be silent when such points were introduced, and she had neither shyness nor reserve in their discussion.”

  • “They speedily discovered that their enjoyment of dancing and music was mutual, and that it arose from a general conformity of judgment in all that related to either. Encouraged by this to a further examination of his opinions, she proceeded to question him on the subject of books.”

ID: c538954d Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. By showing that "any difference" in taste was quickly overcome by "the force of [Marianne’s] arguments," this choice effectively demonstrates Marianne’s "ability to persuade others."

Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t effectively illustrate the claim. This choice shows that Marianne and John share an interest in music and dancing, but it doesn’t provide evidence of Marianne’s "ability to persuade others." Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t effectively illustrate the claim. This choice shows that Marianne enjoys talking about her interests, but it doesn’t provide evidence of Marianne’s "ability to persuade others." Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t effectively illustrate the claim. This choice shows that Marianne and John share many interests and generally agree on music and dancing, but it doesn’t provide evidence of Marianne’s "ability to persuade others."

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID f8244f7c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: f8244f7c

North American Thrasher Mean Bill Size and Habitat Temperature Range

Species Mean bill surface area (cm squared) Mean maximum temperature of warmest month (°C) Mean minimum temperature of coldest month (°C)
Brown thrasher 1.86 30.40 −4.29
Bendire’s thrasher 1.98 36.57 0.24
Long-billed thrasher 2.24 35.27 8.82
Cozumel thrasher 2.28 33.27 18.21
Ocellated thrasher 3.26 27.56 5.45

It has been hypothesized that since birds can dissipate excess heat through their bills, bill size should increase with habitat temperature. To evaluate this hypothesis for a 2021 study, Charlotte Probst and colleagues gathered data on mean bill surface area of species of North American thrashers (genus: Toxostoma) as well as on climate conditions of the birds’ native habitats. Based on their data, Probst and colleagues concluded that the hypothesis was not fully supported.

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to support Probst and colleagues’ conclusion? 

  • Although the Bendire’s thrasher has one of the smallest mean bill surface areas of the birds included in the table, its habitat has one of the lowest mean maximum temperatures in the warmest month and one of the lowest mean minimum temperatures in the coldest month.

  • Although the Cozumel thrasher has the second greatest mean bill surface area of the birds included in the table, its habitat’s mean temperature in the warmest month is significantly higher than that of the other birds’ habitats. 

  • Of the birds included in the table, the brown thrasher has the smallest mean bill surface area and the habitat with the lowest mean minimum temperature in the coldest month, while the long-billed thrasher has the second-largest mean bill surface area and the habitat with the second-highest mean minimum temperature in the coldest month.

  • Of the birds included in the table, the ocellated thrasher has the largest mean bill surface area and the habitat with the lowest mean maximum temperature in the warmest month, while the Bendire’s thrasher has the second smallest mean bill surface area and the habitat with the highest mean maximum temperature in the warmest month.

ID: f8244f7c Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to support Probst and colleagues’ conclusion about the hypothesis regarding the relationship between birds’ bill size and habitat temperature. The text states that although it has been hypothesized that birds’ bill size should increase with habitat temperature (an adaptation that reflects the fact that birds can release excess heat through their bills), Probst and colleagues concluded after studying mean bill surface area in North American thrashers that this hypothesis was not fully supported. In other words, Probst and colleagues did not observe the predicted positive relationship between mean bill surface area and habitat temperature in the thrashers they studied. The data in the table about the ocellated thrasher support Probst and colleagues’ conclusion because this species has the greatest mean bill surface area (3.26 cm squared), but its habitat has the lowest mean maximum temperature in the warmest month (27.56°C). If the hypothesis were fully supported, species such as the ocellated thrasher that have colder habitats would likely also have smaller bills. Similarly, the data about the Bendire’s thrasher support Probst and colleagues’ conclusion because this species has the second-smallest mean bill surface area (1.98 cm squared), yet its habitat has the highest mean maximum temperature in the warmest month (36.57°C). If the hypothesis were fully supported, the Bendire’s thrasher and other species with warmer habitats would also have larger bills. Because data in the table show that the ocellated thrasher and the Bendire’s thrasher have the opposite or near opposite of the hypothesized relationship between bill size and habitat temperature, these examples support Probst and colleagues’ conclusion that this hypothesis isn’t fully supported.

Choice A is incorrect because it misrepresents the data in the table. Although the Bendire’s thrasher has the second-smallest mean bill surface area of the species that are included in the table and although its habitat has the second-lowest mean minimum temperature in the coldest month, this habitat has the highest (rather than the lowest) mean maximum temperature in the warmest month. Moreover, the data about this species’ bill surface area and mean minimum temperature suggest that smaller bills are associated with colder habitats, supporting rather than challenging the hypothesis that bill size increases with habitat temperature. Choice B is incorrect because it misrepresents the data in the table. Although the Cozumel thrasher has the second-greatest mean bill surface area of the species that are included in the table, its habitat’s mean maximum temperature in the warmest month is not "significantly higher" than the mean maximum temperatures of the other habitats. On the contrary, the mean maximum temperature of the Cozumel thrasher’s habitat is lower than that observed for the habitats of both the Bendire’s thrasher and the long-billed thrasher. Choice C is incorrect because it misrepresents the data in the table. Although this choice accurately describes the brown thrasher’s mean bill surface area and habitat temperature, it incorrectly states that the long-billed thrasher has the second-largest (rather than the third-largest) mean bill surface area of the species included. In addition, instead of revealing a lack of support for the hypothesis that bill size increases with habitat temperature, the data in this choice broadly reflect the hypothesized relationship.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 9debe79a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 9debe79a

Average Temperatures in July in Four Locations in the Navajo Nation

Location Average highest temperature (Fahrenheit) Average lowest temperature (Fahrenheit)
Teec Nos Pos 94° 65°
Cameron 99° 65°
Ramah 83° 50°
Tuba City 83° 50°

The Navajo Nation has the largest land area of any tribal nation in the United States: over 27,000 square miles in the Southwest. Because this area is so huge and its communities are located at various elevations, the people of the Navajo Nation can experience different climate conditions depending on where they live. For example, in July, blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • the lowest temperature for both Cameron and Teec Nos Pos was 65°.

  • Tuba City’s average highest temperature was 94°, while Teec Nos Pos’s was 93°.

  • Ramah’s average highest temperature was 83°, while Cameron’s was 99°.

  • the lowest temperature for both Ramah and Tuba City was 50°.

ID: 9debe79a Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement, providing an example of how the people of the Navajo Nation can experience different climate conditions depending on where they live. The table shows the average highest temperatures and average lowest temperatures in four locations in the Navajo Nation in July. According to the table, Ramah’s average highest temperature for July was 83°, whereas Cameron’s average highest temperature was much higher, at 99°. This difference illustrates the statement that the people of the Navajo Nation can experience different climate conditions depending on where they live.

Choice A is incorrect because it states that Cameron and Teec Nos Pos had the same average lowest temperature (65°) for July, which suggests a similarity in climate conditions in those locations rather than a difference. Choice B is incorrect because it misrepresents the data from the table, which shows that the average highest temperature in July for Tuba City was 83°, not 94°, and for Teec Nos Pos it was 94°, not 93°. Even if the cited data accurately reflected the data in the table, the similarity between the two values for average highest temperature would suggest that people in the two locations likely experience similar climate conditions, not different climate conditions. Choice D is incorrect because it states that Ramah and Tuba City had the same average lowest temperature (50°) for July, which suggests a similarity in climate conditions in those locations rather than a difference.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID f9bd4e61

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: f9bd4e61

German theater practitioner Bertolt Brecht (1898–1956) believed that theater should elicit an intellectual rather than an emotional response from audiences, provoking them to consider social and political realities that extend beyond the characters and events depicted onstage. Brecht’s influence can be seen in English playwright Caryl Churchill’s 1979 play Cloud 9: although the play sometimes invites empathetic reactions, it primarily works to engage audiences in an interrogation of patriarchy and colonialism, which it does by placing audiences at a distance, thereby encouraging them to blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • focus on the characters’ beliefs about social and political issues as revealed by the characters’ actions.

  • reflect on social and political phenomena not directly related to patriarchy and colonialism.

  • recognize pertinent social and political parallels between Germany during Brecht’s time and England at the time when Churchill was writing Cloud 9.

  • be dispassionate as they think critically about the social and political questions raised by the play.

ID: f9bd4e61 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. Churchill’s play was influenced by Brecht’s belief that theater should elicit an intellectual rather than an emotional response from audiences, making them think about social and political issues that also exist outside of the play. Therefore, it makes sense that Churchill would strive to have audiences think dispassionately (i.e., without emotion) and critically about the social and political questions raised by the play.

Choice A is incorrect. The passage mentions that Churchill was influenced by Brecht’s belief that plays should provoke audience members “to consider social and political realities that extend beyond the characters and events depicted onstage,” so there’s no basis for an inference about audience members deeply engaging with characters’ beliefs and actions. Choice B is incorrect. Reflecting on things that aren’t related to patriarchy and colonialism wouldn’t “engage audiences in an interrogation of patriarchy and colonialism.” That creates a confusing contradiction. Choice C is incorrect. No mention is made of social and political issues in Germany during Brecht’s time, so there’s no basis for this inference.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 82d2436a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 82d2436a

The following text is from Laila Lalami’s 2019 novel The Other Americans. The narrator is a member of her middle school’s jazz band. 

One day the jazz band was invited to perform at the Summer Festival in Palm Springs. Walking across the stage to the piano, I did what my teacher had advised. Pretend you’re only playing for one person. That way you won’t be so nervous. I glanced at my father, who sat in the front row, leaning his head just so, waiting. Then I closed my eyes, and began to play.

©2019 by Laila Lalami

According to the text, what does the narrator do as she walks across the stage?

  • She thinks about the differences between playing the piano alone and playing in a band.

  • She feels excitement about playing in a music festival for the first time. 

  • She remembers how hard she has practiced for the performance. 

  • She follows her teacher’s advice about managing her nervousness. 

ID: 82d2436a Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a statement about what the narrator is doing that is directly supported by the text. According to the text, as the narrator walks across the stage to her piano, she recalls her teacher’s advice to pretend that she is playing for only one person. The text indicates that this advice was intended to help manage any nerves related to performing. Moreover, the text implies that the narrator follows this advice by deciding to focus on her father sitting in the audience. Thus, the text supports the idea that as she walks across the stage, the narrator follows her teacher’s advice about managing her nervousness.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that the narrator is thinking about how playing the piano alone is different from playing the piano in a band. Rather, the narrator thinks about her teacher’s advice to pretend that she is playing the piano for only one person to help ease her nervousness about performing. Choice B is incorrect because the text provides no indication that this is the first music festival that the narrator has performed in. Furthermore, the text indicates that the narrator is nervous, not excited, to play the piano at the festival. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the narrator is remembering how hard she practiced for the performance. Rather, she is thinking about what her teacher told her to do to help ease her nerves about playing the piano in front of an audience.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID f7bd14de

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: f7bd14de

Several scholars have argued that conditions in England in the late ninth through early eleventh centuries—namely, burgeoning literacy amid running conflicts between England’s Anglo-Saxon kingdoms and Danish invaders—were especially conducive to the production of the Old English epic poem Beowulf, and they have dated the poem’s composition accordingly. It is not inconceivable that Beowulf emerged from such a context, but privileging contextual fit over the linguistic evidence of an eighth- or even seventh-century composition requires a level of justification that thus far has not been presented.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Although there are some grounds for believing that Beowulf was composed between the late ninth and early eleventh centuries, advocates for that view tend to rely on evidence that has been called into question by advocates for an earlier date. 

  • Although several scholars have dated Beowulf to the late ninth through early eleventh centuries, others have argued that doing so privileges a controversial interpretation of the social conditions of the period.

  • Although Beowulf fits well with the historical context of England in the late ninth through early eleventh centuries, it fits equally well with the historical context of England in the seventh and eighth centuries. 

  • Although the claim of a late ninth- through early eleventh-century composition date for Beowulf has some plausibility, advocates for the claim have not compellingly addressed evidence suggesting an earlier date.

ID: f7bd14de Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text states that some scholars have dated the composition of Beowulf to the late ninth through early eleventh centuries due to the poem’s fit with that period’s historical context. The text goes on to say that while it is “not inconceivable that Beowulf emerged from such a context”—that is, it is possible that Beowulf was composed during the late ninth through eleventh centuries—there is linguistic evidence that the poem was composed earlier, in the seventh or eighth century. According to the text, favoring the historical context over the linguistic evidence requires justification that scholars have not yet supplied. In other words, the text suggests that scholars who favor the later composition date need to explain why the poem’s fit with historical context should take precedence over the linguistic evidence, but they have not yet done so. Thus, the main idea of the text is that while there is some plausibility to the later composition date, advocates for the later date have not compellingly addressed evidence suggestive of an earlier date. 

Choice A is incorrect because the text says that scholars who date the poem to the late ninth through early eleventh centuries have failed to account for the linguistic evidence that the poem may have been composed earlier, not that the evidence those scholars cite in favor of their view is unreliable or that anyone has cast doubt on that evidence. In other words, the text does not suggest that there are problems with the evidence cited by advocates of the later composition date, only that there is other evidence of an earlier composition date that those advocates need to consider. Choice B is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that those scholars who date the poem to the late ninth through early eleventh centuries are giving priority to a controversial view of the social conditions at that time. The text makes no reference to any controversy about how scholars interpret that historical period. Instead, the text suggests that scholars who date the poem on the basis of its fit with the historical context of England in the late ninth through early eleventh centuries have failed to account for linguistic evidence that the poem may have been composed earlier. Choice C is incorrect because the text says nothing about how well the poem fits the historical context of England in the seventh and eighth centuries, let alone that it fits that historical context as well as it fits the historical context of the late ninth through early eleventh centuries. Rather, the text says that there is linguistic evidence that the poem may have been composed in the seventh or eighth century. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID baef99a5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: baef99a5

The following text is adapted from Oscar Wilde’s 1891 novel The Picture of Dorian Gray. Dorian Gray is taking his first look at a portrait that Hallward has painted of him.

Dorian passed listlessly in front of his picture and turned towards it. When he saw it he drew back, and his cheeks flushed for a moment with pleasure. A look of joy came into his eyes, as if he had recognized himself for the first time. He stood there motionless and in wonder, dimly conscious that Hallward was speaking to him, but not catching the meaning of his words. The sense of his own beauty came on him like a revelation. He had never felt it before.

According to the text, what is true about Dorian?

  • He wants to know Hallward’s opinion of the portrait.

  • He is delighted by what he sees in the portrait.

  • He prefers portraits to other types of paintings.

  • He is uncertain of Hallward’s talent as an artist.

ID: baef99a5 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a statement about Dorian that is directly supported by the text. The narrator of the text says that when Dorian sees his portrait, “his cheeks flushed for a moment with pleasure” and “a look of joy came into his eyes.” The narrator goes on to say that Dorian looked at the portrait “in wonder” and presents him as being so entranced by the portrait that he doesn’t notice what Hallward is saying to him. All these details support the description of Dorian as being delighted by what he sees in the portrait.

Choice A is incorrect because Dorian isn’t depicted as interested in Hallward’s opinion of the portrait but rather as so enraptured by the painting that he’s hardly even aware of Hallward. Choice C is incorrect because the portrait of Dorian is the only painting that is mentioned in the text, so there’s no evidence that Dorian prefers portraits to other types of paintings. Although Dorian is depicted as delighted with this particular portrait, there’s no way of knowing from the text whether he likes portraits better than other kinds of paintings. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that Dorian is uncertain about Hallward’s talent. Instead, the text is focused on Dorian’s delight with the portrait. 

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 3fc06a91

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 3fc06a91

Employment by Sector in France and the United States, 1800–2012 (% of total employment)

Year Agriculture in France Manufacturing in France Services in France Agriculture in US Manufacturing in US Services in US
1800 64 22 14 68 18 13
1900 43 29 28 41 28 31
1950 32 33 35 14 33 53
2012 3 21 76 2 18 80

Rows in table may not add up to 100 due to rounding.

Over the past two hundred years, the percentage of the population employed in the agricultural sector has declined in both France and the United States, while employment in the service sector (which includes jobs in retail, consulting, real estate, etc.) has risen. However, this transition happened at very different rates in the two countries. This can be seen most clearly by comparing the employment by sector in both countries in blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • 1900 with the employment by sector in 1950.

  • 1800 with the employment by sector in 2012.

  • 1900 with the employment by sector in 2012.

  • 1800 with the employment by sector in 1900.

ID: 3fc06a91 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents data from the table that most effectively complete the statement about the rates at which employment shifted in France and the United States. The text states that over the last two hundred years employment in the agricultural sector has declined while employment in the service sector has risen in both France and the US, and the data from the table reflect these trends. The text asserts, however, that the transition from agriculture to services “happened at very different rates in the two countries.” This assertion is best supported by a comparison of data from 1900 and 1950: the table shows that in those years, employment in agriculture went from 43% to 32% in France (a decline of 11 percentage points) and from 41% to 14% in the US (a decline of 27 percentage points), and that employment in services went from 28% to 35% in France (an increase of 7 percentage points) and from 31% to 53% in the US (an increase of 22 percentage points). In other words, the rate of change was greater in the US than in France for both sectors.

Choice B is incorrect because comparing the data for 1800 and 2012 would suggest a similar rate of change in the two countries, not very different rates: employment in agriculture went from 64% in 1800 to 3% in 2012 in France, which is close to the change from 68% in 1800 to 2% in 2012 in the US, while employment in services went from 14% in 1800 to 76% in 2012 in France, which is close to the change from 13% in 1800 to 80% in 2012 in the US. Choice C is incorrect because comparing the data for 1900 and 2012 would suggest a similar rate of change in the two countries rather than very different rates: employment in agriculture went from 43% in 1900 to 3% in 2012 in France, which is close to the change from 41% in 1900 to 2% in 2012 in the US, while employment in services went from 28% in 1900 to 76% in 2012 in France, which is close to the change from 31% in 1900 to 80% in 2012 in the US. Choice D is incorrect because comparing the data for 1800 and 1900 would suggest a similar rate of change in the two countries, not very different rates: employment in agriculture went from 64% in 1800 to 43% in 1900 in France, which is fairly close to the change from 68% in 1800 to 41% in 1900 in the US, while employment in services went from 14% in 1800 to 28% in 1900 in France, which is close to the change from 13% in 1800 to 31% in 1900 in the US.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 96802cc0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 96802cc0

For centuries, the widespread acknowledgment of the involvement of the cerebellum—a dense brain structure in vertebrates—in coordinating motor control in humans has hindered recognition of other possible functions of the structure. Neuroscience research from the last two decades now suggests that the cerebellum regulates emotion and social behavior, and recent research by Ilaria Carta and colleagues has identified a pathway connecting the cerebellum to a center for motivation and reward processing known as the ventral tegmental area (VTA).

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • The recent verification of a pathway between the VTA and the cerebellum confirms the cerebellum’s long-suspected role in motor coordination.

  • Recent advances in the field of neuroscience have challenged widely accepted claims about the function of a pathway connecting the VTA and the cerebellum. 

  • The cerebellum has primarily been thought to regulate motor functioning, but in recent years neuroscience researchers have been uncovering additional functions.

  • Technological limitations have historically hindered the study of the cerebellum, but the recent development of new technologies has led to greater insights into its functions. 

ID: 96802cc0 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The text says that the cerebellum has long been thought to regulate motor functioning, but new research shows that it may also have other functions—including regulating emotion and social behavior and some connection to motivation and rewards processing.

Choice A is incorrect. The VTA is described as “a center for motivation and reward processing,” and the discovery of the pathway between the VTA and the cerebellum supports the theory that the cerebellum is involved in functions other than motor coordination. Choice B is incorrect. The text says that recent research has identified this pathway, but it doesn’t discuss any previous “widely accepted claims” about the pathway’s function. The “widespread acknowledgement” mentioned early in the passage is about the cerebellum alone, not its connection to the VTA. Choice D is incorrect. The text never discusses any technological limitations or any new technologies.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 8a668840

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 8a668840
350 300 250 200 150 100 50 0Hours of sunshine April May June July August SeptemberMonthly Hours of Sunshine from April toSeptember in Anchorage and Fairbanks, AlaskaMonth Anchorage Fairbanks
  • The following 2 lines are shown:
    • Anchorage
    • Fairbanks
  • The Anchorage line:
    • Begins at April, 254 hours
    • Rises gradually to May, 268 hours
    • Rises gradually to June, 288 hours
    • Falls gradually to July, 255 hours
    • Falls sharply to August, 184 hours
    • Falls sharply to September, 128 hours 
  • The Fairbanks line:
    • Begins at April, 302 hours
    • Rises gradually to May, 319 hours
    • Rises gradually to June, 334 hours
    • Falls sharply to July, 274 hours
    • Falls sharply to August, 164 hours
    • Falls sharply to September, 122 hours

A student is researching monthly hours of sunshine in different cities in Alaska. When comparing trends in Anchorage and Fairbanks, the student concludes that the two cities show a similar pattern in the monthly hours of sunshine from April to September.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that support the student’s conclusion?

  • The monthly hours of sunshine in both Anchorage and Fairbanks hold steady in June and July before beginning to decline in August.

  • The monthly hours of sunshine in both Anchorage and Fairbanks increase from April to June and then decrease from June to September.

  • Anchorage and Fairbanks both have less than 200 monthly hours of sunshine from April to September.

  • Anchorage and Fairbanks both have more than 300 monthly hours of sunshine from April to June and less than 200 hours from July to September.

ID: 8a668840 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it best describes data from the graph that support the student’s conclusion about weather patterns in Anchorage and Fairbanks. According to the graph, the amount of sunshine increases in both cities from April to June: in Anchorage, the number of monthly hours increases from about 250 to just under 300, and in Fairbanks the number of monthly hours increases from about 300 to just under 350. Also according to the graph, the amount of sunshine decreases in both cities from June to September: in Anchorage the number of monthly hours decreases from just under 300 to about 125, and in Fairbanks the number of monthly hours decreases from just under 350 to about 125. Thus, the monthly hours of sunshine in both cities follow a similar pattern, increasing from April to June and then decreasing from June to September.

Choice A is incorrect because, according to the graph, the monthly hours of sunshine in both Anchorage and Fairbanks decrease from June to July. They don’t hold steady. In June there are slightly less than 300 hours of sunshine in Anchorage and slightly less than 350 hours in Fairbanks. Then, in July there are approximately 250 hours of sunshine in both cities. Choice C is incorrect because the graph shows that Anchorage and Fairbanks have less than 200 monthly hours of sunshine only in August and September. For the rest of the months represented in the graph, both cities have more than 200 monthly hours of sunshine. Choice D is incorrect because, according to the graph, Anchorage doesn’t have more than 300 monthly hours of sunshine from April to June. In addition, both cities have more than 200 hours of sunshine in July, although the amount of sunshine does decrease to less than 200 monthly hours in August and September.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID ec93e52c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: ec93e52c

Archaeologist Petra Vaiglova, anthropologist Xinyi Liu, and their colleagues investigated the domestication of farm animals in China during the Bronze Age (approximately 2000 to 1000 BCE). By analyzing the chemical composition of the bones of sheep, goats, and cattle from this era, the team determined that wild plants made up the bulk of sheep’s and goats’ diets, while the cattle’s diet consisted largely of millet, a crop cultivated by humans. The team concluded that cattle were likely raised closer to human settlements, whereas sheep and goats were allowed to roam farther away.

Which finding, if true, would most strongly support the team’s conclusion?

  • Analysis of the animal bones showed that the cattle’s diet also consisted of wheat, which humans widely cultivated in China during the Bronze Age.

  • Further investigation of sheep and goat bones revealed that their diets consisted of small portions of millet as well.

  • Cattle’s diets generally require larger amounts of food and a greater variety of nutrients than do sheep’s and goats’ diets.

  • The diets of sheep, goats, and cattle were found to vary based on what the farmers in each Bronze Age settlement could grow.

ID: ec93e52c Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most strongly support the team’s conclusion that cattle were likely raised closer to human settlements than sheep and goats were. The text explains that Vaiglova, Liu, and their colleagues analyzed the chemical composition of sheep, goat, and cattle bones from the Bronze Age in China in order to investigate the animals’ domestication, or their adaptation from a wild state to a state in which they existed in close connection with humans. According to the text, the team’s analysis showed that sheep and goats of the era fed largely on wild plants, whereas cattle fed on millet—importantly, a crop cultivated by humans. If analysis of the animal bones shows that the cattle’s diet also consisted of wheat, another crop cultivated by humans in China during the Bronze Age, the finding would support the team’s conclusion by offering additional evidence that cattle during this era fed on human-grown crops—and, by extension, that humans raised cattle relatively close to the settlements where they grew these crops, leaving goats and sheep to roam farther away in areas with wild vegetation, uncultivated by humans.

Choice B is incorrect because if it were true that sheep’s and goats’ diets consisted of small portions of millet, which the text states was a crop cultivated by humans, the finding would suggest that sheep and goats were raised relatively close to human settlements, weakening the team’s conclusion that cattle were likely raised closer to those settlements than sheep and goats were. Choice C is incorrect because the finding that cattle generally require more food and nutrients than do sheep and goats wouldn’t support the team’s conclusion that cattle were likely raised closer to human settlements than sheep and goats were. Nothing in the text suggests that cattle were incapable of obtaining sufficient food and nutrients without access to human-grown crops. Hence, even if cattle’s diets are found to have different requirements than the diets of sheep and goats, the cattle could have met those requirements from food located far from human settlements. Choice D is incorrect because if it were true that the diets of sheep, goats, and cattle varied based on what the farmers in each Bronze Age settlement could grow, the finding would weaken the team’s conclusion that cattle were likely raised closer to human settlements than sheep and goats were, suggesting instead that all three types of animals were raised close enough to human settlements to feed on those settlements’ crops.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 4889580c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 4889580c

Archaeologists and historians used to believe that the Maya civilization during its Classic period (roughly 250–900) lacked agricultural marketplaces. One reason for this belief was that these scholars misunderstood the ecology of the regions the Maya inhabited. Marketplaces typically emerge because different individuals or groups want to trade resources they control for resources they don’t control. Scholars seriously underestimated the ecological diversity of the Maya landscape and thus assumed that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • marketplaces likely would not have attracted many traders from outside the regions controlled by the Maya.

  • farming practices would have been largely the same throughout Maya lands even if the crops people produced varied significantly. 

  • marketplaces would not have enabled Maya people to acquire many products different from those they already produced.

  • farmers would trade agricultural products only if they had already produced enough to meet their own needs. 

ID: 4889580c Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of scholars’ understanding of Maya ecology and agricultural marketplaces. The text indicates that scholars used to believe that during the Classic period, the Maya civilization didn’t have agricultural marketplaces. According to the text, scholars held this view because they misunderstood the ecology of areas where the Maya lived. The text points out that people tend to create marketplaces in order to acquire resources they don’t otherwise control. Agricultural marketplaces would have allowed farmers who produced one type of crop to trade that crop for other types of crops that they didn’t produce. The text goes on to say, however, that scholars underestimated the ecological diversity of the Maya areas, meaning that scholars thought that the Maya landscape produced a smaller range of resources than it actually produced. Taken together, then, this information suggests that scholars assumed that marketplaces wouldn’t have allowed Maya people to acquire products different from the products they already produced: that is, if everyone produced the same array of crops, as scholars mistakenly believed, then there wouldn’t have been any need for marketplaces where people could trade those crops.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t say anything about trade between the Maya and people from outside the regions controlled by the Maya. Although scholars’ mistaken belief that the Maya lands weren’t very ecologically diverse would give those scholars a reason to think that the Maya didn’t have marketplaces, it wouldn’t lead scholars to assume that traders from outside Maya lands were uninterested in acquiring resources produced by the Maya. Even if the Maya actually did produce only a small array of resources throughout their lands, there is no reason to believe from the text that people outside Maya lands also produced these same resources and thus would have no need to trade with the Maya people. Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that scholars underestimated the ecological diversity of the Maya lands, which suggests that they mistakenly believed that the Maya produced a relatively small array of resources throughout their territory, not that the crops the Maya produced varied significantly throughout the Maya lands. Although the scholars might have assumed that a lack of ecological diversity suggests that Maya farming practices were largely the same everywhere, the text does not support that they also assumed there was a lot of variation in the crops that Maya people produced. In fact, the text states that marketplaces emerge when people want to obtain resources they don’t already control. If it were the case that scholars assumed that the crops Maya people produced varied significantly, this would have led them to conclude that Maya people likely established marketplaces so they could trade for resources they didn’t already possess, not that the Maya civilization lacked marketplaces. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that scholars assumed that farmers wouldn’t trade their agricultural products unless they had already met their own needs with those products. Instead, the text says that scholars thought that the Maya lands produced a smaller array of resources than they actually did, which the text suggests led scholars to assume that the Maya didn’t have any need for marketplaces. The scholars’ mistaken belief has no bearing on the issue of whether farmers met their own needs before trading their products.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID b7d51f84

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: b7d51f84

In West Africa, jalis have traditionally been keepers of information about family histories and records of important events. They have often served as teachers and advisers, too. New technologies may have changed some aspects of the role today, but jalis continue to be valued for knowing and protecting their peoples’ stories.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Even though there have been some changes in their role, jalis continue to preserve their communities’ histories.

  • Although jalis have many roles, many of them like teaching best.

  • Jalis have been entertaining the people within their communities for centuries.

  • Technology can now do some of the things jalis used to be responsible for.

ID: b7d51f84 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it best states the main idea of the text. According to the text, jalis’ traditional role has been to maintain information about families’ histories and significant events. The text goes on to say that although technological changes have altered jalis’ role somewhat, jalis are still valued for preserving the histories of their communities. 

Choice B is incorrect because the text says nothing about jalis’ views of the various tasks they perform. There is no information to support the idea that many jalis prefer teaching to other tasks. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t describe jalis as being sources of entertainment. Rather, jalis are presented as valued sources of knowledge. Additionally, the text gives no indication of how long jalis have been serving their communities. Choice D is incorrect because the main focus of the text is on jalis’ role and their continued value despite the effects of technology, not on what technology can now do. Although the text indicates that jalis’ role has changed as a result of technological changes, the text doesn’t present any specific information about technology performing tasks that jalis once performed. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 35b46381

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 35b46381

In their 2022 paper, Christos Dimopoulos et al., having granted that the existence of antigravity—in which antimatter and matter repel rather than attract each other—lacked affirmative experimental support, rightly argued that such antigravity was worth considering on theoretical grounds given that evidence against it was similarly lacking. But a 2023 report by an international team of researchers details the first direct ballistic observations of antihydrogen atoms under gravity inside a CERN particle accelerator.  Corresponding most closely to predictions under gravitational attraction, these observations were thoroughly inconsistent with antigravity.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Antihydrogen ballistics observations were conducted at CERN to test specific conclusions about antigravity presented in the 2022 paper by Dimopoulos et al. 

  • Although theoreticians were justified in studying antigravity before the release of the 2023 report, the report’s findings suggest that the rationale for theoretical consideration offered in the 2022 paper by Dimopoulos et al. is no longer applicable.

  • The theoretical approach represented in the 2022 paper by Dimopoulos et al. assumed that unambiguous proof of antigravity would not be achievable, but the results in the 2023 report undermine that assumption.

  • Before 2023, researchers’ inordinate focus on theoretical considerations hindered the development of the experimental regimen for direct antihydrogen ballistics observations.

ID: 35b46381 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text begins by acknowledging that in 2022, Dimopoulos et al. were justified in arguing for antigravity on theoretical grounds because although there was no experimental evidence supporting its existence at that time, there was no evidence contradicting its existence either. The text then introduces the 2023 report describing an experiment that produced observations "thoroughly inconsistent with antigravity." Thus, the main idea is that while the study of antigravity was theoretically justified before the 2023 report (due to lack of evidence against it), the report’s findings undermine the rationale for such theoretical consideration since there is now evidence against this hypothetical phenomenon.

Choice A is incorrect. Although antihydrogen ballistics observations were conducted at CERN, the text provides no evidence that they were conducted to test conclusions in Dimopoulos et al.’s 2022 paper. Rather, the text presents the 2023 report as new evidence that contradicts the existence of the hypothetical phenomenon that Dimopoulos et al. had considered. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that Dimopoulos et al. assumed that unambiguous proof of antigravity would be unattainable. Rather, the text states that they argued antigravity was worth considering theoretically because evidence against it was lacking at that time. At the same time, the results in the 2023 report do not undermine but strengthen the idea that the proof of antigravity might not be achievable. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that there was an "inordinate focus on theoretical considerations" before 2023 or that such a focus hindered the development of experimental methods. In fact, the text describes Dimopoulos et al.’s position regarding the theoretical consideration of antigravity as "rightly argued," indicating approval of their approach given the absence of experimental evidence at that time.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 4ba0695d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 4ba0695d

The alpaca was domesticated by Indigenous peoples in the Andes about 7,000 years ago. But which wild species did it descend from, the vicuña or guanaco? A research team led by Ruiwen Fan may have solved the mystery, concluding that the alpaca is the domesticated form of the vicuña but that the modern alpaca gets only 64 percent of its genetic material from its wild ancestor. The rest comes from the domesticated llama. The llama, meanwhile, gets 95.5 percent of its genetic material from its own wild ancestor, the guanaco, and the rest from the alpaca. The llama and alpaca apparently interbred widely for only a handful of generations between 400 and 600 years ago. Assuming that the findings of Fan’s team are valid, it can be inferred that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • modern llama populations have a greater degree of genetic diversity, on average, than modern alpaca populations do.

  • the domestication process of the alpaca may have involved some introduction of genetic material from the llama.

  • the period of interbreeding resulted in a greater genetic difference between alpacas and their wild ancestors than between llamas and their wild ancestors.

  • if they were subjected to genetic testing, modern populations of guanacos and vicuñas would likely show traces of ancient interbreeding as well.

ID: 4ba0695d Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents the inference that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of the genetic material of alpacas. The text states that modern alpacas get only 64 percent of their genetic material from their wild ancestor (the vicuña), while llamas get 95.5 percent of their genetic material from their wild ancestor (the guanaco). These data imply that relative to llamas, alpacas have experienced a much greater genetic shift away from their wild ancestors (36 percent of their genetic material derives from another source, compared to 4.5 percent of llamas’ genetic material). Moreover, the text establishes that the remainder of alpacas’ genetic material derives from llamas, and the remainder of llamas’ genetic material derives from alpacas, reflecting a period of interbreeding. Taken together, these details support the inference that the period of interbreeding had a more significant impact on the genetic material of alpacas than on that of llamas, thereby reducing the percentage of alpacas’ genetic material that derives from wild ancestors and placing alpacas at a greater remove from these ancestors.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t provide information about genetic diversity within modern llama and alpaca populations. While the text discusses the percentage of genetic material each domesticated species inherited from its wild ancestor and from interbreeding, it does not address the level of genetic variation within each species. Therefore, it isn’t logical to infer that modern llama populations have a greater degree of genetic diversity than modern alpaca populations do. Choice B is incorrect because it contradicts the chronology presented in the text. The text states that alpacas were domesticated about 7,000 years ago, but the interbreeding with llamas occurred "between 400 and 600 years ago." The genetic mixing happened thousands of years after domestication, not during it; in addition, the text does not provide details about what the process of domestication might entail. Therefore, it isn’t logical to infer that llama genetic material was introduced during the domestication process of alpacas. Choice D is incorrect because though the text notes that guanacos and vicuñas contributed to the genetic material of alpacas and llamas, it only discusses alpacas’ and llamas’ genetic composition. Therefore, the text does not support the inference that modern populations of guanacos and vicuñas would likely show traces of ancient interbreeding.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 78b265b2

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 78b265b2

In 2014, Amelia Quon and her team at NASA set out to build a helicopter capable of flying on Mars. Because Mars’s atmosphere is only one percent as dense as Earth’s, the air of Mars would not provide enough resistance to the rotating blades of a standard helicopter for the aircraft to stay aloft. For five years, Quon’s team tested designs in a lab that mimicked Mars’s atmospheric conditions. The craft the team ultimately designed can fly on Mars because its blades are longer and rotate faster than those of a helicopter of the same size built for Earth.

According to the text, why would a helicopter built for Earth be unable to fly on Mars?

  • Because Mars and Earth have different atmospheric conditions

  • Because the blades of helicopters built for Earth are too large to work on Mars

  • Because the gravity of Mars is much weaker than the gravity of Earth

  • Because helicopters built for Earth are too small to handle the conditions on Mars

ID: 78b265b2 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents an explanation about a helicopter that is directly supported by the text. The text states that Mars’s atmosphere is much less dense than Earth’s, and as a result, the air on Mars doesn’t provide the resistance required to support the blades of a helicopter built for Earth and to keep the helicopter aloft. In other words, a helicopter built for Earth can’t fly on Mars because of the differences in the two planets’ atmospheres.

Choice B is incorrect because instead of stating that the blades of helicopters built for Earth are too large to work on Mars, the text indicates that the helicopter built to fly on Mars actually has even longer blades than a helicopter built for Earth. Choice C is incorrect because the text never addresses the role of gravity on Mars or on Earth; instead, it focuses on atmospheric conditions. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that helicopters built for Earth are too small to operate in the conditions on Mars. In fact, the text states that the size of the helicopter built to fly on Mars is the same size as a helicopter built for Earth, even though it has longer blades that rotate faster.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID aa0968dd

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: aa0968dd

Poetry in Classical Nahuatl, the language of the Aztec Empire, relies on difrasismo, or a parallel noun construction that conventionally operates as a single metaphor. For example, the common difrasismo in cuauhtli in ocelotl (literally, “the eagle, the jaguar”) signifies “warrior.” The device’s function is both formal—providing structure to lines of verse—and ritual: semantic relations among the two nouns and the concept they signify can be tenuous, as in the previous example, such that difrasismos are often only intelligible according to the conceptual associations observed in Aztec ceremonial culture.

Which statement about the difrasismo in cuauhtli in ocelotl is most strongly supported by the text? 

  • Its metaphorical significance derives from the semantic equivalence of the two nouns constituting the difrasismo.

  • Its unintelligibility may cause its formal function within a line of verse to go unnoticed by present-day readers.

  • Its apparent obscurity can be resolved when considered in the proper cultural context.

  • Its frequency in Classical Nahuatl poetry confirms its intelligibility to the Aztec audience.

ID: aa0968dd Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a statement about the difrasismo in cuauhtli in ocelotl that is directly supported by the text. The text begins by describing difrasismo, a device used in Classical Nahuatl poetry. The text then mentions the device’s two functions: a formal one (giving structure to lines of verse) and a ritualistic one. The text indicates that the relation between the words in a difrasismo may appear tenuous without the additional information supplied by Aztec ceremonial culture but that the meaning becomes intelligible in the context of that information. Therefore, the difrasismo’s apparent obscurity can be resolved when considered in the proper cultural context.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that the two nouns used in a difrasismo are semantically equivalent; instead, the text indicates that the two nouns used in a difrasismo make up a single metaphor whose meaning is often intelligible only in the context of information supplied by Aztec ceremonial culture. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that there’s a relationship between the formal function of the difrasismo and the difrasismo’s intelligibility. Additionally, the text suggests that present-day readers who are familiar with Aztec ceremonial culture wouldn’t find the difrasismo to be unintelligible. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that the frequency of difrasismo’s use in Classical Nahuatl is a necessary feature of intelligibility: the text indicates that an infrequently used difrasismo would presumably also be intelligible to members of an Aztec audience who are sufficiently familiar with Aztec ceremonial culture.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID e7dc27dc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: e7dc27dc

As a monthly newsletter formed in 1969 by a group of Asian American students at the University of California, Los Angeles, Gidra helped raise awareness about social and political issues concerning the Asian American community on campus and at large. The newsletter had an expansive reach for a publication of its kind: around 4,000 copies were published each month. A student writing a history paper, however, hypothesizes that Gidra’s influence cannot be measured by the number of newsletters published monthly alone.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the student’s hypothesis?

  • The students who initially formed Gidra each contributed financially to its creation.

  • In addition to covering current events, Gidra also featured works of art and literature.

  • Gidra was initially based out of the Asian American Studies Center at UCLA.

  • People would often give their copies of Gidra to others once they had finished reading an issue.

ID: e7dc27dc Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. If there were more Gidra readers than there were copies of the newsletter, then the newsletter’s influence would be much greater than its 4,000 monthly copies.

Choice A is incorrect. Information about the newsletter’s initial funding doesn’t tell us about the influence that the newsletter eventually had. Choice B is incorrect. While the content of Gidra was undoubtedly related to the newsletter’s influence, this information isn’t relevant to the specific hypothesis about monthly circulation numbers. Choice C is incorrect. Where the publishers of Gidra were initially based doesn’t tell us about the newsletter’s overall influence.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID b8199d5a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: b8199d5a

Total Areas and 2022 Populations of Smallest Arabian Peninsula Countries

Country Total area (square miles) Population
Kuwait 6,880 4,268,873
Bahrain 304 1,472,233
Qatar 4,471 2,695,122

In terms of area and population, the three smallest Arabian Peninsula countries are Bahrain, Qatar, and Kuwait.

According to the table, what is the total area of Bahrain?

  • 4,268,873 square miles

  • 4,471 square miles

  • 304 square miles

  • 6,880 square miles

ID: b8199d5a Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it states the total area of Bahrain that is indicated in the table. The table presents the total area (in square miles) and population for Bahrain, Qatar, and Kuwait, and it indicates that the total area of Bahrain is 304 square miles.

Choice A is incorrect because the table indicates that 4,268,873 is the population of Kuwait, not the total area of Bahrain. Choice B is incorrect because the table indicates that 4,471 square miles is the total area of Qatar, not of Bahrain. Choice D is incorrect because the table indicates that 6,880 square miles is the total area of Kuwait, not of Bahrain.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 30c3aa98

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 30c3aa98

400 300 200 100 0Yearly copper production (in millions of pounds) 1889 1902 1909Copper Production for Three States, 1889-1909Year Montana Arizona Michigan

Copper had been mined in the US for thousands of years, but large-scale commercial mining of copper took off starting in the late 1800s. This was due to several factors. Technological advancements in the mining industry led to improvements in the production of copper. This helped the country keep up with the growing number of people wanting to buy copper starting in the 1890s. At the same time, the growth of the railroad system made the transportation of copper in large batches much easier. Several states saw rapid growth in the production of this resource, for example: blank

Which choice most effectively uses the data in the graph to complete the example?

  • The rise in copper production in Michigan slowed from 1902 to 1909.

  • Montana and Arizona produced more copper than Michigan did in 1909.

  • Fewer than 100 million pounds of copper were produced in Arizona in 1889.

  • Copper production rose significantly from 1889 to 1909 for Arizona, Michigan, and Montana.

ID: 30c3aa98 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The text asks us to provide examples of several states that saw rapid growth in copper production from the 1890s onward. The graph depicts Arizona, Michigan, and Montana all experiencing such rapid growth during this time period.

Choice A is incorrect. The claim is about states experiencing rapid growth in copper production. This statement only discusses one state and does not provide evidence of rapid growth—in fact, it discusses a slow-down of growth. Choice B is incorrect. The claim is about states experiencing rapid growth in copper production, and this statement provides a comparison of production rates between states, rather than an example of rapid growth. Choice C is incorrect. The claim is about several states experiencing rapid growth in copper production. This statement only discusses one state and does not provide evidence of growth in copper production.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID d0f51067

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: d0f51067

Modern dog breeds are largely the result of 160 years of owners crossbreeding certain dogs in order to select for particular physical appearances. Owners often say that some breeds are also more likely than others to have particular personality traits—basset hounds are affectionate; boxers are easy to train—but Kathleen Morrill and colleagues found through a combination of owner surveys and DNA sequencing of 2,000 dogs that while physical traits are predictably heritable among purebred dogs, behavior varies widely among dogs of the same breed.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Dog breeds would not exist without many years of human intervention in dogs’ reproduction.

  • Research fails to confirm a commonly held belief about dog breeds and behavior.

  • The dog breeds most popular among owners have often changed over the past 160 years.

  • A study of dog breeds is notable for its usage of both opinion surveys and DNA sequencing.

ID: d0f51067 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text indicates that dog owners typically claim that some dog breeds are “more likely than others to have particular personality traits.” In other words, the text points out that a commonly held belief about dog breeds is that their personality traits are heritable. The text then states that Kathleen Morrill and colleagues undertook research about dog trait heritability and found that “behavior varies widely among dogs of the same breed.” Because Morrill and colleagues found evidence for variability rather than consistency in the behavior of dogs of the same breed, the statement that research fails to uphold a commonly held belief about dog breeds and behavior accurately reflects the main idea of the text.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text mentions that humans have long intervened in dogs’ reproduction by intentionally crossbreeding certain dogs, it doesn’t argue that such intervention is essential to the existence of dog breeds. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss the popularity of any dog breeds; breeds are mentioned as having certain traits, but the text says nothing about the popularity of these breeds or traits. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text briefly mentions that Morrill and colleagues conducted a study about dog traits using both surveys and DNA sequencing, this is not the main focus of the text. The text concerns the study’s results about the heritability of dog traits, not the particular methodology used by Morrill and colleagues.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 3cc2eacc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 3cc2eacc

In a study of the mechanisms underlying associative memory—or the ability to learn and remember connections between inherently unrelated things—neuroscientists Kei Igarashi, Jasmine Chavez, and others presented mice with memory tests. The team discovered that fan cells, a type of cell found in the medial temporal lobe of the brain, are necessary for the acquisition of new associative memories. They also found that fan cell activity requires dopamine, a chemical the brain produces in response to pleasure and rewards. Consequently, receiving a reward should likely help to blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • decrease an individual’s capacity to utilize dopamine.

  • increase an individual’s capacity to recognize differences between unrelated things.

  • increase an individual’s capacity to form associative memories.

  • decrease an individual’s capacity to create fan cells.

ID: 3cc2eacc Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the mechanisms underlying associative memory. The text explains that fan cells—a type of brain cell—are necessary for the acquisition of new associative memories, and that activity among these cells requires a chemical known as dopamine, which the brain produces in response to rewards. Since the brain cells that enable the formation of associative memories require dopamine in order to function, and since the brain produces dopamine in response to rewards, it can be inferred that receiving a reward should likely help to increase an individual’s capacity to form associative memories.

Choice A is incorrect because the relationship between rewards and dopamine sketched by the text is that rewards result in the production of dopamine, not that they cause an individual’s capacity to utilize dopamine to decrease. Choice B is incorrect. The text suggests that receiving a reward would produce dopamine and thereby assist with associative memory formation. However, the text never suggests that associative memory involves the capacity to recognize differences between unrelated things, indicating only that associative memory involves remembering what connects those things. Choice D is incorrect because the text never discusses how fan cells are initially created and therefore provides no evidence for a conclusion about how receiving a reward would affect their creation. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 54057e3f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 54057e3f

Although military veterans make up a small proportion of the total population of the United States, they occupy a significantly higher proportion of the jobs in the civilian government. One possible explanation for this disproportionate representation is that military service familiarizes people with certain organizational structures that are also reflected in the civilian government bureaucracy, and this familiarity thus blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • makes civilian government jobs especially appealing to military veterans.

  • alters the typical relationship between military service and subsequent career preferences.

  • encourages nonveterans applying for civilian government jobs to consider military service instead.

  • increases the number of civilian government jobs that require some amount of military experience to perform.

ID: 54057e3f Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of military veterans working in civilian government jobs in the United States. The text indicates that the proportion of military veterans working in civilian government jobs is considerably higher than the proportion of military veterans in the population as a whole. The text also notes that the unusually high representation of military veterans in these jobs may be a result of the organizational structures  shared by civilian government entities and the military. Hence, it’s reasonable to infer that it’s the familiarity of the structures of civilian government that makes jobs there particularly attractive to military veterans. 

Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t address what a typical relationship between military service and later career preferences would be, and there’s no indication that it’s atypical for veterans to work in civilian government jobs after they’ve left the military. On the contrary, the text suggests that many military veterans are drawn to such jobs. Choice C is incorrect because the text is focused on the high representation of military veterans in civilian government jobs and doesn’t address nonveterans or their possible interest in military service. Choice D is incorrect because the text conveys that military veterans may be particularly interested in civilian government jobs due to the familiarity of organizational structures that are already in place, but there’s no reason to think that this interest would mean that more civilian government jobs will start to require military experience.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 487a05f8

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 487a05f8

The following text is adapted from Sylvia Acevedo’s 2018 memoir Path to the Stars: My Journey from Girl Scout to Rocket Scientist. The narrator is traveling by car with her family to Mexico City. Mario and Laura are her brother and sister.

Mario and I played games to see how many different license plates we could spot, and Laura liked to look for children in the back seats of the cars we passed. We were used to the forty-five-minute drive to El Paso and familiar with the six-hour ride to Chihuahua, but I wondered what the long journey to Mexico City would be like.

©2018 by Sylvia Acevedo

According to the text, what did the narrator and Mario do while riding in the car?

  • They read books. 

  • They sang songs.

  • They went to sleep.

  • They played games.

ID: 487a05f8 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately describes what the narrator and Mario did while riding in the car. The text describes a car trip that the narrator is taking with her family. The text states that during the car ride, the narrator and Mario "played games" to see how many different license plates they could spot.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention the narrator and Mario reading during the car ride and instead describes them playing games. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention the narrator and Mario singing songs during the car ride and instead describes them playing games. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention the narrator and Mario sleeping during the car ride and instead describes them playing games.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID aaddd60f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: aaddd60f

Scientists studying Mars long thought the history of its crust was relatively simple. One reason for this is that geologic and climate data collected by a spacecraft showed that the crust was largely composed of basalt, likely as a result of intense volcanic activity that brought about a magma ocean, which then cooled to form the planet’s surface. A study led by Valerie Payré focused on additional information—further analysis of data collected by the spacecraft and infrared wavelengths detected from Mars’s surface—that revealed the presence of surprisingly high concentrations of silica in certain regions on Mars. Since a planetary surface that formed in a mostly basaltic environment would be unlikely to contain large amounts of silica, Payré concluded that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • the information about silica concentrations collected by the spacecraft is likely more reliable than the silica information gleaned from infrared wavelengths detected from Mars’s surface.

  • high silica concentrations on Mars likely formed from a different process than that which formed the crusts of other planets.

  • having a clearer understanding of the composition of Mars’s crust and the processes by which it formed will provide more insight into how Earth’s crust formed.  

  • Mars’s crust likely formed as a result of other major geological events in addition to the cooling of a magma ocean. 

ID: aaddd60f Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. Cooling magma would create basalt, but “a planetary surface that formed in a mostly basaltic environment would be unlikely to contain large amounts of silica.” Since Mars’s crust does contain large amounts of silica, it is unlikely that Mars’s crust was formed exclusively by cooling magma. Therefore, there were likely other major geological events that created the high silica concentrations.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the passage discusses these two methods of collecting data about Mars’s crust, it never compares their reliability, so there’s no basis for this inference. Choice B is incorrect. The passage never mentions anything about the crusts of other planets, so there’s no basis for this inference. Choice C is incorrect. The passage never mentions Earth’s crust, so there’s no basis for this inference.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 1c69ff20

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 1c69ff20

For many years, the only existing fossil evidence of mixopterid eurypterids—an extinct family of large aquatic arthropods known as sea scorpions and related to modern arachnids and horseshoe crabs—came from four species living on the paleocontinent of Laurussia. In a discovery that expands our understanding of the geographical distribution of mixopterids, paleontologist Bo Wang and others have identified fossilized remains of a new mixopterid species, Terropterus xiushanensis, that lived over 400 million years ago on the paleocontinent of Gondwana.

According to the text, why was Wang and his team’s discovery of the Terropterus xiushanensis fossil significant?

  • The fossil constitutes the first evidence found by scientists that mixopterids lived more than 400 million years ago.

  • The fossil helps establish that mixopterids are more closely related to modern arachnids and horseshoe crabs than previously thought.

  • The fossil helps establish a more accurate timeline of the evolution of mixopterids on the paleocontinents of Laurussia and Gondwana.

  • The fossil constitutes the first evidence found by scientists that mixopterids existed outside the paleocontinent of Laurussia.

ID: 1c69ff20 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it states why Wang and his team’s discovery of the Terropterus xiushanensis fossil was significant. The text explains that up until Wang and his team’s discovery, the only fossil evidence of mixopterids came from the paleocontinent of Laurussia. Wang and his team, however, identified fossil remains of a mixopterid species from the paleocontinent Gondwana. Therefore, the team’s discovery was significant because the fossil remains of a mixopterid species were outside of the paleocontinent Laurussia.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text states that Wang and his team identified fossilized remains of a mixopterid species that lived more than 400 million years ago, it doesn’t indicate that mixopterid fossils previously found by scientists dated to a more recent period than that. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text states that mixopterids are related to modern arachnids and horseshoe crabs, it doesn’t suggest that the fossil discovered by Wang and his team confirmed that this relationship is closer than scientists had previously thought. Choice C is incorrect because the team’s fossil established the presence of mixopterids on Gondwana, not on Laurussia. Moreover, the text only discusses the fossil in relation to the geographical distribution of mixopterids, not in relation to their evolution.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 39e440e4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 39e440e4

Archaeologists have held that the Casarabe culture, which emerged in the southwestern Amazon basin in the first millennium CE, was characterized by a sparse, widely distributed population and little intervention in the surrounding wilderness. Recently, however, archaeologist Heiko Prümers and colleagues conducted a study of the region using remote-sensing technology that enabled them to create three-dimensional images of the jungle-covered landscape from above, and the researchers concluded that the Casarabe people developed a form of urbanism in the Amazon basin.

Which finding about the remote-sensing images, if true, would most directly support Prümers and colleagues’ conclusion?

  • They show shapes consistent with widely separated settlements of roughly equal small size surrounded by uncultivated jungle.

  • They show shapes consistent with long-distance footpaths running from Casarabe territories to large cities outside the region inhabited by the Casarabe people.

  •  They show shapes consistent with scattered small farms created by clearing jungle areas near sources of fresh water.

  • They show shapes consistent with monumental platforms and dense central settlements linked to smaller settlements by a system of canals and roadways.

ID: 39e440e4 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. This finding, if true, would support the archaeologists’ conclusion. Dense central settlements linked to smaller ones would provide evidence of cities and suburbs—in other words, “a form of urbanism.”

Choice A is incorrect. This finding, if true, would weaken the archaeologists’ conclusion. Widely separated, small settlements with jungle in between would support the long-held belief that the Casarabe culture “was characterized by a sparse, widely distributed population and little intervention in the surrounding wilderness.” Choice B is incorrect. This choice wouldn’t support the researchers’ conclusion. These large cities are located outside Casarabe territory, which doesn’t show evidence of Casarabe urbanism. Choice C is incorrect. This finding wouldn’t support the archaeologists’ conclusion. Scattered small farms in jungle clearings are not good evidence to support the existence of cities (“a form of urbanism”).

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 29cde5fa

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 29cde5fa

“Mr. Cornelius Johnson, Office-Seeker” is a 1900 short story by Paul Laurence Dunbar. In the story, the narrator describes Mr. Cornelius Johnson’s appearance as conveying his exaggerated sense of his importance: blank

Which quotation from “Mr. Cornelius Johnson, Office-Seeker” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “He carried himself always as if he were passing under his own triumphal arch.”

  • “The grey Prince Albert was scrupulously buttoned about his form, and a shiny top hat replaced the felt of the afternoon.”

  • “It was a beautiful day in balmy May and the sun shone pleasantly on Mr. Cornelius Johnson’s very spruce Prince Albert suit of grey as he alighted from the train in Washington.”

  • “Mr. Cornelius Johnson always spoke in a large and important tone.”

ID: 29cde5fa Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. This quote most effectively illustrates the claim. The claim is that the narrator describes Mr. Johnson as arrogant and self-important. This basically says that Mr. Johnson always looks like he’s congratulating himself for something, which definitely supports the idea that Mr. Johnson is arrogant! .

Choice B is incorrect. This quote doesn’t illustrate the claim. The claim is that the narrator describes Mr. Johnson’s appearance as conveying his arrogance. This describes his appearance, but the description doesn’t suggest a sense of arrogance. Choice C is incorrect. This quote doesn’t illustrate the claim. The claim is that the narrator describes Mr. Johnson’s appearance as conveying his arrogance. This doesn’t describe Mr. Johnson’s appearance very much, and it doesn’t suggest a sense of arrogance. Choice D is incorrect. This quote doesn’t effectively illustrate the claim. It describes Mr. Johnson’s tone of voice as “large and important,” but it doesn’t describe his appearance as conveying a sense of self-importance. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID c4d43991

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: c4d43991

Archaeologists have been debating the origin of a rare form of lead found in Shang dynasty (1766–1046 BCE) bronze artifacts since its presence was discovered in China in the 1990s. Different researchers have proposed theories on which regions of the world would have had the raw materials containing the specific lead in these artifacts, but no conclusive evidence has been presented. What is intriguing is that bronze artifacts from China dated after the Shang dynasty do not contain this form of lead, suggesting that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • Shang dynasty bronze pieces are rare and therefore more valuable than those from other time periods.

  • the source of some of the raw materials used to make bronze was exploited only until the end of the Shang dynasty.

  • bronze was used for a short time during the Shang dynasty before different metals were used to make artifacts.

  • methods used to analyze bronze artifacts are not useful on pieces that are dated after the Shang dynasty.

ID: c4d43991 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The passage tells us that Shang dynasty bronze artifacts contained "a rare form of lead," but that bronze artifacts after this time did not contain that lead. Although we don’t know where that specific type of bronze came from, we can conclude that that source was not used after the end of the Shang dynasty—otherwise, post-Shang dynasty pieces would also contain that rare form of lead.

Choice A is incorrect. Despite these pieces containing "a rare form of lead," there is no direct claim in the passage that Shang dynasty bronze is itself more rare or valuable than bronze pieces from other periods. Therefore, there’s no basis for this inference. Choice C is incorrect. Although the passage mentions that the nature of the bronze in Chinese artifacts changed after the Shang dynasty, bronze was still used to create artifacts after this time. The passage in fact explicitly states "bronze artifacts from China dated after the Shang dynasty…," indicating that bronze was still used in China after the Shang dynasty. Choice D is incorrect. There’s no mention in the passage of methods used to analyze bronze artifacts, so there’s no basis for this inference.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 4042ff0b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 4042ff0b

Comfort Ratings and Temperature-Adjustment Preferences from One Survey

Participant Comfort rating Preferred temperature adjustment
20 negative 2 Cooler
1 1 Cooler
21 1 Cooler

Nan Gao and her team conducted multiple surveys to determine participants’ levels of comfort in a room where the temperature was regulated by a commercial climate control system. Participants filled out surveys several times a day to indicate their level of comfort on a scale from negative 3 (very cold) to positive 3 (very hot), with 0 indicating neutral (neither warm nor cool), and to indicate how they would prefer the temperature to be adjusted. The table shows three participants’ responses in one of the surveys. According to the table, all three participants wanted the room to be cooler, blank 

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • and they each reported the same level of comfort.

  • even though each participant’s ratings varied throughout the day.

  • but participant 20 reported feeling significantly colder than the other two participants did.

  • but participant 1 reported feeling warmer than the other two participants did.

ID: 4042ff0b Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The text describes the comfort rating scale: from −3 (very cold) to +3 (very hot), with 0 being neutral. Participant 20 gave a −2 comfort rating, a full three points colder on the scale than the other two participants.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice misreads the table. Participant 1 and participant 21 reported the same level of comfort, but participant 20’s comfort level was three points lower. Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t use data from the table. The table only shows us one survey, so we don’t know if the participants’ ratings varied throughout the day. Choice D is incorrect. This choice misreads the table. Participant 1 and participant 21 reported the same level of comfort.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID d0fbf1ae

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: d0fbf1ae

Algae living within the tissues of corals play a critical role in keeping corals, and the marine ecosystems they are part of, thriving. Some coral species appear brown in color when healthy due to the algae colonies living in their tissues. In the event of an environmental stressor, the algae can die or be expelled, causing the corals to appear white. To recover the algae, the bleached corals then begin to produce bright colors, which block intense sunlight, encouraging the light-sensitive algae to recolonize the corals.

What does the text most strongly suggest about corals that produce bright colors?

  • These corals have likely been subjected to stressful environmental conditions.

  • These corals are likely more vulnerable to exposure from intense sunlight than white corals are.

  • These corals have likely recovered from an environmental event without the assistance of algae colonies.

  • These corals are more likely to survive without algae colonies than brown corals are.

ID: d0fbf1ae Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The text says that corals produce bright colors to block sunlight and encourage algae to recolonize after “an environmental stressor.” From this, we can infer that corals that produce bright colors have probably been subjected to an environmental stressor.

Choice B is incorrect. The text says that corals produce bright colors to block intense sunlight, which protects the light-sensitive algae that keep the coral healthy. In other words, bright colors make the coral’s health less vulnerable to intense sunlight. Choice C is incorrect. The text says that corals produce bright colors to encourage algae to recolonize, not that they have recovered without the assistance of algae colonies. Choice D is incorrect. The text never compares the likelihood of differently colored corals surviving without algae colonies.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID d2c2a7ef

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: d2c2a7ef

The following text is from Anton Chekhov’s 1898 short story “Ionitch” (translated by Marian Fell in 1915). The text is set in a Russian city referred to as the city of S.

If newcomers to the little provincial city of S. complained that life there was monotonous and dull, its inhabitants would answer that, on the contrary, S. was a very amusing place, indeed, that it had a library and a club, that balls were given there, and finally, that very pleasant families lived there with whom one might become acquainted. And they always pointed to the Turkins as the most accomplished and most enlightened family of all.

What does the text suggest about the Turkins?

  • They are relative newcomers to the city of S.

  • They have a unique status in the city of S.

  • They have long disliked living in the city of S.

  • They are amused by the other residents of the city of S.

ID: d2c2a7ef Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a statement about the Turkins that is suggested by the text. The text explains that while many pleasant families live in the city of S., inhabitants of the city consider the Turkins to be "the most accomplished and most enlightened family of all." Thus, by indicating that they are seen as more accomplished and more enlightened than all the other families in the city of S., the text suggests that the Turkins have a unique status there.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that the Turkins have recently moved to the city of S.; it provides no information about when the Turkins arrived. Choice C is incorrect because the text explains how the Turkins are viewed by others in the city of S. but gives no indication of how the Turkins feel about living there. Choice D is incorrect because the text explains how the Turkins are viewed by other residents of the city of S. but gives no indication of how the Turkins view the other residents.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID b30a2613

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: b30a2613
90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0Spider count 1 10 20 30Spider Population CountDay of experiment no lizards with lizards
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • no lizards
    • with lizards
  • All values are approximate.
  • The data for the 4 categories are as follows:
    • Day 1:
      • no lizards: 85
      • with lizards: 85
    • Day 10:
      • no lizards: 62
      • with lizards: 32
    • Day 20:
      • no lizards: 51
      • with lizards: 27
    • Day 30:
      • no lizards: 43
      • with lizards: 23

To investigate the effect of lizard predation on spider populations, a student in a biology class placed spiders in two enclosures, one with lizards and one without, and tracked the number of spiders in the enclosures for 30 days. The student concluded that the reduction in the spider population count in the enclosure with lizards by day 30 was entirely attributable to the presence of the lizards.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that weaken the student’s conclusion?

  • The spider population count was the same in both enclosures on day 1.

  • The spider population count also substantially declined by day 30 in the enclosure without lizards.

  • The largest decline in spider population count in the enclosure with lizards occurred from day 1 to day 10.

  • The spider population count on day 30 was lower in the enclosure with lizards than in the enclosure without lizards.

ID: b30a2613 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it describes data from the graph that weaken the student’s conclusion about the reduction in the spider population in the enclosure with lizards. The graph shows that the enclosure with lizards and the enclosure without lizards each began with about 85 spiders, and that the number of spiders in each enclosure fell over the 30 days of the study. The student’s claim is that the reduction in spiders in the enclosure with lizards is “entirely attributable to the presence of the lizards,” meaning that the spider population wouldn’t have declined except for the presence of the lizards. This claim is weakened, however, by the fact that the enclosure without lizards also saw a substantial reduction in the number of spiders. Since the number of spiders fell in the enclosure without lizards as well as in the enclosure with lizards, there must be some other factor than just the presence of the lizards that contributed to the reduction in the spider population. 

Choice A is incorrect because the fact that the two enclosures started with the same number of spiders is irrelevant to the claim that the reduction in spider population by day 30 in the enclosure with lizards can be entirely attributed to the lizards. Choice C is incorrect because the fact that the spider population in the enclosure with lizards fell more between days 1 and 10 than in other periods has nothing to do with the student’s claim that the reduction in spiders in that enclosure by day 30 can be entirely attributed to the lizards. Choice D is incorrect. Although it’s true that on day 30 the spider population was lower in the enclosure with lizards than in the enclosure without lizards, this fact doesn’t weaken the student’s claim that the reduction in the spider population in the enclosure with lizards can be entirely attributed to the lizards. Indeed, the lower spider population in the enclosure with lizards suggests that the lizards are contributing to the reduction in the spider population, though the fact that the spider population also fell substantially in the other enclosure means that the lizards aren’t the only cause of the reduction. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 123bd312

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 123bd312

Herbivorous sauropod dinosaurs could grow more than 100 feet long and weigh up to 80 tons, and some researchers have attributed the evolution of sauropods to such massive sizes to increased plant production resulting from high levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide during the Mesozoic era. However, there is no evidence of significant spikes in carbon dioxide levels coinciding with relevant periods in sauropod evolution, such as when the first large sauropods appeared, when several sauropod lineages underwent further evolution toward gigantism, or when sauropods reached their maximum known sizes, suggesting that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • fluctuations in atmospheric carbon dioxide affected different sauropod lineages differently. 

  • the evolution of larger body sizes in sauropods did not depend on increased atmospheric carbon dioxide.

  • atmospheric carbon dioxide was higher when the largest known sauropods lived than it was when the first sauropods appeared.

  • sauropods probably would not have evolved to such immense sizes if atmospheric carbon dioxide had been even slightly higher.

ID: 123bd312 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of the relationship between atmospheric carbon dioxide and sauropod body size. The text establishes that sauropods evolved to reach enormous sizes, and it notes that some scientists have asserted that the cause of this phenomenon was increased plant production that resulted from increased atmospheric carbon dioxide. The text goes on to state, however, that atmospheric carbon dioxide levels didn’t increase around the time of important periods in sauropods’ evolution of larger body sizes. If significant periods of sauropod evolution toward larger sizes occurred without increased atmospheric carbon dioxide levels, that suggests that the evolution of larger sizes didn’t depend on increased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. 

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t describe any fluctuations in atmospheric carbon dioxide, so there’s no evidence in the text to support the conclusion that such fluctuations had different effects on different sauropod lineages. All that the text says about atmospheric carbon dioxide levels is that there weren’t increases at particular points that correspond with key moments in sauropod evolution. Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates that there weren’t significant increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide around the time of important periods in sauropods’ evolution toward larger body sizes, not that atmospheric carbon dioxide was higher when the largest sauropods lived than when sauropods first appeared. Choice D is incorrect because the text indicates that atmospheric carbon dioxide levels didn’t increase at important periods in sauropod evolution, not that higher levels would have affected that evolution. The text provides no information about how higher levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide might have affected sauropods. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 5f6adeee

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 5f6adeee

Biologists have generally believed that the diet of jaguars consists mostly of land-based mammals, but researchers studying a population of jaguars living in the Brazilian Pantanal, a tropical wetland, claim that jaguars can survive on a diet of more fish and aquatic reptiles than mammals. 

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ claim?

  • Aquatic reptile and fish remains were detected more often than were mammal remains in an analysis of jaguar waste matter found in the area.

  • Exceptionally high numbers of yacare caiman, an aquatic reptile, were found living in the area.

  • Aquatic prey like the reptiles and fish in the area provide a source of omega-3 fatty acids that aren’t often found in land mammals.

  • When jaguars in the area preyed on mammals, they tended to prefer semiaquatic ones like capybaras.

ID: 5f6adeee Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support the researchers’ claim about the diets of jaguars in the Brazilian Pantanal. The text notes that jaguars generally eat land-based mammals, but researchers claim that jaguars in the Pantanal can survive on a diet that includes more fish and aquatic reptiles than mammals. Finding that the remains of aquatic reptiles and fish appear more often in these jaguars’ waste than the remains of mammals do would support the researchers’ claim, since it would suggest that fish and aquatic reptiles are a more significant part of the jaguars’ diet than mammals are.

Choice B is incorrect because finding that a particular aquatic reptile exists in high numbers in the area would not support the researchers’ claim about the jaguars’ diet. The mere presence of many aquatic reptiles nearby does not mean that the jaguars eat those reptiles, let alone survive on more aquatic reptiles and fish than mammals. Choice C is incorrect. Although finding that aquatic reptiles and fish can provide nutrients that land mammals typically do not provide could help explain why some animals eat those reptiles and fish, it would not indicate whether the jaguars in particular eat those reptiles and fish and thus would not support the researchers’ claim. Choice D is incorrect because finding that when preying on mammals, jaguars prefer semiaquatic mammals, such as capybaras, would be irrelevant to the researchers’ claim that the jaguars can survive on a diet of more fish and aquatic reptiles than mammals. The type of mammals the jaguars tend to eat does not indicate anything about whether fish and aquatic reptiles are part of the jaguars’ diet.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 3f4ab688

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 3f4ab688

In a research paper, a student criticizes some historians of modern African politics, claiming that they have evaluated Patrice Lumumba, the first prime minister of what is now the Democratic Republic of the Congo, primarily as a symbol rather than in terms of his actions.

Which quotation from a work by a historian would best illustrate the student’s claim?

  • “Lumumba is a difficult figure to evaluate due to the starkly conflicting opinions he inspired during his life and continues to inspire today.”

  • “The available information makes it clear that Lumumba’s political beliefs and values were largely consistent throughout his career.”

  • “Lumumba’s practical accomplishments can be passed over quickly; it is mainly as the personification of Congolese independence that he warrants scholarly attention.”

  • “Many questions remain about Lumumba’s ultimate vision for an independent Congo; without new evidence coming to light, these questions are likely to remain unanswered.”

ID: 3f4ab688 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it illustrates the student’s claim about some historians viewing Lumumba primarily as a symbol. This quotation argues that Lumumba “warrants” (or deserves) “scholarly attention” as a symbol and not for his “practical accomplishments”—that is, his actions as prime minister—which “can be passed over quickly,” or dismissed as being of comparatively little importance. Thus, the quotation expresses the view that the student criticizes some historians for holding.

Choice A is incorrect. Although this quotation touches on the difficulty of evaluating Lumumba’s legacy, it doesn’t address how historians of modern African politics view him as a symbol. Choice B is incorrect. While this quotation mentions Lumumba’s political beliefs, it doesn’t discuss historians viewing him as a symbol. Choice D is incorrect. This quotation touches on Lumumba’s vision for his country, but it doesn’t discuss historians viewing him as a symbol.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 40630cef

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 40630cef

The following text is from David Barclay Moore’s 2022 novel Holler of the Fireflies. The narrator has just arrived at summer camp, which is far away from his home. 

This place was different than I thought it would be. I’d never been somewhere like this before. I did feel scared, but also excited.

©2022 by David Barclay Moore

According to the text, how does the narrator feel about being at summer camp?

  • He feels overjoyed.

  • He feels peaceful.

  • He feels both scared and excited.

  • He feels both angry and jealous.

ID: 40630cef Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately states how the narrator feels about being at summer camp. In the text, the narrator states that after arriving at the camp, he found it to be different than he’d expected and that as a result, he felt "scared, but also excited."

Choice A is incorrect. In the text, the narrator describes himself as "excited." Although excitement is a positive emotion, it isn’t as intensely positive as feeling overjoyed is. Moreover, the narrator also notes that he felt "scared." In other words, his excitement (a positive emotion) is balanced with fear (a negative emotion). Given this mixture of positive and negative emotions, it would be inaccurate to characterize the narrator as overjoyed. Choice B is incorrect because in the text, the narrator describes himself as having felt both fear and excitement. Neither of these emotions can be thought of as peaceful and, in fact, are almost the opposite of a sense of peace. Choice D is incorrect because in the text, the narrator describes himself as both "scared" and "excited," not angry and jealous.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID b71861fc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: b71861fc
80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0Percent FactorPercentage of ParticipantsWho Mentioned Factors convenience costs established behaviors
  • The Percent data for the 3 bars are as follows:
    • convenience: 68%
    • costs: 51%
    • established behaviors: 74%

Researcher Judith Hilton and her team interviewed 55 people about which factors would make them switch from using single-use plastic containers to reusable containers. The graph shows three of the factors mentioned in the interviews and the percentage of participants who mentioned them.

According to the graph, about what percentage of participants mentioned costs in the interviews?

  • 10%

  • 95%

  • 25%

  • 50%

ID: b71861fc Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it states the percentage of participants who mentioned costs in the interviews conducted by Judith Hilton and her team. The text states that Hilton and her team interviewed participants about factors that would encourage them to switch from single-use plastic containers to reusable containers. The graph presents three factors mentioned in the interviews (convenience, costs, and established behaviors) and the percentage of participants who mentioned each one. The graph shows that about 50% of participants mentioned costs as a factor.

Choice A is incorrect because the graph shows that about 50% of participants, not 10%, mentioned costs as a factor. Choice B is incorrect because the graph shows that about 50% of participants, not 95%, mentioned costs as a factor. Choice C is incorrect because the graph shows that about 50% of participants, not 25%, mentioned costs as a factor.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 08395130

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 08395130

The Hubble Space Telescope (HST) is projected to maintain operation until at least 2030, but it has already revolutionized high-resolution imaging of solar-system bodies in visible and ultraviolet (UV) light wavelengths, notwithstanding that only about 6% of the bodies imaged by the HST are within the solar system. NASA researcher Cindy L. Young and colleagues assert that a new space telescope dedicated exclusively to solar-system observations would permit an extensive survey of minor solar-system bodies and long-term UV observation to discern how solar-system bodies change over time. Young and colleagues’ recommendation therefore implies that the HST blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • will likely continue to be used primarily to observe objects outside the solar system. 

  • will no longer be used to observe solar system objects if the telescope recommended by Young and colleagues is deployed. 

  • can be modified to observe the features of solar system objects that are of interest to Young and colleagues.

  • lacks the sensors to observe the wavelengths of light needed to discern how solar system bodies change over time.

ID: 08395130 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The HST will operate until at least 2030, but it’s only observing stuff inside our solar system 6% of the time. If we could get a different telescope to observe stuff inside our solar system 100% of the time and take more extensive images of certain things, then the HST could continue to be used mainly for observing stuff outside the solar system.

Choice B is incorrect. This inference is too strong to be supported by the text. Even if the new telescope is deployed, the HST might still be used as it’s being used now. Based on the text, the new telescope would just be used for more extensive and long-term imaging of solar system bodies, which doesn’t necessarily overlap with the HST. Choice C is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never mentions the possibility of modifying the HST, so there is no basis to make this inference. Rather, the researchers suggest using a different telescope to more closely observe certain objects. Choice D is incorrect. This inference is too strong to be supported. The text doesn’t give us enough info to assume that the HST lacks any particular sensors.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 26f5c4ba

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 26f5c4ba

In 2022, Crystal Reeck and colleagues studied whether the decision-making modes that guide consumers influence their choice between nonenvironmentally friendly standard electricity plans and environmentally friendly green plans that cap electricity usage. Study participants who self-reported using either an Affect Mode or Role Mode—which prioritize choices that have a stronger positive emotional or social impact, respectively—were more likely to select a green plan. Conversely, participants using a Calculation Mode—which aims to minimize both financial cost and personal inconvenience—were more likely to select a standard plan, even when the green option was cheaper. This finding suggests that participants using a Calculation Mode blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • were equally unlikely to factor the financial savings of the green plan into their decision-making as were participants using either the Affect or Role Modes.

  • may have been less strongly motivated to appear socially responsible with their choice of plan than they realized.

  • may have determined that the green plan imposed additional burdens on them that were not sufficiently offset by the potential financial savings.

  • were less likely to believe that the green plan was truly cost-effective than were participants using either the Affect or Role Modes.

ID: 26f5c4ba Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the influence of decision-making modes on consumers’ choices of different electricity plans. The Affect Mode describes choices based on the decision-maker’s preferred emotional outcome, the Role Mode describes choices based on the decision-maker’s social motivations, and the Calculation Mode describes choices based on minimizing financial costs and maximizing the decision-maker’s convenience. Thus, if those using a Calculation Mode disfavor the green plan, it would be due to some financial or convenience burden the green plan imposes that the other doesn’t. The text indicates that the green plan had a lower financial cost but was nonetheless rejected by participants using the Calculation Mode. It therefore follows that the green plan likely imposed a convenience burden that outweighed potential financial savings for these participants.

Choice A is incorrect. According to the text, the Affect Mode involves the decision-maker’s preferred emotional outcome, the Role Mode involves social motivations, and the Calculation Mode is oriented toward minimizing financial costs and maximizing the decision-maker’s convenience. Thus, unlike the Affect or Role Modes, the Calculation Mode would almost certainly involve taking price differences into account. Choice B is incorrect. According to the text, the Affect Mode involves the decision-maker’s preferred emotional outcome, the Role Mode involves social motivations, and the Calculation Mode is oriented toward minimizing financial costs and maximizing the decision-maker’s convenience. Thus, there is no reason to think that participants using the Calculation Mode at any point took social responsibility into account, let alone think that they discovered a disparity between their expectations and reality. Choice D is incorrect. According to the text, the Affect Mode involves the decision-maker’s preferred emotional outcome, the Role Mode involves social motivations, and the Calculation Mode is oriented toward minimizing financial costs and maximizing the decision-maker’s convenience. Thus, the text doesn’t indicate that cost-effectiveness is a factor for participants using the Affect or Role Modes, and there is no basis to compare their beliefs in the truthfulness of the green-plan description with those of the Calculation Mode users.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 14189fbb

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 14189fbb

Having written the impassioned call to arms “Letter to the Spanish Americans” in 1791, Peruvian intellectual Juan Pablo Viscardo y Guzmán is often considered a forerunner for the independence movements in Latin America. But Viscardo’s role in history would have remained insignificant were it not for Venezuelan revolutionary Francisco de Miranda, who was handed the unpublished letter after Viscardo’s death. Miranda not only helped circulate the letter, but his edits and footnotes to the text position Miranda as a central figure in the text’s creation.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • The original authorship of “Letter to the Spanish Americans” is disputed by contemporary historians.

  • The majority of the most eloquently stated arguments in “Letter to the Spanish Americans” were written by Miranda.

  • Miranda played a crucial role in influencing the content and distribution of “Letter to the Spanish Americans.” 

  • “Letter to the Spanish Americans” persuaded many people in Latin America to pursue national independence.

ID: 14189fbb Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The text describes how Miranda circulated, edited, and added footnotes to “Letter to the Spanish Americans,” and it claims that the letter and its author would have “remained insignificant” if it weren’t for Miranda’s efforts.

Choice A is incorrect. The text only says that Viscardo wrote the letter and that Miranda edited it: it never suggests that the original authorship of the letter is up for debate. Choice B is incorrect. This contradicts the text. The text says that Miranda edited and footnoted the letter, but it identifies Viscardo as the letter’s author. It also never identifies certain arguments as more eloquent than others. Choice D is incorrect. This is outside the scope of the text. The paragraph describes Miranda’s role in the creation and distribution of the letter, but it doesn’t get into the effects of the letter on other people.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID cef77aa7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: cef77aa7

Geoglyphs are large-scale designs of lines or shapes created in a natural landscape. The Nazca Lines were created in the Nazca Desert in Peru by several Indigenous civilizations over a period of many centuries. Peruvian archaeologist Johny Isla specializes in these geoglyphs. At a German exhibit about the Nazca Lines, he saw an old photograph of a large geoglyph of a whalelike figure and was surprised that he didn’t recognize it. Isla returned to Peru and used a drone to search a wide area, looking for the figure from the air. This approach suggests that Isla thought that if he hadn’t already seen it, the whalelike geoglyph blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • must represent a species of whale that went extinct before there were any people in Peru.

  • is actually located in Germany, not Peru, and isn’t part of the Nazca Lines at all.

  • is probably in a location Isla hadn’t ever come across while on the ground.

  • was almost certainly created a long time after the other Nazca Lines geoglyphs were created.

ID: cef77aa7 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Johny Isla and the whalelike geoglyph. The text indicates that the German exhibit about the Nazca Lines included a photograph showing a whalelike geoglyph that Isla hadn’t known about before attending the exhibit, even though Isla “specializes in” Nazca Lines geoglyphs. Given his expertise, and his surprise at being unfamiliar with the whale glyph, the text strongly suggests that Isla believed he would have noticed the glyph if he had been to its location. Thus, the text implies that the whalelike geoglyph is likely in a location Isla had not previously been to.   

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t address either the species of whale that the geoglyph is meant to represent or its relationship to the earliest humans in the area that is now Peru. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text indicates that the photograph of the whalelike geoglyph was on display at a “German exhibit,” that exhibit was specifically “about the Nazca Lines,” which the text indicates are located in Peru. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text does indicate that the glyphs were created “over a period of many centuries,” the text doesn’t address when in that period of time any particular glyphs were created.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID dc3ea63e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: dc3ea63e

To dye wool, Navajo (Diné) weaver Lillie Taylor uses plants and vegetables from Arizona, where she lives. For example, she achieved the deep reds and browns featured in her 2003 rug In the Path of the Four Seasons by using Arizona dock roots, drying and grinding them before mixing the powder with water to create a dye bath. To intensify the appearance of certain colors, Taylor also sometimes mixes in clay obtained from nearby soil.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Reds and browns are not commonly featured in most of Taylor’s rugs.

  • Taylor draws on local resources in the approach she uses to dye wool.

  • Taylor finds it difficult to locate Arizona dock root in the desert.

  • In the Path of the Four Seasons is widely acclaimed for its many colors and innovative weaving techniques. 

ID: dc3ea63e Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. It best states the main idea of the text. The text opens with the statement that Taylor uses local plants and vegetables to dye wool. The rest of the text describes how she does this.

Choice A is incorrect. This doesn’t state the main idea of the text. The text only mentions one rug: In the Path of the Four Seasons, in which reds and browns are featured. It never mentions whether or not these colors are featured in her other rugs. Choice C is incorrect. This doesn’t state the main idea of the text. The text never says that Taylor finds it difficult to locate Arizona dock roots. Choice D is incorrect. This doesn’t state the main idea of the text. The text never says that In the Path of the Four Seasons is widely acclaimed. Rather, it discusses the rug to illustrate the point made earlier in the passage: that Taylor uses local plants and vegetables to dye wool.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 9c591ff7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 9c591ff7

Some Astyanax mexicanus, a river-dwelling fish found in northeast Mexico, have colonized caves in the region. Although there is little genetic difference between river and cave A. mexicanus and all members of the species can emit the same sounds, biologist Carole Hyacinthe and colleagues found that the context and significance of those sounds vary by location—e.g., the click that river-dwelling A. mexicanus use to signal aggression is used by cave dwellers when foraging—and the acoustic properties of cave fish sounds show some cave-specific variations as well. Hyacinthe and colleagues note that differences in sonic communication could accumulate to the point of inhibiting interbreeding among fish from different locations, suggesting that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • although A. mexicanus living in rivers are genetically similar to those living in caves, river fish rely on sonic communication less than cave fish do.

  • although A. mexicanus is a single species at present, it could be in the process of splitting into distinct populations with different characteristics.

  • although all A. mexicanus emit sounds, the fish living in rivers produce some sounds that the fish living in caves do not, and vice versa.

  • although A. mexicanus from different locations can interbreed currently, river fish and cave fish are sufficiently genetically distinct that they can be considered separate species.

ID: 9c591ff7 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of A. mexicanus. According to the text, A. mexicanus, a river-dwelling fish species, has colonized caves. The fish that live in rivers and those that live in caves show no significant genetic differences and are all capable of making the same sounds. The text indicates, however, that Hyacinthe and colleagues found that sounds that the river fish use in a particular context and for a particular purpose are used in a different context and for a different purpose by the cave fish. Additionally, the sounds made by cave fish show some differences depending on the specific cave the fish inhabit. The text goes on to state that Hyacinthe and colleagues have noted that differences in how the fish use sound to communicate could eventually become so great that they prevent fish from different locations from interbreeding. In other words, the river fish might eventually only breed with other river fish (with whom they share characteristics regarding sonic communication that they do not share with cave fish), while the cave fish might only breed with other cave fish for a similar reason. In context, this observation suggests that even though the fish are a single species right now, they could be in the process of splitting into distinct populations with different characteristics. 

Choice A is incorrect because there is no information in the text suggesting that the river fish are less reliant on sonic communication than the cave fish are. Although the text does indicate that the river fish and cave fish are genetically similar, the text describes both groups as using sonic communication and says nothing to indicate that one group depends on that communication more than the other group does. Choice C is incorrect. The text states that all members of the species can emit the same sounds but that the function and context of sounds differ depending on whether the fish live in rivers or caves, but it does not indicate that river fish produce sounds that cave fish do not or vice versa. Choice D is incorrect because it contradicts the text. The text says that there is little genetic difference between the river fish and the cave fish, not that the river fish and cave fish are so genetically distinct that they can be considered separate species.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 5d122d45

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 5d122d45

Psychologists Dacher Keltner and Jonathan Haidt have argued that experiencing awe—a sensation of reverence and wonder typically brought on by perceiving something grand or powerful—can enable us to feel more connected to others and thereby inspire us to act more altruistically. Keltner, along with Paul K. Piff, Pia Dietze, and colleagues, claims to have found evidence for this effect in a recent study where participants were asked to either gaze up at exceptionally tall trees in a nearby grove (reported to be a universally awe-inspiring experience) or stare at the exterior of a nearby, nondescript building. After one minute, an experimenter deliberately spilled a box of pens nearby.

Which finding from the researchers’ study, if true, would most strongly support their claim?

  • Participants who had been looking at the trees helped the experimenter pick up significantly more pens than did participants who had been looking at the building.

  • Participants who helped the experimenter pick up the pens used a greater number of positive words to describe the trees and the building in a postexperiment survey than did participants who did not help the experimenter.

  • Participants who did not help the experimenter pick up the pens were significantly more likely to report having experienced a feeling of awe, regardless of whether they looked at the building or the trees.

  • Participants who had been looking at the building were significantly more likely to notice that the experimenter had dropped the pens than were participants who had been looking at the trees.

ID: 5d122d45 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most strongly support the researchers’ claim that they found evidence that experiencing awe can make people feel more connected to others and thus more likely to behave altruistically (with beneficial and unselfish concern for others). According to the text, the researchers tested for this effect by first having participants look at either something known to be awe-inspiring (very tall trees) or something ordinary (a plain building) and then purposely spilling pens near the participants. The finding that participants who had looked at the trees helped pick up significantly more pens than did participants who had looked at the building would support the researchers’ claim by demonstrating that the people who had experienced awe behaved more altruistically when the experimenter needed help than the other participants did.

Choice B is incorrect because a finding about helpful participants using positive words to describe the trees and the building after the experiment was over wouldn’t have any bearing on the researchers’ claim that experiencing awe increases altruistic behavior. The text doesn’t address the use of positive words to describe things or suggest any connection between using such words and having experienced awe, so that behavior wouldn’t serve as evidence that experiencing awe played a role in promoting helpful behavior. Choice C is incorrect because a finding that participants who didn’t help the experimenter were significantly more likely than others to report having experienced awe whether they had looked at the building or the trees would weaken the researchers’ claim that experiencing awe increases altruistic behavior by suggesting that the opposite might be true—that experiencing awe is in fact linked to choosing not to act in a way that benefits someone else. Choice D is incorrect because a finding about participants noticing that the experimenter had dropped the pens wouldn’t have any bearing on the researchers’ claim about people behaving altruistically. Being aware of a challenge or problem isn’t necessarily beneficial on its own and isn’t the same as offering help, so the finding wouldn’t support the idea that experiencing awe increases altruistic behavior.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID fd1095d7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: fd1095d7

To address the susceptibility of materials used in components of high-performance machinery, such as aircraft engines, to creep (deformation that is induced by persistent mechanical stress and that often occurs at elevated temperatures), materials researchers have developed silicon carbide (SiC) fibers for producing aerospace composites. Testing the thermomechanical properties of several commercially available SiC fibers, Ramakrishna T. Bhatt et al. found that in comparison with two polymer-derived SiC fibers, a nitrogen-treated SiC fiber exhibited a lower minimum creep rate, a measure of the rate at which a stress-exposed material deforms at a constant temperature and uniaxial load. The finding suggests that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • unlike the two polymer-derived SiC fibers, the nitrogen-treated SiC fiber can substantially inhibit creep, provided that temperatures and loads are consistent.

  • the two polymer-derived SiC fibers likely hold similar potential for reducing the creep resistance of materials exposed to stress and elevated temperatures, thus prolonging the life span of aerospace machinery. 

  • composites based on the two polymer-derived SiC fibers have chemical properties that may improve the mechanical and thermal stability of aerospace equipment to a greater extent than do composites based on the nitrogen-treated SiC fiber.

  • aerospace composites containing the nitrogen-treated SiC fiber may have the ability to withstand mechanical stress for a longer period of time than can aerospace composites containing either of the two polymer-derived SiC fibers.

ID: fd1095d7 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of silicon carbide (SiC) fibers and creep, or deformation related to ongoing mechanical stress and elevated temperatures. The text states that Bhatt et al. found that a nitrogen-treated SiC fiber had a lower minimum creep rate than two polymer-derived SiC fibers did. Because having a lower creep rate means that the material is slower to deform with exposure to stress, as the text explains, this finding suggests that aerospace composites made with the nitrogen-treated SiC fiber may be able to withstand mechanical stress for a longer period than those made with the other two polymer-derived SiC fibers can.

Choice A is incorrect because it overstates the implications of the study’s findings, which have to do with the rate of a material’s deformation under stress, not the absolute degree of deformation. The text states that Bhatt et al. observed that a nitrogen-treated SiC fiber had a lower minimum creep rate than two polymer-derived SiC fibers did, meaning only that it deformed more slowly over time under constant stress, not that it underwent less deformation overall. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t establish any similarity between the two polymer-derived SiC fibers other than that both had a higher creep rate than the nitrogen-treated SiC fiber did in Bhatt et al.’s study. Moreover, reducing a material’s resistance to creep would mean that the material becomes more susceptible to deformation with exposure to stress and elevated temperatures, which would be expected to shorten rather than prolong the lifespan of machinery made with that material. Choice C is incorrect because the text suggests that the stability of aerospace equipment may be better improved by composites containing nitrogen-treated SiC fiber than by composites containing the two polymer-derived SiC fibers, not the other way around. The text indicates that Bhatt et al. observed that the nitrogen-treated SiC fiber had a lower minimum creep rate than the other two fibers did, meaning that it was slower to degrade under exposure to mechanical stress and elevated temperatures—suggesting that it may remain stable for longer periods.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID a95075c5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: a95075c5

Mean Ratings for Patients after 21 Days

Measure Mean rating for participants aware of taking a placebo Mean rating for participants in the control group
Global improvement 5.0 3.9
Symptom severity reduction 92.00 46.00
Quality of life improvement 11.4 5.4

To test whether a medication is effective, scientists compare outcomes for patients taking it and patients taking a placebo (a medically inactive substance). Patients normally aren’t told they’re receiving a placebo, but a research team conducted a study to see if there might be a medical benefit to telling them. The team used various measures to evaluate participants, with higher ratings indicating greater well-being in each measure. Compared to the mean ratings after 21 days for participants in the control group, the mean ratings for participants who were aware of taking a placebo blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • ranged from 5.0 to 92.00, indicating that well-being varied widely from participant to participant.

  • were lower for two measures, with the rating for only one measure indicating greater well-being for these participants.

  • ranged from 3.9 to 46.00, with no rating indicating greater well-being in any measure for these participants.

  • were higher for all three measures, indicating greater overall well-being for these participants.

ID: a95075c5 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement comparing the mean ratings for two different groups of participants in a study. The text explains that a research team evaluated the study’s participants using various measures in order to learn whether there might be a medical benefit to telling patients they’re receiving a placebo. The table shows the team’s mean ratings for participants after 21 days for three of the measures: global improvement, symptom severity reduction, and quality of life improvement. According to the table, the mean ratings were higher for all three measures for participants aware of taking a placebo than for participants in the control group. Given that higher ratings indicate greater well-being, as the text states, the mean ratings in the table indicate greater overall well-being for participants aware of taking a placebo than for participants in the control group.

Choice A is incorrect because the table doesn’t include data about individual participants; rather, it presents means, or mathematical averages, of ratings. For this reason, no conclusions can be drawn from data in the table about the extent to which well-being may have varied from participant to participant. Choice B is incorrect because according to the table, the mean ratings for participants aware of taking a placebo were higher for all three measures than for participants in the control group, not lower for two of the measures. Choice C is incorrect because it cites data from the table related to participants in the control group, not to participants aware of taking a placebo. Additionally, the mean ratings in the table for participants aware of taking a placebo are higher for all three measures than for participants in the control group. Given that higher ratings indicate greater well-being, as the text states, the ratings in the table for participants aware of taking a placebo indicate greater well-being for these participants in all three measures.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 742fd8ba

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 742fd8ba
700 600 500 400 300 200 100 0Metal content(parts per million) without kanamycin with kanamycinMetal Content of Plants with and without Kanamycin ExposureExperimental condition zinc iron
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • Zinc
    • Iron
  • The data for the 2 categories are as follows:
    • Without kanamycin:
      • Zinc: 390
      • Iron: 625
    • With kanamycin:
      • Zinc: 300
      • Iron: 225

Many plants lose their leaf color when exposed to kanamycin, an antibiotic produced by some soil microorganisms. Spelman College biologist Mentewab Ayalew and her colleagues hypothesized that plants’ response to kanamycin exposure involves altering their uptake of metals, such as iron and zinc. The researchers grew two groups of seedlings of the plant Arabidopsis thaliana, half of which were exposed to kanamycin and half of which were a control group without exposure to kanamycin, and measured the plants’ metal content five days after germination.

Which choice best describes data in the graph that support Ayalew and her colleagues’ hypothesis?

  • The control plants contained higher levels of zinc than iron, but plants exposed to kanamycin contained higher levels of iron than zinc.

  • Both groups of plants contained more than 200 parts per million of both iron and zinc.

  • Zinc levels were around 300 parts per million in the control plants but nearly 400 parts per million in the plants exposed to kanamycin.

  • The plants exposed to kanamycin showed lower levels of iron and zinc than the control plants did. 

ID: 742fd8ba Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it best describes data in the graph supporting Ayalew and her colleagues’ hypothesis that plants’ response to kanamycin exposure involves altering their uptake of metals. The graph compares the metal content of two groups of plants, one with kanamycin exposure and a control group without such exposure. The amount of zinc in plants without kanamycin exposure is around 400 parts per million, while the amount of zinc in plants with kanamycin exposure is lower, at around 300 parts per million. Similarly, the amount of iron in plants without kanamycin exposure is a little over 600 parts per million, while the amount of iron in plants with kanamycin exposure is lower, at a little over 200 parts per million. Thus, the graph shows that plants with kanamycin exposure have significantly lower levels of both iron and zinc than the plants without kanamycin exposure. This is evidence supporting the hypothesis that kanamycin exposure results in plants altering their uptake of metals.

Choice A is incorrect because the graph shows that control plants contained higher levels of iron than zinc, not higher levels of zinc than iron; similarly, the plants exposed to kanamycin contained higher levels of zinc than iron, not higher levels of iron than zinc. Choice B is incorrect. Though the claim that both groups of plants contained more than 200 parts per million of both iron and zinc is supported by the graph, this alone does not state whether plants with kanamycin exposure have a different metal content than plants without kanamycin exposure. Choice C is incorrect. The graph shows that the zinc levels for the control plants (those without kanamycin exposure) were around 400 parts per million, not 300 parts per million, and that the zinc levels for plants with kanamycin exposure were around 300 parts per million, not 400 parts per million.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 03e5cf33

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 03e5cf33

Many insects are iridescent, or have colors that appear to shimmer and change when seen from different angles. Scientists have assumed that this feature helps to attract mates but could also attract predators. But biologist Karin Kjernsmo and a team had the idea that the shifting appearance of colors might actually make it harder for other animals to see iridescent insects. To test this idea, the team put beetle forewings on leaves along a forest path and then asked human participants to look for them. Some of the wings were naturally iridescent. Others were painted with a nonchanging color from the iridescent spectrum, such as purple or blue.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the team’s idea?

  • On average, participants found most of the purple wings and blue wings and far fewer of the iridescent wings.

  • On average, participants found the iridescent wings faster than they found the purple wings or blue wings.

  • Some participants reported that the purple wings were easier to see than the blue wings.

  • Some participants successfully found all of the wings on the leaves.

ID: 03e5cf33 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents the finding that, if true, would most strongly support the research team’s idea about the effect of iridescence, or colors that appear to shimmer and change. The text indicates that although some scientists have assumed that iridescence could attract predators, Kjernsmo’s team wondered if iridescent insects might be harder for other animals to see. The team tested this idea by asking human participants to look for both iridescent beetle wings and beetle wings that weren’t iridescent but that had been painted colors such as purple or blue. If participants located most of the purple or blue wings but far fewer of the iridescent wings, that finding would support the team’s idea since it would suggest that noniridescent wings are easier to see than iridescent wings.

Choice B is incorrect because if participants located the iridescent wings more quickly than the purple or blue wings, that finding would weaken the team’s idea, not support the team’s idea, since it would suggest that the iridescent wings were easier to see than the noniridescent wings. Choice C is incorrect because finding that some participants believed that the purple wings were easier to see than the blue wings would be irrelevant to the team’s idea. The purple and blue wings were both noniridescent, so any difference in how easy those two colors were to see would have nothing to do with the idea that iridescent insects are harder to see than noniridescent insects. Choice D is incorrect because if some participants found all the wings, that wouldn’t support the team’s idea that iridescent insects may be harder to see than noniridescent insects. If anything, this finding might weaken the team’s idea since it could suggest that iridescence had no effect on how difficult the wings were to see.  

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 156ff681

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 156ff681

Many governments that regularly transfer money to individuals—to provide supplemental incomes for senior citizens, for example—have long done so electronically, but other countries typically have distributed physical money and have only recently developed electronic transfer infrastructure. Researchers studied the introduction of an electronic transfer system in one such location and found that recipients of electronic transfers consumed a different array of foods than recipients of physical transfers of the same amount did. One potential explanation for this result is that individuals conceive of and allocate funds in physical money differently than they conceive of and allocate funds in electronic form. 

Which finding from the study, if true, would most directly weaken the potential explanation?

  • Recipients of electronic transfers typically spent their funds at a slower rate than recipients of physical transfers did. 

  • Nearly every recipient of an electronic transfer withdrew the entire amount in physical money shortly after receiving the transfer.

  • Recipients of physical transfers tended to purchase food about as frequently as recipients of electronic transfers did. 

  • Some recipients of physical transfers received small amounts of money relatively frequently, while others received large amounts relatively infrequently.

ID: 156ff681 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. This would weaken the explanation. If the recipients of electronic money immediately withdrew it all as physical money, then both kinds of recipients ended up spending physical money on food. So there must be some other explanation why those who initially received electronic money ate different kinds of food.

Choice A is incorrect. This wouldn’t weaken the explanation. If anything, it actually supports it: it demonstrates that recipients of electronic money and recipients of physical money have different spending habits. Choice C is incorrect. This wouldn’t weaken the explanation. The explanation we’re testing this choice against is about the way that people might “conceive of and allocate” physical and electronic funds differently. This choice only focuses on the timing, not what they spend the money on. Choice D is incorrect. This would have no impact on the explanation. It doesn’t tell us anything about possible differences between the spending habits of those who spend physical money and those who spend money electronically.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 8545ccfe

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 8545ccfe

Icebergs generally appear to be mostly white or blue, depending on how the ice reflects sunlight. Ice with air bubbles trapped in it looks white because much of the light reflects off the bubbles. Ice without air bubbles usually looks blue because the light travels deep into the ice and only a little of it is reflected. However, some icebergs in the sea around Antarctica appear to be green. One team of scientists hypothesized that this phenomenon is the result of yellow-tinted dissolved organic carbon in Antarctic waters mixing with blue ice to produce the color green.

Which finding, if true, would most directly weaken the team’s hypothesis?

  • White ice doesn’t change color when mixed with dissolved organic carbon due to the air bubbles in the ice.

  • Dissolved organic carbon has a stronger yellow color in Antarctic waters than it does in other places.

  • Blue icebergs and green icebergs are rarely found near each other.

  • Blue icebergs and green icebergs contain similarly small traces of dissolved organic carbon.

ID: 8545ccfe Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would weaken the scientists’ hypothesis about icebergs that appear to be green. The text indicates that most icebergs are either mostly white or blue in color but that some icebergs in Antarctica appear to be green. The text goes on to say that the scientists hypothesized that this green color occurs when yellow-tinted dissolved organic carbon in ocean waters mixes with blue ice. A finding that both blue icebergs and green icebergs contain similarly small traces of dissolved organic carbon would suggest that something other than yellow-tinted organic carbon causes some icebergs’ green color, since the blue icebergs that contain yellow-tinted organic carbon remained blue instead of turning green.

Choice A is incorrect because, according to the text, the scientists’ hypothesis was that blue icebergs, not white ones, change color when their ice mixes with yellow-tinted dissolved organic carbon. A finding that white ice, because of its air bubbles, doesn’t change color when it’s mixed with dissolved organic carbon would therefore have no bearing on the scientists’ hypothesis. Choice B is incorrect because the text focuses only on Antarctic icebergs that appear to be green. It doesn’t indicate that icebergs in locations other than Antarctica have been found to have a green hue. A finding that dissolved organic carbon has a stronger yellow color in Antarctic waters than in other places would therefore have no bearing on the scientists’ hypothesis that green color in icebergs in Antarctica is caused by yellow-tinted dissolved organic carbon mixing with blue ice. Choice C is incorrect because, according to the text, the scientists’ hypothesis was that blue icebergs turn green when their ice mixes with yellow-tinted dissolved organic carbon in the sea around them. If that’s correct, one would expect blue icebergs and green icebergs to be located at a distance from each other since all blue icebergs in an area where the waters contain yellow-tinted dissolved organic carbon would take on a green hue. A finding that blue icebergs and green icebergs are rarely found near each other would therefore strengthen, not weaken, the researchers’ hypothesis.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 40578580

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 40578580

Many scientists have believed that giraffes are solitary creatures, preferring to spend their time alone instead of with others. But observations of giraffes and their behavior in recent years has suggested that these animals may be more social than we once thought. For example, scientists Zoe Muller and Stephen Harris claim that giraffes may even help each other care for one another’s newborns.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support Muller and Harris’s  conclusion?

  • Female giraffes have been observed feeding young giraffes that aren’t their direct offspring.

  • Confrontations between a younger and an older male giraffe are frequently observed.

  • Some female giraffes have been observed sniffing and licking their newborn offspring.

  • Giraffes are able to make sounds but are rarely observed communicating with others.

ID: 40578580 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. If female giraffes feed nonoffspring young, that’s direct evidence that "giraffes may even help each other care for one another’s newborns."

Choice B is incorrect. Confrontations between males doesn’t tell us anything about whether giraffes help each other care for newborns. Choice C is incorrect. While this option does mention newborn offspring, it only discusses a mother’s behavior toward her own child, not another giraffe’s child. Choice D is incorrect. Whether or not giraffes are observed communicating with each other doesn’t tell us anything about whether they help each other care for newborns.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID a9ac31e4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: a9ac31e4
50 40 30 20 10 0Area (square km) GlacierArea of Three Glaciers in the2016 Swiss Glacier Inventory Gorner Fiescher Unteraar
  • The data for the 3 categories are as follows: 
    • Gorner: 41.2 square kilometers
    • Fiescher: 29.8 square kilometers
    • Unteraar: 22.7 square kilometers

To monitor changes to glaciers in Switzerland, the government periodically measures them for features like total area of ice and mean ice thickness, which are then reported in the Swiss Glacier Inventory. These measurements can be used to compare the glaciers. For example, the Gorner glacier had blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the example?

  • a larger area than either the Fiescher glacier or the Unteraar glacier.

  • a smaller area than the Fiescher glacier but a larger area than the Unteraar glacier.

  • a smaller area than either the Fiescher glacier or the Unteraar glacier.

  • a larger area than the Fiescher glacier but a smaller area than the Unteraar glacier.

ID: a9ac31e4 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The claim is that measurements such as total area can be used to compare glaciers. The graph shows us the area measurements for three glaciers. Of those, Gorner has the largest area.

Choice B is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. The graph shows that Gorner has the largest area of the three. Choice C is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. The graph shows that Gorner has the largest area of the three. Choice D is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. The graph shows that Gorner has the largest area of the three.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID e1504a2a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: e1504a2a

The Cretaceous pterosaur Tupandactylus navigans is known for having an anomalously oversized head crest. Until an almost complete fossil skeleton was found in Brazil, paleontologists had been able to study only skull specimens from T. navigans, though it was presumed that, like other pterosaurs, the species’s primary form of locomotion was powered flight. Examining the fuller skeleton in 2016, Victor Beccari and his team determined that T. navigans had long hind legs, short wings, and an unusually long neck—characteristics that, combined with the creature’s large-crested head, would have made sustained flight difficult and walking upright relatively comfortable. Based on these findings the team suggests that T. navigans likely blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • flew for longer distances than did other pterosaur species that had oversized head crests.

  • had longer wings than other pterosaur species considered to have been comfortable walking.

  • had a smaller head than researchers expected based on the earlier T. navigans skull specimens.

  • flew for shorter distances and spent more time walking than researchers previously thought.

ID: e1504a2a Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the Cretaceous pterosaur Tupandactylus navigans. The text first describes what paleontologists initially speculated to be true of T. navigans based on observing only fossilized skulls of the pterosaur rather than complete skeletons—namely, that T. navigans had an oversized head crest and that, like other pterosaurs, its main mode of movement must have been flight. The text goes on to describe what researcher Victor Beccari and his team concluded based on studying a nearly complete fossilized skeleton of T. navigans, which provided additional information that fossilized skulls alone could not. Beccari and colleagues determined that T. navigans had long hind legs, short wings, and an unusually long neck, in addition to the oversized head crest previously observed by paleontologists. Taken together, these characteristics would have made sustained flight difficult and upright walking comfortable, which would make T. navigans different from other pterosaurs that moved mainly through flight. Thus, Beccari and colleagues suggest that previously held speculations of paleontologists are inaccurate: that instead of moving mainly through powered flight, T. navigans likely flew for shorter distances and spent more time walking than researchers previously thought.

Choice A is incorrect because Beccari and his team determined, based on their examination of a nearly complete skeleton, that T. navigans would have found "sustained flight difficult," which would differentiate it from most other pterosaurs that moved mainly through flight. Therefore, Beccari’s team would not suggest that T. navigans flew for longer distances than did other pterosaur species with large head crests. Choice B is incorrect because the fossilized skeleton studied by Beccari and colleagues was notable for its short wings, and because no indication in the text is made that other pterosaurs were thought by paleontologists to be comfortable walking. Therefore, Beccari’s team would not suggest that T. navigans had longer wings than other pterosaur species considered to have been comfortable walking. Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates that Beccari and his team agree with the paleontologists mentioned earlier in the text that T. navigans had a large-crested head. Therefore, Beccari’s team would not suggest that T. navigans had a smaller head than researchers previously expected.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID e946a32e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: e946a32e

Boldly mixing elements of poetry, fiction, drama, philosophy, and manifesto, Puerto Rican writer Giannina Braschi creates cross-genre literature that explores themes such as immigration and independence. Her works have inspired responses from individuals across different fields and in a wide range of formats, from musical compositions and a comic book to architecture and furniture design. In an essay, a student asserts that the production of these diverse creations by others is reflective of Braschi’s own approach to crafting literature.

Which quotation from a scholarly review of Braschi’s work best supports the student’s claim?

  • “Braschi is the focus of a 2020 collection of essays in which fifteen scholars from seven different countries delved into the linguistic and structural patterns of her writings.”

  • “Braschi’s eagerness to push boundaries and blend genres within literature invites us to consider how other art forms might also engage with literature.”

  • “Before settling in New York City, where she would go on to become a college professor, Braschi studied both literature and philosophy in several cities around the world.”

  • “In addition to her creative literary works, Braschi has produced academic pieces analyzing writings by Miguel de Cervantes, Federico García Lorca, and other authors.”

ID: e946a32e Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents the quotation that best supports the student’s claim about Braschi. By describing how Braschi’s blending of genres invites her audience to think about how other art forms could also engage with literature, the quotation supports the idea that the diversity of responses to Braschi’s work reflects Braschi’s own approach to creating literature.

Choice A is incorrect because the quotation describes scholars from different countries writing essays about Braschi’s use of language in her writings; it doesn’t address how Braschi’s creation of cross-genre literature inspires diverse types of responses, which is the claim the student makes. Choice C is incorrect because the quotation focuses on the fact that Braschi studied in several different cities, which doesn’t address the student’s claim that Braschi’s creation of cross-genre literature inspires diverse types of responses. Choice D is incorrect because the quotation lists some of the authors who Braschi has written academic works about, which is irrelevant to the student’s claim that Braschi’s creation of cross-genre literature inspires diverse types of responses. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID df34b586

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: df34b586
60,000 50,000 40,000 30,000 20,000 10,000 0Machines sold 1903 1908 1913 1918Singer Sewing Machine Salesin Four Countries, 1903–1918Year New Zealand Australia the Philippines Turkey
  • The following 4 lines are shown:
    • New Zealand
    • Australia
    • the Philippines
    • Turkey
  • The New Zealand line:
    • Begins at 1903, 4,284
    • Rises gradually to 1908, 4,918
    • Rises gradually to 1913, 4,962
    • Falls gradually to 1918, 4,119
  • The Australia line:
    • Begins at 1903, 21,147
    • Rises gradually to 1908, 24,276
    • Rises gradually to 1913, 24,495
    • Falls gradually to 1918, 20,332
  • The Philippines line:
    • Begins at 1903, 1,937
    • Rises gradually to 1908, 2,241
    • Rises sharply to 1913, 27,266
    • Rises sharply to 1918, 44,820
  • The Turkey line:
    • Begins at 1903, 24,439
    • Rises sharply to 1908, 33,200
    • Rises sharply to 1913, 50,794
    • Falls sharply to 1918, 13,604

By the early 1900s, the Singer Corporation, a US sewing machine manufacturer founded in 1851, began to see rapidly increasing sales abroad, particularly in Russia, Germany, and the United Kingdom. These markets were responsible for the bulk of Singer’s overseas sales, but demand for the company’s machines in other countries also grew significantly in the early twentieth century. For instance, sales of their sewing machines in blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the example?

  • the Philippines increased dramatically from 1908 to 1918.

  • New Zealand were largely consistent from 1903 to 1918.

  • Australia increased steadily from 1903 to 1918.

  • Turkey declined substantially from 1913 to 1918.

ID: df34b586 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the example. According to the graph, fewer than 10,000 sewing machines were sold in the Philippines in both 1903 and 1908, but nearly 30,000 were sold in 1913 and around 45,000 were sold in 1918. This increase illustrates the statement in the text that demand for Singer sewing machines grew significantly in the early twentieth century in overseas countries other than Russia, Germany, and the United Kingdom.

Choice B is incorrect because consistent sales of Singer sewing machines in New Zealand from 1903 to 1918 do not indicate that demand for the product increased but rather that demand remained relatively the same. Choice C is incorrect because it does not accurately describe the data in the graph. Although sales in Australia did increase somewhat between 1903 and 1908, there was very little change between 1908 and 1913, and then sales declined between 1913 and 1918. The data for Australia, then, do not show a steady increase from 1903 to 1918. Choice D is incorrect because declining sales of Singer sewing machines in Turkey from 1913 to 1918 do not point to an increase in demand for the product but rather to a decline in demand.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID d696eafa

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: d696eafa

Early Earth is thought to have been characterized by a stagnant lid tectonic regime, in which the upper lithosphere (the outer rocky layer) was essentially immobile and there was no interaction between the lithosphere and the underlying mantle. Researchers investigated the timing of the transition from a stagnant lid regime to a tectonic plate regime, in which the lithosphere is fractured into dynamic plates that in turn allow lithospheric and mantle material to mix. Examining chemical data from lithospheric and mantle-derived rocks ranging from 285 million to 3.8 billion years old, the researchers dated the transition to 3.2 billion years ago. 

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ conclusion?

  • Among rocks known to be older than 3.2 billion years, significantly more are mantle derived than lithospheric, but the opposite is true for the rocks younger than 3.2 billion years. 

  • Mantle-derived rocks older than 3.2 billion years show significantly more compositional diversity than lithospheric rocks older than 3.2 billion years do. 

  • There is a positive correlation between the age of lithospheric rocks and their chemical similarity to mantle-derived rocks, and that correlation increases significantly in strength at around 3.2 billion years old. 

  • Mantle-derived rocks younger than 3.2 billion years contain some material that is not found in older mantle-derived rocks but is found in older and contemporaneous lithospheric rocks.

ID: d696eafa Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ conclusion that the transition from a stagnant lid regime to a tectonic plate regime occurred around 3.2 billion years ago. The text explains that early in Earth’s history, Earth exhibited a stagnant lid regime in which there’s no interaction between the lithosphere and the underlying mantle. The text further explains that, by contrast, once Earth began to exhibit a tectonic plate regime, its lithospheric and mantle material began to mix. If mantle-derived rocks younger than 3.2 billion years contain material not found in older mantle-derived rocks, that material must have originated somewhere other than the mantle. And if this material is found in both older and contemporaneous lithospheric rocks, that would imply that the lithosphere was able to mix with mantle material beginning around 3.2 billion years ago, as the researchers concluded.

Choice A is incorrect. The text gives no basis for comparing the quantities of lithospheric and mantle-derived rocks. Choice B is incorrect. The text gives no basis for comparing the material makeup of lithospheric rocks to that of mantle-derived rocks. Choice C is incorrect. A positive correlation between the age of lithospheric rocks and these rocks’ chemical similarity to mantle-derived rocks would mean that the oldest rocks would be the most similar, which contradicts the text’s claim that lithospheric and mantle-derived rocks were completely separate until 3.2 billion years ago. If the researchers’ conclusion about the onset of tectonics on Earth is correct, then younger lithospheric rocks would show greater chemical similarity to mantle-derived rocks than older lithospheric rocks do.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 36e2868f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 36e2868f

The following text is from Thomas Mann’s 1924 novel The Magic Mountain, translated by John E. Woods in 1995.

The story of Hans Castorp that we intend to tell here—not for his sake (for the reader will come to know him as a perfectly ordinary, if engaging young man), but for the sake of the story itself, which seems to us to be very much worth telling (although in Hans Castorp’s favor it should be noted that it is his story, and that not every story happens to everybody)—is a story that took place long ago, and is, so to speak, covered with the patina of history and must necessarily be told with verbs whose tense is that of the deepest past.

©1995 by Alfred A. Knopf, Inc.

What does the text most strongly suggest about the story of Hans Castorp?

  • Though it is true that stories of even the most uninteresting people are themselves interesting because all people are unique, the reason this story is interesting is nonetheless difficult to understand because of the passage of time.

  • Even though it is a story of a person of no particular importance, its age and the manner in which it therefore must be told are both indicators that the story itself is important.

  • Like all stories about the lives of inconsequential people, this story must necessarily be related in a particular way if the reason the story is consequential is to be made evident to the audience.

  • It is a remarkable story that happened to an unremarkable person, though one could plausibly argue that because the story is valuable, some of its value accrues to the person at its center.

ID: 36e2868f Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a statement about Hans Castorp’s story that is suggested by the text. The narrator of the text indicates that the story about Hans Castorp will be told not because there is something particularly notable about him, since he is pleasant but "perfectly ordinary," but because the story itself is remarkable ("very much worth telling"). The narrator then notes that there is a benefit in being at the heart of the story—that it is "in Hans Castorp’s favor" that the story is his, and maybe uniquely so ("not every story happens to everybody"). Thus, the text suggests both that the story that will be told is a remarkable one that happened to an unremarkable person and that it is reasonable to argue that the person at the center of a valuable story takes on some of the story’s value.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the narrator of the text makes the point that "not every story happens to everybody," the narrator doesn’t state that stories are interesting simply because the people they are about are unique. Rather, the narrator suggests that one particular story is "very much worth telling" on its own and that Hans Castorp benefits from the fact that the story is remarkable and may be unique to him. Further, the narrator never suggests that the story will be hard to understand even though it is old. Choice B is incorrect. Although the narrator of the text suggests that Hans Castorp is of no particular importance, since he is a "perfectly ordinary" person, the narrator never reveals what makes the story of Castorp important, just that "the story itself" is "very much worth telling." The narrator states that the story "took place long ago," is "covered with the patina of history," and can be told only "with verbs whose tense is that of the deepest past," but the story’s age and the way it must be told aren’t presented as reasons the story is important; the narrator is simply providing details about how the story will be told. Choice C is incorrect because the narrator of the text doesn’t suggest that all stories about people who are "perfectly ordinary" (like Hans Castorp) must be told in particular ways to make it clear why those stories are consequential. Further, the narrator suggests that Hans Castorp’s story must be told "with verbs whose tense is that of the deepest past" because it took place so long ago, not because telling it that way will convey the story’s importance.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 9fe7aafa

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 9fe7aafa

The ancient writing system used in the Maya kingdoms of southern Mexico and Central America had a symbol for the number zero. The earliest known example of the symbol dates to more than 2,000 years ago. At that time, almost none of the writing systems elsewhere in the world possessed a zero symbol. And the use of zero in Mexico and Central America may be even more ancient. Some historians suggest that Maya mathematicians inherited it from the Olmec civilization, which flourished in the region 2,400–3,600 years ago.

According to the text, what do some historians suggest about Maya civilization?

  • Maya civilization acquired the use of zero from the Olmec civilization.

  • Maya civilization respected its historians more than it respected its mathematicians.

  • Maya civilization was highly secretive about its intellectual achievements.

  • Maya civilization tried to introduce its writing system to other civilizations.

ID: 9fe7aafa Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents information about Maya civilization that is supported by the text. The text states that the writing system used in the Maya kingdoms had a symbol for the number zero. It goes on to say that at the time of the zero symbol’s earliest example, more than 2,000 years ago, almost no other writing systems in the world featured such a symbol. The text also points out that some historians suggest that Maya mathematicians inherited the use of zero from the Olmec civilization, which existed in the same area as the Maya civilization at an earlier date. Thus, according to the text, some historians suggest that the Maya civilization acquired the use of zero from the Olmec civilization.

Choice B is incorrect because although the text mentions present-day historians and Maya mathematicians, it does not say anything about how much the Maya civilization respected its historians and mathematicians. Choice C is incorrect because the text does not indicate that the Maya civilization treated its use of the zero symbol, or any other intellectual achievements, as secrets to be kept from other civilizations. Choice D is incorrect because although the text mentions historians who suggest that the writing system of the Maya civilization inherited some features from the earlier Olmec civilization, the text does not describe any attempts of Maya civilization to introduce its writing system to other civilizations.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID dc87adf4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: dc87adf4

Barchester Towers is an 1857 novel by Anthony Trollope. In the novel, Trollope’s portrayal of Dr. Proudie underscores the character’s exaggerated sense of his own abilities: blank

Which quotation from Barchester Towers most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “It must not…be taken as proved that Dr. Proudie was a man of great mental powers, or even of much capacity for business, for such qualities had not been required in him.”

  • “[Dr. Proudie] was comparatively young, and had, as he fondly flattered himself, been selected as possessing such gifts, natural and acquired, as must be sure to recommend him to a yet higher notice.”

  • “[Dr. Proudie’s] residence in the metropolis, rendered necessary by duties thus entrusted to him, his high connexions, and the peculiar talents and nature of the man, recommended him to persons in power.”

  • “[Dr. Proudie] was certainly possessed of sufficient tact to answer the purpose for which he was required without making himself troublesome.”

ID: dc87adf4 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. In this quotation, Dr. Proudie is described as "fondly flatter[ing] himself" that he has gifts that "must be sure to recommend him to a yet higher notice." In other words, he expects his skills to push him to greater fame and success. This implies an exaggerated sense of his own abilities, which matches the claim we’re trying to support.

Choice A is incorrect. This quotation doesn’t describe Proudie’s view of himself, nor does it paint him in an especially flattering light. Instead, by saying his mental powers and business skill are not "proved," it implies that he is actually dim-witted and bad at business. Choice C is incorrect. This choice describes Proudie’s closeness to power and importance, but it doesn’t show what Proudie thinks of himself. Proudie is not describing himself or his abilities here. The narrator is. Choice D is incorrect. While this quotation offers Proudie very mild praise, it doesn’t show what Proudie thinks of himself or his own abilities, which is what the claim focuses on.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 4b8eda0a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 4b8eda0a

For its 1974 work Instant Mural, the Chicano art collective Asco taped members Patssi Valdez and Humberto Sandoval to an outdoor wall in East Los Angeles. The work is manifestly a commentary on constraint, but many critics focus on Valdez and the social constraints women faced at the time, which is understandable but leaves the presence of Valdez’s male collaborator Sandoval unexplained. We should instead consider that in 1974, the art establishment’s recognition of Chicano artists was (and had long been) restricted to sociohistorical muralists, leaving nonmuralist Chicano artists—like Asco’s members—struggling to even exhibit their work; attending to this context opens an interpretation that accounts for all the evidence, allowing us to conclude that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • while Valdez’s presence in Instant Mural represents the social constraints placed on women at the time, Sandoval’s presence represents Chicano muralists’ frustration at their lack of recognition by the art establishment.

  • the main subject of Instant Mural is female Chicano artists’ experience of being doubly constrained by gender-role expectations and the marginalization of certain types of art.

  • Instant Mural is a reflection on the constraining aesthetic expectations placed on Chicano artists in general rather than on the social constraints placed on women specifically.

  • Instant Mural is best understood not as a critique of the social constraints placed on women but rather as a critique of sociohistorical muralists’ depictions of Chicano culture.

ID: 4b8eda0a Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Instant Mural. According to the text, the 1974 work Instant Mural involved taping two Asco members (Patssi Valdez and Humberto Sandoval) to an outdoor wall as a direct commentary on constraint (limitation or restriction). The text suggests that instead of focusing on Valdez’s role in the work and on social limitations women faced at the time—an approach that fails to explain the role of Sandoval, a man—people should consider that in 1974 (and long before) the art establishment limited recognition of Chicano artists to those who created murals with social and historical subjects, making it challenging for nonmuralist Chicano artists (such as Asco’s members) to show their work. The text suggests that considering the situation with the art establishment leads to a conclusion that accounts for the fact that Instant Mural is explicitly about constraint and features both a woman and a man taped to the wall: Instant Mural isn’t a reflection of the social constraints placed on women specifically but instead is a reflection on the constraining aesthetic expectations placed on Chicano artists in general (that is, the limits resulting from the lack of recognition of Chicano artists of any gender who did not create sociohistorical murals).

Choice A is incorrect. The text indicates that the art establishment in 1974 (and earlier) did recognize Chicano muralists to the exclusion of other Chicano artists, so there’s no reason to assume Asco’s work Instant Mural was intended to represent Chicano muralists’ frustration; it’s far more likely that Asco’s members—described as Chicano nonmuralists—were representing their own frustration at being unrecognized by the art establishment. Choice B is incorrect. The text emphasizes that while a common approach to Instant Mural focuses on Valdez and the social limitations women faced in 1974 but fails to account for the presence of a man in the work, there is a conclusion that explains Sandoval’s role. But concluding that Instant Mural represents a double constraint experienced specifically by female Chicano artists would still fail to account for the inclusion of a man in the work. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text suggests that Instant Mural can be understood as something other than a commentary on social constraints women faced in 1974, it doesn’t suggest that the work is best understood as a critique of the content of any other artworks. The text doesn’t address how Chicano culture is depicted in sociohistorical murals; it discusses such murals only to make the point that in 1974 (and earlier) the art establishment recognized Chicano artists who produced them to the exclusion of Chicano nonmuralists, indicating a constraint all of Asco’s members faced, regardless of gender.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 3bfcb73b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 3bfcb73b

An archaeological team led by Piotr Bieliński and Sultan al-Bakri found remnants of a 4,000-year-old Bronze Age board game at a site in Oman. Little is left of the game except a stone board, which is carved with a grid and has places to hold game pieces. Some scholars claim that the game was largely played by traders.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the scholars’ claim?

  • Other examples of the game dating to the same period have been found in the remains of several homes in the region, including in one home that may have belonged to a trader.

  • Similar games have been found in other sites dating to the same period that were connected to the site in Oman via trade routes.

  • The other known examples of the game dating to the same period have been found along routes that seem to have been used primarily by traders at the time. 

  • Remnants of other goods have been found at the site in Oman that probably also reached the location through trade.

ID: 3bfcb73b Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly support the scholars’ claim about the board game. The text explains that the remains of a 4,000-year-old board game were found in Oman. The text then states that scholars claim this board game was played mostly by traders. If the other known examples of this board game from the same time period were discovered along routes that seem to have been used primarily by traders, this finding would directly support the scholars’ claim because it suggests that the game was largely played by traders who brought it with them for entertainment as they traveled.

Choice A is incorrect because this finding would suggest only that a single trader may have possessed examples of the board game, perhaps for the purpose of trading or selling the game to residents of Oman. For this reason, the finding wouldn’t directly support the scholars’ claim that the majority of the game’s players were traders. Choice B is incorrect because this finding doesn’t mention the board game at all, referring only to similar games found at other sites, and would therefore provide no direct support for the scholars’ claim about the board game. Choice D is incorrect because this finding doesn’t mention the board game at all, referring only to the remains of other goods found at the site in Oman, and would therefore provide no direct support for the scholars’ claim about the board game.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 53c6c179

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 53c6c179

35 30 25 20 15 10 5 0Median marriage age 1900 1910 1920 1930 1940 1950 1960 1970 1980 1990 2000Median Ages of First Marriage for Menand Women in the United States andin England and Wales, 1900–2000Years Women (England and Wales) Men (United States) Women (United States) Men (England and Wales)

A sociology student is reading an essay on the median age of first marriage in Western countries throughout the twentieth century. The author of the essay cites factors common to these countries that the author believes caused an increase in the median age of first marriage, such as new technologies that shortened the time needed for domestic chores, making two-person households less necessary and living alone more viable. The student asserts that beyond these factors there must be additional ones specific to particular Western countries that influenced the increase of age at first marriage.

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph that support the student’s assertion?

  • Between 1970 and 2000, the median age of first marriage rose more sharply for men in England and Wales than it did for men in the United States.

  • In England and Wales, the median age of first marriage was consistently higher for men than for women between 1900 and 2000, but this was not always the case in the United States.

  • The median age of first marriage for men in England and Wales was lower in 1970 than in 1950 or 1990.

  • Between 1900 and 2000, the median age of first marriage for women in England and Wales was consistently higher than for women in the United States, as was the case for men.

ID: 53c6c179 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The student concluded that country-specific factors influence changes to median age of first marriage. This choice describes a time period when the rate of change differed between countries, suggesting that country-specific factors may have played a role in these changes.

Choice B is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. The median age of first marriage was consistently higher for men than for women in the United States during the time period depicted. Choice C is incorrect. The student concluded that country-specific factors influence changes to median age of first marriage. However, this choice doesn’t provide any contrasts between countries and thus doesn’t support the idea of country-specific factors influencing median age of first marriage. Choice D is incorrect. The students’ conclusion is about changes that occurred during the 20th century. This choice provides broad information about the century as a whole, so it doesn’t give insight into how median age at first marriage changed over time.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 55688b3c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 55688b3c

Dutch painters in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries often showed tables filled with large wheels of cheese or carved shards of butter. Some art historians, noting that dairy products were a major component of the Dutch diet, interpret these depictions as reflections of everyday Dutch eating habits. However, a group of researchers recently reviewed hundreds of food-related paintings and found that lemons—which could only be acquired in the Netherlands at great cost, since they had to be imported from warmer climates—feature in Dutch paintings of the period more than three times as frequently as dairy products do, thereby casting doubt on the idea that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • dairy products were a more significant component of the Dutch diet of the period than lemons were.

  • food was a more popular subject among Dutch painters than it was among painters from other countries at the time. 

  • depictions of food in Dutch paintings of the period should be taken as realistic representations of Dutch eating habits.

  • Dutch painters of the period may have depicted foods for symbolic reasons rather than to show what Dutch people typically ate.

ID: 55688b3c Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The text tells us that lemons—an expensive imported product—feature in Dutch paintings of the period more frequently than dairy products do. Since it’s unlikely lemons were eaten more often than dairy, this fact casts doubt on the theory that these paintings realistically depicted Dutch diets.

Choice A is incorrect. In fact, the text suggests the opposite: it says that dairy products were a "major component of the Dutch diet," while lemons were an expensive import item, so we can infer that lemons were eaten much more rarely than dairy products. Choice B is incorrect. The passage doesn’t mention painters from other countries, so there’s no basis to make this inference. Choice D is incorrect. In fact, the text suggests that Dutch painters do have reasons for depicting foods other than to show what Dutch people typically ate. For example, lemons in a painting could indicate wealth or prosperity.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 7c21b4b5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 7c21b4b5

Survey Results for Two Online Account Sign-in Methods

Sign-in method Percent of participants in the UK who chose method Percent of participants in Japan who chose method Percent of participants in India who chose method
Biometrics (for example, a face scan) 33 29 22
Onetime passcodes 16 8 25

 

A survey listed methods for signing into online accounts. Participants in different countries were asked to choose the sign-in method they view as most secure. The table presents data for two of the methods. According to the table, onetime passcodes were viewed as most secure by blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the text?

  • 33 percent of survey participants in the UK.

  • 22 percent of survey participants in India.

  • 8 percent of survey participants in Japan.

  • 16 percent of survey participants in India.

ID: 7c21b4b5 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the text about survey results for online account sign-in methods. According to the table, 8 percent of participants in Japan viewed onetime passcodes as the most secure sign-in method. This is the only choice that correctly represents data in the table.

Choice A is incorrect because according to the table, 33 percent of participants in the UK viewed biometrics, not onetime passcodes, as the most secure sign-in method; onetime passcodes were viewed as the most secure method by 16 percent of these participants. Choice B is incorrect because according to the table, 22 percent of participants in India viewed biometrics, not onetime passcodes, as the most secure sign-in method; onetime passcodes were viewed as the most secure method by 25 percent of these participants. Choice D is incorrect because according to the table, the country in which 16 percent of participants viewed onetime passcodes as the most secure sign-in method was the UK, not India; of participants in India, 25 percent viewed such passcodes as the most secure method.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID ed586475

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: ed586475

There Is Confusion is a 1924 novel by Jessie Redmon Fauset. In the novel, the narrator portrays the character Joanna as someone who admires ambition in other people to the exclusion of all other qualities: blank

Which quotation from There Is Confusion most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “Joanna was mightily interested in people who had a ‘purpose’ in life. Otherwise not at all.” 

  • “Indeed from the very beginning Joanna showed her preference for her father.” 

  • “Joanna was like her father not only so far as ambition was concerned but also in her willingness to work.” 

  • “She had a good sense of logic, a strong power of concentration, and a remarkably retentive and visualizing memory.”

ID: ed586475 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively presents a quotation from There Is Confusion that illustrates the claim that the narrator portrays Joanna as admiring the quality of ambition, or the determination to achieve something, and no other qualities in other people. By describing Joanna as not being interested in people unless they have "a ‘purpose’ in life"—that is, a goal they are determined to achieve—in which case she is very interested in them, the quotation reveals that Joanna cares only about others’ ambition.

Choice B is incorrect because this quotation indicates only that Joanna has a preference for her father, without giving a reason for that preference; therefore, it doesn’t illustrate the claim that Joanna cares only about others’ ambition. Choice C is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t illustrate that Joanna greatly admires the quality of ambition in others; it refers to Joanna’s similarity to her father "so far as ambition was concerned" but doesn’t reveal how she (or her father) views that quality. Choice D is incorrect because this quotation describes qualities Joanna possesses—praising her logic, concentration, and memory—instead of Joanna’s interest in other people’s qualities.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 1bf2173e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 1bf2173e

In a three-year study of parasitic infections by Anomotaenia brevis tapeworms in Temnothorax nylanderi ants, entomologist Susanne Foitzik and colleagues found something unexpected: rather than reducing its host’s fitness, as is typical of parasites, A. brevis greatly extends the lifespan of a T. nylanderi worker ant and seems to halt the effects of aging. Furthermore, those infected receive special treatment, ceasing their share of labor to sustain the colony and remaining in the nest as uninfected workers feed, groom, and transport them. By contrast, the researchers observed that uninfected workers in parasitized colonies have shortened lifespans, most likely because the blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • uninfected workers are at high risk for direct exposure to A. brevis in the course of providing social care to the infected workers in the nest.

  • need to compensate for reduced contributions within the colony while also caring for infected workers is burdensome to the uninfected workers.

  • high level of activity maintained by the uninfected workers makes them better able than infected workers to quickly disperse when the nest is attacked by a predator.

  • average lifespan of T. nylanderi worker ants in colonies without parasitic activity typically falls well below three years, the range covered by the study.

ID: 1bf2173e Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The text describes a study examining the relationship between a species of parasitic tapeworm, A. brevis, and its host insect, the T. nylanderi ant. According to the text, researchers were surprised to find that the tapeworm extends the life of its ant host, rather than reducing it. The text goes on to state that the infected ants end up doing less work to sustain the colony and that as a result, the uninfected ants take on the infected ants’ share of labor in addition to caring for them in their infected state. The study’s researchers also observed that the uninfected ants have shorter lifespans than expected. If the infected ants, who are doing less work in the colony, have longer lifespans, it can be inferred that the less an ant works, the longer it will live. The opposite of this statement can also be inferred: the more an ant works, the shorter its life. So, since the workload within the colony is being redistributed so that the infected ants work less while the uninfected ants work more (as they take on the neglected duties of the infected ants and also care for those ants), then it can be inferred that the lifespans of the uninfected ants are shortened because the need to compensate for reduced contributions within the colony while also caring for infected workers is burdensome to the uninfected workers.

Choice A is incorrect because the text does not indicate how A. brevis is transmitted to the ants or assert that uninfected ants are more likely to be directly exposed to A. brevis while caring for infected ants. Choice C is incorrect because the text makes no mention of the relative abilities of infected and uninfected ants to escape predators: in fact, predators are not mentioned in the text at all. Choice D is incorrect because the text does not supply any information about the average lifespans of the ants in colonies without parasitic activity; the text only indicates factors that lengthen and shorten the lifespans of ants in parasitized colonies.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID df91532e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: df91532e

In the “language nest” model of education, Indigenous children learn the language of their people by using it as the medium of instruction and socialization at pre-K or elementary levels. In their 2016 study of a school in an Anishinaabe community in Ontario, Canada, scholars Lindsay Morcom and Stephanie Roy (who are Anishinaabe themselves) found that the model not only imparted fluency in the Anishinaabe language but also enhanced students’ pride in Anishinaabe culture overall. Given these positive effects, Morcom and Roy predict that the model increases the probability that as adults, former students of the school will transmit the language to younger generations in their community.

Which finding, if true, would most strongly support the researchers’ prediction?

  • Anishinaabe adults who didn’t attend the school feel roughly the same degree of cultural pride as the former students of the school feel.

  • After transferring to the school, new students experience an increase in both fluency and academic performance overall.

  • As adults, former students of the school are just as likely to continue living in their community as individuals who didn’t attend the school.

  • As they complete secondary and higher education, former students of the school experience no loss of fluency or cultural pride.

ID: df91532e Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support the researchers’ prediction about the language nest model of education. The text states that Morcom and Roy studied the effects of the language nest model of education on students at an Anishinaabe school, and they found that the model—which is used with students during pre-K or elementary school—increased students’ fluency in the Anishinaabe language and pride in Anishinaabe culture. The researchers predicted that the students’ positive early experiences with the Anishinaabe language would lead them to be more likely to later share the language with younger generations. If former students maintain full fluency and cultural pride after finishing secondary and higher education, it follows that they would be both able and motivated to share what they know with others; this would likely result in a higher probability of transmitting the language to younger generations, as the researchers predict.

Choice A is incorrect because finding that Anishinaabe adults who didn’t attend the school feel approximately the same degree of cultural pride as those adults who did attend wouldn’t support the researchers’ prediction that former students will be more likely to share their knowledge with younger generations. This finding would identify a similarity between the groups rather than a factor that might make former students more likely than other adults to transmit the language to younger people. Choice B is incorrect because finding that new students experience increased performance in language fluency and academics would suggest that the school has a positive effect on students when they attended but wouldn’t reveal anything about those students’ later actions as adults (such as their likelihood of sharing their knowledge with younger generations). Choice C is incorrect because finding that Anishinaabe adults who attended the school are equally likely to stay in the community as adults who didn’t attend the school wouldn’t support the researchers’ prediction that former students will be more likely to share their knowledge with younger generations. This finding would identify a similarity between the groups rather than a factor that might make former students more likely than other adults to transmit the language to younger people.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 81af81d4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 81af81d4

“Often Rebuked, Yet Always Back Returning” is an 1846 poem by Emily Brontë. The poem conveys the speaker’s determination to experience the countryside around her: blank

Which quotation from the poem most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “Often rebuked, yet always back returning / To those first feelings that were born with me, / And leaving busy chase of wealth and learning / For idle dreams of things which cannot be.”

  • “I’ll walk, but not in old heroic traces, / And not in paths of high morality, / And not among the half-distinguished faces, / The clouded forms of long-past history.”

  • “I’ll walk where my own nature would be leading: / It vexes me to choose another guide: / Where the grey flocks in ferny glens are feeding; / Where the wild wind blows on the mountain side.”

  • “To-day, I will seek not the shadowy region; / Its unsustaining vastness waxes drear; / And visions rising, legion after legion, / Bring the unreal world too strangely near.”

ID: 81af81d4 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents the quotation that best illustrates the claim that the speaker is determined to experience the countryside around her. In the quotation, the speaker makes it clear that she plans to walk somewhere based on her own wishes (“where my own nature would be leading”) rather than follow anything else (“another guide”), and that she’ll walk “in ferny glens” alongside the mountain. 

Choice A is incorrect because this quotation suggests that the speaker wants to avoid pursuing money and education (“busy chase of wealth and learning”) and instead return to some earlier interests (her “first feelings”); the quotation doesn’t address her determination to experience the countryside. Choice B is incorrect because the speaker is describing the circumstances under which she won’t walk, which doesn’t address her determination to experience the countryside. Choice D is incorrect because rather than conveying her determination to experience the countryside, the speaker is explaining a particular thing she won’t do (“seek not the shadowy region”).

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 8af0c099

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 8af0c099

“Ad recall” measures how memorable an advertising campaign is. To provide advertisers with information about their ads’ memorability, a social media site regularly surveys users about whether they remember ads they had recently interacted with on the site. In a study that drew on this survey data, advertising researcher Kristen Sussman and colleagues noted that different kinds of social media interactions involve different levels of cognitive engagement: commenting on or sharing a post is more cognitively demanding than is clicking on embedded links or on a “like” button. The researchers hypothesized that interactions indicating high levels of cognitive engagement with ad content would result in relatively high levels of ad recall.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ hypothesis?

  • Users who interacted with an ad were much more likely to do so by clicking on the ad’s “like” button than they were to interact with the ad in any other way. 

  • Users who interacted with an ad were significantly more likely to purchase the advertised product at the time they saw the ad than were users who saw the ad but did not interact with it.

  • Compared with users who clicked on links in an ad, users who commented on that same ad were significantly more likely to remember seeing the ad when surveyed two days later.

  • Although users who shared an ad were highly likely to remember details from the ad when surveyed two days later, those same users tended to forget those details when surveyed again a week later.

ID: 8af0c099 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it details a finding that, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ hypothesis about ad recall. According to the text, the researchers found that commenting on an ad that appears as a social media post is more cognitively demanding for users than simply clicking on embedded links in such an ad. The researchers then hypothesized that a high level of cognitive engagement with ad content would result in a high level of ad recall, or memory of ad content. This hypothesis would be supported by the finding that users who had commented on an ad were more likely to recall its content when surveyed two days later than users who had simply clicked on links in the same ad.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text compares one form of social media user interaction with ads—clicking on the ad’s "like" button—with other forms of interaction—commenting on the ad and sharing it through social media—it does so in order to determine which form of interaction is associated with a higher level of ad recall. The text doesn’t note whether users were more likely to click on the "like" button than they were to interact with the ad in other ways. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that the study attempted to track whether social media users purchased the advertised product or to determine which form of interaction with ad content was more strongly associated with making a purchase. Choice D is incorrect. Finding that social media users who shared an ad forgot the content one week later would weaken, not support, the researchers’ hypothesis that cognitive engagement is associated with a high level of recall.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 8584f3ce

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 8584f3ce

When digging for clams, their primary food, sea otters damage the roots of eelgrass plants growing on the seafloor. Near Vancouver Island in Canada, the otter population is large and well established, yet the eelgrass meadows are healthier than those found elsewhere off Canada’s coast. To explain this, conservation scientist Erin Foster and colleagues compared the Vancouver Island meadows to meadows where otters are absent or were reintroduced only recently. Finding that the Vancouver Island meadows have a more diverse gene pool than the others do, Foster hypothesized that damage to eelgrass roots increases the plant’s rate of sexual reproduction; this, in turn, boosts genetic diversity, which benefits the meadows’ health overall.

Which finding, if true, would most directly undermine Foster’s hypothesis?

  • At some sites in the study, eelgrass meadows are found near otter populations that are small and have only recently been reintroduced.

  • At several sites not included in the study, there are large, well-established sea otter populations but no eelgrass meadows.

  • At several sites not included in the study, eelgrass meadows’ health correlates negatively with the length of residence and size of otter populations.

  • At some sites in the study, the health of plants unrelated to eelgrass correlates negatively with the length of residence and size of otter populations.

ID: 8584f3ce Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would weaken Foster’s hypothesis that damage to eelgrass roots improves the health of eelgrass meadows by boosting genetic diversity. The text indicates that sea otters damage eelgrass roots but that eelgrass meadows near Vancouver Island, where there’s a large otter population, are comparatively healthy. When Foster and her colleagues compared the Vancouver Island eelgrass meadows to those that don’t have established otter populations, the researchers found that the Vancouver Island meadows are more genetically diverse than the other meadows are. This finding led Foster to hypothesize that damage to the eelgrass roots encourages eelgrass reproduction, thereby improving genetic diversity and the health of the meadows. If, however, other meadows not included in the study are less healthy the larger the local otter population is and the longer the otters have been in residence, that would suggest that damage to the eelgrass roots, which would be expected to increase with the size and residential duration of the otter population, isn’t leading meadows to be healthier. Such a finding would therefore weaken Foster’s hypothesis.

Choice A is incorrect because finding that small, recently introduced otter populations are near other eelgrass meadows in the study wouldn’t weaken Foster’s hypothesis. If otter populations were small and only recently established, they wouldn’t be expected to have caused much damage to eelgrass roots, so even if those eelgrass meadows were less healthy than the Vancouver Island meadows, that wouldn’t undermine Foster’s hypothesis. In fact, it would be consistent with Foster’s hypothesis since it would suggest that the greater damage caused by larger, more established otter populations is associated with healthier meadows. Choice B is incorrect because the existence of areas with otters but without eelgrass meadows wouldn’t reveal anything about whether the damage that otters cause to eelgrass roots ultimately benefits eelgrass meadows. Choice D is incorrect because the health of plants other than eelgrass would have no bearing on Foster’s hypothesis that damage to eelgrass roots leads to greater genetic diversity and meadow health. It would be possible for otters to have a negative effect on other plants while nevertheless improving the health of eelgrass meadows by damaging eelgrass roots.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID f71802d6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: f71802d6
3.0 2.5 2.0 1.5 1.0 0.5 0Average percentage of nonhexagonal cells by shape black dwarf honeybee dwarf honeybee western honeybeePercentage of Nonhexagonal Cells in Hives of Three Honeybee SpeciesSpecies 5-sided cells 7-sided cells 8-sided cells
  • All values are approximate.
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown: 
    • 5-sided cells
    • 7-sided cells
    • 8-sided cells
  • The average percentage of nonhexagonal cells by shape data for the 3 categories are as follows:
    • black dwarf honeybee:
      • 5-sided cells: 2.5 percent
      • 7-sided cells: 2.4 percent
      • 8-sided cells: 0.0 percent
    • dwarf honeybee: 
      • 5-sided cells: 2.6 percent
      • 7-sided cells: 2.1 percent
      • 8-sided cells: 0.2 percent
    • western honeybee: 
      • 5-sided cells: 0.45 percent
      • 7-sided cells: 0.38 percent
      • 8-sided cells: 0.08 percent

Honeybee hives consist mainly of hexagonal (six-sided) units called cells, in which queens lay eggs. Hexagonal cells for eggs that develop into nonreproductive workers are smaller than those for eggs that develop into reproductive drones, though the size difference varies by species. Difference in cell size results in a construction problem—it’s hard to neatly connect sections of small cells to sections of large cells—that worsens as the difference increases. To fill in gaps between the sections when building a hive, bees rely on cells that have more or fewer than six sides. A student studying beehive structure consults data on three species, concluding that blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the student’s conclusion?

  • cells for worker eggs are probably closer in size to cells for drone eggs in the hives of the western honeybee than in the hives of the dwarf honeybee and the black dwarf honeybee.

  • both the western honeybee and the black dwarf honeybee probably reserve eight-sided cells for drone eggs, while the dwarf honeybee likely deposits drone eggs in seven-sided cells.

  • the western honeybee probably relies on many more geometrical shapes when constructing cells than either the dwarf honeybee or the black dwarf honeybee does.

  • the percentage of hexagonal cells is probably slightly lower in the hives of the western honeybee than in the hives of the dwarf honeybee and the black dwarf honeybee.

ID: f71802d6 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the student’s conclusion about beehive structure. The text explains that in the hives of honeybees, the hexagonal cells housing drone eggs are larger than the hexagonal cells housing worker eggs, and that this size difference results in a construction problem that the bees address by using nonhexagonal cells to fill gaps between sections of drone-egg cells and worker-egg cells. The text also states that the size difference between drone-egg cells and worker-egg cells varies by species of honeybee. The graph displays data on the percentage of nonhexagonal cells in the hives of three species. In the hives of the western honeybee, the percentages of five-sided, seven-sided, and eight-sided cells are all less than 0.5%. But in the hives of the black dwarf honeybee, the percentages of five-sided and seven-sided cells are higher than those for the western honeybee: about 2.5% for both. And for the dwarf honeybee, the percentages of five-sided and seven-sided cells are also higher than those for the western honeybee: slightly over 2.5% and slightly over 2.0%, respectively; additionally, the dwarf honeybee possesses a higher percentage of eight-sided cells than the western honeybee does. Taken altogether, the graph shows that the hives of the western honeybee consist of a smaller percentage of nonhexagonal cells than the hives of the two other species do. Since the nonhexagonal cells exist only to solve the construction problem arising from the difference in size between drone-egg cells and worker-egg cells, a smaller percentage of nonhexagonal cells would be associated with a smaller size difference between the two types of cells. Therefore, it can be concluded from the data that worker-egg cells are probably closer in size to drone-egg cells in the hives of the western honeybee than in the hives of the other two species.

Choice B is incorrect because, as the text states, honeybee species deposit their eggs in hexagonal cells, not in nonhexagonal ones. Thus, the western honeybee and black dwarf honeybee wouldn’t deposit drone eggs in eight-sided cells, and the dwarf honeybee wouldn’t deposit drone eggs in seven-sided cells. Choice C is incorrect. The text explains that honeybees rely mainly on one geometric shape, the hexagon, when constructing their hives, and the graph shows that the western honeybee relies on the same nonhexagonal shapes as the dwarf honeybee does: five-sided, seven-sided, and eight-sided cells. In other words, the western honeybee and dwarf honeybee rely on the same number of geometric shapes. For the black dwarf honeybee, the graph displays data only for five-sided and seven-sided cells, which suggests a total absence of eight-sided cells. Yet this would be only one less nonhexagonal shape than is seen in the western honeybee. Thus, based on the graph, it would be inaccurate to say that the western honeybee relies on "many more" geometrical shapes than the other two species do. Choice D is incorrect. As the text explains, honeybee hives consist mainly of hexagonal cells, and sections of nonhexagonal cells are used to connect sections of hexagonal cells of different sizes. Since the graph indicates that the percentage of nonhexagonal cells is lower for the western honeybee than it is for the dwarf honeybee or black dwarf honeybee, the western honeybee would conversely have a higher percentage of hexagonal cells than the either the dwarf honeybee or black dwarf honeybee does, not a lower percentage.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID c95995bc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: c95995bc

Colonized by Spain in the 1600s, New Mexico is home to a dialect of Spanish that differs significantly from dialects spoken in Spain’s other former colonies in the Americas. Most notably, the New Mexican dialect retains older features of the language that other dialects lost in later centuries. But why would it have done so? New Mexico was so distant from population centers in Spain’s other colonies that it attracted few colonists after its initial colonization. Geographical isolation in turn would have limited the exposure of New Mexican colonists to changes occurring to Spanish grammar and vocabulary elsewhere in the empire. Thus, the present-day uniqueness of the New Mexican dialect suggests the extent to which blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • a language can protect itself from being influenced by other languages.

  • the grammar and vocabulary of any given language change from one generation to the next. 

  • geographical isolation can influence how a language develops.

  • speakers of one dialect of a language can understand speakers of another dialect of that language.

ID: c95995bc Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it is the choice that most logically completes the text. The text mentions a dialect of Spanish spoken in New Mexico, which was colonized by Spain in the 1600s. The text then states that the New Mexican dialect differs greatly from other Spanish dialects in that it still has characteristics of an older Spanish that other dialects eventually lost. After asking why this might be, the text points out that the New Mexico colony was distant from Spain’s other colonies, making it less attractive to colonists after the initial colonization. This geographic isolation limited the colony’s exposure to other Spanish colonists who would have otherwise introduced the changes to the Spanish language that occurred in their respective colonies. It can therefore be inferred that this isolation is a reason why the New Mexican dialect still has characteristics of an older Spanish, while the Spanish dialects spoken in less isolated areas that have more interaction with speakers of other dialects would lose those characteristics over time. Thus, the most logical completion of the text is that geographical isolation can influence how a language develops.

Choice A is incorrect because the text discusses different dialects of Spanish, not different languages altogether. Choice B is incorrect because the text focuses on how the New Mexican dialect has stayed the same over time in some ways, not on how it has changed from one generation to the next. Choice D is incorrect because though the text discusses how the New Mexican dialect of Spanish is different from others, it does not discuss how speakers of different dialects are able to understand each other.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID dbbbc5dd

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: dbbbc5dd

Off-off-Broadway theaters emerged in the late 1950s as a rebellion against mainstream Broadway theaters in New York, freeing artists to create productions that were more experimental than typical Broadway shows. One such artist was playwright María Irene Fornés. Working with off-off Broadway theaters enabled Fornés not only to direct her own plays but also to direct them exactly as she intended them to be staged, regardless of how strange the results might have seemed to audiences accustomed to Broadway shows. In this way, Fornés blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • wrote plays that would have been too expensive to produce if someone else had directed the production.

  • recognized that staging an off-off-Broadway play was more complicated than staging a Broadway play.

  • would have been more famous if she had created plays that were mainstream instead of experimental.

  • illustrates the artistic opportunity offered by off-off Broadway theaters.

ID: dbbbc5dd Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The text says that off-off-Broadway theaters allowed artists to create more experimental shows, and then discusses how Fornés was free to direct her own “strange” plays however she wanted. This suggests that Fornés exemplifies the artistic freedom of off-off Broadway theaters.

Choice A is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never discusses the costs of production, so we can’t logically make this claim. Choice B is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never discusses the complexity of staging plays either on Broadway or off-off Broadway, so there’s no basis to make this inference. Choice C is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never discusses fame at all, so there’s no basis to make this inference.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 2573d64b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 2573d64b

At over a thousand pages across two volumes, The Fifty-Year Mission, compiled by Edward Gross and Mark A. Altman, is presented as the “complete, uncensored, unauthorized oral history” as told by the people behind the media franchise Star Trek. The work aspires to be comprehensive by, for example, including accounts from cast and crew members of every Star Trek television series and film to date. But while The Fifty-Year Mission is clearly a unique and valuable resource, it has a shortcoming common among oral histories: it lacks a clear authorial point of view that could otherwise unite the various accounts into a cohesive whole.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • The compilers of The Fifty-Year Mission had lofty goals for their oral history of the Star Trek franchise, but the published work lacks information about many key events in the franchise’s history.

  • The Fifty-Year Mission includes more accounts from people involved with Star Trek television shows than it does from people involved with Star Trek films. 

  • The large amount of material compiled into The Fifty-Year Mission is surprising given that many of the people involved in the Star Trek franchise did not participate in the oral history project.

  • The Fifty-Year Mission represents a worthwhile attempt to thoroughly recount the history of the Star Trek franchise, but its approach has an important limitation.

ID: 2573d64b Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. According to the text, Gross and Altman’s book is a "valuable resource" because it’s a "complete, uncensored, unauthorized oral history" that features accounts from people involved with "every Star Trek television series and film" made. However, the text also points out an inherent shortcoming of the oral history approach used by the book’s creators: the lack of an authorial voice that could unify the many accounts into a coherent narrative. Thus, the text’s main idea is that while the book’s attempt at presenting a comprehensive oral history of the Star Trek franchise is a worthwhile one, the approach the creators selected has an important limitation.

Choice A is incorrect. While the goal of the book’s creators (providing a comprehensive history of the Star Trek franchise) could be described as lofty, the text’s criticism of the book is focused on the shortcomings of the oral history form, not on events in the Star Trek franchise that were not reflected in the book. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the book includes more accounts from people involved with television shows than with films. In fact, the text explicitly states that the book includes accounts from people involved with "every Star Trek television series and film" ever made. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that many people involved with the Star Trek franchise failed to participate in the book’s oral history project. The only mention of the scope of participation states that the book includes accounts "from cast and crew members of every Star Trek television series and film to date." This information implies a high level of participation from relevant individuals, not a lack of participation.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 6409016a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 6409016a

The Household, Income and Labour Dynamics in Australia Survey (HILDA) examines trends in economic well-being among 25,000 people in Australia unfolding over many years. As is true of most longitudinal studies, this need for years of data collection results in high costs. By contrast, a relatively straightforward fitness study, such as one that is merely trying to identify the percentage of regular exercisers in a city who do weight training, may not need a large budget because blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • longitudinal methods are probably suitable for the fitness study.

  • it would be easy for HILDA researchers to add questions to their economic well-being study.

  • 25,000 people is more than enough for HILDA to find trends in economic well-being.

  • the fitness study can be done well without years of data collection.

ID: 6409016a Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the costs of studies. The text indicates that HILDA is a longitudinal study—it involves repeated observations over a long time—and that the "need for years of data collection" is what causes it and most other longitudinal studies to have high costs. The text then contrasts such studies with more straightforward studies, using the example of a fitness study that wants only to find out how many regular exercisers in a particular location do weight training, that may not demand a large budget. The contrast emphasized in the text most directly suggests that the fitness study may cost less than a study like HILDA because the fitness study aims only to determine a current percentage and thus can be completed well without extending data collection over years.

Choice A is incorrect because the text explicitly introduces the idea of a less expensive, straightforward fitness study as a contrast to many longitudinal studies that, like HILDA, have high costs because they require data collection over many years. The fitness study is described as trying merely to gather information about a current behavior (how many regular exercisers do weight training) rather than track trends over time, which suggests that costs could remain low because expensive longitudinal methods would not be needed, not because they would be suitable. Choice B is incorrect because the idea that HILDA researchers could easily add questions to their study might be relevant to the costs of that survey but would be completely irrelevant as an explanation for why an unrelated fitness study may not need a large budget; the studies have no direct bearing on each other. Choice C is incorrect because the idea that HILDA involves more people than necessary would be relevant to the costs of that survey but would be completely irrelevant as an explanation for why an unrelated fitness study may not need a large budget; the studies have no direct bearing on each other.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID e1546fd6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: e1546fd6

Average Nitrate and Phosphate Concentrations in Seawater after Volcanic Eruption

Nutrient Seawater in lava-affected area, 5–45 meters below surface Seawater in lava-affected area, 75–125 meters below surface Seawater outside of lava-affected area, 5–45 meters below surface Seawater outside of lava-affected area, 75–125 meters below surface
Nitrate (micromoles per liter) 3.1 0.4 less than or equal to 0.03 less than or equal to 0.01
Phosphate (micromoles per liter) 0.17 0.09 0.14 0.06

After a volcanic eruption spilled lava into North Pacific Ocean waters, a dramatic increase of diatoms (a kind of phytoplankton) near the surface occurred. Scientists assumed the diatoms were thriving on nutrients such as phosphate from the lava, but analysis showed these nutrients weren’t present near the surface in forms diatoms can consume. However, there was an abundance of usable nitrate, a nutrient usually found in much deeper water and almost never found in lava. Microbial oceanographer Sonya Dyhrman and colleagues believe that as the lava plunged nearly 300 meters below the surface it dislodged pockets of this nutrient, releasing it to float upward, given that blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • at 5–45 meters below the surface, the average concentration of phosphate was about the same in the seawater in the lava-affected area as in the seawater outside of the lava-affected area.

  • for both depth ranges measured, the average concentrations of nitrate were substantially higher in the seawater in the lava-affected area than in the seawater outside of the lava-affected area.

  • for both depth ranges measured in the seawater in the lava-affected area, the average concentrations of nitrate were substantially higher than the average concentrations of phosphate.

  • in the seawater outside of the lava-affected area, there was little change in the average concentration of nitrate from 75–125 meters below the surface to 5–45 meters below the surface.

ID: e1546fd6 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The claim is that the lava freed the deep nitrate, allowing it to float upward. The table supports this by showing that there was more nitrate in the lava-affected seawater at various depths above 300 meters (the depth to which the lava plunged) than in unaffected seawater.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t complete the statement in a way that supports the claim. The claim is about nitrate, not phosphate. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t complete the statement in a way that supports the claim. The claim is only about nitrate—the concentrations of phosphate aren’t relevant. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t complete the statement in a way that supports the claim. It doesn’t say anything about the seawater inside the lava-affected area.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 04dff083

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 04dff083

In present-day Chiapas, Mexico, archaeologist Robert Rosenswig, remote-sensing specialist Ricardo López-Torrijos, and colleagues have located 41 smaller settlements surrounding the ancient Mesoamerican city of Izapa. The researchers have concluded that these settlements were culturally linked to Izapa because each of the settlements is the same age and configured in the same manner as Izapa, with a pyramid to the north and a plaza to the south. Their shared structural orientation suggests that residents of the settlements likely performed some of the same cultural ceremonies as residents in Izapa did.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Researchers have determined that the arrangement of Izapa’s structures was based on those of other nearby settlements.

  • Cultural ceremonies in Izapa seem to have played a more important role for its residents than those in smaller, surrounding settlements did.

  • Although archaeologists have learned much about Izapa over years of research, they have only recently found the smaller settlements that surrounded it.

  • Researchers have inferred that Izapa was related to the smaller settlements that surrounded it based in part on the similarity of their construction.

ID: 04dff083 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text indicates that Rosenswig, López-Torrijos, and colleagues concluded that there is a cultural link between the city of Izapa and the 41 smaller settlements they located around the city. According to the text, the researchers reached this conclusion because Izapa and the settlements are of the same age and configuration in that all have a pyramid to the north and a plaza to the south. Thus, the main idea of the text is that researchers have inferred that Izapa was related to the smaller settlements that surrounded it based in part on the similarity of their construction.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text discusses a similarity between how structures in Izapa and nearby settlements are arranged, the text doesn’t indicate that the arrangement in Izapa is based on those of the nearby settlements. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text mentions that residents of Izapa and its surrounding settlements may have performed the same cultural ceremonies, the text doesn’t discuss the ceremonies’ importance for the residents. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text describes findings about Izapa, it doesn’t specify how much archaeologists have learned about Izapa over the years. Additionally, while the text indicates that the discovery of the 41 smaller settlements surrounding Izapa was made in present-day Chiapas and thus may be of recent date, this is a detail in the text, not its main idea.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 8a3ecac6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 8a3ecac6

North American gray wolves usually have mixed gray and white fur, but some members of the species have a version of a gene, or gene variant, that gives them a mostly black coat instead. Sarah Cubaynes and her team studied twelve populations of North American gray wolves. They found that the black-furred wolves are more common in areas where outbreaks of distemper virus happen regularly. The team also discovered that the black-furred wolves are more likely to be immune to distemper than the gray-furred wolves are. Taken together, these findings suggest that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • North American gray wolves experience more outbreaks of distemper virus than other wolf species do.

  • the gene variant that results in black fur may be linked to immunity to the distemper virus.

  • the average life span of gray wolves is likely to increase over time because of a particular gene variant.

  • gray-furred wolves will soon replace black-furred wolves across North America.

ID: 8a3ecac6 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The text tells us that the black-furred wolves are more common in areas with regular outbreaks of distemper virus and are more likely to be immune to distemper than the gray-furred wolves. This suggests that the gene variant that results in black fur may be linked to immunity to the distemper virus.

Choice A is incorrect. The text never compares North American gray wolves to other wolf species—in fact, it never discusses other wolf species at all, so there’s no basis for this inference. Choice C is incorrect. The life span of gray wolves is never mentioned in this text, so we have no basis for this inference. Choice D is incorrect. This is too extreme. The text says that "black-furred wolves are more likely to be immune to distemper than the gray-furred wolves," but that alone doesn’t mean that black-furred wolves will replace gray-furred wolves across North America.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 4025e00c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 4025e00c

In the 1950s and ’60s, plant breeders created shorter varieties of wheat and rice plants with improved yields. Kelly Gillespie, Rex Bernardo, and other plant specialists are building on that work by exploring the development of shorter corn varieties. Greater height can allow individual plants to produce more ears of corn. However, greater height also makes the stalks more likely to snap or be uprooted in strong winds before the corn can be harvested. Because of this trade-off, some plant specialists suggest that shorter corn varieties will actually blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • help improve yields of harvested corn by being more likely to survive in severe winds.

  • be more likely to be uprooted due to the weight of the corn on the stalks.

  • require more land for planting than short varieties of wheat and rice typically do.

  • begin developing more ears of corn on each plant than the tallest variety of corn currently does.

ID: 4025e00c Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically completes the text’s discussion about a trade-off in growing shorter varieties of corn. The text explains that plant specialists are working to develop shorter corn varieties in an effort to improve yields. The text points out that although greater height in corn plants can lead to more ears of corn per plant, it also makes the stalks more likely to be damaged by strong winds before there is a chance to harvest the corn. This presents a clear trade-off between potential yield (taller plants producing more ears per plant) and harvest reliability (shorter plants surviving until harvest time). Given this information, it is reasonable to infer that shorter corn varieties, while possibly producing fewer ears per plant, would be more likely to survive until harvest time. This survival advantage would result in improved yields of harvested corn because more plants would remain intact, thus offsetting the potential reduction in ears per shorter plant.

Choice B is incorrect. According to the text, greater height makes cornstalks vulnerable to snapping or being uprooted in strong winds, implying that taller plants—not shorter ones—have greater stability problems. The text provides no basis for inferring that shorter corn varieties would be more likely to be uprooted due to corn weight; in fact, the text suggests the opposite relationship between height and stability. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t provide information about the land requirements of either shorter corn varieties or shorter wheat and rice varieties, much less make any comparisons. The text mentions that plant breeders in the 1950s and ’60s created shorter varieties of wheat and rice with improved yields and that researchers are now exploring shorter corn varieties, but it doesn’t compare land-use requirements of these crops. Choice D is incorrect because the idea that shorter cornstalks would yield more ears of corn would contradict the relationship between height and corn production described in the text. The text explicitly states that greater height allows individual plants to produce more ears of corn, which suggests that shorter varieties would produce fewer ears per plant, not more. The text therefore provides no basis for concluding that shorter varieties would begin developing more ears than the taller varieties currently do.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 9391b7cc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 9391b7cc

If some artifacts recovered from excavations of the settlement of Kuulo Kataa, in modern Ghana, date from the thirteenth century CE, that may lend credence to claims that the settlement was founded before or around that time. There is other evidence, however, strongly supporting a fourteenth century CE founding date for Kuulo Kataa. If both the artifact dates and the fourteenth century CE founding date are correct, that would imply that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • artifacts from the fourteenth century CE are more commonly recovered than are artifacts from the thirteenth century CE. 

  • the artifacts originated elsewhere and eventually reached Kuulo Kataa through trade or migration.

  • Kuulo Kataa was founded by people from a different region than had previously been assumed.

  • excavations at Kuulo Kataa may have inadvertently damaged some artifacts dating to the fourteenth century CE.

ID: 9391b7cc Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of artifacts and Kuulo Kataa’s founding date. If it were true both that Kuulo Kataa was founded in the fourteenth century CE and that artifacts found in excavations of the settlement are from the thirteenth century CE, it would be reasonable to conclude that the artifacts weren’t created in the Kuulo Kataa settlement. That would suggest, then, that the artifacts originated somewhere else and eventually reached the settlement through trading or as people migrated.

Choice A is incorrect because the existence of thirteenth-century CE artifacts recovered during excavations of a settlement founded in the fourteenth century CE isn’t logically connected to artifacts from one century being more commonly recovered than artifacts from another century. Rather than suggesting anything about how frequently artifacts from different times are found, the existence of artifacts confirmed as predating the settlement’s founding suggests that those items arrived in Kuulo Kataa during or after its establishment. Choice C is incorrect because the text focuses on time periods and says nothing about which region the founders of Kuulo Kataa have been thought to come from; similarly, the text doesn’t suggest anything about where the thirteenth-century CE artifacts originated other than not from Kuulo Kataa. Therefore, it isn’t logical to conclude that the mere existence of artifacts confirmed as predating the Kuulo Kataa settlement suggests that the founders of the settlement came from a particular region other than one previously assumed. Choice D is incorrect because the existence of artifacts from the thirteenth century CE at a site dated to the fourteenth century CE doesn’t imply that fourteenth-century objects were damaged during excavations. There’s nothing in the text to suggest that any objects were damaged; rather, the existence of artifacts confirmed as predating the settlement’s founding suggests that those items were brought to Kuulo Kataa during or after its establishment. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 9452092c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 9452092c

Effects of Mycorrhizal Fungi on 3 Plant Species

Plant species Mycorrhizal host Average mass of plants grown in soil containing mycorrhizal fungi (in grams) Average mass of plants grown in soil treated to kill fungi (in grams)
Corn yes 15.1 3.8
Marigold yes 10.2 2.4
Broccoli no 7.5 7

Mycorrhizal fungi in soil benefits many plants, substantially increasing the mass of some. A student conducted an experiment to illustrate this effect. The student chose three plant species for the experiment, including two that are mycorrhizal hosts (species known to benefit from mycorrhizal fungi) and one nonmycorrhizal species (a species that doesn’t benefit from and may even be harmed by mycorrhizal fungi). The student then grew several plants from each species both in soil containing mycorrhizal fungi and in soil that had been treated to kill mycorrhizal and other fungi. After several weeks, the student measured the plants’ average mass and was surprised to discover that blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • broccoli grown in soil containing mycorrhizal fungi had a slightly higher average mass than broccoli grown in soil that had been treated to kill fungi.

  • corn grown in soil containing mycorrhizal fungi had a higher average mass than broccoli grown in soil containing mycorrhizal fungi.

  • marigolds grown in soil containing mycorrhizal fungi had a much higher average mass than marigolds grown in soil that had been treated to kill fungi.

  • corn had the highest average mass of all three species grown in soil that had been treated to kill fungi, while marigolds had the lowest.

ID: 9452092c Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement. The text explains that mycorrhizal hosts are plants that benefit from the presence of mycorrhizal fungi in the soil and that some such plants produce more mass when grown in the presence of these fungi, while for nonmycorrhizal species the fungi either have no effect or may be harmful. The experiment included two mycorrhizal hosts (corn and marigold) and one nonmycorrhizal species (broccoli). Given the claim in the text that nonmycorrhizal species will see either no difference or a decrease in mass when exposed to mycorrhizal fungi, the student would likely have been surprised by the higher average mass for broccoli grown in the presence of the fungi than the broccoli grown in the soil treated to kill fungi.

Choice B is incorrect. Although this choice accurately describes the corn data from the table, the fact that the mycorrhizal host corn is more massive in the presence of the fungi likely fits with what the student expected and would therefore not be surprising. Choice C is incorrect. Although this choice accurately describes the marigold data from the table, the fact that the mycorrhizal host marigold is more massive in the presence of the fungi is likely what the student expected and thus would not be surprising. Choice D is incorrect because it does not accurately represent the data in the table—when grown in soil treated to kill fungi, corn had an average mass of 3.8 g while broccoli had an average mass of 7g—and because making comparisons among the plants in the no-fungi condition, by itself, does not provide a basis to compare the average mass of mycorrhizal hosts and nonmycorrhizal species grown in the presence of the fungi with those grown in the soil treated to kill fungi.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 2a075bd1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 2a075bd1

Indigenous cultures possess unique knowledge of the medicinal uses of plants. According to a 2021 study, 73 percent of the medicinal uses of plants native to North America are reflected in the vocabulary of a single Indigenous language. However, as more and more Indigenous people exclusively speak a globally dominant language, such as English, their ancestral languages fade from daily use. These facts lend added importance to tribal nations’ efforts to preserve their languages. By ensuring the continued use of Cherokee, Ojibwe, and the hundreds of other Indigenous languages in what is now the United States, tribal nations are also blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • increasing the number of medicinal plants represented in the vocabularies of Indigenous languages.

  • transmitting terms for medicinal plants from Indigenous languages to globally dominant languages.

  • preserving knowledge about the medicinal value of plants native to the tribal nations’ lands.

  • ensuring that citizens of tribal nations have physical access to medicinal plants.

ID: 2a075bd1 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the relationship between Indigenous languages and knowledge of the medicinal uses of plants. The text states that Indigenous cultures possess special knowledge of the medicinal uses of plants, which is reflected in their vocabulary. The text then discusses how tribal nations are working to preserve their languages, whose daily use is declining as globally dominant languages become increasingly dominant in Indigenous communities. Given that the languages of tribal nations in what is now the United States function as repositories of knowledge about plants’ medicinal uses, it logically follows that continued use of those languages will assist with passing on knowledge about the medicinal value of plants native to the tribal nations’ lands.

Choice A is incorrect because the text states that preserving Indigenous languages will increase the knowledge, not the number, of medicinal plants. Choice B is incorrect because the text is concerned with how vocabulary about the medicinal value of plants can be preserved through the continued daily use of Indigenous languages, not with how such vocabulary can be incorporated into globally dominant, non-Indigenous languages. Moreover, the text explains that the exclusive use of globally dominant languages in Indigenous communities comes at an expense to the continued daily use of those communities’ languages. Given this relationship, it is unlikely globally dominant languages would borrow Indigenous vocabulary pertaining to  plants’ medicinal uses. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss physical access to medicinal plants, instead focusing on Indigenous knowledge and language surrounding the medicinal uses of plants.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 2a5aa08a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 2a5aa08a

Treasure Island is an 1883 novel by Robert Louis Stevenson. When the narrator was a child, his father ran a hotel. A mysterious sailor came to stay at the hotel. The narrator was frightened of the sailor, as can be seen when the narrator says, blank

Which quotation from Treasure Island most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “I remember [the sailor] as if it were yesterday, as he came plodding to the inn door, his sea-chest following behind him in a hand-barrow.”

  • “[The sailor] was a very silent man by custom. All day he hung round the cove or upon the cliffs with a brass telescope.”

  • “All the time he lived with us [the sailor] made no change whatever in his dress but to buy some stockings from a hawker. One of the [corners] of his hat having fallen down, he let it hang from that day forth, though it was a great annoyance when it blew.”

  • “How [the sailor] haunted my dreams, I need scarcely tell you. On stormy nights, when the wind shook the four corners of the house and the surf roared along the cove and up the cliffs, I would see him in a thousand forms, and with a thousand diabolical expressions.”

ID: 2a5aa08a Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most effectively illustrates the claim that the narrator was frightened of the sailor. The quotation describes the sailor haunting the narrator’s dreams, appearing in "a thousand forms" with "a thousand diabolical expressions." This vivid imagery conveys the intense psychological fear the narrator experienced when thinking about the sailor. Furthermore, the quotation evokes the narrator’s terror and dread by describing a stormy night setting with wind shaking the house and a roaring surf.

Choice A is incorrect because this quotation does not provide any details to suggest that the narrator was afraid of the sailor. It simply describes the narrator’s memory of the sailor arriving at the inn with his sea chest. Choice B is incorrect because this quotation does not effectively illustrate the claim that the narrator was frightened of the sailor. The quotation provides several details about the sailor, including that it was his custom to remain silent. However, the quotation does not relate these details to the narrator’s experience of being frightened of the sailor. Choice C is incorrect because this quotation focuses on aspects of the sailor’s appearance and dress. There is no connection made in the quotation between these physical details and the narrator’s sense of being frightened of the sailor.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 23ecf625

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 23ecf625

Conservationists worldwide are working to protect ecosystems from habitat destruction and biodiversity loss, and in many cases, initiatives that rely on natural features or processes can help address such challenges. In response to a rapidly dwindling population of blueback salmon, the Quinault Indian Nation (a tribe in Washington State) partnered with the conservation organization Wild Salmon Center to restore naturally occurring logjams in the Quinault River. The logjams create shady pools where the blueback salmon can rest and spawn, thus promoting blueback population recovery.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • A partnership between the Quinault Indian Nation and Wild Salmon Center shows the importance of collaborative approaches to preserving biodiversity.

  • Nature-based approaches can be effective ways to achieve conservation goals.

  • As indicated by a recent project, logjams help the blueback salmon thrive and reproduce.

  • Scientists now realize that nature-based conservation methods offer better long-term solutions to environmental issues than methods that are not nature-based do.

ID: 23ecf625 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it best states the main idea of the text: that nature-based approaches can be effective for achieving conservation goals. The text indicates that in many cases where conservationists are trying to protect ecosystems, their methods depend on natural processes or features. The text then gives an example of this phenomenon, a project with the Quinault Indian Nation that allowed logjams to form naturally in a river, creating spawning habitats for blueback salmon.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text does suggest that the partnership with the Quinault Indian Nation was beneficial, this is not the central aim of the text; the text primarily argues that nature-based approaches to conservation can be effective. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text indicates that logjams are helpful to blueback salmon, the example of the blueback salmon project is included to illustrate the larger point made earlier in the text: that nature-based approaches to conservation are often effective. Choice D is incorrect. There is no evidence in the text to support a direct comparison of the efficacy of nature-based conservation approaches to other types of approaches. The text merely indicates that nature-based approaches can often be effective.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 8fbed1cb

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 8fbed1cb

When the Vinland Map, a map of the world purported to date to the mid-1400s, surfaced in 1957, some scholars believed it demonstrated that European knowledge of the eastern coast of present-day North America predated Christopher Columbus’s 1492 arrival. In 2021, a team including conservators Marie-France Lemay and Paula Zyats and materials scientist Anikó Bezur performed an extensive analysis of the map and the ink used. They found that the ink contains titanium dioxide, a compound that was first introduced in ink manufacturing in the early 1900s. Therefore, the team concluded that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • mid-1400s Europeans could not have known about the eastern coast of present-day North America.

  • the Vinland Map could not have been drawn by mid-1400s mapmakers. 

  • mapmakers must have used titanium compounds in their ink in the 1400s.

  • there isn’t enough information to determine when the ink was created.

ID: 8fbed1cb Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Lemay, Zyats, and Bezur’s 2021 analysis of the Vinland Map. The text indicates that while some scholars have believed that the map was drawn in the mid-1400s, the 2021 analysis showed the presence of the compound titanium dioxide in the ink used to draw the map. The text goes on to say that titanium dioxide wasn’t used to manufacture ink until the early 1900s, which means that ink containing this compound couldn’t have been available to mapmakers in the 1400s. Since mapmakers in the mid-1400s couldn’t have used ink with titanium dioxide, it follows that the Vinland Map couldn’t have been drawn by mid-1400s mapmakers.

Choice A is incorrect because the 2021 finding that the ink used to draw the Vinland Map wasn’t available until the early 1900s doesn’t imply that Europeans in the mid-1400s couldn’t have known about the eastern coast of North America. While this finding suggests that the map couldn’t have been created in the mid-1400s, it doesn’t preclude the possibility that Europeans nevertheless had knowledge—and perhaps even drew other maps that are no longer in existence or are yet to be discovered by researchers—of the eastern coast of present-day North America as early as the mid-1400s. Choice C is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text that suggests that the 2021 discovery of the presence of titanium dioxide in the ink used to draw the Vinland Map caused Lemay, Zyats, and Bezur to question or reach a new conclusion about when mapmakers began using ink containing titanium compounds. Instead, the text indicates that titanium dioxide wasn’t used in ink before the early 1900s. This knowledge led the team to conclude that the map, which was drawn with ink containing titanium dioxide, couldn’t have been created in the mid-1400s. Choice D is incorrect because although the text doesn’t indicate that Lemay, Zyats, and Bezur established an exact date for the creation of the ink that was used to draw the Vinland Map, the text does say that titanium dioxide was introduced in ink manufacturing in the early 1900s. This fact provides enough information to determine that the ink that was used to draw the map was created no earlier than the early 1900s. This finding, in turn, led the team to conclude that the Vinland Map couldn’t have been drawn in the mid-1400s.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 2592e0de

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 2592e0de

Bicycles were first mass-produced in the late nineteenth century throughout Europe and North America, allowing individuals remarkable freedom to travel longer distances quickly and comfortably. This freedom, coupled with the affordability of the vehicle, made the bicycle immensely popular. Individuals were able to live farther from their workplaces, easily visit neighboring towns, and participate in new leisure and sport activities. Bicycling quickly became a popular social endeavor, with enthusiasts forming local cycling clubs to enjoy these newfound activities with others. 

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • The widespread adoption of the bicycle in the late nineteenth century provided new opportunities for people. 

  • The affordability of the bicycle in the late nineteenth century made it the preferred way to travel.

  • The popularity of the bicycle in the late nineteenth century gave rise to the first cycling clubs.

  • The mass production of the bicycle in the late nineteenth century made it safer for people to use. 

ID: 2592e0de Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The text discusses how the mass production of bicycles in the late nineteenth century allowed people to travel longer distances, live farther from their workplaces, visit neighboring towns, and participate in new activities and social clubs. All of these are new opportunities that were provided by the widespread adoption of the bicycle.

Choice B is incorrect. The text never says this. It does say that the bicycle was “affordable,” and that the “freedom to travel longer distances quickly and comfortably” made the bicycle “popular,” but it never says that the bicycle was more popular than any other way of traveling (like cars or trains or horses). Choice C is incorrect. This is a detail mentioned in the text, but not the main idea. Cycling clubs are only one of the new opportunities that arose from the popularity of the mass-produced bicycle. A “main idea” should capture more of the information in the text. Choice D is incorrect. The text never says this. It doesn’t mention the safety of the mass-produced bicycle at all.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 69d662af

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 69d662af

The following text is adapted from Ann Petry’s 1946 novel The Street. Lutie lives in an apartment in Harlem, New York.

The glow from the sunset was making the street radiant. The street is nice in this light, [Lutie] thought. It was swarming with children who were playing ball and darting back and forth across the sidewalk in complicated games of tag. Girls were skipping double dutch rope, going tirelessly through the exact center of a pair of ropes, jumping first on one foot and then the other.

©1946 by Ann Petry

Which choice best describes what is happening in the text?

  • Lutie is observing the appearance of the street at a particular time of day and the events occurring on it.

  • Lutie is annoyed by the noise of children playing games on her street.

  • Lutie is puzzled by the rules of certain children’s games.

  • Lutie is spending time alone in her apartment because she doesn’t want to interact with her neighbors.

ID: 69d662af Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states what is happening in the text. The narrator notes that Lutie thinks the street looks nice in the light of the sunset. The narrator goes on to describe what Lutie can see in the street: children playing ball or tag and girls skipping rope. Thus, what is happening in the text is that Lutie is observing the appearance of the street at a particular time of day and the events occurring on it.

Choice B is incorrect. Although Lutie is observing children playing games on her street, the text doesn’t suggest that she is annoyed by the noise of the games. Instead, the text says that Lutie thinks the street looks nice in the light of the sunset. Choice C is incorrect. Although Lutie is observing children playing games on her street, the text doesn’t suggest that she is puzzled by the rules of the games. Choice D is incorrect because there is no evidence in the text that Lutie doesn’t want to interact with her neighbors or that she is in her apartment alone. All the text indicates about Lutie is that she is watching the events on the street and thinks the street looks nice in the light of the sunset.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID f2b3b53b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: f2b3b53b

External shopping cues are a type of marketing that uses obvious messaging—a display featuring a new product, for example, or a “buy one, get one free” offer—to entice consumers to make spontaneous purchases. In a study, data scientist Sam K. Hui and colleagues found that this effect can also be achieved with a less obvious cue: rearranging a store’s layout. The researchers explain that trying to find items in new locations causes shoppers to move through more of the store, exposing them to more products and increasing the likelihood that they’ll buy an item they hadn’t planned on purchasing.

Which response from a survey given to shoppers who made a purchase at a retail store best supports the researchers’ explanation?

  • “I needed to buy some cleaning supplies, but they weren’t in their regular place. While I was looking for them, I saw this interesting notebook and decided to buy it, too.”

  • “I didn’t buy everything on my shopping list today. I couldn’t find a couple of the items in the store, even though I looked all over for them.”

  • “The store sent me a coupon for a new brand of soup, so I came here to find out what kinds of soup that brand offers. I decided to buy a few cans because I had the coupon.”

  • “This store is larger than one that’s closer to where I live, and it carries more products. I came here to buy some things that the other store doesn’t always have.”

ID: f2b3b53b Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it best supports the researchers’ explanation of the results of rearranging a store’s layout. According to the text, Sam K. Hui and colleagues found that rearranging a store’s layout can encourage customers to make spontaneous purchases. The text states that the researchers explain that a change in layout causes shoppers to hunt for items’ new locations, which exposes the shoppers to more products and increases the likelihood that they’ll make an unplanned purchase. This quotation from a surveyed shopper indicates that the shopper spontaneously purchased a notebook while looking for cleaning supplies that weren’t in their usual place. The quotation therefore supports the researchers’ explanation that rearranging a store’s layout can lead shoppers to make unanticipated purchases.

Choice B is incorrect because it doesn’t support the researchers’ explanation that rearranging a store’s layout can lead shoppers to make unanticipated purchases. Instead of attributing an unplanned purchase to a change in layout, the quotation notes that the shopper searched for but couldn’t find some items, and as a result the shopper purchased less, not more, than what was anticipated. Choice C is incorrect because the quotation attributes what was purchased to coupons that the shopper received, not to a new store layout. Thus, the quotation doesn’t support the researchers’ explanation that rearranging a store’s layout can lead shoppers to make unanticipated purchases. Choice D is incorrect because the quotation attributes what was purchased to the size and stock of the store, not to a new store layout. The shopper simply purchased products that the shopper wanted in a particular store because other stores didn’t carry those products, so the quotation doesn’t support the researchers’ explanation that rearranging a store’s layout can lead shoppers to make spontaneous purchases.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 44da37eb

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 44da37eb

The variety of species with adaptations to produce toxins is matched by the variety of uses of those toxins: northern stargazers, for example, use toxins for defense, whereas tiger snakes use toxins for predation and skeleton shrimp use toxins for intraspecific competition. In fact, a species may have adaptations enabling it to produce a toxin with multiple uses. Finding that the venom used by the Panamanian scorpion Centruroides granosus to subdue prey also inhibits growth of the pathogenic bacteria Escherichia coli, Dumas Gálvez and colleagues conclude that the particular form of venom production observed in C. granosus may have propagated through the species because it mitigates risk during feeding in addition to enhancing predation success.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support Gálvez and colleagues’ conclusion?

  • E. coli does not appear to be virulent for C. granosus even when transmitted from prey captured without the use of venom.  

  • E. coli is frequently found in species preyed on by C. granosus and can survive exposure to the digestive juices of C. granosus. 

  • C. granosus appears to be chemically sensitive to prey infected with E. coli and tends to favor uninfected individuals.

  • Exposure to C. granosus venom also inhibits the growth of nonpathogenic bacteria species common in the native environment of C. granosus.

ID: 44da37eb Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly support Dumas Gálvez and colleagues’ conclusion that the venom produced by the scorpion species Centruroides granosus helps mitigate, or reduce, risk during feeding in addition to enhancing predation success. According to the text, Gálvez and colleagues found that the venom used by C. granosus both subdues prey and inhibits the growth of Escherichia coli, a pathogen that, if ingested by C. granosus, would presumably cause disease unless neutralized in some way. If it were true that E. coli is commonly found in species preyed on by C. granosus and, moreover, can withstand C. granosus’s digestive juices after ingestion, this would suggest that C. granosus likely relies on another mechanism to neutralize E. coli to make E. coli-infected prey safe for consumption by the scorpion species. Given that, as the text states, C. granosus’s venom was found to inhibit the pathogen’s growth, it therefore follows that the venom provides protection for C. granosus against E. coli that its digestive system wouldn’t otherwise provide, making it reasonable to conclude that the trait may have spread through the species because it mitigates risk during feeding.

Choice A is incorrect because a finding that E. coli doesn’t appear to be virulent, or dangerous, for C. granosus even when venom isn’t used would weaken rather than strengthen Gálvez and colleagues’ conclusion that a particular form of venom production spread in C. granosus in part because it helps reduce risk during feeing, since this finding would suggest that E. coli isn’t actually a risk to C. granosus when consuming prey. Choice C is incorrect because a finding that C. granosus can detect and avoid consuming E. coli-infected prey in the first place would suggest that an ability other than venom production is the primary factor that reduces C. granosus’s risk when feeding, which would suggest there has been less evolutionary pressure to develop venom that provides protection; thus, this finding wouldn’t clearly support the conclusion that C. granosus’s form of venom production spread in the species in part because it helps reduce risk during feeding. Choice D is incorrect because Gálvez and colleagues’ conclusion focuses on C. granosus venom in relation to the risk of E. coli, and a finding that the venom also inhibits nonpathogenic (not disease-causing) bacteria species, which presumably don’t pose a risk if consumed, wouldn’t be relevant to the conclusion that C. granosus’s particular form of venom production spread in the species in part because it helps reduce risk during feeding.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 5432d1de

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 5432d1de

It’s common for jazz musicians and fans to refer to certain songs as having “swing,” indicating that the songs provoke a strong feeling, like the impulse to tap one’s foot or dance. The exact acoustic properties that give a song swing, however, have long been thought to be undefinable. To investigate swing, a team led by physicist Corentin Nelias delayed the downbeats and synchronized the offbeats in jazz piano solos and asked jazz musicians to compare the intensity of swing in each modified piece with the intensity of swing in the original piece. They found that participants were more than seven times likelier to characterize the modified songs as having swing than to characterize the original versions as having swing, suggesting that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • synchronized offbeats tend to give a song swing regardless of whether downbeats are delayed.

  • the acoustic properties that give a song swing are not easy for jazz musicians to manipulate.

  • jazz songs that feature the piano are more likely to have swing than are jazz songs that do not feature the piano.

  • the timing of downbeats and offbeats may play a crucial role in giving a song swing. 

ID: 5432d1de Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The passage tells us that participants were “more than seven times likelier to characterize the modified songs as having swing than to characterize the original versions as having swing.” Because the modified songs had been changed by altering the timing of the downbeats and offbeats, this suggests that the timing of downbeats and offbeats may play a crucial role in giving a song swing.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the passage mentions that the researchers “synchronized the offbeats” in the modified songs, they also “delayed the downbeats” in those songs. Because we can’t disentangle whether it was the synchronized offbeats, the delayed downbeats, or the combination of both that increased the song’s swing, we don’t have enough information to make this inference. Choice B is incorrect. The passage doesn’t mention whether or not it’s difficult for a jazz musician to give a song swing, so there’s no basis for this inference. Choice C is incorrect. The passage doesn’t compare jazz songs that feature piano to those that don’t, so there’s no basis for this inference.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 4e9afd7a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 4e9afd7a

The Indus River valley civilization flourished in South Asia from 3300 BCE to 1300 BCE. Many examples of the civilization’s writing system exist, but researchers haven’t yet deciphered it or identified which ancient language it represents. Nevertheless, archaeologists have found historical artifacts, such as clay figures and jewelry, that provide information about the civilization’s customs and how its communities were organized. The archaeologists’ findings therefore suggest that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • investigating an ancient civilization is easier without knowledge of the civilization’s language.

  • knowing an ancient civilization’s language isn’t necessary in order to learn details about the civilization.

  • archaeological research should focus on finding additional artifacts rather than deciphering ancient languages.

  • examining the civilization’s historical artifacts has resolved the debate about this civilization’s language.

ID: 4e9afd7a Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the Indus River valley civilization. The text establishes that archaeologists haven’t been able to interpret the Indus River valley civilization’s writing system but have nevertheless acquired information about the civilization through historical artifacts. The fact that archaeologists have been able to learn about the Indus River valley civilization’s customs and community organization from historical artifacts suggests that it isn’t necessary to understand an ancient civilization’s language to learn about the civilization.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss how easy it is to investigate ancient civilizations with or without knowledge of the civilization’s language; rather, it states that even though researchers have not yet deciphered the language of the Indus River valley civilization, they are still able to learn about it through historical artifacts. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t make any claims as to what the focus of archaeological research should be. Rather, the text discusses how archaeologists have been able to learn about an ancient civilization through historical artifacts despite not understanding the civilization’s language. Choice D is incorrect because the text states that the civilization’s language has not yet been interpreted; it makes no mention of a debate about the language. Instead, the text suggests that examination of the historical artifacts has allowed archaeologists to learn about the civilization but has not aided thus far in deciphering its language. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 3882ddf6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 3882ddf6

To investigate the history of plate subduction—when one of Earth’s tectonic plates slides beneath another—Sarah M. Aarons and colleagues compared ancient rocks from the Acasta Gneiss Complex in Canada to modern rocks. Using isotope analysis, the researchers found that Acasta rocks dating to about 4.02 billion years ago (bya) most strongly resemble modern rocks formed in a plume setting (an area in which hot rocks from Earth’s mantle flow upward into the crust). By contrast, they found that Acasta rocks dating to about 3.75 bya and 3.6 bya have an isotope composition that is similar to that of modern rocks formed in a subduction setting. Aarons’s team therefore concluded that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • subduction-like processes began occurring in some locations no later than 3.75 bya.

  • subduction replaced mantle plume formation as the most common geological process by about 4.02 bya.

  • the majority of the rocks in the Acasta Gneiss Complex formed through subduction.

  • the rocks in the Acasta Gneiss Complex are of a more recent origin than scientists previously thought.

ID: 3882ddf6 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. Because researchers found “Acasta rocks dating to about 3.75 bya” were similar to “modern rocks formed in a subduction setting,” we can infer that subduction-like processes must have begun occurring in the Acasta Gneiss Complex by this time.

Choice B is incorrect. We only know about geological processes at the Acasta Gneiss Complex, so we do not have information to make inferences about geological processes in general. Also, notice that the rocks dated to 4.02 bya were found to still be formed in a plume setting, so the transition must have happened after this time. Choice C is incorrect. There’s no mention in the passage of what proportion of the rocks within Acasta Gneiss Complex were formed through subduction, so there’s no basis for this inference. Choice D is incorrect. The passage discusses various rocks in the Acasta Gneiss Complex that are dated to different periods of time, but nothing in the passage suggests that these dates are or were wrong.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 626a1308

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 626a1308

Data Sources for Neptune Temperature Analysis

Instrument Observatory Data type Observation years
TEXES (Texas Echelon Cross Echelle Spectrograph) Gemini Observatory spectroscopy 2007, 2019
T-ReCS (Thermal-Region Camera Spectrograph) Gemini Observatory infrared imaging 2007, 2010
LWS (Long Wavelength Spectrometer) Keck Observatory infrared imaging 2003
VISIR (VLT Imager and Spectrometer for mid-InfraRed) European Southern Observatory spectroscopy 2006

Julianne I. Moses and colleagues have reported that Neptune may have cooled significantly between 2003 and 2020. The team reached this conclusion by analyzing existing infrared imaging and spectroscopy data about the planet obtained from various instruments in different years. Of the team’s sources listed in the table, the earliest example of spectroscopy data included in the analysis was obtained in blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the text?

  • 2007 using TEXES at the Gemini Observatory.

  • 2007 using T-ReCS at the Gemini Observatory.

  • 2006 using VISIR at the European Southern Observatory.

  • 2003 using LWS at the W.M. Keck Observatory.

ID: 626a1308 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it effectively completes the text’s discussion of Moses and colleagues’ analysis of changes in Neptune’s temperature by using data from the table to identify the source of the earliest example of spectroscopy data included in this analysis. The text indicates that Moses and colleagues analyzed infrared imaging and spectroscopy data about Neptune obtained in different years by various instruments. The table lists the observatories where these instruments are housed, the type of data each instrument collected (infrared imaging or spectroscopy), and the years in which the instruments’ observations were made. According to the table, only two of these instruments obtained spectroscopy data: VISIR at the European Southern Observatory, which made its observations in 2006, and TEXES at the Gemini Observatory, which made its observations in later years (2007 and 2019). Although two other instruments are also included in the table, they obtained infrared imaging data, not spectroscopy data. Therefore, the earliest example of spectroscopy data included in the researchers’ analysis is the data obtained by VISIR at the European Southern Observatory in 2006.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the table indicates that TEXES at the Gemini Observatory collected spectroscopy data in 2007 and 2019, the table also indicates that this type of data was collected in 2006 by VISIR at the European Southern Observatory. Because the VISIR data were collected in the previous year, the data obtained in 2007 by TEXES are not the earliest example of spectroscopy data included in Moses and team’s analysis of Neptune’s temperature. Choice B is incorrect because the table indicates that T-ReCS at the Gemini Observatory collected infrared imaging data, not spectroscopy data. T-ReCS therefore cannot be the source of the earliest example of spectroscopy data that is included in Moses and colleagues’ analysis of Neptune’s temperature. Additionally, the T-ReCS data were collected in 2007, meaning that these data were obtained later than any type of data collected in 2006. Choice D is incorrect. Although the table indicates that data from LWS at the W.M. Keck Observatory were obtained in 2003, making these data the earliest example of any type of data included in the analysis, the table also indicates that LWS collected infrared imaging data, not spectroscopy data. LWS therefore cannot be the source of the earliest example of spectroscopy data included in Moses and team’s analysis of Neptune’s temperature.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 3233c162

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 3233c162
100 90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0Manganese to calcium ratio(micromoles per mole) 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20Ratio of Manganese to Calcium in Samplesfrom Alboran Sea and Mauritanian CoastApproximate years before present(in thousands) Alboran Sea Mauritanian coast
  • The following 2 lines are shown:
    • Alboran Sea
    • Mauritanian coast
  • The Alboran Sea line:
    • Begins at 2 thousand, 63.2 micromoles per mole
    • Rises sharply to 4 thousand, 99.5 micromoles per mole
    • Falls sharply to 6 thousand, 68.4 micromoles per mole
    • Rises sharply to 8 thousand, 83.2 micromoles per mole
    • Falls sharply to 10 thousand, 32.5 micromoles per mole
    • Rises sharply to 12 thousand, 57.9 micromoles per mole
    • Falls gradually to 14 thousand, 55.7 micromoles per mole
    • Rises gradually to 16 thousand, 64 micromoles per mole
    • Falls sharply to 18 thousand, 51.6 micromoles per mole
    • Falls sharply to 20 thousand, 41.6 micromoles per mole
  • The Mauritanian coast line:
    • Begins at 2 thousand, 12 micromoles per mole
    • Rises gradually to 4 thousand, 15.4 micromoles per mole
    • Falls gradually to 6 thousand, 14 micromoles per mole
    • Falls gradually to 8 thousand, 13.3 micromoles per mole
    • Rises gradually to 10 thousand, 16.5 micromoles per mole
    • Falls gradually to 12 thousand, 15.8 micromoles per mole
    • Rises gradually to 14 thousand, 19.1 micromoles per mole
    • Falls gradually to 16 thousand, 13.2 micromoles per mole
    • Rises gradually to 18 thousand, 14.7 micromoles per mole
    • Falls gradually to 20 thousand, 12.2 micromoles per mole

The population of the coral Lophelia pertusa declined significantly around 9,000 years ago in the Alboran Sea and around 11,000 years ago near the Mauritanian coast. Using the ratio of manganese to calcium, which inversely correlates with ocean oxygenation levels, marine scientist Rodrigo da Costa Portilho-Ramos and colleagues evaluated whether oxygenation played a role in the declines of L. pertusa. The researchers concluded that oxygenation may have been important in the Alboran Sea but not near the Mauritanian coast, since blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the statement?

  • a substantial increase in oxygenation in the Alboran Sea corresponded with the local decline in L. pertusa, but the opposite relationship between oxygenation and L. pertusa was found near the Mauritanian coast.

  • L. pertusa declined in the Alboran Sea during a period of substantial local decline in oxygenation, but L. pertusa declined near the Mauritanian coast during a period of little local change in oxygenation. 

  • oxygenation in the Alboran Sea was higher before the decline in L. pertusa than after the decline, whereas oxygenation near the Mauritanian coast was relatively low both before and after the decline in L. pertusa.

  • oxygenation in the Alboran Sea tended to be substantially higher than oxygenation near the Mauritanian coast during the period studied. 

ID: 3233c162 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it effectively uses data from the graph to complete the statement about Rodrigo da Costa Portilho-Ramos and colleagues’ conclusion. The graph shows the ratio of manganese to calcium in L. pertusa coral samples from the Alboran Sea and the Mauritanian coast. The graph reflects time in approximate years before present: in other words, the greater the number in years noted on the graph’s horizontal axis, the farther that moment is in the past. The text indicates that the researchers tested the samples to determine whether oxygenation played a role in the decline of L. pertusa. The text goes on to note that a change in the ratio of manganese to calcium would signal an inverse, or opposite, change in oxygenation. According to the graph, the ratio of manganese to calcium in samples from the Alboran Sea increased from about 30 micromoles per mole 10,000 years ago to about 80 micromoles per mole 8,000 years ago, which means that oxygenation decreased between 10,000 and 8,000 years ago. Meanwhile, there was almost no discernible change in the ratio of manganese to calcium in samples from the Mauritanian coast between 12,000 and 10,000 years ago. According to the text, the population of L. pertusa declined significantly around 9,000 years ago in the Alboran Sea and around 11,000 years ago near the Mauritanian coast. Thus, the increase in the ratio of manganese to calcium around 9,000 years ago in the Alboran Sea coincides with the decline in the L. pertusa population, suggesting an association between the decrease in oxygenation and the decline in population of the coral. No such relationship is suggested around 11,000 years ago near the Mauritanian coast. So, oxygenation likely played a role in the L. pertusa decline in the Alboran Sea but not in the coral’s decline near the Mauritanian coast.

Choice A is incorrect because it asserts the opposite of what the graph indicates regarding oxygenation in the Alboran Sea, and it misrepresents what the graph indicates about oxygenation near the Mauritanian coast. The graph indicates that at the time of the decline in L. pertusa (approximately 9,000 years ago), the samples from the Alboran Sea contained a ratio of manganese to calcium that was increasing. According to the text, this ratio inversely correlates with ocean oxygenation levels, so if the ratio was increasing, oxygenation was decreasing, not substantially increasing. Furthermore, the graph shows that the ratio of manganese to calcium remained relatively stable in coral samples from the Mauritanian coast during the period studied, which suggests that there was no discernible relationship between oxygenation and the coral’s population decline in that location, not that there was a substantial decrease in oxygenation corresponding to the coral’s decline. Choice C is incorrect. Although the graph suggests that the level of oxygenation in the Alboran Sea was higher before the decline in L. pertusa than after—because the ratio of manganese to calcium inversely correlates with ocean oxygenation levels and this ratio was lower before the decline than after—the graph doesn’t support the claim that oxygenation near the Mauritanian coast was consistently low before and after the coral’s decline there. Rather, the graph indicates that relative to coral samples from the Alboran Sea, the ratio of manganese to calcium in samples from near the Mauritanian coast was consistently low, which suggests that oxygenation levels were relatively high both before and after the decline of L. pertusa. Choice D is incorrect because it states the opposite of what the graph indicates: the graph shows that throughout the period studied, the ratio of manganese to calcium was higher in coral samples from the Alboran Sea than it was in samples from near the Mauritanian coast. Since the text indicates that the ratio of manganese to calcium inversely correlates with ocean oxygenation levels, oxygenation in the Alboran Sea was therefore lower than, not higher than, oxygenation near the Mauritanian coast during the period studied. Moreover, even if choice D did accurately represent the graph, it wouldn’t effectively complete the statement since a comparison of the ocean oxygenation levels at the two locations is not relevant to the claim that a decline in oxygenation levels was associated with the decline of L. pertusa in the Alboran Sea but not near the Mauritanian coast.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID d74b9bc6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: d74b9bc6
200 160 120 80 40 0Days 1980–81 2005–06Days per Winter That Lakes HaveSurface IceWinter Oulujärvi Mirror Lake Lake Neusiedl
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • Oulujärvi
    • Mirror Lake
    • Lake Neusiedl
  • The data for the 2 categories are as follows:
    • 1980–81:
      • Oulujärvi: 194 days
      • Mirror Lake: 122 days
      • Lake Neusiedl: 77 days
    • 2005–06:
      • Oulujärvi: 155 days
      • Mirror Lake: 119 days 
      • Lake Neusiedl: 104 days

It is common for freshwater lakes near or above a latitude of 45° north of the equator, like Lake Mjøsa in Norway, to accumulate surface ice in winter.  The amount and duration of ice depends on many factors, including local weather conditions as well as the lake’s depth, volume, and surface area, but a climate researcher claims that some lakes in these latitudes have seen a decline in the duration of ice between the early 1980s and the mid-2000s.  She cites as a typical example blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the researcher’s example?

  • both Lake Neusiedl and Oulujärvi, which had fewer than 195 days of ice in the winter of 1980–81.

  • Lake Neusiedl, which had more days of ice in the winter of 2005–06 than it did in the winter of 1980–81.

  • Oulujärvi, which had fewer days of ice in the winter of 2005–06 than it did in the winter of 1980–81.

  • both Lake Neusiedl and Oulujärvi, which had more than 105 days of ice in the winter of 2005–06.

ID: d74b9bc6 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the graph to exemplify the researcher’s claim—namely, that the duration of ice on some lakes has declined between the early 1980s and the mid-2000s. According to the graph, Oulujärvi had surface ice for nearly 200 days in the winter of 1980–81 but only about 160 days of ice in the more recent winter of 2005–06, evidence of a clear decline in the duration of surface ice between these time periods.

Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on only one period of time (the early 1980s). Thus, the data it cites don’t support the researcher’s claim, which compares the duration of surface ice across two specific periods of time (the early 1980s and the mid-2000s). Choice B is incorrect because although it accurately describes data from the graph, it contradicts the researcher’s claim about declining surface ice duration. It describes an increase, not a decline, in the duration of surface ice on Lake Neusiedl between the early 1980s and the mid-2000s (from about 80 days in 1980–81 to about 100 days in 2005–06). Therefore, the example of Lake Neusiedl wouldn’t logically support the claim that some lakes have seen a decline in the duration of surface ice. Choice D is incorrect because it provides information that doesn’t support the researcher’s claim about declining ice duration. The graph could indicate that both Lake Neusiedl and Oulujärvi had more than 105 days of ice in the winter of 2005–06, but on its own, this information doesn’t demonstrate a decline in ice duration between the early 1980s and the mid-2000s.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 7f0be746

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 7f0be746

The following text is from Milan Kundera’s 1984 novel The Unbearable Lightness of Being (translated by Michael Henry Heim in 1984). Karenin is a dog that belongs to Tomas and Tereza.

Karenin was not overjoyed by the move to Switzerland [from Prague]. Karenin hated change. Dog time cannot be plotted along a straight line; it does not move on and on, from one thing to the next. It moves in a circle like the hands of a clock, which—they, too, unwilling to dash madly ahead—turn round and round the face, day in and day out following the same path. In Prague, when Tomas and Tereza bought a new chair or moved a flower pot, Karenin would look on in displeasure. It disturbed his sense of time. It was as though they were trying to dupe the hands of the clock by changing the numbers on its face.

©1984 by Milan Kundera. Translation ©1984 by Harper & Row, Publishers, Inc.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • As a dog, Karenin possesses a sense of time that involves a strong preference for predictability and an aversion to disruption.

  • After he’s moved to a new home, Karenin’s negative response to changes has become more pronounced.

  • Similar to Tomas and Tereza, Karenin comprehends time as circular rather than as a straightforward progression.

  • As is the case for other dogs, Karenin’s sense of time seems to accelerate depending on the objects and places that surround him.

ID: 7f0be746 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text begins by stating that Tomas and Tereza’s dog Karenin felt disrupted by a recent move because of his dislike of change. The text then goes on to suggest that this is because the way a dog experiences time differs from the way humans experience time: time for a dog doesn’t move linearly, going "on and on, from one thing to the next," but instead moves circularly, "like the hands of a clock." That is, time for a dog is experienced as a cyclical pattern characterized by routine and predictability, with each day "following the same path." The text then concludes by providing examples of seemingly insignificant changes in routine that profoundly "disturbed [Karenin’s] sense of time," causing him to feel displeasure. Thus, the main idea of the text is that Karenin’s sense of time as a dog involves a strong preference for predictability and an aversion to disruption.

Choice B is incorrect. Although the text emphasizes Karenin’s displeasure with the recent move to a new home, it doesn’t suggest that the move has made his negative responses more pronounced than they once were. Rather, in accounting for Karenin’s displeasure with the move to Switzerland, the text explains that Karenin generally has a negative response to any kind of change. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that Karenin comprehends time similarly to how Tomas and Tereza comprehend it. On the contrary, the text strongly implies a contrast between dogs’ circular experience of time with the way humans experience time as a straightforward progression that can be "plotted on a straight line." Choice D is incorrect because the text provides no indication that a change in the places and objects surrounding Karenin causes him to feel as though time is accelerating. Although the text does use the language of "dash[ing] madly ahead" in relation to time, the phrase appears in the context of a comparison illustrating how dogs experience time: time for a dog moves just as the hands of a clock do, in a circle and "unwilling to dash madly ahead"—that is, always in a regular and predictable way.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID a44bbd6b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: a44bbd6b

Several studies of sediment (e.g., dirt, pieces of rock, etc.) in streams have shown an inverse correlation between sediment grain size and downstream distance from the primary sediment source, suggesting that stream length has a sorting effect on sediment. In a study of sediment sampled at more than a dozen sites in Alpine streams, however, geologists Camille Litty and Fritz Schlunegger found that cross-site variations in grain size were not associated with differences in downstream distance, though they did not conclude that downstream distance is irrelevant to grain size. Rather, they concluded that sediment influx in these streams may have been sufficiently spatially diffuse to prevent the typical sorting effect from being observed.

Which finding about the streams in the study, if true, would most directly support Litty and Schlunegger’s conclusion?

  • The streams regularly experience portions of their banks collapsing into the water at multiple points upstream of the sampling sites. 

  • The streams contain several types of sediment that are not typically found in streams where the sorting effect has been demonstrated.

  • The streams mostly originate from the same source, but their lengths vary considerably due to the different courses they take.

  • The streams are fed by multiple tributaries that carry significant volumes of sediment and that enter the streams downstream of the sampling sites. 

ID: a44bbd6b Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. This finding would support the conclusion. If stream banks are collapsing into the water at multiple points, then sediment is getting into the water at those various points. This supports the conclusion that the inflow of sediment is very spread out.

Choice B is incorrect. This finding wouldn’t support the conclusion. The conclusion is about the influx of sediment being “spatially diffuse,” meaning spread out over a large area. The type of sediment wouldn’t have an impact on the conclusions. Choice C is incorrect. This finding wouldn’t support the conclusion. It doesn’t say anything about the influx of sediment being “spatially diffuse” (spread out). Choice D is incorrect. This finding wouldn’t support the conclusion. Any sediment that enters downstream of the sampling sites wouldn’t end up in the samples, so it wouldn’t affect the findings or the conclusion.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID a2b0fc3b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: a2b0fc3b
100 90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0Percent of populationliving in cities 1970 1980 1990 2000 2010 2020Urban Population of Algeria, France, Japan, and NigeriaYear Algeria France Japan Nigeria
  • The following 4 lines are shown: 
    • Algeria
    • France
    • Japan
    • Nigeria
  • The Algeria line: 
    • Begins at 1970, 39.5 percent
    • Rises gradually to 1980, 43.54 percent 
    • Rises sharply to 1990, 52.09 percent
    • Rises gradually to 2000, 59.92 percent
    • Rises gradually to 2010, 67.54 percent
    • Rises gradually to 2020, 73.73 percent
  • The France line: 
    • Begins at 1970, 71.06 percent
    • Rises gradually to 1980, 73.28 percent 
    • Rises gradually to 1990, 74.06 percent
    • Rises gradually to 2000, 75.87 percent
    • Rises gradually to 2010, 78.37 percent
    • Rises gradually to 2020, 79 percent
  • The Japan line: 
    • Begins at 1970, 76.88 percent
    • Rises gradually to 1980, 80.17 percent 
    • Rises gradually to 1990, 84.34 percent
    • Rises gradually to 2000, 87.65 percent
    • Rises gradually to 2010, 90.81 percent
    • Rises gradually to 2020, 91.5 percent
  • The Nigeria line: 
    • Begins at 1970, 17.76 percent
    • Rises gradually to 1980, 21.97 percent 
    • Rises gradually to 1990, 29.68 percent
    • Rises gradually to 2000, 34.84 percent
    • Rises sharply to 2010, 43.48 percent
    • Rises sharply to 2020, 51.96 percent

The share of the world’s population living in cities has increased dramatically since 1970, but this change has not been uniform. France and Japan, for example, were already heavily urbanized in 1970, with 70% or more of the population living in cities. The main contributors to the world’s urbanization since 1970 have been countries like Algeria, whose population went from blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the assertion?

  • around 50% urban in 1970 to around 90% urban in 2020. 

  • less than 40% urban in 1970 to around 90% urban in 2020. 

  • less than 20% urban in 1970 to more than 50% urban in 2020. 

  • around 40% urban in 1970 to more than 70% urban in 2020.

ID: a2b0fc3b Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. This choice effectively uses data from the graph to complete the example. The line representing the percent of Algeria’s population living in cities is the black triangle line. According to the graph, it started at 40% in 1970 and reached 70% in 2020. 

Choice A is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. The line representing the percent of Algeria’s population living in cities is the black triangle line. According to the graph, it started at 40% in 1970 and reached 70% in 2020. Choice B is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. The line representing the percent of Algeria’s population living in cities is the black triangle line. According to the graph, it started at 40% in 1970 and reached 70% in 2020. Choice C is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. The line representing the percent of Algeria’s population living in cities is the black triangle line. According to the graph, it started at 40% in 1970 and reached 70% in 2020. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 89961e26

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 89961e26

Artist Justin Favela explained that he wanted to reclaim the importance of the piñata as a symbol in Latinx culture. To do so, he created numerous sculptures from strips of tissue paper, which is similar to the material used to create piñatas. In 2017, Favela created an impressive life-size piñata-like sculpture of the Gypsy Rose lowrider car, which was displayed at the Petersen Automotive Museum in Los Angeles, California. The Gypsy Rose lowrider was famously driven by Jesse Valadez, an early president of the Los Angeles Imperials Car Club.

According to the text, which piece of Favela’s art was on display in the Petersen Automotive Museum in 2017?

  • A painting of Los Angeles

  • A sculpture of a lowrider car

  • A painting of a piñata

  • A sculpture of Jesse Valadez

ID: 89961e26 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The text describes Favela’s approach to sculpture, and then describes the lowrider car that he depicted in 2017.

Choice A is incorrect. This isn’t what the text says. The Petersen Automotive Museum is located in Los Angeles, but Favela’s artwork isn’t a painting, and it doesn’t depict L.A. Choice C is incorrect. This isn’t what the text says. Favela makes sculptures similar to piñatas, not paintings of them. Choice D is incorrect. This isn’t what the text says. Jesse Valadez owned the lowrider car that Favela depicted in sculpture.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 2584bcfb

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 2584bcfb

Matthew D. Rocklage and team examined whether consumer ratings of movies can predict box office success. The team considered both numeric star ratings and written reviews in their research. To analyze the written reviews, the team measured the emotionality—the degree to which a written review expresses an emotional reaction—of user reviews on a movie rating website, assigning each review an emotionality score. After reviewing this research, a student argues that the emotionality of movie reviews is unrelated to a movie’s success at the box office.

Which finding, if true, would most directly weaken the student’s conclusion?

  • Movies that had the highest average emotionality scores received the lowest average star ratings on the movie rating website. 

  • The average emotionality score of a movie’s reviews was a positive predictor of that movie’s box office earnings. 

  • More than half of the movies that the team examined received an average star rating of 3 out of 5 stars.

  • The movies that were most successful at the box office tended to have high average star ratings.

ID: 2584bcfb Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. This choice weakens the student’s conclusion by suggesting that the emotionality of movie reviews is related to box office success: the higher the emotionality score, the better the movie performs at the box office.

Choice A is incorrect. While this choice does mention emotionality scores, it only connects them to star ratings, not to box office success. Choice C is incorrect. The fact that many movies received an average star rating doesn’t tell us anything about the relationship between emotionality and box office success. Choice D is incorrect. While this choice suggests that star ratings can predict box office success, it doesn’t address the issue of emotionality in written reviews, which is the focus of the student’s conclusion.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID d5da74be

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: d5da74be
250 200 150 100 50 0Acid level (nanograms per gram of dry weight) jasmonic acid salicylic acidJasmonic and Salicylic Acid Levels in Tomato Plants control plants plants exposed to air from, whitefly-free plants and then, infested plants exposed to air from, whitefly-infested plants and then, infested
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • control plants
    • plants exposed to air from whitefly-free plants and then infested
    • plants exposed to air from whitefly-infested plants and then infested
  • The Acid level data for the 2 categories are as follows:
    • jasmonic acid:
      • control plants: 140
      • plants exposed to air from whitefly-free plants and then infested: 205
      • plants exposed to air from whitefly-infested plants and then infested: 100 
    • salicylic acid:
      • control plants: 120
      • plants exposed to air from whitefly-free plants and then infested: 130
      • plants exposed to air from whitefly-infested plants and then infested: 175 

In tomato plants, herbivory induces defensive production of jasmonic acid, while microbial infection induces defensive production of salicylic acid; plants also emit airborne chemicals to initiate the appropriate defense in nearby tomato plants. Researchers investigated the poor resistance tomato plants show to whitefly herbivory by exposing some plants to airborne chemicals from whitefly-free plants and others to airborne chemicals from whitefly-infested plants, then infesting both groups of plants with whiteflies. The researchers concluded that whiteflies induce tomato plants to emit chemicals that cause other tomato plants to preferentially defend against microbial infection even when under herbivorous attack.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that support the researchers’ conclusion?

  • When plants exposed to air from whitefly-free plants were infested, they produced more jasmonic acid than did control plants, whereas when plants exposed to air from whitefly-infested plants were infested, they produced less jasmonic acid and more salicylic acid than did control plants. 

  • When plants exposed to air from whitefly-infested plants were infested, they produced less jasmonic acid than salicylic acid, whereas when plants exposed to air from whitefly-free plants were infested, they produced about the same amount of jasmonic acid and salicylic acid.

  • When plants exposed to air from whitefly-free plants were infested, they produced both jasmonic acid and salicylic acid, whereas when plants exposed to air from whitefly-infested plants were infested, they exclusively produced salicylic acid. 

  • When plants exposed to air from whitefly-infested plants were infested, they produced less jasmonic acid than did control plants, whereas when plants exposed to air from whitefly-free plants were infested, they produced more jasmonic acid and salicylic acid than did control plants.

ID: d5da74be Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it best describes data from the graph that support the researchers’ conclusion about whitefly-induced defenses in tomato plants. According to the text, tomato plants produce airborne chemicals that prompt nearby tomato plants to increase their production of appropriate defensive chemicals, such as jasmonic acid in response to herbivory and salicylic acid in response to microbial infection. The text goes on to indicate that researchers concluded that whiteflies induce tomato plants to emit chemicals that cause nearby plants to defend against microbial infection instead of herbivory from whiteflies. The graph shows that control tomato plants (plants that weren’t exposed to any chemicals from nearby tomato plants and weren’t subsequently infested with whiteflies) produced about 140 nanograms of jasmonic acid per gram of dry weight and about 120 nanograms of salicylic acid per gram of dry weight, which indicates the baseline levels of these defensive chemicals in tomato plants. The graph also shows that plants exposed to air from whitefly-free plants produced about 205 nanograms of jasmonic acid per gram of dry weight when subsequently infested by whiteflies, which is more than the amount produced by the control plants. This suggests that when infested with whiteflies, tomato plants that weren’t previously exposed to air from nearby whitefly-infested plants begin producing higher levels of jasmonic acid to defend against the infestation. Finally, the graph also shows that plants exposed to air from whitefly-infested plants and then subsequently infested by whiteflies produced approximately 100 nanograms of jasmonic acid per gram of dry weight (which is less than control plants did) and approximately 175 nanograms of salicylic acid per gram of dry weight (which is more than control plants did). This suggests that whiteflies cause tomato plants to emit chemical signals that decrease nearby plants’ defenses against whitefly herbivory relative to baseline levels and redirect their defenses toward microbial infection, thereby supporting the researchers’ conclusion that whiteflies cause tomato plants to emit airborne chemical signals that induce nearby plants to preferentially defend against microbes even when experiencing herbivory from whiteflies.

Choice B is incorrect. Although the graph shows that tomato plants exposed to whitefly-infested plants produced less jasmonic acid than salicylic acid (about 100 nanograms of jasmonic acid per gram of dry weight vs. about 175 nanograms of salicylic acid per gram of dry weight), and although this might suggest that those plants are therefore better defended against microbial attack than against herbivory, this wouldn’t be sufficient to conclude that this is the case: without reference to the relative levels of defensive chemicals produced by the plants in the other experimental conditions, it would be impossible to conclude that exposure to air from whitefly-infested plants either induces or diminishes these plants’ defenses to different kinds of threats. Furthermore, the graph shows that plants exposed to air from whitefly-free plants produced about 205 nanograms of jasmonic acid per gram of dry weight and about 130 nanograms of salicylic acid per gram of dry weight, not that they produced the same amount of the two acids. Choice C is incorrect because it inaccurately describes the data in the graph. The graph shows that plants in all three conditions produced both jasmonic and salicylic acid, not that plants exposed to air from whitefly-infested plants produce no jasmonic acid at all. Choice D is incorrect. Although the graph shows that plants exposed to air from whitefly-infested plants produced about 100 nanograms of jasmonic acid per gram of dry weight when infested, which is less than the amount produced by control plants (about 140 nanograms per gram of dry weight), and although the graph shows that plants exposed to air from whitefly-free plants produced about 205 nanograms of jasmonic acid per gram of dry weight when infested (which is more than the amount produced by control plants) and about 130 nanograms of salicylic acid per gram of dry weight (which is more than the approximately 120 nanograms per gram of dry weight produced by control plants), this wouldn’t support the researchers’ conclusion that plants exposed to air from whitefly-infested plants preferentially defend against microbial infection—that is, that they increase their levels of salicylic acid and decrease their levels of jasmonic acid relative to control plants. Rather, the data would suggest that exposure to air from whitefly-infested plants reduces plants’ defenses against herbivory, but these data wouldn’t indicate that whiteflies induce plants to redirect their defenses to guard against microbial infection. Furthermore, the data concerning plants exposed to air from whitefly-free plants merely indicate that these plants increase their defenses against both herbivory and microbial infection when infested by whiteflies.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID a59245a1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: a59245a1

The painter María Izquierdo played an important role in the development of twentieth-century Mexican art, but her work has never been well-known in the United States except among art historians. One reason for Izquierdo’s relative obscurity is the enormous popularity of some of her peers. In particular, the painters Frida Kahlo and Diego Rivera have so captivated the interest of US audiences that Izquierdo and other Mexican artists from the period often get overlooked, despite the high quality of their work.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Izquierdo’s work is not as well-known in the United States as it should be because Kahlo and Rivera draw so much of the public’s attention.

  • During Izquierdo’s lifetime, her paintings were displayed in galleries in the United States much more frequently than paintings by Kahlo and Rivera were.

  • Izquierdo painted some of the same subjects that Kahlo and Rivera painted but used different techniques than they used. 

  • Few of Izquierdo’s works are in galleries today because she produced only a small number of paintings. 

ID: a59245a1 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text begins by stating that María Izquierdo was an important figure in the history of twentieth-century Mexican art, but despite her importance, her work hasn’t received widespread recognition in the United States. According to the text, one reason for this is that Frida Kahlo and Diego Rivera are so famous in the US that they overshadow other important Mexican artists, including Izquierdo. Thus, the main idea of the text is that Izquierdo’s work is less well known in the US than it should be because Kahlo and Rivera draw most of the public’s attention.

Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss the appearance of Izquierdo’s paintings in galleries in the US during her lifetime, nor does it suggest that her paintings were displayed more frequently than paintings by Kahlo or Rivera were. Instead, the text focuses on the fact that Izquierdo has been overlooked in the US because of Kahlo’s and Rivera’s greater popularity. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss either the subject matter of Izquierdo’s paintings or the techniques she used, nor does it compare these aspects of her paintings with those of Kahlo’s and Rivera’s paintings. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention how many of Izquierdo’s paintings appear in galleries today, nor does it state that she produced only a small number of paintings.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 628e1305

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 628e1305

“Valia” is a 1907 short story by Leonid Andreyev. In the story, the author emphasizes that the setting where the character Valia is reading is nearly silent: blank

Which quotation from “Valia” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “The hand in which he carried his book was getting stiff with cold, but he would not ask his mother to take the book from him.”

  • “Valia was reading a huge, very huge book, almost half as large as himself.”

  • “Valia approached the window and examined the toys.”

  • “Everything in the room was quiet, so quiet that the only thing to be heard was the rustling of the pages he turned.”

ID: 628e1305 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because this quotation most effectively illustrates the claim that the author emphasizes the near silence of the setting where the character Valia is reading. In the quotation, the author highlights the near silence of the setting by twice using the word “quiet” to describe the room. The author also calls attention to the fact that Valia is reading in a nearly silent setting by noting that the only sound to be heard is that of the pages being turned.

Choice A is incorrect because this quotation suggests that Valia is in a chilly setting that causes his hand to become cold, not that he’s in a nearly silent setting. Choice B is incorrect because this quotation emphasizes the size of the book Valia is reading, not a quality of the setting where he’s reading it. Choice C is incorrect because this quotation describes Valia approaching a window and looking at toys, not reading in a quiet setting.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 3f236877

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 3f236877

Ratified by more than 90 countries, the Nagoya Protocol is an international agreement ensuring that Indigenous communities are compensated when their agricultural resources and knowledge of wild plants and animals are utilized by agricultural corporations. However, the protocol has shortcomings. For example, it allows corporations to insist that their agreements with communities to conduct research on the commercial uses of the communities’ resources and knowledge remain confidential. Therefore, some Indigenous advocates express concern that the protocol may have the unintended effect of blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • diminishing the monetary reward that corporations might derive from their agreements with Indigenous communities.

  • limiting the research that corporations conduct on the resources of the Indigenous communities with which they have signed agreements.

  • preventing independent observers from determining whether the agreements guarantee equitable compensation for Indigenous communities.

  • discouraging Indigenous communities from learning new methods for harvesting plants and animals from their corporate partners.

ID: 3f236877 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the argument about an unintended effect of the Nagoya Protocol. The text explains that the Nagoya Protocol is an agreement ensuring that Indigenous communities are compensated when their agricultural resources and knowledge are used by corporations. The text then states that the protocol allows corporations to keep their agreements with Indigenous communities confidential, about which some Indigenous advocates express concern. Choice C, when inserted into the blank, gives a good justification for the advocates’ concern: such secrecy could mean that the public is unable to determine whether participating Indigenous communities were properly compensated under these agreements. 

Choice A is incorrect. The text suggests that because corporations can keep their agreements with Indigenous communities confidential, Indigenous communities, not corporations, might not be compensated fairly. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the ability of corporations to keep their agreements with Indigenous communities confidential would place limits on how much research corporations can undertake. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that Indigenous communities aim to learn new harvesting methods from their corporate partners. Rather, the text suggests that corporations use the knowledge of Indigenous communities for their research.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 5b74feb9

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 5b74feb9

Political scientists who favor the traditional view of voter behavior claim that voting in an election does not change a voter’s attitude toward the candidates in that election. Focusing on each US presidential election from 1976 to 1996, Ebonya Washington and Sendhil Mullainathan tested this claim by distinguishing between subjects who had just become old enough to vote (around half of whom actually voted) and otherwise similar subjects who were slightly too young to vote (and thus none of whom voted). Washington and Mullainathan compared the attitudes of the groups of subjects toward the winning candidate two years after each election.

Which finding from Washington and Mullainathan’s study, if true, would most directly weaken the claim made by people who favor the traditional view of voter behavior?

  • Subjects’ attitudes toward the winning candidate two years after a given election were strongly predicted by subjects’ general political orientation, regardless of whether subjects were old enough to vote at the time of the election.

  • Subjects who were not old enough to vote in a given election held significantly more positive attitudes towards the winning candidate two years later than they held at the time of the election.

  • Subjects who voted in a given election held significantly more polarized attitudes toward the winning candidate two years later than did subjects who were not old enough to vote in that election.

  • Two years after a given election, subjects who voted and subjects who were not old enough to vote were significantly more likely to express negative attitudes than positive attitudes toward the winning candidate in that election.

ID: 5b74feb9 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would weaken the claim made by people who favor the traditional view of voter behavior. According to the text, people who favor that view believe that voting in an election doesn’t change a voter’s attitude toward the candidates in that election. If Washington and Mullainathan found that two years after an election, attitudes toward the winning candidate were significantly more polarized among subjects who had voted than among subjects who had been too young to vote, that would suggest that the act of voting did have an effect on the voters’ attitudes toward the candidates, which would undermine the claim that voting doesn’t change voters’ attitudes.

Choice A is incorrect because a finding about links between subjects’ attitudes and general political orientation, regardless of age and ability to vote, wouldn’t address the presence or absence of changes in attitudes among those subjects who did actually vote. Therefore, the finding wouldn’t have any bearing on the claim that voting in an election doesn’t change a voter’s attitude toward the candidates in that election. Choice B is incorrect because a finding that positive attitudes toward a winning candidate significantly increased in the two years after the election among subjects who had been too young to vote would involve only people who didn’t vote; therefore, the finding wouldn’t have any bearing on the claim that when people do vote, the act of voting doesn’t change their attitudes toward the candidates. Choice D is incorrect because the finding that subjects in both groups were more likely to have negative attitudes than positive attitudes toward the winning candidate two years after an election would reflect all subjects’ attitudes at one particular time whether they voted or not, rather than the presence or absence of a change in voters’ attitudes after voting. Therefore, the finding would neither weaken nor strengthen the claim that voting in an election doesn’t change a voter’s attitude toward the candidates.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 0198240a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 0198240a

Under normal atmospheric pressure at Earth’s surface, water molecules form a tetrahedral network stabilized by hydrogen bonds between adjacent molecules. Extreme high pressure, such as can be found in deep ocean waters, destabilizes these bonds and compresses water’s structure, allowing water molecules within organisms to permeate proteins and impede crucial biological functions; yet deep-sea organisms known as piezophiles have adapted to extreme pressure. Studies have found a positive correlation between the depths that various piezophiles inhabit and concentrations of a compound called trimethylamine N-oxide (TMAO) in their muscle tissues, which has led a team of researchers to hypothesize that TMAO reduces water’s compressibility.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ hypothesis?

  • Water molecules are found to be impervious to TMAO even when the water molecules’ tetrahedral configuration has been distorted by high pressure. 

  • Examination of TMAO’s molecular structure shows that TMAO molecules retain their shape even as pressure increases.

  • A positive correlation is found between concentrations of TMAO and the rate at which water’s molecular structure compresses as pressure increases.

  • Analysis of water’s molecular structure under high pressure reveals that hydrogen bonds are more stable when TMAO is present than when it is not.

ID: 0198240a Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support the researchers’ hypothesis that TMAO reduces water’s compressibility. The text explains that at great depths in the ocean, extreme pressure compresses the molecular structure of water by destabilizing the hydrogen bonds between adjacent molecules, thereby allowing water to penetrate proteins and harm the associated organisms. However, deep-sea organisms called piezophiles have adapted to live at these depths and previous studies show a positive correlation between the depth at which a piezophile species lives and the species’ level of the compound TMAO. Because this hypothesis links TMAO levels with reduced compressibility of water’s tetrahedral molecular structure, a finding that TMAO helps maintain the hydrogen bonds between water molecules under high pressure would strongly support that hypothesis.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the researchers’ hypothesis suggests a relationship between TMAO and water molecules’ tetrahedral molecular structure, that relationship involves TMAO helping maintain water’s tetrahedral molecular structure under high pressure; as presented in the text, the hypothesis doesn’t contend that water molecules are impervious to, or incapable of being penetrated by, TMAO. Choice B is incorrect because the text discusses how the molecular structure of water, not TMAO, is compressed under extreme pressure and never addresses how TMAO might be affected by such pressure. Choice C is incorrect because the researchers’ hypothesis holds that water under extreme pressure is more resistant, not less, to being compressed when TMAO concentrations are higher. Moreover, the positive correlation mentioned in the text is between TMAO concentrations and the depths at which piezophiles live, not between concentrations of TMAO and the rate at which water’s molecular structure compresses as pressure increases.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID c2c61e7d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: c2c61e7d

Researchers hypothesized that a decline in the population of dusky sharks near the mid-Atlantic coast of North America led to a decline in the population of eastern oysters in the region. Dusky sharks do not typically consume eastern oysters but do consume cownose rays, which are the main predators of the oysters.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ hypothesis?

  • Declines in the regional abundance of dusky sharks’ prey other than cownose rays are associated with regional declines in dusky shark abundance.

  • Eastern oyster abundance tends to be greater in areas with both dusky sharks and cownose rays than in areas with only dusky sharks.

  • Consumption of eastern oysters by cownose rays in the region substantially increased before the regional decline in dusky shark abundance began.

  • Cownose rays have increased in regional abundance as dusky sharks have decreased in regional abundance.

ID: c2c61e7d Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ hypothesis about the connection between the dusky shark population decline and the eastern oyster population decline. The text indicates that although dusky sharks don’t usually eat eastern oysters, they do consume cownose rays, which are the main predators of eastern oysters. An increase in the abundance of cownose rays in the region in response to a decline in the abundance of dusky sharks would directly support the researchers’ hypothesis: a higher number of cownose rays would consume more eastern oysters, driving down the oyster population.

Choice A is incorrect because a finding that there’s an association between a decline in the regional abundance of some of dusky sharks’ prey and the regional abundance of dusky sharks wouldn’t directly support the researchers’ hypothesis that a decline in dusky sharks has led to a decline in eastern oysters in the region. Although such a finding might help explain why shark abundance has declined, it would reveal nothing about whether the shark decline is related to the oyster decline. Choice B is incorrect because a finding that eastern oyster abundance tends to be greater when dusky sharks and cownose rays are present than when only dusky sharks are present wouldn’t support the researchers’ hypothesis that a decline in dusky sharks has led to a decline in eastern oysters in the region. The text indicates that the sharks prey on the rays, which are the main predators of the oysters; if oyster abundance is found to be greater when rays are present than when rays are absent, that would suggest that rays aren’t keeping oyster abundance down, and thus that a decline in rays’ predators, which would be expected to lead to an increase in the abundance of rays, wouldn’t bring about a decline in oyster abundance as the researchers hypothesize. Choice C is incorrect because a finding that consumption of eastern oysters by cownose rays increased substantially before dusky sharks declined in regional abundance wouldn’t support the researchers’ hypothesis that the decline in dusky sharks has led to a decline in eastern oysters in the region. Such a finding would suggest that some factor other than shark abundance led to an increase in rays’ consumption of oysters and thus to a decrease in oyster abundance, thereby weakening the researchers’ hypothesis. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 81498c6a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 81498c6a

Average Prices Received by US Growers for Citrus Fruits, 2020–2021 (dollars per box)

Fruit June 2020 June 2021 July 2020 July 2021
Grapefruits $13.80 $23.72 $16.13 $22.98
Oranges $16.15 $11.09 $15.53 $13.79
Lemons $19.50 $28.94 $21.01 $31.78

An employee of a citrus grower in the United States is analyzing the prices of several varieties of fruit over the course of a growing season. The employee wishes to know how much a grower could have expected to receive on average for a box of lemons in July 2021. Consulting the table, the employee finds that this amount is blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • $31.78.

  • $23.72.

  • $22.98.

  • $28.94.

ID: 81498c6a Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the text’s discussion of how much a grower could have expected to receive on average for a box of lemons in July 2021. The table lists the average prices received by US citrus growers in dollars per box for grapefruits, oranges, and lemons in June 2020, June 2021, July 2020, and July 2021. According to the table, the average price of a box of lemons in July 2021 was $31.78.

Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that the employee of a citrus grower wishes to know the average price for a box of lemons in July 2021. According to the table, $23.72 was the average price for a box of grapefruits in June 2021, not for a box of lemons in July 2021. Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates that the employee of a citrus grower wishes to know the average price for a box of lemons in July 2021. According to the table, $22.98 was the average price for a box of grapefruits in July 2021, not for a box of lemons in July 2021. Choice D is incorrect because the text indicates that the employee of a citrus grower wishes to know the average price for a box of lemons in July 2021. According to the table, $28.94 was the average price for a box of lemons in June 2021, not in July 2021.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 38e79659

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 38e79659

Attendance and Cost of Hosting for Past Four US World’s Fairs

World’s fairs held in the US Cost (in US dollars) Number of visitors
Century 21 Exposition (1962) $47 million 9.60 million
HemisFair ’68 $156 million 6.40 million
1984 World’s Fair $350 million 7.35 million
Expo ’74 $78 million 5.60 million

Huge international exhibitions known as world’s fairs have been held since 1851, but the United States hasn’t hosted one since 1984. Architecture expert Mina Chow argues that this is because some people think the events are too expensive and not popular enough. For example, the 1984 World’s Fair cost $350 million and had only blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the example?

  • 7.35 million visitors.

  • 9.60 million visitors.

  • 6.40 million visitors.

  • 5.60 million visitors.

ID: 38e79659 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the example of the high cost and low popularity of world’s fairs. The text presents Chow’s argument that the United States hasn’t hosted a world’s fair since 1984 because people think these exhibitions are overly expensive and insufficiently popular. The text then cites the 1984 World’s Fair as an example, noting that it cost $350 million. Since the example should illustrate both high cost and insufficient popularity, the best completion of the example is the information from the table that the 1984 World’s Fair had 7.35 million visitors.

Choice B is incorrect because it misrepresents data from the table. The table indicates that the 1984 World’s Fair, which is the world’s fair used as an example in the text, had 7.35 million, not 9.60 million, visitors. Choice C is incorrect because it misrepresents data from the table. The table indicates that the 1984 World’s Fair, which is the world’s fair used as an example in the text, had 7.35 million, not 6.40 million, visitors. Choice D is incorrect because it misrepresents data from the table. The table indicates that the 1984 World’s Fair, which is the world’s fair used as an example in the text, had 7.35 million, not 5.60 million, visitors. 

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 825dc766

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 825dc766

King Lear is a circa 1606 play by William Shakespeare. In the play, the character of King Lear attempts to test his three daughters’ devotion to him. He later expresses regret for his actions, as is evident when he blank

Which choice most effectively uses a quotation from King Lear to illustrate the claim?

  • says of himself, “I am a man / more sinned against than sinning.”

  • says during a growing storm, “This tempest will not give me leave to ponder / On things would hurt me more.”

  • says to himself while striking his head, “Beat at this gate that let thy folly in / And thy dear judgement out!”

  • says of himself, “I will do such things— / What they are yet, I know not; but they shall be / The terrors of the earth!”

ID: 825dc766 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses a quotation from King Lear to illustrate the claim that King Lear expresses regret for his actions. In the quotation, Lear describes striking himself on the head—the same act he’s engaged in as he speaks, and one that suggests he’s deeply upset with himself. Referring to himself in the second person (with “thy”), the character exclaims “Beat at this gate that let thy folly in / And thy dear judgement out!” Lear refers metaphorically to his own mind as a gate that has allowed folly, or poor judgement, to enter and good judgement to escape. This suggests that Lear regrets his attempts to test his three daughters’ devotion to him, regarding those attempts as examples of the folly that has entered the gate of his mind.

Choice A is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t express King Lear’s sense of regret over his own actions; instead, it expresses his belief that the harm that others have done to him (or the extent to which they have “sinned against” him) outweighs whatever harm he himself has caused by “sinning.” Choice B is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t express King Lear’s sense of regret over his own actions; instead, it expresses his thoughts about an approaching storm (“this tempest”), which he believes “will not give [him] leave to ponder,” or time to consider, the harm that he will continue to experience (“things” that “would hurt [him] more”). Choice D is incorrect because this quotation expresses King Lear’s vow to commit terrible actions (or “things” that “shall be / The terrors of the earth”) in the future, not his regret over actions that he’s already taken.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 0240d11c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 0240d11c

In the twentieth century, ethnographers made a concerted effort to collect Mexican American folklore, but they did not always agree about that folklore’s origins. Scholars such as Aurelio Espinosa claimed that Mexican American folklore derived largely from the folklore of Spain, which ruled Mexico and what is now the southwestern United States from the sixteenth to early nineteenth centuries. Scholars such as Américo Paredes, by contrast, argued that while some Spanish influence is undeniable, Mexican American folklore is mainly the product of the ongoing interactions of various cultures in Mexico and the United States.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support Paredes’s argument?

  • The folklore that the ethnographers collected included several songs written in the form of a décima, a type of poem originating in late sixteenth-century Spain. 

  • Much of the folklore that the ethnographers collected had similar elements from region to region. 

  • Most of the folklore that the ethnographers collected was previously unknown to scholars. 

  • Most of the folklore that the ethnographers collected consisted of corridos—ballads about history and social life—of a clearly recent origin. 

ID: 0240d11c Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support Paredes’s argument that Mexican-American folklore is mostly the result of cultural interactions in Mexico and the United States rather than an adaptation of Spanish folklore. The text describes a disagreement among scholars about whether Mexican-American folklore mostly derived from the folklore of Spain or originated in Mexico and the United States as cultures there have interacted. The latter view is the argument that Paredes puts forward. If Mexican-American folklore collected in the twentieth century mostly consists of ballads about history and social life that originated recently, then that would support Paredes’s argument, since it would suggest that the folklore mostly arose after Spanish rule ended in the early nineteenth century and that the folklore reflects cultural interactions in Mexico and the United States rather than traditions from Spain. 

Choice A is incorrect because the inclusion of songs influenced by sixteenth-century Spanish poetry among Mexican-American folklore collected in the twentieth century would not support Paredes’s view that the folklore was the result of cultural interactions in Mexico and the United States rather than an offshoot of Spanish folklore. If anything, the presence of such songs among the folklore collected in the twentieth century would weaken Paredes’s argument, since it would reflect the influence of Spanish culture on the folklore. Choice B is incorrect because the mere presence of similarities in Mexican-American folklore across regions would not be sufficient to draw a conclusion about where the folklore originated, let alone to support Paredes’s argument that the folklore reflects cultural interactions in Mexico and the United States. In fact, since Paredes argued that Mexican-American folklore is the product of various cultures interacting in Mexico and the United States, he would likely expect there to be regional variations in folklore as different cultures have interacted in different places. Choice C is incorrect because scholars’ previous ignorance of the folklore would have no bearing on Paredes’s argument that Mexican-American folklore mostly reflects cultural interactions in Mexico and the United States. The folklore’s origins are independent of scholars’ knowledge of the folklore. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID fc1259dd

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: fc1259dd

Archaeologist Christiana Kohler and her team excavated the Egyptian tomb of Queen Merneith, the wife of a First Dynasty pharaoh. Some scholars claim that she also ruled Egypt on her own and was actually the first female pharaoh. The team found a tablet in Merneith’s tomb with writing suggesting that she was in charge of the country’s treasury and other central offices. Whether Merneith was a pharaoh or not, this discovery supports the idea that Merneith likely blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • had an important role in Egypt’s government.

  • lived after rather than before the First Dynasty of Egypt.

  • traveled beyond Egypt’s borders often.

  • created a new form of writing in Egypt.

ID: fc1259dd Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the evidence found in Queen Merneith’s tomb. The text begins by mentioning archaeologists’ efforts to excavate the tomb of Queen Merneith, the wife of a pharaoh who some scholars think was actually the first female pharaoh. The text states that a tablet discovered in her tomb suggests she "was in charge of the country’s treasury and other central offices," which supports the idea that she had an important role in Egypt’s government.

Choice B is incorrect because since the text explicitly states that Merneith’s husband was a First Dynasty pharaoh, it can be inferred that she lived during the First Dynasty, not after it. Choice C is incorrect because the text does not provide any evidence that Merneith traveled beyond Egypt’s borders often. The text is focused on the archaeological discovery in her tomb and the implications about her potential role as a ruler in Egypt but does not mention anything about her traveling habits. Choice D is incorrect because the text does not mention anything about Merneith creating a new form of writing in Egypt. The text discusses the discovery of a tablet with writing suggesting her governmental role but does not imply that this writing represented a new form created by Merneith.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 25290c8d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 25290c8d

“On Virtue” is a 1766 poem by Phillis Wheatley. Wheatley addresses the poem directly to the quality of virtue, imploring it to assist her in reaching a future goal: blank

Which quotation from “On Virtue” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “Attend me, Virtue, thro’ my youthful years! / O leave me not to the false joys of time! / But guide my steps to endless life and bliss.”

  • “I cease to wonder, and no more attempt / Thine height t’explore, or fathom thy profound.”

  • “O thou bright jewel in my aim I strive / To comprehend thee. Thine own words declare / Wisdom is higher than a fool can reach.”

  • “But, O my soul, sink not into despair, / Virtue is near thee, and with gentle hand / Would now embrace thee, hovers o’er thine head.”

ID: 25290c8d Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively illustrates the claim that Wheatley addresses her poem "On Virtue" to the quality of virtue, imploring it to assist her in reaching a future goal. In the quotation, Wheatley begs virtue to accompany her, or "attend [her]," through her youth and to "guide [her] steps to" the future goal of "endless life and bliss."

Choice B is incorrect because this quotation suggests the difficulty of fully comprehending virtue. Rather than asking virtue for help, Wheatley presents it as a quality that is impossible to entirely understand because it is so grand and deep. Choice C is incorrect because this quotation describes Wheatley’s effort to comprehend virtue despite virtue itself declaring that such wisdom is beyond her grasp, or "higher than a fool can reach." Choice D is incorrect because rather than asking virtue for help in this quotation, Wheatley urges herself to "sink not into despair" because virtue is always nearby.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 4d3e3c52

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 4d3e3c52

In a paper about p-i-n planar perovskite solar cells (one of several perovskite cell architectures designed to collect and store solar power), Lyndsey McMillon-Brown et al. describe a method for fabricating the cell’s electronic transport layer (ETL) using a spray coating. Conventional ETL fabrication is accomplished using a solution of nanoparticles. The process can result in a loss of up to 80% of the solution, increasing the cost of manufacturing at scale—an issue that may be obviated by spray coating fabrication, which the researchers describe as “highly reproducible, concise, and practical.”

What does the text most strongly suggest about conventional ETL fabrication?

  • It is less suitable for manufacturing large volumes of planar p-i-n perovskite solar cells than an alternative fabrication method may be.

  • It is more expensive when manufacturing at scale than are processes for fabricating ETLs used in other perovskite solar cell architectures.

  • It typically entails a greater loss of nanoparticle solution than do other established approaches for ETL fabrication.

  • It is somewhat imprecise and therefore limits the potential effectiveness of p-i-n planar perovskite solar cells at capturing and storing solar power.

ID: 4d3e3c52 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. Conventional solar cell fabrication increases “the cost of manufacturing at scale,” but spray coating might get rid of that problem.

Choice B is incorrect. This is not completely supported by the text. While it’s true that conventional ETL fabrication is expensive at scale, there’s nothing in the text that mentions other perovskite solar cell architectures. Choice C is incorrect. This choice does not match the text. Only one conventional method of ETL fabrication is described, so we can’t compare the solution loss in this method to that of other conventional methods. Choice D is incorrect. This choice isn’t supported by the text. The text never suggests that the effectiveness of solar cells changes based on their method of fabrication.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID d1b8a9ad

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: d1b8a9ad

Disco remains one of the most ridiculed popular music genres of the late twentieth century. But as scholars have argued, the genre is far less superficial than many people believe. Take the case of disco icon Donna Summer: she may have been associated with popular songs about love and heartbreak (subjects hardly unique to disco, by the way), but like many Black women singers before her, much of her music also reflects concerns about community and identity. These concerns are present in many of the genre’s greatest songs, and they generally don’t require much digging to reveal.

What does the text most strongly suggest about the disco genre?

  • It has been unjustly ignored by most scholars despite the importance of the themes addressed by many of the genre’s songs.

  • It evolved over time from a superficial genre focused on romance to a genre focused on more serious concerns.

  • It has been unfairly dismissed for the inclusion of subject matter that is also found in other musical genres.

  • It gave rise to a Black women’s musical tradition that has endured even though the genre itself faded in the late twentieth century.

ID: d1b8a9ad Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The text argues that disco is "far less superficial" than its popular perception might indicate, and that love and heartbreak are "subjects hardly unique to disco."

Choice A is incorrect. This choice conflicts with the text, which says that scholars argue that disco "is far less superficial than many people believe." Choice B is incorrect. This choice says the opposite of what the text suggests. The writer argues that the genre is not as superficial as commonly believed, but that it always reflected "concerns about community and identity." Choice D is incorrect. The text doesn’t support this choice. There’s nothing in the text about disco giving rise to an enduring Black women’s musical tradition.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 420b82e2

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 420b82e2

In 2016 biological anthropologist Heather F. Smith and her team investigated the evolution of the appendix, an intestinal organ that is present in some mammals, including humans, but is generally thought to have no function. Studying 533 mammal species, the team found that the appendix has emerged independently across multiple lineages in separate instances and, significantly, hasn’t disappeared after emerging in specific lineages. Moreover, the team determined that species with the organ tend to have higher concentrations of lymphoid tissue, which supports immune responses, in the cecum, the organ the appendix is attached to. Therefore, the team hypothesized that the appendix likely blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • was once present in many nonmammal species but has since disappeared from those lineages.

  • has been preserved in certain mammal species because it benefits their immune systems.

  • will emerge in a greater number of mammal species because it may serve a necessary function in the immune system.

  • produced higher concentrations of lymphoid tissue in mammals in the past than it does currently.

ID: 420b82e2 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Smith and colleagues’ investigation of the evolution and biological role of the appendix. The text indicates that the team found several instances of the appendix emerging and not disappearing in the lineages of various mammal species the team examined. Furthermore, the text states that species that possess an appendix also tend to have relatively high amounts of lymphoid tissue—a type of tissue that supports immune system function. Taken together, these details strongly support the hypothesis that the appendix has persisted in some species because it has a function that contributes to effective immune responses in those species.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t address any nonmammalian species. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t make predictions about the evolutionary future of the species Smith and colleagues examined, and although the implication of the text is that the appendix likely does serve a function for the immune system, nothing in the text indicates that the appendix will become more widespread in the future. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text does suggest an association between having an appendix and relatively high concentrations of lymphoid tissue, it doesn’t claim that the appendix causes the tissue to grow, nor does it address the relative production of the tissue at different periods of time.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 64b6427a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 64b6427a

Since its completion in 2014, Bosco Verticale (Vertical Forest)—a pair of residential towers in Milan, Italy, covered by vegetation—has become a striking symbol of environmental sustainability in architecture. Stefano Boeri intended his design, which features balconies that are home to hundreds of trees, to serve as a model for promoting urban biodiversity. However, the concept has faced skepticism: critics note that although the trees used in Bosco Verticale were specifically cultivated for the project, it’s too early to tell if they can thrive in this unusual setting.

According to the text, why are some critics skeptical of the concept behind Bosco Verticale?

  • Some essential aspects of Bosco Verticale’s design are difficult to adapt to locations other than Milan.

  • The plant life on Bosco Verticale ended up being less varied than Boeri had envisioned it would be.

  • The construction of Bosco Verticale was no less environmentally damaging than the construction of more conventional buildings is.

  • It is unclear whether Bosco Verticale can support the plant life included in its design. 

ID: 64b6427a Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a statement about critics’ skepticism of Bosco Verticale that is supported by the text. The text states that Boeri’s design for Bosco Verticale features hundreds of trees on balconies and is intended to serve as a model for promoting urban biodiversity. But the text goes on to state that some critics believe that it is too early to determine if the trees planted on Bosco Verticale can thrive there. Therefore, according to the text, critics are skeptical of the concept behind Bosco Verticale because it is unclear whether Bosco Verticale can support the plant life included in its design.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text states that one of Boeri’s goals was for Bosco Verticale to serve as a model for promoting biodiversity in architecture, which suggests that Boeri would likely support the idea of reproducing the same concept in other locations, the text does not discuss whether it is feasible to adapt the design to locations other than Milan. Instead, the text describes critics’ concerns that the plant life that currently exists on Bosco Verticale might not thrive in its current setting. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text states that one of Boeri’s goals in creating Bosco Verticale was to promote biodiversity, which implies a goal of including varied plant life in the design, it does not mention whether the hundreds of trees that were planted on its balconies failed to meet this goal. Rather, the text states that some critics are concerned that the trees on Bosco Verticale’s balconies may not thrive in this setting. Choice C is incorrect because the text does not mention how Bosco Verticale was constructed, let alone how environmentally destructive its construction may have been relative to the construction of more conventional buildings.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 02848335

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 02848335
18 16 14 12 10 8 6 4 2 0Power conversion efficiency (%) lowest performing highest performingPower Conversion Efficiency of Lowest and Highest PerformingSpin-coated and Spray-coatedElectron Transport LayersThickness spray coating spin coating
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • spray coating
    • spin coating
  • The data for the 2 categories are as follows:
    • lowest performing:
      • spray coating: 15.48%
      • spin coating: 11.70%
    • highest performing:
      • spray coating: 17.26%
      • spin coating: 13.56%

Perovskite solar cells convert light into electricity more efficiently than earlier kinds of solar cells, and manufacturing advances have recently made them commercially attractive. One limitation of the cells, however, has to do with their electron transport layer (ETL), through which absorbed electrons must pass. Often the ETL is applied through a process called spin coating, but such ETLs are fairly inefficient at converting input power to output power. André Taylor and colleagues tested a novel spray coating method for applying the ETL. The team produced ETLs of various thicknesses and concluded that spray coating holds promise for improving the power conversion efficiency of ETLs in perovskite solar cells.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that support Taylor and colleagues’ conclusion?

  • Both the ETL applied through spin coating and the ETL applied through spray coating showed a power conversion efficiency greater than 10% at their lowest performing thickness. 

  • The lowest performing ETL applied through spray coating had a higher power conversion efficiency than the highest performing ETL applied through spin coating. 

  • The highest performing ETL applied through spray coating showed a power conversion efficiency of approximately 13%, while the highest performing ETL applied through spin coating showed a power conversion efficiency of approximately 11%.

  • There was a substantial difference in power conversion efficiency between the lowest and highest performing ETLs applied through spray coating.

ID: 02848335 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it describes data from the graph that support Taylor and colleagues’ conclusion that spray coating holds promise for improving the power conversion efficiency of ETLs in perovskite solar cells. The text explains that perovskite solar cells’ efficiency at converting light into electricity is diminished by their electron transport layer (ETL), which is applied through spin coating, but that Taylor’s team devised a new spray coating method for applying the ETL that improves its power conversion efficiency. The graph displays data on the power conversion efficiency of solar cells in tests conducted by Taylor’s team, with bars for both the highest- and lowest-performing ETLs in two data categories: spray coating and spin coating. According to the graph, the lowest-performing ETL applied through spray coating had a power conversion efficiency of between 14% and 16%, while the highest-performing ETL applied through spin coating had a power conversion efficiency of less than 14%. These data confirm that ETLs applied through novel spray coating are more efficient than those applied though traditional spin coating. Thus, the data support Taylor and colleagues’ conclusion about spray coating’s potential value.

Choice A is incorrect. Although this claim correctly describes the data in the graph by stating that both the lowest-performing ETL applied through spin coating and the lowest-performing ETL applied through spray coating had a power conversion efficiency greater than 10%, this relationship in the data doesn’t support or relate to Taylor and colleagues’ conclusion that spray coating promises greater efficiency for solar cells than traditional spin coating does. Choice C is incorrect. This claim does address the greater power conversion efficiency of the highest-performing ETL applied through spray coating, compared with the highest-performing ETL applied through spin coating. However, it also incorrectly cites the value for the efficiency of the highest-performing ETL applied through spray coating as approximately 13%, instead of a value between 14% and 16%, and the value for the efficiency of the highest-performing ETL applied through spin coating as approximately 11%, instead of a value between 12% and 14%, as shown in the graph. Choice D is incorrect because Taylor and colleagues’ conclusion is based on the difference in the power conversion efficiency of ETLs applied through spray coating and that of ETLs applied through spin coating, not on the difference between the highest- and lowest-performing ETLs applied through just spray coating.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 95dbdf51

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 95dbdf51

Laura Mulvey has theorized that in narrative film, shots issuing from a protagonist’s point of view compel viewers to identify with the character. Such identification is heightened by “invisible editing,” or editing so inconspicuous that it renders cuts between shots almost unnoticeable. Conversely, Mulvey proposes that conspicuous editing or an absence of point-of-view shots would induce a more critical stance toward a protagonist. Consider, for example, the attic scene in Alfred Hitchcock’s The Birds, a conspicuously edited sequence of tens of shots, few of which correspond to the protagonist’s point of view. According to Mulvey’s logic, this scene should affect viewers by blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • obscuring their awareness of the high degree of artifice involved in constructing the montage.

  • lessening their identification with the protagonist, if not alienating them from the character altogether.

  • compelling them to identify with the film’s director, whose proxy is the camera, and not with the protagonist. 

  • diverting their attention away from the film’s content and toward its stylistic attributes.

ID: 95dbdf51 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. We’re told that point-of-view shots and “invisible editing” make audiences identify with a character. We’re also told that obvious editing and a lack of point-of-view shots have the opposite effect. Since the sequence in The Birds falls into this second category, it should have the effect of reducing the audience’s connection with the protagonist.

Choice A is incorrect. The passage doesn’t mention viewers’ awareness of artifice (i.e., camera trickery) in films, so there’s no basis for this inference. Choice C is incorrect. The passage doesn’t mention the director at all, so there’s no basis for this inference. Choice D is incorrect. The passage doesn’t discuss whether a film’s “stylistic attributes” may distract viewers from the film’s story, so there’s no basis for this inference.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 7ae8065c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 7ae8065c

Scholars are increasingly exploring the communication and preservation of ecological knowledge through Indigenous songs (e.g., Sakha songs about local ecosystems and those of the Kaluli people about rainforest sounds). In one study, ethnobiologist Dana Lepofsky et al. received insight from Kwaxsistalla Wathl’thla, a song keeper for the Kwakwaka’wakw people in Canada, into songs referencing the people’s use of terraced gardens in intertidal zones along the Pacific Northwest coast for the cultivation of clams for consumption. Archaeological evidence of significant increases in clam size and abundance in that area concurrent with the documented past implementation of the method described in the songs supports the conclusion that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • the practice used by ancestors of modern Kwakwaka’wakw people not only effectively maintained a food source but also promoted its robustness.

  • non-Indigenous people around the Pacific Northwest coast adopted the practice developed by the Kwakwaka’wakw people after observing its efficacy.

  • there is greater corroboration in the archaeological record of ecological practices described in Kwakwaka’wakw songs than of those described in Sakha and Kaluli songs.

  • although contemporary Kwakwaka’wakw people have a deep understanding of and appreciation for the fishing and farming practices used by their ancestors, they no longer implement those methods.

ID: 7ae8065c Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the use of songs by the Kwakwaka’wakw people to record and communicate ecological knowledge. The text indicates that some songs of the Kwakwaka’wakw people of Canada’s Pacific Northwest region document how the people used terraced gardens in intertidal zones to cultivate clams for food. The text also explains that archaeological evidence shows increases in "clam size and abundance" that occurred along with the implementation of this cultivation method, suggesting the method’s efficacy in not just supporting clam yields but also improving them. It follows, then, that the use of intertidal terraced gardens, as described in the songs, allowed the ancestors of modern Kwakwaka’wakw people to maintain clams as a food source and to cultivate larger and more numerous clams.

Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention anything about cultivation practices among non-Indigenous people in the Pacific Northwest coastal region. Though the text conveys that archaeological evidence suggests that the clam cultivation practice mentioned in Kwakwaka’wakw people’s songs was efficacious when implemented, it gives no indication that people other than the Kwakwaka’wakw adopted that practice. Choice C is incorrect because the text provides no information about the archaeological record as it pertains to Sakha and Kaluli songs and doesn’t suggest that there is less corroboration of practices described in those songs than there is of the clam cultivation practice described in Kwakwaka’wakw songs. The Sakha and Kaluli songs are mentioned early in the text only as examples of Indigenous songs that contain ecological knowledge. Choice D is incorrect because archaeological evidence that clam size and abundance both increased when Kwakwaka’wakw ancestors implemented intertidal terraced gardens provides information only about the past use of that method and doesn’t suggest anything about present practices. The text indicates that knowledge of a past clam cultivation method is maintained in Kwakwaka’wakw songs but doesn’t indicate whether modern Kwakwaka’wakw people use that or other fishing and farming practices used by their ancestors.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 25b70215

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 25b70215

Effect of Neighboring Species on Pollinator Visits to Target Species

Neighboring species Target species Effect value
Virginia spring beauty star chickweed 0.4853
Himalayan balsam marsh woundwort 0.7905
common dandelion cat’s ear −0.6254

Researchers Carolina Laura Morales and Anna Traveset gathered data about flowering plants growing alongside each other in various locations. In each case, the researchers identified one plant as a “target species” and a nearby plant as a “neighboring species.” The researchers then calculated a positive or negative value to show how the neighboring species affected pollinator visits to the target species. One example of a neighboring species with a negative effect value is the blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the example?

  • Himalayan balsam.

  • common dandelion.

  • star chickweed.

  • Virginia spring beauty.

ID: 25b70215 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the example of a neighboring species that has a negative effect value. The table lists neighboring species, target species, and effect values. The table shows that only one neighboring species, the common dandelion, has a negative effect value (−0.6254).

Choice A is incorrect because the table shows that the neighboring species Himalayan balsam has a positive effect value, 0.7905, so it isn’t an example of a neighboring species with a negative effect value. Choice C is incorrect because the table shows that star chickweed is a target species, so it isn’t an example of a neighboring species with a negative effect value. Choice D is incorrect because the table shows that the neighboring species Virginia spring beauty has a positive effect value, 0.4853, so it isn’t an example of a neighboring species with a negative effect value.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 9e5ce27c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 9e5ce27c

“Lines Written in Early Spring” is a 1798 poem by William Wordsworth. In the poem, the speaker describes having contradictory feelings while experiencing the sights and sounds of a spring day: blank

Which quotation from “Lines Written in Early Spring” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “Through primrose-tufts, in that sweet bower, / The periwinkle trail’d its wreathes; / And ’tis my faith that every flower / Enjoys the air it breathes.”

  • “The budding twigs spread out their fan, / To catch the breezy air; / And I must think, do all I can, / That there was pleasure there.”

  • “The birds around me hopp’d and play’d: / Their thoughts I cannot measure, / But the least motion which they made, / It seem’d a thrill of pleasure.”

  • “I heard a thousand blended notes, / While in a grove I [sat] reclined, / In that sweet mood when pleasant thoughts / Bring sad thoughts to the mind.”

ID: 9e5ce27c Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most effectively illustrates the claim that the speaker has contradictory feelings while experiencing the sights and sounds of spring. This quotation indicates that the speaker is reclined in a grove listening to a thousand sounds. Even though the speaker is in a "sweet mood" and thinking "pleasant thoughts," those pleasant thoughts also bring to mind "sad thoughts." In other words, these lines illustrate the claim that the speaker is having contradictory thoughts while immersed in the sights and sounds of spring.

Choice A is incorrect. Although this quotation refers to several flowers (primroses and periwinkles) and indicates that the speaker is in a "bower," or shady spot among the trees—details which suggest that the speaker is experiencing the sights of spring—it doesn’t suggest that the speaker is having contradictory feelings, only that the speaker believes that the flowers are experiencing enjoyment. Choice B is incorrect. Although this quotation focuses on the sights of spring—namely, new leaves on nearby trees appear to be opening up ("The budding twigs spread out their fan") to feel the breeze—the quotation doesn’t suggest that the speaker feels conflicted about this: the statement "And I must think, do all I can" suggests the speaker’s determination to attribute feelings of pleasure to the trees, not that the speaker is experiencing contradictory feelings. Choice C is incorrect. Although this quotation indicates that the speaker isn’t certain what the birds are thinking ("Their thoughts I cannot measure"), there’s nothing to suggest that the speaker is experiencing contradictory feelings. Rather, the quotation suggests that although the speaker is uncertain about the birds’ feelings, the speaker believes that the birds’ movements likely suggest their pleasure.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 28dfc05a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 28dfc05a

Even with the widespread adoption of personal computers, many authors still choose to write and revise their novels by hand and only then transcribe the final version on a computer. It may be tempting to speculate about how a novel written this way would be affected if it had been exclusively typed instead, but each novel is a unique entity resulting from a specific set of circumstances. Therefore, blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • in order to increase their efficiency, authors who currently write their novels largely by hand should instead work only on a computer.

  • authors who do most of their drafting and revising by hand likely have more success than those who work entirely on a computer.

  • novels written by hand take less time to produce, on average, than novels written on a computer do.

  • there is no way to reasonably evaluate how a work would be different if it had been written by other means.

ID: 28dfc05a Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of the means authors use to write and revise their novels. After stating that many authors still choose to draft novels by hand even though computers are now widely used, the text acknowledges the speculation that the opposite choice—using only a computer—would have had an effect on such novels. However, the text then points out that every novel is the singular result of a combination of the particular conditions surrounding its creation. This suggests that it isn’t possible to determine the effect of any single condition (such as the means of writing) on its own; thus, there would be no way to reasonably evaluate how a novel would have turned out differently if it had been written by other means.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that it’s more efficient to write a novel on a computer than to write it by hand; it doesn’t address efficiency at all. Therefore, it isn’t logical to conclude that authors who currently choose to write novels largely by hand should instead work only on a computer to increase their efficiency. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest anything about how successful authors are, regardless of the means by which they choose to write; therefore, it isn’t logical to conclude that authors who write largely by hand are likely to be more successful than those who work only on a computer. Choice C is incorrect because the text makes no mention of the time it takes to produce a novel, regardless of the means by which it’s written; therefore, it isn’t logical to conclude that novels written by hand take less time on average to produce than those written on a computer do.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 55df0275

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 55df0275

Ablation Rates for Three Elements in Cosmic Dust, by Dust Source

Element SPC AST HTC OCC
iron 20% 28% 90% 98%
potassium 44% 74% 97% 100%
sodium 45% 75% 99% 100%

Earth’s atmosphere is bombarded by cosmic dust originating from several sources: short-period comets (SPCs), particles from the asteroid belt (ASTs), Halley-type comets (HTCs), and Oort cloud comets (OCCs). Some of the dust’s material vaporizes in the atmosphere in a process called ablation, and the faster the particles move, the higher the rate of ablation. Astrophysicist Juan Diego Carrillo-Sánchez led a team that calculated average ablation rates for elements in the dust (such as iron and potassium) and showed that material in slower-moving SPC or AST dust has a lower rate than the same material in faster-moving HTC or OCC dust. For example, whereas the average ablation rate for iron from AST dust is 28%, the average rate for blank 

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the example?

  • iron from SPC dust is 20%.

  • sodium from OCC dust is 100%.

  • iron from HTC dust is 90%.

  • sodium from AST dust is 75%.

ID: 55df0275 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively completes the example regarding the ablation rate of iron. The table shows the ablation rates for three elements—iron, potassium, and sodium—found in cosmic dust that comes from one of four sources. The text says that the ablation rate for a given element in slower-moving SPC and AST dust was lower than the ablation rate for that same element in faster-moving HTC or OCC dust. The text then presents the first part of an example of this pattern, describing an ablation rate of 28% for iron in AST dust. The information that iron from HTC dust had an ablation rate of 90% is therefore the most effective way to complete this example—the comparison of a relatively low ablation rate for iron in slower-moving AST dust with a relatively high ablation rate for iron in faster-moving HTC dust illustrates the tendency of ablation rates for a given element to be lower in slower-moving dust than in faster-moving dust.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that SPC dust, like AST dust, moves relatively slowly; a comparison of the ablation rates of iron from two slower-moving dust sources could not be an example of the difference between ablation rates in slower-moving dust and faster-moving dust, which is the pattern that the example is supposed to illustrate. Choice B is incorrect because the example in the text is supposed to illustrate the difference in the ablation rates of the same element from slower-moving dust and faster-moving dust, and the first part of the example provides data about the ablation rate of iron, which means the second part of the example must also be about the ablation rate of iron, not the ablation rate of sodium. Choice D is incorrect because the example in the text is supposed to illustrate the difference in the ablation rates of the same element from slower-moving dust and faster-moving dust, and the first part of the example provides data about the ablation rate of iron, which means the second part of the example must also be about the ablation rate of iron, not the ablation rate of sodium. Additionally, any ablation rate from AST dust would be ineffective in this example since AST dust is referenced in the first part of the example and thus additional data focused on AST dust would not illustrate a variation across dust types.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 66bef967

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 66bef967

Choctaw/Cherokee artist Jeffrey Gibson turns punching bags used by boxers into art by decorating them with beadwork and elements of Native dressmaking. These elements include leather fringe and jingles, the metal cones that cover the dresses worn in the jingle dance, a women’s dance of the Ojibwe people. Thus, Gibson combines an object commonly associated with masculinity (a punching bag) with art forms traditionally practiced by women in most Native communities (beadwork and dressmaking). In this way, he rejects the division of male and female gender roles.

Which choice best describes Gibson’s approach to art, as presented in the text?

  • He draws from traditional Native art forms to create his original works.

  • He has been influenced by Native and non-Native artists equally.

  • He finds inspiration from boxing in designing the dresses he makes.

  • He rejects expectations about color and pattern when incorporating beadwork.

ID: 66bef967 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes Gibson’s approach to art. As the text explains, Gibson, who is Cherokee and Choctaw, transforms punching bags into art pieces by applying (or attaching) to them beadwork and elements of Native dressmaking, including leather fringe and the jingles of the jingle dress. The text goes on to say that in most Native communities, the art forms of beadwork and dressmaking are traditionally practiced by women. Therefore, Gibson’s approach to art consists of creating original works by drawing from traditional Native art forms.

Choice B is incorrect. Because Gibson incorporates Native art forms into his own original artwork, it can be inferred that he has been influenced by other Native artists, but the text never suggests that non-Native artists have influenced him. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that Gibson designs dresses influenced by boxing but instead that he turns punching bags, which are used in boxing, into works of art by applying elements of Native dressmaking to them. Choice D is incorrect. Although Gibson does incorporate beadwork into his art, the text never mentions the colors or patterns that he uses or suggests that his art defies the expectations that people might have about color and pattern in beadwork.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 1703403b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 1703403b
14 12 10 8 6 4 2 0Average rainfall (inches) May June July August SeptemberAverage Monthly Rainfall inSelect Puerto Rican Citiesfrom 1981 to 2010Month Rincón Isabela San Sebastián Ponce
  • The following 4 lines are shown:
    • Rincón
    • Isabela
    • San Sebastián
    • Ponce
  • The Rincón line:
    • Begins at May, 6.3 inches
    • Falls gradually to June, 5.8 inches
    • Rises gradually to July, 6.5 inches
    • Rises sharply to August, 8.3 inches
    • Falls sharply to September, 6.4 inches
  • The Isabela line:
    • Begins at May, 7.6 inches
    • Falls gradually to June, 6.4 inches
    • Falls gradually to July, 4.7 inches
    • Rises gradually to August, 6.4 inches
    • Falls gradually to September, 6.1 inches
  • The San Sebastián line:
    • Begins at May, 12.9 inches
    • Falls gradually to June, 11.3 inches
    • Falls sharply to July, 7.9 inches
    • Rises sharply to August, 10.3 inches
    • Rises gradually to September, 10.9 inches
  • The Ponce line:
    • Begins at May, 4 inches
    • Falls sharply to June, 1.9 inches
    • Rises gradually to July, 2.8 inches
    • Rises gradually to August, 3.9 inches
    • Rises gradually to September, 5.9 inches

A student is presenting average monthly rainfall totals in various Puerto Rican cities for a science class. During the presentation, the student notes that in September blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the statement?

  • Rincón’s average rainfall is greater than that of Isabela, San Sebastián, and Ponce.

  • Rincón and Ponce have an average rainfall of about 5 inches, and Isabela and San Sebastián have an average rainfall of about 10 inches.

  • Rincón, Ponce, and Isabela each have an average rainfall below 8 inches, but San Sebastián’s average rainfall that month is greater than 8 inches.

  • Rincón has a similar average rainfall to Isabela, and Ponce has a similar average rainfall to San Sebastián.

ID: 1703403b Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the statement about average rainfall in September in select Puerto Rican cities. The graph shows that between 1981 and 2010 Rincón, Ponce, and Isabela all had an average rainfall during the month of September of about 6 inches, and San Sebastián had an average rainfall of nearly 11 inches. Describing the average September rainfall of Rincón, Ponce, and Isabela as below 8 inches and the average September rainfall of San Sebastián as greater than 8 inches therefore offers an accurate description of the data in the graph and most effectively completes the statement.

Choice A is incorrect because it offers an inaccurate interpretation of the data in the graph. The graph shows that in September, Rincón, Isabela, and Ponce all have an average rainfall of about 6 inches, and San Sebastián has an average rainfall of nearly 11 inches. Therefore, Rincón’s average rainfall is the same as, not greater than, that of Isabela and Ponce, and it is below, not greater than, that of San Sebastián. Choice B is incorrect because it inaccurately describes the data in the graph. In September, Rincón and Ponce have an average rainfall of about 6 inches, not 5 inches; Isabela has an average rainfall of about 6 inches, not 10 inches; and San Sebastián has an average rainfall of nearly 11 inches, not 10 inches. Choice D is incorrect because although the graph shows a similar average rainfall (about 6 inches) for Rincón and Isabela in September, it doesn’t show that Ponce has a similar average rainfall to San Sebastián during this month. In September, Ponce’s average rainfall is about 6 inches, whereas San Sebastián’s average rainfall is nearly 11 inches.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 668f75cb

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 668f75cb

The following text is from Ahmet Hamdi Tanpinar’s 1961 novel The Time Regulation Institute (translated from the Turkish in 2014 by Maureen Freely and Alexander Dawe). The narrator was once involved with the Time Regulation Institute, a fictional bureaucracy that regulates the time of Turkey’s clocks.

I may be the most humble and absurd man in the world and, as my wife says, the most slovenly creature you may ever meet—that is, before the founding of our institute—but I did come to know a truly great man who possessed a natural genius for invention. I spent years at his side. I watched the way he worked. I witnessed how an idea would suddenly catch fire in his mind and take shape, like a tree sprouting shoots and branches, before coming into being.

©2014 by Maureen Freely and Alexander Dawe

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • A person was fortunate enough to have found love despite his obvious shortcomings.

  • An exceptionally talented person professes humility to avoid intimidating others.

  • A person appreciates the extensive time he passed in the company of someone he deeply admired.

  • A truly brilliant person lets ideas mature in his mind before expressing them aloud.

ID: 668f75cb Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main idea of the text: a person appreciates the extensive time he passed in the company of a man he deeply admired. The speaker says that he spent "years" (a long period of time) in the company of a "truly great man" with "a natural genius for invention." These phrases indicate the speaker’s feelings of admiration.

Choice A is incorrect because though the text indicates that the speaker feels professional admiration for the "truly great man," the text does not indicate that the speaker feels love for him; nor does the text indicate that the speaker’s humility, absurdity, and slovenly nature proved to be an obstacle to this professional relationship. Choice B is incorrect because though the speaker describes himself as humble, the text does not indicate that he is exceptionally talented; nor does the text indicate that the "truly great man" professes humility or is concerned with whether he intimidates others. Choice D is incorrect because the text does not indicate how either the speaker or the "truly great man" express their ideas.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID cbecb873

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: cbecb873

Body Length, Filter Time, and Lunges per Dive for Four Whale Species

Whale species Typical adult body length (meters) Average time to filter all engulfed water (seconds) Average number of lunges per dive deeper than 50 meters
fin 18–22 31.30 3.95
humpback 11–17 17.12 6.28
minke 7–10 8.88 7.48
blue 24–34 60.27 4.02

Some whale species practice lunge feeding, in which they lunge toward prey with their mouths open at wide angles, collect the prey and the surrounding water, and then filter out the water through baleen plates in their mouths. Although the volume of water engulfed increases with whales’ body length, the surface area of whales’ baleen plates, which influences the rate at which water can be filtered, does not increase with body length to the same degree, which helps explain why blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • minke whales and humpback whales show similar average filter times.

  • humpback whales show an average of 6.28 lunges per dive.

  • fin whales show a longer average filter time than minke whales do. 

  • blue whales show the longest average filter time and the highest average number of lunges per dive. 

ID: cbecb873 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. To support the claim, we need to show that longer whales take more time to filter all the water they engulf than shorter whales do. This choice accurately reflects that a longer whale (the fin whale) takes more time to filter engulfed water (31.30 seconds on average) compared to a shorter whale (the minke whale, which only took 8.88 seconds on average).

Choice A is incorrect. The table shows that minke whales take an average of 8.88 seconds to filter engulfed water, while humpback whales take an average of 17.12 seconds to complete the same task. Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t reflect the claim about baleen plates. The claim explains why whales of differing lengths take different amounts of time to filter engulfed water. This choice doesn’t compare whales of different lengths, and it focuses on the number of lunges, which isn’t shown to be relevant to filter time. Choice D is incorrect. The table shows that blue whales average 4.02 lunges per dive, which is not the highest average among the whales in the table.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID eb775f90

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: eb775f90

Annual Car Production in the United States, 1910–1925

Year Number of cars produced Number of companies producing cars
1910 123,990 320
1915 548,139 224
1920 1,651,625 197
1925 3,185,881 80

A student is using the table as part of a social studies class presentation on the US auto industry in the early twentieth century. The student notes that, according to the table, from 1910 to 1925 blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • the number of cars produced increased but the number of companies producing cars decreased.

  • both the number of cars produced and the number of companies producing cars remained unchanged.

  • the number of cars produced decreased but the number of companies producing cars remained unchanged.

  • both the number of cars produced and the number of companies producing cars increased.

ID: eb775f90 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement about the US auto industry in the early twentieth century. The table shows the number of cars produced annually and number of companies producing cars in the United States between 1910 and 1925 in increments of five years. According to the table, the number of cars produced consistently increased from one increment to the next, going from 123,990 cars in 1910 to 3,185,881 cars in 1925. At the same time, the table shows that the number of companies producing cars consistently decreased, going from 320 companies in 1910 to only 80 companies in 1925. Thus, the table shows that the number of cars produced increased from 1910 to 1925, even as the number of companies producing cars decreased.

Choice B is incorrect. The table shows that the number of cars produced in the US increased, going from 123,990 in 1910 to 3,185,881 in 1925, instead of remaining unchanged, and the table also shows that the number of companies producing cars decreased from 320 to 80 instead of remaining unchanged. Choice C is incorrect because the table indicates that the number of cars produced consistently increased from 1910 to 1925, going from 123,990 cars to 3,185,881 cars, instead of decreasing; moreover, the table shows that the number of companies producing cars from 1910 to 1925 declined from 320 to 80 instead of remaining unchanged. Choice D is incorrect because the table indicates that the number of companies producing cars consistently decreased from 1910 to 1925, going from 320 companies to only 80 companies.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 80fd9454

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 80fd9454

Percentage of Available Eggs Eaten by Cane Toad Tadpoles

Amphibian species (common name) Percentage of eggs eaten Native to Australia Produces bufadienolide
Little red tree frog 1% yes no
Cane toad 90% no yes
Short-footed frog 7% yes no
Striped burrowing frog 10% yes no
Dainty green tree frog 1% yes no

Native to Latin America, the cane toad was introduced to Australia in the 1930s. In recent decades, tadpoles in the Australian population have been shown to consume eggs of their own species. A 2022 study showed that when presented with cane toad eggs as well as eggs of native Australian amphibians, cane toad tadpoles disproportionately consumed eggs of their own species. This behavior results from their attraction to bufadienolide, a chemical produced by the eggs of cane toads but not by the eggs of native amphibians. However, using data from this study, a student wishes to argue that the presence of bufadienolide doesn’t entirely explain the cane toad tadpoles’ preference for certain eggs over others.

Which choice best describes data from the table that support the student’s argument?

  • The tadpoles consumed a higher percentage of the striped burrowing frog eggs than they did of the eggs of the dainty green tree frog.

  • The tadpoles left a certain percentage of the eggs of each of the five species unharmed, thus ultimately allowing them to hatch. 

  • The tadpoles consumed a lower percentage of the short-footed frog eggs than they did of the eggs of their own species.

  • The tadpoles consumed the same percentage of the dainty green tree frog eggs as they did of the little red tree frog eggs. 

ID: 80fd9454 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to support the student’s argument about the role of bufadienolide in the egg preferences of cane toad tadpoles. For each of five amphibian species included in the 2022 study, the table gives the percentage of available eggs that the cane toad tadpoles ate. According to the table, the tadpoles ate 10% of striped burrowing frog eggs and 1% of dainty green tree frog eggs, which suggests a preference for striped burrowing frog eggs over dainty green tree frog eggs. The table also indicates that neither of these species’ eggs produces bufadienolide. Thus, these data suggest that something other than the presence or absence of bufadienolide is needed to adequately explain the tadpoles’ egg preferences.

Choice B is incorrect. Although the table shows that for each of the five amphibian species, the cane toad tadpoles ate less than 100% of that species’ eggs, which demonstrates that the tadpoles did indeed leave some eggs for each species unharmed, this fact alone is irrelevant to the tadpoles’ preferences for some species’ eggs over other species’ eggs. Choice C is incorrect. Although the table indicates that the cane toad tadpoles ate 90% of the cane toad eggs and 7% of the short-footed frog eggs, which suggests that they prefer cane toad eggs over short-footed frog eggs, the table also indicates that cane toad eggs produce bufadienolide, whereas short-footed frog eggs do not. Therefore, these data are not sufficient to exclude that bufadienolide alone could explain the tadpoles’ preference for some species’ eggs over other species’ eggs. Choice D is incorrect. Although the table shows that for both dainty green tree frog eggs and little red tree frog eggs, the cane toad tadpoles ate 1% of those species’ eggs, it also indicates that neither produces bufadienolide. Thus, these data alone don’t indicate bufadienolide’s role in the tadpoles’ egg preferences.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID c4bee178

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: c4bee178

Moons of Dwarf Planets

Dwarf planet name Number of moons Name of moons
Haumea 2 Hi‘iaka, Namaka
Ceres 0 N/A
Makemake 1 MK 2
Eris 1 Dysnomia
Pluto 5 Charon, Nix, Kerberos, Styx, Hydra

Like Earth, some dwarf planets in the solar system have exactly one moon. Two examples of such dwarf planets are blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • Eris and Makemake.

  • Haumea and Eris.

  • Pluto and Haumea.

  • Makemake and Ceres.

ID: c4bee178 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement about dwarf planets that have exactly one moon. The table lists several dwarf planets in one column and the number of moons that each of those dwarf planets has in another column. The text states that some dwarf planets have exactly one moon and indicates that there are two examples. Only two dwarf planets in the table have exactly one moon: Eris and Makemake.

Choice B is incorrect. According to the table, Eris has exactly one moon, but Haumea has two moons. Choice C is incorrect. According to the table, Haumea has two moons, and Pluto has five moons. Thus, they are not examples of dwarf planets with exactly one moon. Choice D is incorrect because while the table indicates that Makemake has exactly one moon, the table shows that Ceres has no moons at all.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 63e7799d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 63e7799d

In vertical inheritance, parents pass genes to their offspring, but in horizontal transfer (HT), one species, often bacteria, passes genetic material to an unrelated species. In a 2022 study, herpetologist Atsushi Kurabayashi and his team investigated HT in multicellular organisms—namely, snakes and frogs in Madagascar. The team detected BovB—a gene transmitted vertically in snakes—in many frog species. The apparent direction of gene transfer seems counterintuitive because frogs usually don’t survive encounters with snakes and so wouldn’t be able to transmit the newly acquired gene to offspring, but the team concluded that BovB is indeed transmitted from snakes to frogs, either directly or indirectly, via HT.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the team’s conclusion?

  • BovB can be transmitted across frog species through HT.

  • Parasites known to feed on species of snakes and frogs in which the BovB gene occurs also carry BovB. 

  • BovB cannot be reliably transmitted from a snake species to bacteria that are usually encountered by frog species.

  • Frog species with BovB show few discernible advantages as compared with frog species that do not carry BovB.

ID: 63e7799d Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. If there are parasites that feed on both snakes and frogs, they could carry BovB from snakes to frogs. HT could occur “indirectly” through those encounters, which frogs are more likely to survive than snake encounters.

Choice A is incorrect. The team’s conclusion specifically argues that BovB is transmitted from snakes to frogs via HT, and this choice doesn’t mention snakes. Choice C is incorrect. The team argues that BovB is transmitted from snakes to frogs via HT, and this answer choice discusses a scenario in which the gene is not transmitted. Choice D is incorrect. Whether or not frog species with BovB are advantaged isn’t relevant to the team’s conclusion about how the gene is transmitted.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 0dba14e6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 0dba14e6

The increased integration of digital technologies throughout the process of book creation in the late 20th and early 21st centuries lowered the costs of book production, but those decreased costs have been most significant in the manufacturing and distribution process, which occurs after the authoring, editing, and design of the book are complete. This suggests that in the late 20th and early 21st centuries, blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • digital technologies made it easier than it had been previously for authors to write very long works and get them published.

  • customers generally expected the cost of books to decline relative to the cost of other consumer goods.

  • publishers increased the variety of their offerings by printing more unique titles but also printed fewer copies of each title.

  • the costs of writing, editing, and designing a book were less affected by the technologies used than were the costs of manufacturing and distributing a book.

ID: 0dba14e6 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of how digital technologies affected the process of book creation. The text explains that in the late 20th and early 21st centuries digital technologies lowered book production costs most significantly in manufacturing and distribution. The text goes on to point out that authoring, editing, and book design are distinct steps in the process that occur before manufacturing and distribution. Because the savings connected to digital technologies have been most significant in manufacturing and distribution, it’s reasonable to infer that those technologies had less of an effect on writing, editing, and designing books. 

Choice A is incorrect because the text focuses on lowered book production costs that occur after authoring has taken place; there’s no indication in the text whether digital technologies made writing and publishing lengthy books easier. Choice B is incorrect. Although it’s logical to conclude that customers would expect the cost of books to decline if production costs have declined, the text doesn’t address customer expectations for the cost of books or any other consumer goods. Choice C is incorrect because the text focuses broadly on how digital technologies have affected the cost of the publishing process; it doesn’t address the kinds of books being published or how many copies are printed.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 995d55fd

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 995d55fd

A subject of much speculation, distinctive sets of parallel ridges mark the icy crust of Europa, Jupiter’s smallest moon. Researchers now claim that the ridges’ formation mechanism mirrors that of a strikingly similar pair on Greenland’s ice sheet. There, surface water seeped through fissures in the sheet and formed a water pocket that subsequently disrupted the overlying ice, forcing fragments of it upward and outward into peaks, as the pocket froze and expanded. Although Europa lacks liquid surface water, the same process could be driven by the moon’s subsurface ocean.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Researchers think that the ridges on Europa and the ridges in Greenland may have been formed by the same process even though Europa, unlike Greenland, doesn’t have liquid water on its surface.

  • The primary difference between the ridges on Europa and the ridges in Greenland is that unlike the Europa ridges, the Greenland ridges are parallel.

  • The pair of ridges found on Greenland’s ice sheet appear to have formed long before the recently discovered sets of ridges on Europa formed. 

  • Researchers don’t understand why Europa is marked by so many sets of ridges when the moon doesn’t have any liquid water on its surface that could have collected and expanded under the icy crust.

ID: 995d55fd Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it accurately states the main idea of the text. The text focuses on formations of parallel ice ridges on Jupiter’s moon Europa that are said to be formed by the same mechanism that formed a parallel set of ridges on Greenland’s ice sheet. The text indicates that in Greenland, water on the surface seeps to the lower portion of the ice sheet, resulting in uplift that creates the ridges, and it states that although Europa lacks liquid water on its surface, the same process could be driven by an ocean below Europa’s surface. In other words, the main idea of the text is that parallel ridges in the ice on Europa and Greenland are likely caused by similar processes even though in Greenland the process begins with liquid water on the surface while Europa lacks liquid water on the surface.

Choice B is incorrect because the text states outright that the ridges on Europa are parallel and furthermore refers to Greenland’s ridges as "strikingly similar" to those on Europa. Choice C is incorrect because the text makes no mention of when any of the ice ridges formed, either separately or relative to one another. Choice D is incorrect because the text does not indicate any uncertainty about the reason for the ice ridges on Europa and, in fact, clearly states that researchers now claim to know the mechanism that created the ridges.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 860803dd

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 860803dd

Biologist Valentina Gómez-Bahamón and her team have investigated two subspecies of the fork-tailed flycatcher bird that live in the same region in Colombia, but one subspecies migrates south for part of the year, and the other doesn’t. The researchers found that, due to slight differences in feather shape, the feathers of migratory forked-tailed flycatcher males make a sound during flight that is higher pitched than that made by the feathers of nonmigratory males. The researchers hypothesize that fork-tailed flycatcher females are attracted to the specific sound made by the males of their own subspecies, and that over time the females’ preference will drive further genetic and anatomical divergence between the subspecies.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support Gómez-Bahamón and her team’s hypothesis?

  • The feathers located on the wings of the migratory fork-tailed flycatchers have a narrower shape than those of the nonmigratory birds, which allows them to fly long distances.

  • Over several generations, the sound made by the feathers of migratory male fork-tailed flycatchers grows progressively higher pitched relative to that made by the feathers of nonmigratory males.

  • Fork-tailed flycatchers communicate different messages to each other depending on whether their feathers create high-pitched or low-pitched sounds.  

  • The breeding habits of the migratory and nonmigratory fork-tailed flycatchers remained generally the same over several generations. 

ID: 860803dd Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly support Gómez-Bahamón and her team’s hypothesis about fork-tailed flycatchers. The text indicates that although two subspecies of the birds live in the same region, the tail feathers of the migrating males make a higher-pitched sound than the tail feathers of the nonmigrating males do. Gómez-Bahamón and her team hypothesize that female fork-tailed flycatchers are attracted to the particular sound made by the tail feathers of males of their own subspecies, which will bring about additional “genetic and anatomical divergence” between the two subspecies. If it were found that the pitch generated by the tail feathers of migrating males is getting higher over successive generations, it would indicate that the shape of the migrating subspecies’ tail feathers is diverging further from that of the nonmigrating subspecies. And if females continue to prefer the sounds of the males of their own subspecies, the females of the migrating subspecies will become acclimated to increasingly higher pitches over subsequent generations, causing further divergence between the subspecies. Thus, if it were found that migrating males’ tail feathers were producing higher pitches over time, that would support the researchers’ hypothesis.

Choice A is incorrect because the researchers’ hypothesis is that female flycatchers prefer the sounds produced by the tail feathers of males of their own subspecies, which will lead to further divergence between the two subspecies. This finding is about the shape of wing feathers and how that affects long-distance flight, whereas the hypothesis is about the shape of tail feathers and how that relates to female mate preference. Choice C is incorrect because the researchers’ hypothesis is that female flycatchers prefer the sounds produced by the tail feathers of males of their own subspecies, which will lead to further divergence between the two subspecies. This finding focuses on how the tail feather sounds communicate different messages, which doesn’t address differences between the subspecies or female preferences. Choice D is incorrect because the researchers’ hypothesis is that female flycatchers prefer the sounds produced by the tail feathers of males of their own subspecies, which will lead to further divergence between the two subspecies. The finding that breeding habits haven’t changed for either subspecies does not, by itself, suggest anything about female preferences or divergence between the two subspecies.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 04bcb7a9

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 04bcb7a9

Xin Wang and colleagues have discovered the earliest known example of a flower bud in a 164-million-year-old plant fossil in China. The researchers have named the new species Florigerminis jurassica. They believe that the discovery pushes the emergence of flowering plants, or angiosperms, back to the Jurassic period, which occurred between 145 million and 201 million years ago.

According to the text, how old was the fossil that Wang and colleagues discovered?

  • 150 million years old

  • 145 million years old

  • 164 million years old

  • 201 million years old

ID: 04bcb7a9 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it gives the age for the fossil discovered by Wang and colleagues that is directly supported by the text. According to the text, Xin Wang and colleagues discovered a 164-million-year-old plant fossil. This plant fossil included a flower bud, which the researchers believe provides evidence that flowering plants emerged in the Jurassic period, which falls between 145 million and 201 million years ago.

Choice A is incorrect because the text states that Wang and colleagues discovered a 164-million-year-old flowering plant fossil in China, not one that is 150 million years old. Although 150 million years ago would fall within the Jurassic period, according to the text it isn’t the age of the discovered fossil. Choice B is incorrect because the text states that Wang and colleagues discovered a 164-million-year-old flowering plant fossil in China, not one that is 145 million years old. Although 145 million years ago would fall at the end of the Jurassic period, according to the text it isn’t the age of the discovered fossil. Choice D is incorrect because the text states that Wang and colleagues discovered a 164-million-year-old flowering plant fossil in China, not one that is 201 million years old. Although 201 million years ago would fall at the beginning of the Jurassic period, according to the text it isn’t the age of the discovered fossil.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 12030076

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 12030076

NASA’s Aspera mission, led by Carlos Vargas, will investigate the circumgalactic medium (CGM), the huge swaths of low-density gas that fill and surround galaxies. Specifically, the team will focus on portions of the gas that exist in a “warm-hot” phase: these portions haven’t previously been observable but are thought to fuel new star formation and hold most of the mass that makes up a galaxy. Using a telescope capable of revealing these parts of the CGM, the Aspera mission should help answer long-standing questions about how galaxies emerge, change, and even interact.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • As the leader of NASA’s Aspera mission, Vargas will be the first person to investigate the makeup of the CGM.

  • Although galaxies that are surrounded by the CGM have been studied, researchers have been unable to directly observe low-density gas in the CGM in the “warm-hot” phase.

  • Researchers don’t yet have a complete understanding of the process of galaxy evolution but have raised the possibility that galaxies interact with each other at times.

  • The Aspera mission is expected to produce the first direct observations of CGM gas in the “warm-hot” phase, which likely has an important role in the evolution of galaxies.

ID: 12030076 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text begins by mentioning NASA’s Aspera mission, which will investigate the low-density gas that makes up the circumgalactic medium (CGM). According to the text, this mission will focus on a portion of the CGM’s gas that exists in a “warm-hot” phase; this “warm-hot” gas has not been previously observed, but it is thought to make up most of the mass of galaxies and play a part in star formation. Finally, the text mentions a telescope capable of examining this previously unobservable “warm-hot” gas: the Aspera mission will use this telescope in the hope of answering questions about galaxy formation and change. Therefore, the main idea of the text is that the Aspera mission is likely to produce the first direct observations of CGM gas in the “warm-hot” phase, which likely has an important role in the evolution of galaxies.

Choice A is incorrect. Although this choice mentions the Aspera mission, names its leader, and generally states the mission’s purpose, it does not reference the “warm-hot” gas or fully convey the reason why the Aspera mission is significant. Choice B is incorrect. Although this choice mentions the “warm-hot” gas that makes up a portion of the CGM, it does not reference the Aspera mission or describe its importance. The text also does not mention that galaxies surrounded by the CGM have been studied. Choice C is incorrect. Although this choice describes a problem related to the CGM that researchers have been attempting to solve and presents the speculation of those researchers, it does not mention the Aspera mission or describe its purpose.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID b470d853

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: b470d853
1,100 1,000 900 800 700 600 500 400 300 200 100 0Number of recreation visits(in thousands of visitors) June July AugustRecreation Visits by Month to Four US National Parks during the Peak Season in 2021Month Yellowstone Zion Grand Canyon Rocky Mountain
  • The following 4 lines are shown:
    • Yellowstone
    • Zion
    • Grand Canyon
    • Rocky Mountain
  • The Yellowstone line:
    • Begins at June, 939 thousand visitors
    • Rises sharply to July, 1,081 thousand visitors
    • Falls sharply to August, 922 thousand visitors
  • The Zion line: 
    • Begins at June, 676 thousand visitors
    • Falls sharply to July, 581 thousand visitors
    • Falls sharply to August, 467 thousand visitors
  • The Grand Canyon line:
    • Begins at June, 539 thousand visitors
    • Rises gradually to July, 557 thousand visitors
    • Falls sharply to August, 431 thousand visitors
  • The Rocky Mountain line:
    • Begins at June, 671 thousand visitors
    • Rises sharply to July, 905 thousand visitors
    • Falls sharply to August, 746 thousand visitors

In 2021, four of the United States national parks that were among the most visited were Grand Canyon National Park, Rocky Mountain National Park, Yellowstone National Park, and Zion National Park. The graph shows the number of visits for recreation to each of these parks during the three-month period with the highest number of visitors. A student notes that among the parks shown in the graph, the park with the highest monthly recreation visits in all three months was blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the text? 

  • Zion National Park.

  • Rocky Mountain National Park.

  • Yellowstone National Park.

  • Grand Canyon National Park.

ID: b470d853 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the statement about the US national park with the highest number of recreation visits during a three-month period. The line graph shows the number of recreation visits to four US national parks for the months of June, July, and August 2021. According to the graph, the number of recreation visits to Yellowstone National Park in June was approximately 940,000; in July, the number of visits was approximately 1,080,000; and in August, the number of visits was approximately 920,000. In all three months, the number of visits to Yellowstone was higher than the number of visits to any other park in each month.

Choice A is incorrect. According to the graph, the number of recreation visits to Zion National Park was approximately 680,000 in June, about 580,000 in July, and about 470,000 in August, each of which is lower than the number of visits to Yellowstone in the same months. Choice B is incorrect. According to the graph, the number of recreation visits to Rocky Mountain National Park was approximately 670,000 in June, about 900,000 in July, and about 750,000 in August, each of which is lower than the number of visits to Yellowstone in the same months. Choice D is incorrect. According to the graph, the number of recreation visits to Grand Canyon National Park was approximately 540,000 in June, about 560,000 in July, and about 430,000 in August, each of which is lower than the total visits to Yellowstone in the same months.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 99fdf71c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 99fdf71c

“When Dawn Comes to the City” is a 1922 poem by Claude McKay, who immigrated to the United States from the island nation of Jamaica as an adult. The poem conveys McKay’s contrasting feelings about New York City—his adopted home in the US—and his home country: blank

Which quotation from “When Dawn Comes to the City” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “A lonely newsboy hurries by, / Humming a recent ditty; / Red streaks strike through the gray of the sky, / The dawn comes to the city [New York City].”

  • “Dark figures start for work; / I watch them sadly shuffle on, / ’Tis dawn, dawn in New York. / But I would be on the island of the sea, / In the heart of the island of the sea.”

  • “And the shaggy Nannie goat is calling, calling, calling / From her little trampled corner of the long wide lea / That stretches to the waters of the hill-stream falling / Sheer upon the flat rocks joyously!”

  • “The tired cars go grumbling by, / The moaning, groaning cars, / And the old milk carts go rumbling by / Under the same dull stars.”

ID: 99fdf71c Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a quotation illustrating the claim that the poem conveys McKay’s contrasting feelings about New York City and Jamaica. McKay first presents a somewhat negative view of New York City, describing watching “dark figures” who “sadly shuffle” to work at dawn, and then indicates that he would instead like to be “in the heart of the island of the sea.”

Choice A is incorrect because the quotation focuses on a description of only one place (New York City, with its “lonely newsboy” and “red streaks” in the sky at dawn) rather than on different feelings about two places. Choice C is incorrect because the quotation focuses on a description of only one place (which isn’t named) rather than on McKay’s different feelings about two places. Choice D is incorrect because though McKay presents a negative image of an unnamed place with “tired cars” that grumble, moan, and groan, and “old milk carts“ that rumble by under “dull stars,” the quotation focuses on McKay’s feelings about only one place rather than on different feelings about two places.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID a44c7bd4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: a44c7bd4

Some ethicists hold that the moral goodness of an individual’s actions depends solely on whether the actions themselves are good, irrespective of the context in which they are carried out. Philosopher L. Sebastian Purcell has shown that surviving works of Aztec (Nahua) philosophy express a very different view. Purcell reveals that these works posit an ethical system in which an individual’s actions are judged in light of how well they accord with the individual’s role in society and how well they contribute to the community. To the extent that these works are representative of Aztec thought, Purcell’s analysis suggests that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • the Aztecs would have disputed the idea that the morality of an individual’s actions can be assessed by appealing to standards of behavior that are independent of the individual’s social circumstances. 

  • the Aztecs would not have accepted the notion that the morality of an individual’s actions can be fairly evaluated by people who do not live in the same society as that individual.  

  • actions by members of Aztec society who contributed a great deal to their community could be judged as morally good even if those actions were inconsistent with behaviors the Aztecs regarded as good in all contexts.

  • similar actions performed by people in different social roles in Aztec society would have been regarded as morally equivalent unless those actions led to different outcomes for the community. 

ID: a44c7bd4 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion about Aztec (Nahua) ethics. The text indicates that, according to Purcell’s interpretation of available Aztec philosophical works, the Aztec ethical system views an individual’s actions in relation to that individual’s societal role and how the actions affect the community. The text contrasts this view with another held by some ethicists, namely that actions are morally good or bad regardless of the context in which they occur. Thus, Purcell’s analysis suggests that the Aztecs would have asserted that the morality of an individual’s actions are rooted in that person’s position in the community and the actions’ effects and therefore cannot be determined in the absence of that context.

Choice B is incorrect. Although the text indicates that morally judging an action according to Aztec ethics requires an understanding of the action’s effects and the individual’s social circumstances, it does not specify that only members of that society can acquire this information. Choice C is incorrect because it implies that the Aztecs considered some actions good or bad regardless of the surrounding context, which contradicts the text’s claim that the Aztecs believed that the morality of an individual’s action is dependent on the action’s effects on the community and the person’s specific circumstances. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text indicates that in Aztec ethics the morality of an action depends in part on how it affects the community, this is only one of the two factors—the other being the person’s societal role—that need to be considered. Therefore, it is possible that two actions with the same effect on the community could be considered morally distinct if they are performed by individuals in different social roles.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID ff18829b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: ff18829b
5 4 3 2 1 0Rating (0 = no contribution, 5 = high contribution) project leaders stakeholders general publicAverage Ratings of Urban Agriculture’s Contribution to Various Social or Ecological ServicesGroup provision of medicinal plants improvement of neighborhood, attachment improvement of local microclimate
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • provision of medicinal plants
    • improvement of neighborhood attachment
    • improvement of local microclimate
  • The data for the 3 categories are as follows:
    • project leaders:
      • provision of medicinal plants: 2.0
      • improvement of neighborhood attachment: 3.0
      • improvement of local microclimate: 3.0
    • stakeholders:
      • provision of medicinal plants: 3.6
      • improvement of neighborhood attachment: 4.1
      • improvement of local microclimate: 4.1
    • general public:
      • provision of medicinal plants: 4.6
      • improvement of neighborhood attachment: 4.3
      • improvement of local microclimate: 3.8

Urban agriculture is the practice of growing plant- or animal-based products in urban settings such as community gardens and rooftop farms. Esther Sanyé-Mengual, Kathrin Specht, and their team surveyed three groups of people in Bologna, Italy—leaders of urban agriculture projects, stakeholders in urban agriculture (e.g., food researchers and urban farming associations), and the general public—to compare their views about the extent to which urban agriculture contributes to 25 social or ecological services that the team identified. The survey results show that, on average, project leaders rated urban agriculture as contributing less to blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the assertion?

  • providing medicinal plants than to improving the local microclimate.

  • improving community members’ sense of attachment to the neighborhood than to offering educational opportunities.

  • improving the local microclimate than to providing medicinal plants.

  • improving the local microclimate than to providing tourist attractions.

ID: ff18829b Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the assertion about urban agriculture. The graph shows the average survey ratings, on a scale of 0 to 5, from three groups of people—project leaders, stakeholders, and the general public—concerning the contributions of urban agriculture. According to the graph, project leaders gave an average rating of approximately 2 to urban agriculture’s contributions to the provision of medicinal plants, which is lower than the average rating of approximately 3 that project leaders gave to urban agriculture’s contributions to both improving the local microclimate and improving a sense of attachment to the neighborhood. This shows that project leaders rated urban agriculture as contributing less to providing medicinal plants than to improving the local microclimate.

Choice B is incorrect because the graph doesn’t provide data about urban agriculture’s contribution to educational opportunities; therefore, this comparison can’t be made. Choice C is incorrect because it contradicts the data shown in the graph. On average, project leaders gave a rating of approximately 3 to urban agriculture’s contributions to improving the local microclimate, which is higher, not lower, than the average rating of approximately 2 that they gave to its contributions to providing medicinal plants. Choice D is incorrect because the graph doesn’t provide data about urban agriculture’s contribution to providing tourist attractions; therefore, this comparison can’t be made.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID e80ba20d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: e80ba20d

Philosophers note that many people have an intuitive sense that while we ought not to lie, there may be circumstances in which lying is permissible. If this intuition is correct and we lack an inviolable duty to speak truthfully, what grounds opposition to lying in the first place? Japa Pallikkathayil has advanced one answer by appealing to a duty to respect others’ agential interests: the possession of false beliefs constrains agency, and thus we ought not to impede the formation of true beliefs unless doing so prevents a greater constraint on someone’s agency or an otherwise impermissible end.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • One potential means of justifying opposition to lying is Pallikkathayil’s argument that we have an obligation to respect other people’s agency that entails a commitment to truthfulness except in certain circumstances.

  • Many people have an intuitive sense that lying is permissible in some circumstances but lack a principled way to identify those circumstances, and Pallikkathayil’s argument may provide a means of resolving that problem.

  • Pallikkathayil’s argument suggests that if we have a duty to respect other people’s agential interests and if possession of false beliefs constrains agency, then we have an inviolable duty to speak truthfully.

  • Pallikkathayil’s argument shows that if our intuition that circumstances may make lying permissible is correct, then it is unclear whether there are any grounds for an opposition to lying in the first place.

ID: e80ba20d Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text begins by noting a common intuition that lying might sometimes be permissible, which raises the question of what is the reason for being against lying. The text then presents Pallikkathayil’s answer to this question: we have a duty to respect others’ agential interests (that is, we have an obligation to allow people to exercise their free will in order to best serve their own ends), false beliefs constrain agency (the implication here being that people who are deceived about what is true are impeded in acting in their own best interests), and so we should not hinder the formation of true beliefs (we should not deliberately deceive a person) unless doing so prevents a greater limitation on someone’s agency or prevents some otherwise impermissible end (for example, it might be morally permissible to lie to someone in the rare circumstance where a false belief would lead a person to act in their own best interest, and where they would not do so if they knew the truth). Thus, the main idea of the text is that Pallikkathayil offers a potential justification for opposing lying based on respecting agency, while still allowing for exceptions in specific circumstances.

Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t focus on people’s lack of a principled way to identify circumstances where lying is permissible or indicate that Pallikkathayil’s argument resolves this specific problem. Rather, the text presents Pallikkathayil’s argument that lies limit agency but may be permitted in very specific situations (to prevent a greater limitation on someone’s agency or an otherwise unacceptable outcome) as one of a number of possible arguments about why lies are undesirable but sometimes permissible. Choice C is incorrect because it directly contradicts the text. Pallikkathayil’s argument, as described in the text, wouldn’t lead to an "inviolable duty to speak truthfully." On the contrary, the text explicitly states that Pallikkathayil’s position is that interfering with people developing accurate beliefs is wrong, except when such interference prevents either a more significant limitation on someone’s agency or an outcome that would be unacceptable for other reasons. This indicates that Pallikkathayil’s argument allows for some exceptions to the duty to speak truthfully, making it not inviolable. Choice D is incorrect because Pallikkathayil’s argument doesn’t suggest that if it is permissible to lie in at least some circumstances, then it is unclear whether there are good reasons for opposing lying in any circumstances. Instead, the text presents Pallikkathayil as offering a specific ground for opposing lying (respecting others’ ability to act in their own best interests) while qualifying that assertion by presenting a situation in which lying might sometimes be morally permissible.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID e2829dd7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: e2829dd7
1,500 1,000 500 0Number of beam breaks -4 10 24 38 52 66 80 94 108 122 136 150Number of Infrared Beam Breaks by Mice Treated with CNO or Saline, by SexMinutes from treatment females with saline males with saline males with CNO females with CNO
  • All values are approximate.
  • The following 4 lines are shown:
    • females with CNO
    • females with saline
    • males with CNO
    • males with saline
  • The females with CNO line: 
    • Begins at negative 4, 500
    • Rises sharply to 10, 735
    • Rises sharply to 24, 1,100
    • Rises sharply to 38, 1,400
    • Falls sharply to 52, 1,000
    • Rises gradually to 66, 1,050
    • Falls gradually to 80, 980
    • Falls sharply to 94, 735
    • Falls gradually to 108, 700
    • Falls sharply to 122, 500
    • Remains level to 136, 500
    • Falls sharply to 150, 350
  • The females with saline line: 
    • Begins at negative 4, 500
    • Rises gradually to 10, 550
    • Falls gradually to 24, 505
    • Falls sharply to 38, 250
    • Falls sharply to 52, 75
    • Rises sharply to 66, 450
    • Falls gradually to 80, 350
    • Falls sharply to 94, 175
    • Remains level to 108, 175
    • Falls gradually to 122, 100
    • Rises gradually to 136, 175
    • Rises gradually to 150, 200
  • The males with CNO line: 
    • Begins at negative 4, 450
    • Rises gradually to 10, 530
    • Rises gradually to 24, 600
    • Falls gradually to 38, 550
    • Falls gradually to 52, 530
    • Falls gradually to 66, 500
    • Falls gradually to 80, 450
    • Remains level to 94, 450
    • Rises gradually to 108, 475
    • Falls sharply to 122, 235
    • Falls gradually to 136, 210
    • Falls gradually to 150, 205
  • The males with saline line: 
    • Begins at negative 4, 400
    • Rises sharply to 10, 505
    • Falls sharply to 24, 350
    • Falls gradually to 38, 275
    • Falls sharply to 52, 100
    • Rises sharply to 66, 225
    • Falls sharply to 80, 75

To investigate the influence of certain estrogen-responsive neurons on energy expenditure, biologist Stephanie Correa et al. treated female and male mice with either saline solution or clozapine-N4-oxide (CNO), which activates the neurons. Monitoring the activity levels of the mice by measuring how frequently the animals broke infrared beams crossing their enclosures, Correa et al. found that the mice in their study showed sex-specific differences in response to neuron activation: blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the assertion?

  • the four groups of mice differed greatly in their activity levels before treatment but showed identical activity levels at the end of the monitoring period. 

  • saline-treated females showed substantially more activity at certain points in the monitoring period than saline-treated males did. 

  • CNO-treated females showed more activity relative to saline-treated females than CNO-treated males showed relative to saline-treated males. 

  • CNO-treated females showed a substantial increase and then decline in activity over the monitoring period, whereas CNO-treated males showed a substantial decline in activity followed by a steep increase.

ID: e2829dd7 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The graph shows that the CNO-treated females were way more active than the CNO-treated males, while the saline-treated males and females (the control groups) had very similar activity levels. This supports the claim that there were sex-specific differences in the mice’s response to neuron activation.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. All four groups of mice started at nearly the same activity level before treatment (see how all four points are very close together at -4 minutes, meaning four minutes before treatment). Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t complete the assertion. The assertion is about the mice’s response to neuron activation, so we need to include the data about the CNO-treated females and males. Choice D is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. The line for the CNO-treated males does not show a “substantial decline” until around 122 minutes, and there is no “steep increase” afterward.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 194dd448

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 194dd448

“John of God, the Water-Carrier” is a 1913 short story by María Cristina Mena. In the story, the narrator presents John as being a hard worker who is fully dedicated to his job as water carrier, or aguador: blank

Which quotation from “John of God, the Water-Carrier” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “Very happy, he would jog home, the heavy silver pieces in his leather pockets making a discreet and dulcet ‘trink-trak’ between his jugs and his body.”

  • “He learned that the city aguador may not blow his whistle to halt the traffic while he gravely crosses the street, but must wait for the passing of many vehicles, some with horses and some outlandishly without.”

  • “From early morn to the fall of the afternoon he would go from fountain to fountain and from portal to portal, his lean body so accustomed to bending that he never thought of straightening it, his head bowed as if in prayer.”

  • “When his first jugs had worn out—the sweet-scented, porous red clay becomes perforated in time—he had buried them to their necks in the corner where he slept, and they were now his treasury.”

ID: 194dd448 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively illustrates the claim in the text that John is hard-working and dedicated to his job. In the quotation, John is portrayed as spending “early morn to the fall of the afternoon” working hard as a water carrier. John is also described as “so accustomed to bending” while doing his work “that he never thought of straightening” his body, instead remaining deeply focused on his work. These details portray John as a dedicated worker.

Choice A is incorrect because this quotation portrays John as happy about heading home after being paid. It doesn’t showcase John being hard at work. Choice B is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t pertain to John’s commitment to his work; it describes difficulties the traffic in the city causes John in the performance of his work. Choice D is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t pertain to John’s commitment to his work; it discusses what John does with his worn-out water jugs.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 08b28c1a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 08b28c1a

A researcher conducted an experiment inspired by studies suggesting that people may benefit from feeling frightened in certain circumstances, such as when watching scary movies or visiting haunted attractions. The researcher recruited several participants and had them walk through a local haunted house attraction. Immediately after exiting the attraction, each participant completed a survey about their experience. Based on the survey responses, the researcher claims that feeling frightened in controlled situations can boost a person’s mood and confidence.

Which quotation from a participant would best illustrate the researcher’s claim?

  • “After I came out of the haunted house, I felt very accomplished and less stressed.”

  • “My friends kept laughing as we were walking through the haunted house.”

  • “The haunted house was scary at first, but I knew everyone was just acting, so I felt less scared after a few minutes.”

  • “The sense of relief I felt at the end of the haunted house was similar to the feelings I have when I finish a scary movie.”

ID: 08b28c1a Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. This choice illustrates both “feeling frightened in controlled situations” (the haunted house) and the benefit of a boosted mood (“less stressed”) and confidence (“very accomplished”).

Choice B is incorrect. This choice isn’t the best illustration of the claim. While laughing may indicate a good mood, this choice provides no evidence of “feeling frightened” or boosted confidence. Another choice provides better evidence. Choice C is incorrect. This choice isn’t the best illustration of the claim. This choice demonstrates “feeling frightened” in a controlled environment, but it doesn’t provide strong evidence of boosted mood or confidence. Another choice provides better evidence. Choice D is incorrect. This choice isn’t the best illustration of the claim. While a “sense of relief” could be interpreted as a boosted mood, this choice doesn’t provide direct evidence of “feeling frightened” or of increased confidence. This choice simply suggests that haunted houses and scary movies have a similar effect. Another choice provides better evidence for the researcher’s claim.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 4a07be59

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 4a07be59

Neurobiologists Laura Cuaya, Raúl Hernández-Pérez, and colleagues investigated the language detection abilities of eighteen dogs. The researchers monitored the brain activity of Joey (an Australian shepherd), Mini (a mixed breed), and other dogs while the animals listened to three recordings: one of The Little Prince being read in Spanish, the second in Hungarian, and a third made up of short, randomly selected fragments of the first two, scrambled so that they didn’t resemble human speech. Each dog was familiar with either Spanish or Hungarian, but not both. The team concluded that differences in dogs’ anatomical features may affect their ability to distinguish speech from nonspeech.

Which finding from the study, if true, would most directly support the team’s conclusion?

  • Long-headed dogs accustomed to hearing Spanish tended to show more brain activity when hearing Spanish than long-headed dogs accustomed to hearing Hungarian showed when hearing Hungarian. 

  • Compared with shorter-headed dogs, longer-headed dogs showed a greater difference in brain activity when hearing either Spanish or Hungarian than when hearing the scrambled recording.

  • The pattern of brain activity that long-headed dogs showed when hearing the scrambled recording was different from the pattern of brain activity that short-headed dogs showed when hearing the language they were accustomed to. 

  • Compared with shorter-headed dogs, longer-headed dogs showed a greater difference in brain activity when hearing the language they were accustomed to than when hearing the other language.

ID: 4a07be59 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly support the research team’s conclusion about anatomical features and speech detection in dogs. The text explains that a team of researchers monitored the brain activity of dogs while the dogs listened to three recordings: one of spoken Spanish, one of spoken Hungarian, and one of scrambled fragments that weren’t recognizable as human speech. The text then states that the team concluded that differences in dogs’ anatomical features may affect their ability to distinguish speech from nonspeech. The finding that longer-headed dogs exhibited a greater difference in brain activity when listening to the speech recordings (in Spanish or Hungarian) versus the nonspeech (scrambled) recording compared with shorter-headed dogs would establish an association between an anatomical feature (head length) and responses (as measured by brain activity) to speech versus nonspeech. This observed relationship between head length and brain activity patterns during exposure to speech and nonspeech would support the team’s conclusion.

Choice A is incorrect because it describes a finding about dogs’ responses (as indicated by brain activity) to hearing their respective familiar languages rather than dogs’ ability to distinguish speech from nonspeech, which is what the team’s conclusion specifically addresses. Moreover, this finding pertains to only one anatomical type (long-headed dogs), so it wouldn’t support the conclusion that anatomical differences may affect dogs’ ability to distinguish speech from nonspeech. Choice C is incorrect because it describes a finding involving a comparison between long-headed dogs listening to nonspeech and short-headed dogs listening to speech, which wouldn’t provide enough information to support the researchers’ conclusion that anatomical differences may affect dogs’ ability to distinguish speech from nonspeech. To support that conclusion, the finding would need to show how dogs with different anatomical features (for example, long-headed and short-headed dogs) respond to recordings of speech as well as recordings of nonspeech. Choice D is incorrect because it describes a finding about dogs’ ability to distinguish between a familiar language and an unfamiliar one, not between speech and nonspeech. While this finding does compare dogs with different anatomical features (longer-headed vs. shorter-headed ones), it focuses on language recognition (Spanish vs. Hungarian) rather than the ability to distinguish speech from nonspeech, which is what the team’s conclusion specifically addresses.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID a7c52fa4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: a7c52fa4

Mean Time (in Seconds) Spent per Flower for Four Pollinator Genera

Pollinator genus Seconds per intact pin flower Seconds per damaged pin flower Seconds per intact thrum flower Seconds per damaged thrum flower
Habropoda 2.7 5.4 4.1 9.5
Osmia 5.2 8.2 7.1 8.3
Pierid 2.6 4.0 2.4 1.9
Xylocopa 2.3 2.8 2.5 2.2

To study how floral damage affects the behavior of pollinators, such as bees, a team of researchers punched holes in the floral tissue of flowers from the vine yellow jessamine (Gelsemium sempervirens), a plant that produces flowers that have either a long pistil and a short stamen (pin morphs) or a short pistil and a long stamen (thrum morphs). The researchers then compared the time different insect pollinators spent visiting intact pin and thrum flowers to the time such pollinators spent visiting the artificially damaged pin and thrum flowers. The researchers concluded that the effect of floral damage on time spent per flower varied by both floral morph and the genus of the pollinator.

Which choice best describes data from the table that support the researchers’ conclusion?

  • For pin flowers, damage led to longer times per flower in all pollinator genera, whereas for thrum flowers, damage led to longer times per flower only in Habropoda and Osmia.

  • Compared with pollinators belonging to the genus Osmia, pollinators belonging to the genus Xylocopa spent less time on damaged pin flowers but more time on damaged thrum flowers.

  • Damage led to shorter times per thrum flower in three pollinator genera (Osmia, Pierid, and Xylocopa), whereas it led to longer times per thrum flower in one pollinator genus (Habropoda).

  • Pollinators belonging to the genus Habropoda spent 2.7 seconds on intact pin flowers and 4.1 seconds on intact thrum flowers.

ID: a7c52fa4 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it describes data from the table that support the researchers’ conclusion that the effect of floral damage on time spent per flower varied by both floral morph and the genus of the pollinator. The table presents the average time pollinators spent per floral morph. The data in the table shows that for pin flowers, the average time spent per flower by all pollinator genera was higher for flowers that had been artificially damaged than for intact flowers. By contrast, for thrum flowers, the difference in time spent on intact and damaged flowers is seen for only some pollinator genera. This supports the researchers’ conclusion that both floral morph and the genus of the pollinator are factors involved in the effect that floral damage has on time pollinators spend per flower.

Choice B is incorrect. The table shows that pollinators belonging to the genus Xylocopa spent less time on both damaged pin flowers and damaged thrum flowers than pollinators belonging to the genus Osmia did. Choice C is incorrect. The table shows that the artificial damage to the thrum flowers led to shorter average times spent by pollinators on those flowers for only two of the four pollinator genera represented in the table, not three. Furthermore, this choice doesn’t address the effect the artificial damage had on pin flowers; thus, even if accurate, this evidence doesn’t support the researchers’ conclusion that both floral morph and pollinator genus affect time spent per flower when a flower has been damaged. Choice D is incorrect. While this statement is true based on the information in the table, it doesn’t provide evidence that supports the researchers’ conclusion that the effect of floral damage on time spent per flower varied by both floral morph and the genus of the pollinator because this choice provides information only about how much time one pollinator genus spent on intact flowers.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID a13c1c66

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: a13c1c66

Many animals, including humans, must sleep, and sleep is known to have a role in everything from healing injuries to encoding information in long-term memory. But some scientists claim that, from an evolutionary standpoint, deep sleep for hours at a time leaves an animal so vulnerable that the known benefits of sleeping seem insufficient to explain why it became so widespread in the animal kingdom. These scientists therefore imply that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • prolonged deep sleep is likely advantageous in ways that have yet to be discovered.

  • most traits perform functions that are hard to understand from an evolutionary standpoint.

  • it is more important to understand how widespread prolonged deep sleep is than to understand its function.

  • many traits that provide significant benefits for an animal also likely pose risks to that animal.

ID: a13c1c66 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. It most logically completes the text. The text says that some scientists can’t explain why prolonged deep sleep is so widespread, given that the known benefits of sleep don’t seem to make up for how vulnerable it leaves an animal. This suggests that prolonged deep sleep probably has unknown evolutionary benefits that make up for the vulnerability.    

Choice B is incorrect. It doesn’t logically complete the text. The text only discusses the benefits and risks of one trait: sleep. So there’s no basis for an inference about “most traits.” Choice C is incorrect. It doesn’t logically complete the text. The text says that it is already known that prolonged deep sleep is widespread in the animal kingdom. Rather, what some scientists can’t explain is WHY prolonged deep sleep is so widespread, given that the known benefits of sleep don’t seem to make up for how vulnerable it leaves an animal. Choice D is incorrect. It doesn’t logically complete the text. The text only discusses the benefits and risks of one trait: sleep. So there’s no basis for an inference about “many traits.”

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 350e2336

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 350e2336

The Haitian Declaration of Independence was issued in 1804, bringing to an end the revolution against colonial France that began in 1791. Written in French, which was not the first language of most Haitians but which was used throughout Europe as the language of international diplomacy, the declaration notes that Haiti will not bring rebellion to other Caribbean nations, promises to respect the sovereignty of its neighbors—widely understood as a reassurance to the United States—and sets up Haiti as an example for future struggles against colonizers (an implicit reference to the many colonies then found in the Americas). So even though the declaration is explicitly addressed to the Haitian people, it’s reasonable to conclude that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • aspects of the declaration were modeled on similar documents from other countries.

  • the French government may have been surprised by the declaration.

  • many Haitian people opposed the revolution and the declaration.

  • the declaration actually had several intended audiences.

ID: 350e2336 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The passage tells us that the declaration was written in a language important to European diplomacy but not most Haitians, states that the declaration included "a reassurance to the United States," and made implicit references to colonies in the Americas. Because of the messages within the declaration that were largely irrelevant to the Haitian people, we can assume that the Haitian people were not the only audience for this document.

Choice A is incorrect. There’s no mention in the passage of similar documents in other countries, so there’s no basis for this inference. Choice B is incorrect. Although there’s an implicit reference to European governments when the passage discusses how the declaration was written in French, "which was used throughout Europe as the language of international diplomacy," there is no discussion of the French government’s response to the declaration. Therefore, there’s no basis for this inference. Choice C is incorrect. The passage doesn’t mention the popularity of the revolution and declaration among the Haitian people, so there’s no basis for this inference.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID c6b470bb

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: c6b470bb

“Odalie” is an 1899 short story by Alice Dunbar-Nelson. In the story, a young woman named Odalie attends the annual Mardi Gras carnival in New Orleans, where she lives with her guardian Tante Louise. Dunbar-Nelson portrays Odalie as eager to escape the monotony of her everyday life: blank

Which quotation from “Odalie” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “Mardi Gras was a tiresome day, after all, she sighed, and Tante Louise agreed with her for once.”

  • “In the old French house on Royal Street, with its quaint windows and Spanish courtyard green and cool, and made musical by the plashing of the fountain and the trill of caged birds, lived Odalie in convent-like seclusion.”

  • “When one is shut up in a great French house with a grim sleepy tante and no companions of one’s own age, life becomes a dull thing, and one is ready for any new sensation.”

  • “It was Mardi Gras day at last, and early through her window Odalie could hear the jingle of folly bells on the [participants’] costumes, the tinkle of music, and the echoing strains of songs.”

ID: c6b470bb Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses a quotation from “Odalie” to illustrate the claim that Odalie is eager to escape the monotony, or tedious lack of variety, of her everyday life. In the quotation, Odalie describes feeling “shut up” and complains that she has “no companions” except for her “sleepy tante.” Odalie goes on to say that, as a result, her life is “dull” and she is “ready for any new sensation,” meaning she wants a change. This suggests that Odalie wishes to get away from her monotonous everyday life.

Choice A is incorrect. Although this quotation includes the word “tiresome,” which means dull, it does so to suggest Odalie’s negative feelings about Mardi Gras, which is a once-a-year celebration, not her feelings about her everyday life. This quotation therefore doesn’t express that Odalie’s everyday life is monotonous or that she wishes to escape. Choice B is incorrect. Although this quotation ends by saying that Odalie lives in seclusion, or isolation, it doesn’t express that Odalie’s everyday life is monotonous or that she wishes to escape. Instead, it describes the pleasant qualities of the house Odalie lives in, saying that it has “quaint windows” and a “green and cool” courtyard that is “made musical” by the sounds of a fountain and pet birds. Choice D is incorrect because this quotation describes the lively sounds of a Mardi Gras celebration that Odalie hears through her window, not the monotony of Odalie’s everyday life or her wish to escape.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 38d75269

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 38d75269

Janet Echelman is a sculptor and fiber artist. She has installed giant sculptures all over the world. Echelman uses bright and flowing materials, which mimic the wind. However, while her sculptures appear as delicate as a breeze, they are actually very durable.

Which quotation from an article about Echelman’s sculptures, if true, would most effectively illustrate the underlined claim?

  • “Echelman uses a special program that makes a 3D model of the sculpture.”

  • “The first part of planning a new sculpture is done using paper and pencil, and then a digital program is used to finalize the design.”

  • “The materials that Echelman uses to build her sculptures are both flexible and strong.”

  • “Each sculpture is designed to reflect local landmarks from the area in which it is eventually installed.”

ID: 38d75269 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents the quotation that most effectively illustrates the claim that Echelman’s sculptures appear delicate but are in fact quite durable. The text explains that Echelman’s sculptures include flowing shapes that mimic the wind. If it is true that the materials she uses are both flexible and strong, that would help explain why the works are durable even though they appear delicate.

Choice A is incorrect because the claim in the text is not about how Echelman models her work before sculpting. Choice B is incorrect because the claim in the text is not about the planning and design phases of Echelman’s work. Choice D is incorrect because the claim in the text is not about how the sculptures relate to their locations.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID c889e52e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: c889e52e

In 1935 Hallie Flanagan was chosen to lead the Federal Theatre Project (FTP). This project was part of the new Works Progress Administration (WPA), a program created by President Franklin D. Roosevelt to provide jobs for unemployed people during the Great Depression. As the director of the FTP, Flanagan created jobs for over 12,500 performers, designers, and other theater professionals across the country. She also kept ticket prices low for the shows they staged, which meant that many people could afford to experience theater for the first time.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Jobs provided by the FTP were intended mainly for performers, designers, and other theater professionals.

  • President Roosevelt created the WPA to provide jobs for unemployed people.

  • During the Great Depression, many people couldn’t afford to buy theater tickets.

  • As the director of the FTP, Flanagan succeeded in creating many jobs and introducing people to theater.

ID: c889e52e Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text begins by stating that Flanagan was chosen in 1935 to lead the Federal Theatre Project (FTP), which was part of a program created by President Franklin D. Roosevelt. The text then explains that as the director of the FTP, Flanagan created jobs for more than 12,500 theater professionals and ensured that ticket prices stayed low so that many people could afford to experience theater for the first time. Thus, the main idea of the text is that as the FTP’s director, Flanagan succeeded in creating many jobs and introducing people to theater.

Choice A is incorrect. The text does suggest that jobs provided by the FTP were intended mainly for theater professionals, but this isn’t the text’s main idea. The focus of the text is Hallie Flanagan’s work as the director of the FTP, with the text’s main point being that Flanagan succeeded in creating many jobs and introducing people to theater. Choice B is incorrect. The text does state that President Roosevelt created the WPA to provide jobs for unemployed people, but this is supporting information, not the text’s main idea. The focus of the text is Hallie Flanagan’s work as the director of the FTP, which was part of the WPA, and the text’s main point is that Flanagan succeeded in creating many jobs and introducing people to theater. Choice C is incorrect. It’s true that many people couldn’t afford to buy theater tickets during the Great Depression, but this isn’t the text’s main idea. The focus of the text is Hallie Flanagan’s work as the director of the FTP, with the text’s main point being that Flanagan succeeded in creating many jobs and introducing people to theater.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID f8befe75

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: f8befe75

Many intellectual histories of the Black Power movement of the 1960s and 1970s rely heavily on essays and other explicitly ideological works as primary sources, a tendency that can overrepresent the perspectives of a small number of thinkers, most of whom were male. Historian Ashley D. Farmer has shown that expanding the array of primary sources to encompass more types of print material—including political cartoons, advertisements, and artwork—leads to a much better understanding of the movement and the crucial and diverse roles that Black women played in shaping it. 

Which choice best describes the main idea of the text?

  • Farmer’s methods and research have enriched the historical understanding of the Black Power movement and Black women’s contributions to it.

  • Before Farmer’s research, historians had largely ignored the intellectual dimensions of the Black Power movement. 

  • Other historians of the Black Power movement have criticized Farmer’s use of unconventional primary sources. 

  • The figures in the Black Power movement whom historians tend to cite would have agreed with Farmer’s conclusions about women’s roles in the movement.

ID: f8befe75 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. It best describes the main idea of the text. The text starts by saying that historians of the Black Power movement are too reliant on openly ideological works, which were written mostly by men, as sources. The text then describes Farmer’s research: she has shown that including other kinds of sources leads to a better understanding of the Black Power movement and the role Black women played in it.

Choice B is incorrect. This doesn’t describe the main idea of the text. In fact, it conflicts with the text. The text says that historians have relied on "essays and other explicitly ideological works," which suggests that they have studied at least some of the intellectual dimensions of the Black Power movement. Choice C is incorrect. This doesn’t describe the main idea of the text. The text never mentions how other historians of the Black Power movement view Farmer’s use of unconventional sources. In fact, the text itself argues in favor of Farmer’s research, claiming that it has led to a "much better understanding of the movement." Choice D is incorrect. This doesn’t describe the main idea of the text. The text never mentions what any figures in the Black Power movement thought about women’s roles in the movement.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID ccf414c9

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: ccf414c9

E-book Sales as a Percentage of Total Unit Sales in All Book Formats for a Large US Trade Publisher, by Genre, 2006, 2011, 2016

Genre 2006 2011 2016
science fiction and fantasy 0.6 27.7 36.7
cookbooks 0 2.9 10.5
travel guides 0 5.5 24.6
romance 0.3 40.6 56.2

E-books became an increasingly popular means of reading in the United States in the 2000s and 2010s, though that popularity was concentrated in titles that, like those in most fiction genres, are meant to be read straight through from beginning to end. For books in nonfiction genres that do not tell stories and require the reader to flip back and forth through a volume, e-books were significantly less commercially successful. This can be seen by comparing blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to illustrate the claim?

  • the percentage of 2016 cookbook sales that were e-books with the percentage of 2016 science fiction and fantasy sales that were e-books.

  • the percentage of 2006 romance sales that were e-books with the percentage of 2016 romance sales that were e-books.

  • the percentage of 2006 romance sales that were e-books with the 2006 science fiction and fantasy sales that were e-books.

  • the percentage of 2011 travel guide sales that were e-books with the percentage of 2016 travel guide sales that were e-books.

ID: ccf414c9 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it uses data from the table to effectively support the claim that book genres that typically require the reader to start at the beginning of the story and read straight through are more commercially successful as e-books than other genres. For each of three years, the table presents four book genres and the percentage of total sales for each genre in e-book format. Cookbooks, a nonfiction genre, do not require the reader to read straight through. According to the table, 10.5 percent of total cookbook sales in 2016 were in the e-book format. The 2016 percentage of e-book sales was 36.7 percent in the science fiction and fantasy genre, which are typically stories read straight through from start to finish. The higher percentage of total sales of the story-based e-books in 2016 supports the claim in the text.

Choice B is incorrect because it compares the e-book sales of romance books in 2006 to those in 2016. Romance books are meant to be read straight through from start to finish. The text claims that books that are not stories and do not require reading straight through are not as commercially successful in e-book format as those that do. As this choice is only comparing e-book sales for one genre, it does not support the claim. Choice C is incorrect because both science fiction and fantasy and romance novels are fiction books meant to be read straight through from beginning to end. The text claims that books that are not stories and do not require reading straight through are less commercially successful in e-book format than those that do. As this choice does not compare e-book sales of story genres to e-book sales in genres that are not stories, it does not support the claim. Choice D is incorrect. Although the data in the table show that the travel guide e-books made up a greater percentage of total sales in 2016 than in 2011, this doesn’t illustrate the claim in the text that e-books in nonfiction genres not meant to be read straight through are less commercially successful. The claim cannot be supported without comparing the percentage of e-book sales between fiction and nonfiction book genres from the table. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID f942646f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: f942646f

Researchers Suchithra Rajendran and Maximilian Popfinger modeled varying levels of passenger redistribution from short-haul flights (flights of 50 to 210 minutes, from takeoff to landing) to high-speed rail trips. Planes travel faster than trains, but air travel typically requires 3 hours of lead time for security, baggage handling, and boarding that rail travel doesn’t, so short-haul routes take similar amounts of time by air and by rail. However, the model suggests that as rail passenger volumes approach current capacity limits, long lead times emerge. Therefore, for rail to remain a viable alternative to short-haul flights, blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • rail systems should offer fewer long-haul routes and airlines should offer more long-haul routes.

  • rail systems may need to schedule additional trains for these routes.

  • security, baggage handling, and boarding procedures used by airlines may need to be implemented for rail systems.

  • passengers who travel by rail for these routes will need to accept that lead times will be similar to those for air travel.

ID: f942646f Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. Air travel usually requires much more “lead time” than train travel, so short flights end up taking the same amount of time as a train trip to the same destination. But train travel starts to need more “lead time” when the trains approach their capacity limits. This suggests that train companies should add more trains for these routes if they want to encourage travelers to take a train instead of a plane.

Choice A is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never discusses “long-haul routes” for either air travel or rail travel, so there is no basis to make this inference. Choice C is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text only mentions these procedures to explain why the “lead time” is so long for air travel. It never suggests that trains need to start implementing these procedures too. Choice D is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The goal is to make sure that trains “remain a viable alternative” to short flights, which suggests that anything that makes train travel take longer should be avoided.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 3cc7d73b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 3cc7d73b

Using the Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared Astronomy (SOFIA), a team of astronomers mapped out the magnetic field of G47, one of the Milky Way’s galactic bones (dense clouds of gas and dust that run through the middle of the arm of a spiral galaxy). Surprisingly, the map revealed a magnetic field with no clear pattern or direction. The researchers had expected the magnetic field to be similar to the more uniform fields seen in galactic bones in other arms of the Milky Way.

According to the text, what was surprising about the researchers’ mapping of the magnetic field of galactic bone G47?

  • It showed a weaker magnetic field than expected. 

  • It implied that previous mappings of the magnetic field were inaccurate.

  • It produced magnetic field measurements similar to those for other galactic bones.

  • It revealed a magnetic field that wasn’t uniform.

ID: 3cc7d73b Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents the point about the magnetic field mapping that the text describes as surprising. The text indicates that a team of astronomers mapped the magnetic field of G47, a galactic bone in the Milky Way, and that the mapping "surprisingly" revealed "no clear pattern or direction" in the magnetic field. The text then adds that the researchers had thought the magnetic field would be as uniform as the magnetic fields of other galactic bones in the Milky Way are. In other words, the researchers were surprised that the mapping revealed a magnetic field that wasn’t uniform.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that the mapping surprisingly showed a weaker magnetic field than the researchers had expected. The text makes no mention of the magnetic field’s strength, only its lack of a clear pattern or direction. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that the magnetic field mapping suggested to researchers that previous mappings were inaccurate. Although the text states that the mapping didn’t show what researchers had expected based on their knowledge of other magnetic fields, there’s no indication that G47’s magnetic field had ever been mapped before. Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates that the researchers were surprised that the magnetic field was different from, not similar to, the magnetic fields of other galactic bones; the text states that because other galactic bones in the Milky Way are more uniform, the researchers had expected the magnetic field of G47 to be more uniform than it turned out to be.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 3f05e40f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 3f05e40f

In many of his sculptures, artist Richard Hunt uses broad forms rather than extreme accuracy to hint at specific people or ideas. In his first major work, Arachne (1956), Hunt constructed the mythical character Arachne, a weaver who was changed into a spider, by welding bits of steel together into something that, although vaguely human, is strange and machine-like. And his large bronze sculpture The Light of Truth (2021) commemorates activist and journalist Ida B. Wells using mainly flowing, curved pieces of metal that create stylized flame.

Which choice best states the text’s main idea about Hunt?

  • He often depicts the subjects of his sculptures using an unrealistic style.

  • He uses different kinds of materials depending on what kind of sculpture he plans to create.

  • He tends to base his art on important historical figures rather than on fictional characters.

  • He has altered his approach to sculpture over time, and his works have become increasingly abstract.

ID: 3f05e40f Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. According to the text, many of Richard Hunt’s sculptures “use broad forms rather than extreme accuracy”—in other words, they are more abstract than realistic. To illustrate Hunt’s abstract approach, the text characterizes his sculpture of Arachne as “vaguely human” and his work in honor of Ida B. Wells as “using mainly flowing, curved pieces of metal that create stylized flame.” Thus, the main idea is that Hunt often depicts the subjects of his sculptures using an unrealistic style.

Choice B is incorrect. Although the text indicates that one of Hunt’s sculptures is made of steel and another of bronze, there is no mention of why he chose these materials. Choice C is incorrect because the text says nothing about how Hunt chose the subjects for his sculptures. Furthermore, of the two examples provided in the text, only Ida B. Wells is an important historical figure; Arachne is a “mythical character.” Choice D is incorrect because the text says nothing about how Hunt’s style changed over time. In fact, although the two examples of Hunt’s work discussed in the text were created 65 years apart, they are both described as heavily stylized rather than realistic, which may suggest that some aspects of Hunt’s style haven’t changed over that time.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 4a85fea6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 4a85fea6

Euphorbia esula (leafy spurge) is a Eurasian plant that has become invasive in North America, where it displaces native vegetation and sickens cattle. E. esula can be controlled with chemical herbicides, but that approach can also kill harmless plants nearby. Recent research on introducing engineered DNA into plant species to inhibit their reproduction may offer a path toward exclusively targeting E. esula, consequently blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • making individual E. esula plants more susceptible to existing chemical herbicides.

  • enhancing the ecological benefits of E. esula in North America.

  • enabling cattle to consume E. esula without becoming sick.

  • reducing invasive E. esula numbers without harming other organisms.

ID: 4a85fea6 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of leafy spurge and engineered DNA. The text establishes that using chemical herbicides to control leafy spurge in North America can also harm other plants nearby. The text then indicates that it might be possible to use engineered DNA to prevent plants from reproducing, which would be useful for “exclusively targeting” leafy spurge. If it’s possible to exclusively target leafy spurge with engineered DNA—meaning that only leafy spurge is affected by the engineered DNA—and prevent the plant from reproducing, then leafy spurge numbers could be reduced “without harming other organisms.”

Choice A is incorrect because the text raises the possibility of using engineered DNA to prevent leafy spurge from reproducing, not to make individual leafy spurge plants more vulnerable to chemical herbicides that already exist. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t describe any ecological benefits of leafy spurge in North America; instead, the text is focused on using engineered DNA to prevent leafy spurge from reproducing and thereby reduce its numbers. The only ecological effects of leafy spurge in North America that are described in the text are harmful. Choice C is incorrect because the text describes the possibility of using engineered DNA to prevent leafy spurge from reproducing; it doesn’t offer a way to enable cattle to eat leafy spurge without becoming sick. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID de0a5b4e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: de0a5b4e

In 2022, researchers rediscovered ancient indigenous glyphs, or drawings, on the walls of a cave in Alabama. The cave’s ceiling was only a few feet high, affording no position from which the glyphs, being as wide as ten feet, could be viewed or photographed in their entirety. However, the researchers used a technique called photogrammetry to assemble numerous photos of the walls into a 3D model. They then worked with representatives of tribes originally from the region, including the Chickasaw Nation, to understand the significance of the animal and humanoid figures adorning the cave.

According to the text, what challenge did the researchers have to overcome to examine the glyphs?

  • The cave was so remote that the researchers couldn’t easily reach it.

  • Some of the glyphs were so faint that they couldn’t be photographed.

  • The researchers were unable to create a 3D model of the cave.

  • The cave’s dimensions prevented the researchers from fully viewing the glyphs.

ID: de0a5b4e Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The text describes the very low ceiling of the cave, making it impossible to photograph the very wide glyphs all at once.

Choice A is incorrect. The text doesn’t say this. It never suggests that the cave was remote or difficult to access, just that the cave itself was difficult to photograph well. Choice B is incorrect. The text doesn’t say this. The glyphs were so wide that they couldn’t be photographed completely. Choice C is incorrect. The text states the opposite of this. The researchers “used a technique called photogrammetry to assemble numerous photos of the walls into a 3D model.”

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID e18d75ea

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: e18d75ea

Depths at Which Four Deep-Sea Fish Species Live

Species Depth below the ocean surface
Footballfish 200–1,000 meters
Southern stoplight loosejaw 500–2,000 meters
Black seadevil 250–2,000 meters
Bollons’ rattail 300–800 meters

Some oceanic fish species live very deep underwater. Researchers collected data about the depths at which various species live.

Based on the information in the table, at what depth does the southern stoplight loosejaw live?

  • More than 2,000 meters below the surface

  • 150 to 400 meters below the surface

  • 500 to 2,000 meters below the surface

  • 250 to 500 meters below the surface

ID: e18d75ea Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The table shows the depths below the ocean surface at which four species of deep-sea fish live. According to the table, the range of depths at which the southern stoplight loosejaw lives is 500–2,000 meters below the surface.

Choice A is incorrect because the table indicates that the southern stoplight loosejaw lives 500–2,000 meters below the ocean surface, not at depths more than 2,000 meters below the surface. Choice B is incorrect because the table indicates that the southern stoplight loosejaw lives 500–2,000 meters below the ocean surface, not 150–400 meters below the surface. Choice D is incorrect because the table indicates that the southern stoplight loosejaw lives 500–2,000 meters below the ocean surface, not 250–500 meters below the surface.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID a04807d8

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: a04807d8

Number of Museum Visits (in Millions) from 2016 to 2019

Museum 2016 2017 2018 2019
National Museum of the American Indian 1.1 1.2 1.1 0.96
National Museum of African American History and Culture 0.73 2.4 1.9 2.0

A student is researching the number of visits each year to two museums, the National Museum of the American Indian and the National Museum of African American History and Culture. Of the four years included in the table, the year when both museums had the highest number of visits was blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • 2016.

  • 2018.

  • 2019.

  • 2017.

ID: a04807d8 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement about the year when both museums had the highest number of visits. The table shows the number of visits (in millions) from 2016 to 2019 to two museums: the National Museum of the American Indian and the National Museum of African American History and Culture. It indicates that the highest number of visits to the National Museum of the American Indian was 1.2 million in 2017 and that the highest number of visits to the National Museum of African American History and Culture was 2.4 million, also in 2017.

Choice A is incorrect because the table shows that in 2016, the National Museum of the American Indian had 1.1 million visits and that the National Museum of African American History and Culture had 0.73 million visits, both of which are lower than the number of visits these museums had in 2017. Choice B is incorrect because the table shows that in 2018, the National Museum of the American Indian had 1.1 million visits and that the National Museum of African American History and Culture had 1.9 million visits, both of which are lower than the number of visits these museums had in 2017. Choice C is incorrect because the table shows that in 2019, the National Museum of the American Indian had 0.96 million visits and that the National Museum of African American History and Culture had 2.0 million visits, both of which are lower than the number of visits these museums had in 2017.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID a0203977

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: a0203977

Annual Spending by International Tourists in Four Countries (in billions of US dollars)

Country 2016 2017 2018
South Korea $21.0 $17.2 $23.1
Japan $33.5 $37.0 $45.3
Thailand $48.5 $57.1 $61.4
Malaysia $19.7 $20.3 $21.8

One measure of international tourism is how much money visitors from abroad spend in a country. A student writing a report about tourism in several Asian countries notes that among the countries in the table, most had annual increases in international tourism revenue in 2017 and 2018, but that trend wasn’t universal. For example, blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the example?

  • in each year shown, the revenue from tourism by residents of those countries was greater than the revenue from international tourism.

  • Japan’s international tourism revenue was higher in 2016 than it was in 2018.

  • South Korea’s annual international tourism revenue decreased from 2016 to 2017.

  • in each year shown, Thailand had higher international tourism income than any of the other countries.

ID: a0203977 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the text, providing an example that illustrates that the annual increases in international tourism revenue in 2017 and 2018 weren’t universal. The table shows the annual spending by international tourists (which indicates annual international tourism revenue) in 2016–2018 in four Asian countries. According to the table, annual spending by international tourists in South Korea was $21.0 billion in 2016 and then decreased to $17.2 billion in 2017. This decrease shows that not all of the countries included in the table saw increases in annual international tourism revenue in 2017.

Choice A is incorrect because the table doesn’t provide any data regarding revenue from tourism by residents of those countries. Even if that data were provided, it wouldn’t be relevant to the claim that the trend of annual increases in international tourism revenue in 2017 and 2018 was not universal. Choice B is incorrect because the data in the table do not support the statement that Japan’s international tourism revenue was higher in 2016 than it was in 2018: the table indicates that Japan’s annual international tourism revenue was $33.5 billion in 2016, which is less than Japan’s annual international tourism revenue of $45.3 billion in 2018. Choice D is incorrect. Although the table does indicate that Thailand’s revenue from international tourism was higher than that of the other three Asian countries in 2016, 2017, and 2018, this information has no direct bearing on the text’s claim that not all the Asian countries represented in the table saw an increase in revenue from international tourism.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 1ffd60ce

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 1ffd60ce

An analysis by Alain Elayi and colleagues of coins minted in Sidon in the fifth and fourth centuries BCE reveals a change in their composition over time: while a coin from circa 450 BCE contains about 98% silver and 1% copper, a coin from 367 BCE (the end of Ba’alšillem II’s reign) contains 74.2% silver and 24.7% copper, giving it a relatively yellowish appearance that traders would have noticed. Because coins with a silver content below 80% were widely considered unsuitable for trade, Elayi et al. speculate that a crisis in confidence in the currency occurred in Sidon around 367 BCE, which was likely relieved—despite Sidon’s persistent oppressive financial obligations—as a result of Ba’alšillem II’s successor Abd’aštart I’s decision to blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • proclaim that the percentage of silver in coins suitable for trade would be raised to a threshold higher than 80%.

  • keep the amount of silver in Sidonian coins consistent with that in coins minted in 367 BCE but decrease their weight.

  • begin minting heavier coins with a proportion of silver to copper similar to that in coins minted in 367 BCE.

  • fund the mining of some copper deposits that were not available to Ba’alšillem II.

ID: 1ffd60ce Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Sidonian coins. As the text explains, researchers determined that Sidonian coins were made of silver and copper and that from 450 BCE to 367 BCE, the percentage of silver in each coin decreased from 98% to 74.2% while the percentage of copper increased from 1% to 24.7%. The text indicates that because the coins containing less than 80% silver weren’t considered suitable for trade (suggesting that copper was less valuable than silver) and looked different from coins containing more silver, the researchers suspect there was a serious loss in confidence in the currency in Sidon in 367 BCE when the copper content was high. It’s reasonable to assume that it wasn’t possible to boost confidence simply by devoting a greater amount of valuable silver to the currency, since Sidon was under significant and ongoing financial pressure; however, keeping the total amount of silver the same and reducing the amount of copper in the coins would have resulted in smaller coins with a higher percentage of silver. Therefore, it makes sense to suggest that Abd’aštart I (the ruler after 367 BCE) likely restored confidence in the currency by deciding to keep the amount of silver in Sidonian coins consistent with that in coins minted in 367 BCE but to decrease the coins’ weight.

Choice A is incorrect because the text conveys that a crisis in confidence in the currency of Sidon likely occurred around 367 BCE because the percentage of silver in coins had fallen below 80% (presumably because Sidon’s financial pressures meant that less silver was available for currency), making the coins unsuitable for trade. Thus, announcing that the threshold for the percentage of silver in coins would be raised—that is, that coins would need to contain even more than 80% silver to be suitable for trade—likely would have worsened the crisis rather than relieved it. Choice C is incorrect because the text strongly suggests that a crisis in confidence in the currency of Sidon was caused by the proportion of silver to copper in the coins in 367 BCE, with 74.2% being too little silver for the coins to be considered suitable for trade; therefore, it’s unlikely that minting coins with a similar proportion of silver to copper (that is, still around 74.2% silver) would have restored confidence, even if the coins were heavier. Choice D is incorrect because the text gives no indication that funding the mining of more copper would have relieved a crisis in confidence in the currency of Sidon. The text establishes that Sidonian coins that visibly contained copper weren’t considered suitable for trade, so Abd’aštart I wouldn’t have wanted to add even more copper to them, and it’s unclear how else copper mining would affect views of the currency.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 0ec15b5a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 0ec15b5a

Incorporated and Unincorporated Self-Employment Rates in Four Occupational Fields, 2015

Occupational field Incorporated self-employment rate Unincorporated self-employment rate
Construction and resource extraction 4.4% 14.8%
Installation, maintenance, and repair 2.7% 6.2%
Management, business, and financial services 8.9% 9.7%
Sales and related 5.8% 7.8%

Self-employed workers—individuals who are not employees of other individuals or businesses but instead earn their income as business owners, independent contractors, or freelance workers—make up an important part of the US labor force. In order to receive legal and tax benefits enjoyed by corporations, self-employed individuals may choose to incorporate their business. A 2015 survey of incorporated and unincorporated self-employment rates in four occupational fields showed that the highest incorporated self-employment rate occurred among people working in blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the text?

  • sales and related occupations. 

  • installation, maintenance, and repair occupations. 

  • construction and resource extraction occupations. 

  • management, business, and financial services occupations.

ID: 0ec15b5a Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the text. The text discusses self-employed workers in the US, and the table shows the US incorporated and unincorporated self-employment rates in four occupational fields in 2015. According to the table, the incorporated self-employment rate was 8.9% for the management, business, and financial services occupational field, which is higher than the incorporated self-employment rate shown for any other occupational field.

Choice A is incorrect because according to the table, the incorporated self-employment rate was 5.8% for the sales and related occupational field, which is lower than the 8.9% for the management, business, and financial services occupational field. Choice B is incorrect because according to the table, the incorporated self-employment rate was 2.7% for the installation, maintenance, and repair occupational field, which is lower than the 8.9% for the management, business, and financial services occupational field. Choice C is incorrect because according to the table, the incorporated self-employment rate was 4.4% for the construction and resource extraction occupational field, which is lower than the 8.9% for the management, business, and financial services occupational field.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID a9390104

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: a9390104

East Australian humpback whales migrate up to 10,000 kilometers each year to reach their breeding grounds. Researchers long believed that migrating whales live only on the extra energy they stored up during the feeding season. But marine biologist Vanessa Pirotta and her team aren’t so sure. They analyzed 20 years of observations of the migrating whales made by citizen scientists (members of the public who help collect data for scientific research). The team claims that the whales may not live only on their stored energy during migration.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the team’s claim?

  • Citizen scientists have observed many different types of marine animals feeding alongside the whales. 

  • Citizen scientists have made many observations of the whales feeding as they migrate to their breeding grounds.

  • Citizen scientists have made more observations of the whales migrating to their breeding grounds than of the whales returning to their feeding grounds.

  • Citizen scientists have recently begun to observe the whales migrating to their breeding grounds earlier in the year.

ID: a9390104 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly support Pirotta and her team’s claim that East Australian humpback whales may not live only on stored energy during migration. The text explains that it has long been thought that East Australian humpback whales store extra energy during the feeding season and then use that energy to survive while traveling to their breeding grounds. If it were true that citizen scientists have often seen the whales feeding as they migrate to the breeding grounds, that would indicate that the whales sometimes feed and take in additional energy during the journey, meaning that they may not rely only on energy they stored before migrating.

Choice A is incorrect because finding that citizen scientists have observed many different types of marine animals feeding alongside the whales would have no bearing on the team’s claim; the behavior of other animals is irrelevant, and without indicating the timing of the observed feeding, the finding wouldn’t reveal whether the whales rely only on previously stored energy or ever take in additional energy during migration. Choice C is incorrect because finding that citizen scientists have more often observed whales on the way to their breeding grounds than returning to their feeding grounds would have no bearing on the team’s claim. Since it would provide information about the timing of observations but not about the whales’ observed activities, the finding wouldn’t reveal whether the whales rely only on previously stored energy or ever take in additional energy during migration. Choice D is incorrect because finding that citizen scientists have recently started seeing the whales migrate to their breeding grounds earlier in the year would have no bearing on the team’s claim. Since it would provide information about a change in the timing of migration but not about the whales’ observed activities while migrating, the finding wouldn’t reveal whether the whales rely only on previously stored energy or ever take in additional energy during migration.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 16025337

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 16025337

The following text is adapted from William Shakespeare’s 1609 poem “Sonnet 27.” The poem is addressed to a close friend as if he were physically present.

Weary with toil, I [hurry] to my bed,

The dear repose for limbs with travel tired;

But then begins a journey in my head

To work my mind, when body’s work’s expired:

For then my thoughts—from far where I abide—

[Begin] a zealous pilgrimage to thee,

And keep my drooping eyelids open wide,

What is the main idea of the text?

  • The speaker is asleep and dreaming about traveling to see the friend.

  • The speaker is planning an upcoming trip to the friend’s house. 

  • The speaker is too fatigued to continue a discussion with the friend.

  • The speaker is thinking about the friend instead of immediately falling asleep.

ID: 16025337 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The speaker describes going to bed for “repose” (rest) but finding that his thoughts are focused on the friend the speaker is addressing, and the thoughts are keeping the speaker awake.

Choice A is incorrect because the speaker isn’t asleep; the thoughts about the friend are keeping the speaker awake. Choice B is incorrect because the speaker isn’t talking about taking a literal trip; rather, the speaker uses the metaphor of a journey to describe internal thoughts. Choice C is incorrect because the speaker isn’t having a discussion with the friend.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 20583752

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 20583752

“The Poet Walt Whitman” is an 1887 essay by José Martí, a Cuban author and political activist, originally written in Spanish. In the essay, Martí explores the value of literature, arguing that a society’s spiritual well-being depends on the character of its literary culture: blank

Which quotation from a translation of “The Poet Walt Whitman” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “Poetry, which brings together or separates, which fortifies or brings anguish, which shores up or demolishes souls, which gives or robs men of faith and vigor, is more necessary to a people than industry itself, for industry provides them with a means of subsistence, while literature gives them the desire and strength for life.”

  • “Every society brings to literature its own form of expression, and the history of the nations can be told with greater truth by the stages of literature than by chronicles and decades.”

  • “Where will a race of men go when they have lost the habit of thinking with faith about the scope and meaning of their actions? The best among them, those who consecrate Nature with their sacred desire for the future, will lose, in a sordid and painful annihilation, all stimulus to alleviate the ugliness of humanity.”

  • “Listen to the song of this hardworking and satisfied nation; listen to Walt Whitman. The exercise of himself exalts him to majesty, tolerance exalts him to justice, and order to joy.”

ID: 20583752 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively illustrates the claim that Martí argues that a society’s spiritual well-being depends on the character of its literary culture. In the quotation, Martí asserts that poetry is “more necessary to a people than industry itself” and that it has the power to provide people with “faith and vigor.” He also adds that literature gives people “the desire and strength for life.” Therefore, this quotation shows that Martí believes that literature is a societal necessity because it uplifts people and nourishes their spiritual well-being.

Choice B is incorrect. Although this quotation emphasizes the importance of literature, it focuses on how the nature of a society is reflected in that society’s literature rather than on literature’s value for people’s spiritual well-being. Choice C is incorrect. Although this quotation involves an element of spirituality, it doesn’t discuss literature. The quotation instead focuses on humanity’s actions. Choice D is incorrect because this quotation mainly focuses on the importance of Walt Whitman rather than on the value of literature in general.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID b28dc26d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: b28dc26d

The linguistic niche hypothesis (LNH) posits that the exotericity of languages (how prevalent non-native speakers are) and grammatical complexity are inversely related, which the LNH ascribes to attrition of complex grammatical rules as more non-native speakers adopt the language but fail to acquire those rules. Focusing on two characteristics that are positive indices of grammatical complexity, fusion (when new phonemes arise from the merger of previously distinct ones) and informativity (languages’ capacity for meaningful variation), Olena Shcherbakova and colleagues conducted a quantitative analysis for more than 1,300 languages and claim the outcome is inconsistent with the LNH.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support Shcherbakova and colleagues’ claim?

  • Shcherbakova and colleagues’ analysis showed a slightly negative correlation between grammatical complexity and fusion and between grammatical complexity and informativity.

  • Shcherbakova and colleagues’ analysis showed a slightly negative correlation between grammatical complexity and exotericity.

  • Shcherbakova and colleagues’ analysis showed a slightly positive correlation between grammatical complexity and fusion.

  • Shcherbakova and colleagues’ analysis showed a slightly positive correlation between fusion and exotericity and between informativity and exotericity.

ID: b28dc26d Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support Shcherbakova and colleagues’ claim that the outcome of their study is inconsistent with the linguistic niche hypothesis (LNH). The text explains that the LNH holds that there is an inverse relationship between the prevalence of non-native speakers of a language (exotericity) and the grammatical complexity of that language—that is, that as the number of non-native speakers increases, grammatical complexity decreases, and vice versa. According to the text, Shcherbakova and colleagues focused on two positive indications of grammatical complexity—fusion and informativity—and analyzed their occurrence in over 1,300 languages. If the researchers found a slightly positive correlation between fusion and exotericity and between informativity and exotericity—meaning that to some extent, grammatical complexity increases as the number of non-native speakers of a language increases—their outcome would not be consistent with the assumption that exotericity and grammatical complexity are inversely related (the LNH).

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t be possible to say that a finding of a slightly negative correlation between grammatical complexity and both fusion and informativity is inconsistent or consistent with the LNH, since the finding would address only grammatical complexity (given that fusion and informativity are aspects of grammatical complexity) and wouldn’t move beyond that factor to address its relationship to the prevalence of non-native speakers of a language (exotericity), which is the relationship the LNH focuses on. Choice B is incorrect because a finding of a slightly negative correlation between grammatical complexity and the prevalence of non-native speakers of a language (exotericity)—meaning that as the number of non-native speakers increases, grammatical complexity somewhat decreases, and vice versa—would be consistent, not inconsistent, with the LNH, since the text indicates that according to the LNH, there is an inverse relationship between grammatical complexity and exotericity; a negative correlation reflects an inverse relationship. Choice C is incorrect because it wouldn’t be possible to say that a finding of a slightly positive correlation between grammatical complexity and fusion is inconsistent or consistent with the LNH, since the finding would address only grammatical complexity (given that fusion is a positive indication of grammatical complexity) and wouldn’t move beyond that factor to address its relationship to the prevalence of non-native speakers of a language (exotericity), which is the relationship the LNH focuses on.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 659c6c1d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 659c6c1d

The following text is adapted from Robert Louis Stevenson’s 1883 novel Treasure Island. Bill is a sailor staying at the Admiral Benbow, an inn run by the narrator’s parents.

Every day when [Bill] came back from his stroll he would ask if any seafaring men had gone by along the road. At first we thought it was the want of company of his own kind that made him ask this question, but at last we began to see he was desirous to avoid them. When a seaman did [stay] at the Admiral Benbow (as now and then some did) he would look in at him through the curtained door before he entered the parlour; and he was always sure to be as silent as a mouse when any such was present.

According to the text, why does Bill regularly ask about “seafaring men”?

  • He’s hoping to find an old friend and fellow sailor.

  • He’s trying to secure a job as part of the crew on a new ship.

  • He isn’t sure that other guests at the inn will be welcoming of sailors.

  • He doesn’t want to encounter any other sailor unexpectedly.

ID: 659c6c1d Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The narrator says that, at first, they thought Bill asked regularly about other seafarers because he wanted their company, but eventually they realized that Bill actually wanted to avoid them.

Choice A is incorrect. This isn’t the reason the text gives for why Bill regularly asks about “seafaring men.” The narrator says that, at first, they thought Bill asked regularly about other seafarers because he wanted their company, but eventually they realized that Bill wanted to avoid them. Choice B is incorrect. This isn’t the reason the text gives for why Bill regularly asks about “seafaring men.” The narrator says that, at first, they thought Bill asked regularly about other seafarers because he wanted their company, but eventually they realized that Bill wanted to avoid them. Choice C is incorrect. This isn’t the reason the text gives for why Bill regularly asks about “seafaring men.” The narrator says that, at first, they thought Bill asked regularly about other seafarers because he wanted their company, but eventually they realized that Bill wanted to avoid them.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID fcae209f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: fcae209f

The Nacional tree is a rare variety of cacao. Nacionals were thought to have gone extinct by the twentieth century due to a fungus. This fungus can spread from tree to nearby tree through the air and causes disease. But around 2013, cacao expert Servio Pachard located some of these Nacional trees. The trees were in the Piedra de Plata coastal forest, within a hard-to-reach valley in Ecuador. Conservationists inferred that the Nacional trees in Piedra de Plata might have avoided the diseases that wiped out the other Nacionals because blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • early twentieth-century scientists did not know why so many Nacionals were becoming infected.

  • the ability of the fungus to travel through the air was only recently discovered.

  • they were too far from the other Nacional trees infected by the fungus to become infected themselves.

  • the chocolate made from their pods was highly valued.

ID: fcae209f Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the Nacional trees’ survival in Piedra de Plata. The text states that the fungus that caused Nacional trees elsewhere to become diseased spreads from tree to nearby tree through the air. The text also mentions that the surviving Nacional trees were found in a hard-to-reach valley in Ecuador. Given this information, it’s logical to conclude that these trees might have avoided infection because they were geographically isolated from infected Nacional trees, which prevented the airborne fungus from reaching them.

Choice A is incorrect because early twentieth-century scientists’ lack of knowledge about the infection that affected many Nacionals doesn’t explain how the trees in the Piedra de Plata coastal forest survived. The text is concerned with the physical factors that allowed certain trees to avoid infection, not with scientists’ understanding of the disease. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text mentions that the fungus spreads through the air, it doesn’t indicate when this ability was discovered. Moreover, even if the ability to move through the air was recently discovered, that wouldn’t explain how the trees in Piedra de Plata avoided infection in the past. Choice D is incorrect because the value of the chocolate made from Nacional pods doesn’t explain how the trees in the Piedra de Plata coastal forest avoided disease. The text focuses on the physical spread of the fungus that caused most Nacionals to become diseased, not on economic factors related to the trees’ products.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 8f3a200e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 8f3a200e

Some astronomers searching for extraterrestrial life have proposed that atmospheric NH3 (ammonia) can serve as a biosignature gas—an indication that a planet harbors life. Jingcheng Huang, Sara Seager, and colleagues evaluated this possibility, finding that on rocky planets, atmospheric NH3 likely couldn’t reach detectably high levels in the absence of biological activity. But the team also found that on so-called mini-Neptunes—gas planets smaller than Neptune but with atmospheres similar to Neptune’s—atmospheric pressure and temperature can be high enough to produce atmospheric NH3.

Based on the text, Huang, Seager, and colleagues would most likely agree with which statement about atmospheric NH3?

  • Its presence is more likely to indicate that a planet is a mini-Neptune than that the planet is a rocky planet that could support life. 

  • Its absence from a planet that’s not a mini-Neptune indicates that the planet probably doesn’t have life. 

  • It should be treated as a biosignature gas if detected in the atmosphere of a rocky planet but not if detected in the atmosphere of a mini-Neptune.

  • It doesn’t reliably reach high enough concentrations in the atmospheres of rocky planets or mini-Neptunes to be treated as a biosignature gas. 

ID: 8f3a200e Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it states a conclusion the researchers likely agree with, given the details in the text. The text explains that a biosignature gas is a gas that can be used as an indicator that a planet harbors some form of life and some astronomers have proposed that NH3 could serve as a biosignature gas. The researchers evaluating this claim found that the atmosphere of rocky planets would be unlikely to reach "detectably high levels" of NH3 without biological activity, which would support the proposal of NH3 serving as a biosignature gas. However, the text also states that mini-Neptune planets can produce NH3 in the absence of biological activity. Thus, the text is structured to lead to the conclusion that detectable levels of NH3 in the atmospheres of rocky planets could constitute a biosignature, but that is not the case for detectable levels of the gas in the atmospheres of mini-Neptune planets.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that biological activity likely accounts for detectable levels of NH3 in the atmospheres of rocky planets but mini-Neptune planets can have detectable levels of NH3 in their atmospheres in the absence of biological activity. Therefore, both rocky planets and mini-Neptune planets can have detectable levels of atmospheric NH3. Choice B is incorrect because the text states that for NH3 to reach detectable levels in the atmospheres of rocky planets likely means they harbor biological activity, meaning that rocky planets with detectable NH3 usually harbor biological activity. However, that does not entail that every rocky planet with biological activity will have detectable levels of NH3 in their atmospheres. Choice D is incorrect because the text claims only that some astronomers have proposed using NH3 as a biosignature gas without mentioning a minimum concentration of atmospheric NH3 that must be met for it to function as a biosignature gas.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID db2da2bf

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: db2da2bf

In 2019, 20 previously unknown moons were confirmed to be orbiting Saturn. Three of the moons have prograde orbits (orbiting in the direction the planet spins), and the other 17 have retrograde orbits (orbiting in the opposite direction of the planet’s spin). All but one of the 20 moons are thought to be remnants of bodies that orbited Saturn until they broke apart in collisions. Although the one exceptional moon orbits in the same direction as the planet’s spin, its orbit is highly eccentric compared to the rest, which may suggest that it has a different origin than the other 19 moons.

Based on the text, which choice best describes the moon with the eccentric orbit?

  • It doesn’t have a retrograde orbit, but it likely has the same origin as the moons with retrograde orbits.

  • Its orbit is so tilted with respect to the other moons’ orbits that it’s neither prograde nor retrograde.

  • It has a prograde orbit that is likely the result of having collided with another body orbiting Saturn. 

  • It has a prograde orbit and may not be a remnant of an earlier body that orbited Saturn.

ID: db2da2bf Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately describes the moon with the eccentric orbit. The text indicates that three of the 20 newly discovered moons have prograde orbits, meaning that they orbit Saturn in the same direction as the planet’s spin, while the other 17 moons have retrograde orbits, meaning that they orbit Saturn in the opposite direction of the planet’s spin. The text then states that 19 of the 20 moons appear to be the remains of earlier bodies that orbited Saturn but were broken apart in collisions. The one exception is a moon that orbits Saturn in the same direction as the planet’s spin, meaning that the exceptional moon’s orbit is prograde. The text goes on to state that the exceptional moon’s orbit is so eccentric that the moon may have formed through a different process than the other 19 moons. The moon with the eccentric orbit, therefore, has a prograde orbit and may not be a remnant of an earlier body that orbited Saturn.

Choice A is incorrect because nothing in the text supports the idea that the moon with the eccentric orbit likely has the same origin as the moons with retrograde orbits. Although it’s true that the moon has a prograde orbit (and thus doesn’t have a retrograde orbit), the only information the text provides about the moon’s origin is that it may be different than the origin of the other 19 moons. Choice B is incorrect because the text states that the moon in question orbits Saturn in the same direction as the planet’s spin, meaning that the moon’s orbit is prograde, not that its orbit is neither prograde nor retrograde. Choice C is incorrect because the text merely notes that the moon in question has a prograde orbit without giving any indication of what likely caused that orbit.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 39de2206

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 39de2206

The Post Office is a 1912 play by Rabindranath Tagore, originally written in Bengali. The character Amal is a young boy who imagines that the people he sees passing the window of his home are carefree even when engaged in work or chores, as is evident when he says to the daughter of a flower seller, blank

Which quotation from The Post Office most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “I see, you don’t wish to stop; I don’t care to stay on here either.”

  • “Oh, flower gathering? That is why your feet seem so glad and your anklets jingle so merrily as you walk.”

  • “I’ll pay when I grow up—before I leave to look for work out on the other side of that stream there.”

  • “Wish I could be out too. Then I would pick some flowers for you from the very topmost branches right out of sight.”

ID: 39de2206 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most effectively illustrates the claim that Amal imagines the people he sees are carefree even when engaged in work. In the quotation, Amal observes that the flower seller’s daughter is “flower gathering,” or working, as the text indicates. Moreover, Amal notes that the daughter’s feet “seem so glad” and her “anklets jingle so merrily,” suggesting that Amal believes that the flower seller’s daughter is cheerful.

Choice A is incorrect because the quotation makes no observation about the cheerful mood of the flower seller’s daughter. Choice C is incorrect because the quotation discusses how Amal envisions his future, not the feelings of the flower seller’s daughter. Choice D is incorrect because the quotation discusses Amal’s wishes, not the feelings of the flower seller’s daughter.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 2287b040

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 2287b040

In the 1960s, Chavela Vargas became an unlikely star in ranchera, a style of traditional Mexican music. Most ranchera singers had clear, polished voices and performed with a full band. But Vargas accompanied her raspy voice with just her guitar. Dressed in men’s trousers and a poncho, she would perform classic songs that had been written from a male point of view and were usually sung by men. She also altered those songs by performing them much more slowly than other ranchera singers did. The slower tempo allowed her to express the emotional quality of the lyrics more fully.

According to the text, what is one way that Vargas differed from other ranchera singers?

  • She possessed a voice that was clear and polished.

  • She avoided singing songs written from a male point of view.

  • She disliked performing classic songs.

  • She altered classic songs by slowing them down.

ID: 2287b040 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it accurately describes an aspect of Chavela Vargas that the text indicates is unusual among ranchera artists. According to the text, Vargas differed from other ranchera singers by slowing the tempo of classic songs, which allowed her to express the emotional quality of the lyrics more fully.

Choice A is incorrect because the text states that Vargas possessed an unusually raspy voice for a ranchera singer, not a clear and polished voice. Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that Vargas was known to perform songs written from a male point of view, not that she avoided such songs. Choice C is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that Vargas disliked performing classic songs. Rather, it suggests that she found innovative ways of performing them to emphasize their emotional content, which seems to suggest an affinity for such songs, not dislike.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID d5c2a4d4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: d5c2a4d4

The following text is adapted from Guy de Maupassant’s nineteenth-century short story “The Trip of Le Horla” (translated by Albert M. C. McMaster, A. E. Henderson, Mme. Quesada, et al.). The narrator is part of a group traveling in a hot-air balloon at night.

The earth no longer seems to exist, it is buried in milky vapors that resemble a sea. We are now alone in space with the moon, which looks like another balloon travelling opposite us; and our balloon, which shines in the air, appears like another, larger moon, a world wandering in the sky amid the stars, through infinity. We no longer speak, think nor live; we float along through space in delicious inertia. The air which is bearing us up has made of us all beings which resemble itself, silent, joyous, irresponsible beings, peculiarly alert, although motionless.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • The narrator feels a growing sense of isolation even though his companions are nearby during the balloon ride.

  • The narrator and his companions are completely absorbed in the change in perspective they gain while riding in the balloon.

  • The narrator and his companions are troubled by the disorienting effects of the altitude while riding in the balloon.

  • The narrator is pleasantly surprised by his companions’ unrestrained enthusiasm about the sensation of riding in the balloon.

ID: d5c2a4d4 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The narrator describes the view he and his companions have from the balloon: the earth lies beneath "milky vapors," and the balloon itself looks like another moon. The narrator goes on to explain how the people riding in the balloon are affected by the ride, explaining that they are immersed in the experience: floating along in "delicious inertia," or inactivity, like "silent, joyous, irresponsible beings." Thus, the main idea is that the narrator and his companions are completely absorbed in the change in perspective they gain while riding in the balloon.

Choice A is incorrect because the narrator never describes himself as feeling isolated from his companions; instead, he characterizes riding in the balloon as an experience he is sharing with them. And although he does imply a sense of isolation, it is isolation from those on the ground, as when he says of himself and his companions, "We are now alone." Choice C is incorrect because the narrator doesn’t suggest that he or his companions are troubled by the effects of the balloon ride. Instead, he describes himself and his companions as "joyous" and the experience of floating in the balloon as "delicious." Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that the narrator is surprised by his companions’ response to the balloon ride. In fact, the text indicates that the narrator and his companions are having the same experience: they’re described as "silent" and "motionless," rather than as having unrestrained enthusiasm.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID cf7491c1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: cf7491c1

Characteristics of Five Recently Discovered Gas Exoplanets

Exoplanet designation Mass (Jupiters) Radius (Jupiters) Orbital period (days) Distance from the Sun (parsecs)
TOI-640 b 0.88 1.771 5.003 340
TOI-1601 b 0.99 1.239 5.331 336
TOI-628 b 6.33 1.060 3.409 178
TOI-1478 b 0.85 1.060 10.180 153
TOI-1333 b 2.37 1.396 4.720 200

“Hot Jupiters” are gas planets that have a mass of at least 0.25 Jupiters (meaning that their mass is at least 25% of that of Jupiter) and an orbital period of less than 10 days (meaning that they complete one orbit around their star in less than 10 days), while “warm Jupiters” are gas planets that meet the same mass criterion but have orbital periods of more than 10 days. In 2021, Michigan State University astronomer Joseph Rodriguez and colleagues announced the discovery of five new gas exoplanets and asserted that four are hot Jupiters and one is a warm Jupiter.

Which choice best describes data from the table that support Rodriguez and colleagues’ assertion?

  • None of the planets have an orbital period of more than 10 days, and TOI-628 b has a mass of 6.33 Jupiters. 

  • TOI-1478 b has an orbital period of 153 days, and the masses of all the planets range from 0.85 to 6.33 Jupiters. 

  • All the planets have a radius between 1.060 and 1.771 Jupiters, and only TOI-1333 b has an orbital period of more than 10 days. 

  • Each of the planets has a mass greater than 0.25 Jupiters, and all except for TOI-1478 b have an orbital period of less than 10 days.

ID: cf7491c1 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it accurately describes data from the table that support Rodriguez and colleagues’ assertion about the classifications of the five new gas exoplanets. The text describes two categories of gas planets: hot Jupiters, which have a mass of at least 0.25 Jupiters and an orbital period of less than 10 days, and warm Jupiters, which have the same mass characteristic but have orbital periods of more than 10 days. According to the table, four of the gas exoplanets discovered by Rodriguez and colleagues have a mass of at least 0.25 Jupiters and an orbital period of less than 10 days, while one of the planets has a mass of at least 0.25 Jupiters and an orbital period of more than 10 days. These data therefore support Rodriguez and colleagues’ assertion that four of the new exoplanets are hot Jupiters and one is a warm Jupiter.

Choice A is incorrect because it doesn’t accurately describe the data from the table. Although the table shows that TOI-628 b has a mass equivalent to 6.33 Jupiters, the table also shows that one of the planets—TOI-1478 b—does indeed have an orbital period of more than 10 days. Choice B is incorrect because it doesn’t accurately describe the data from the table. Although the table does show that the masses of the five planets range from 0.85 to 6.33 Jupiters, the table also shows that TOI-1478 b has an orbital period of 10.180 days, not 153 days. Choice C is incorrect. According to the table, TOI-1333 b has an orbital period of only 4.720 days, not more than 10 days. Additionally, although the table does show that all the planets have a radius between 1.060 and 1.771 Jupiters, the text indicates that a planet may be classified as a hot Jupiter or a warm Jupiter based on its mass and orbital period, not on its radius, making the information about the range of the five planets’ radius values irrelevant.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID df37c087

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: df37c087
550 500 450 400 350 300 250 200 150 100 50 0Weight (grams) RobotWeight of Three Aerial Robots Ultra-Fast Robot Hand Permanent Magnet Hand Yale Model T
  • The data for the 3 categories are as follows:
    • Ultra-Fast Robot Hand: 505 grams
    • Permanent Magnet Hand: 295 grams
    • Yale Model T: 490 grams

Aerial robots vary considerably in their holding force; the Ultra-Fast Robot Hand, for example, has a holding force of 56 newtons, more than twice that of the Permanent Magnet Hand and more than four times that of the Yale Model T. Since an aerial robot must lift its own weight along with its cargo, engineer Jiawei Meng and colleagues used a ratio of each robot’s holding force to the robot’s weight to calculate payload capacity, with higher ratios corresponding to greater capacity, concluding that the Ultra-Fast Robot Hand has a higher payload capacity than the Yale Model T.

Which choice best describes data in the graph that support Meng and colleagues’ conclusion?

  • The Ultra-Fast Robot Hand and the Yale Model T each weigh more than 450 grams.

  • The Ultra-Fast Robot Hand and the Yale Model T each weigh more than the Permanent Magnet Hand does.

  • The Yale Model T has a lower holding force than the Permanent Magnet Hand despite weighing more.

  • The Ultra-Fast Robot Hand weighs only slightly more than the Yale Model T does.

ID: df37c087 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it describes data in the graph that support Meng and colleagues’ conclusion that the Ultra-Fast Robot Hand has a higher payload capacity than the Yale Model T. According to the text, payload capacity is calculated by using a ratio of a robot’s holding force to the robot’s weight, and higher ratios indicate a greater payload capacity. The Ultra-Fast Robot Hand has a holding force of 56 newtons, four times greater than that of the Yale Model T. Additionally, the graph shows that the Ultra-Fast Robot Hand has a weight of approximately 500 grams, slightly more than the Yale Model T’s weight of approximately 480 grams. Therefore, the Ultra-Fast Robot Hand has a higher ratio of holding force to weight than the Yale Model T. Since higher ratios correspond to greater payload capacity, the information from the graph indicating that the Ultra-Fast Robot Hand weighs only slightly more than the Yale Model T combined with the information in the text ultimately supports the conclusion that the Ultra-Fast Robot Hand has a higher payload capacity than the Yale Model T.

Choice A is incorrect. Although, according to the graph, it’s true that both the Ultra-Fast Robot Hand and the Yale Model T weigh more than 450 grams, this statement doesn’t support Meng and colleagues’ conclusion that the Ultra-Fast Robot Hand has a higher payload capacity than the Yale Model T. This statement emphasizes a similarity, not a distinction, between the two robots. Choice B is incorrect. Although, according to the graph, it’s true that the Ultra-Fast Robot Hand and the Yale Model T both weigh more than the Permanent Magnet Hand does, this statement doesn’t support Meng and colleagues’ conclusion that the Ultra-Fast Robot Hand has a higher payload capacity than the Yale Model T. This statement emphasizes a similarity, not a distinction, between the Ultra-Fast Robot Hand and the Yale Model T. Furthermore, the comparison to the Permanent Magnet Hand is irrelevant to the claim about the relative ratios and payload capacities of the Ultra-Fast Robot Hand and the Yale Model T. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text states that the Yale Model T has a lower holding force than the Permanent Magnet Hand, the graph provides no information about holding force. Moreover,  information about the Permanent Magnet Hand is irrelevant to the conclusion by Meng and colleagues, which only concerns the Ultra-Fast Robot Hand and the Yale Model T.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 5d6ab069

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 5d6ab069

Jan Gimsa, Robert Sleigh, and Ulrike Gimsa have hypothesized that the sail-like structure running down the back of the dinosaur Spinosaurus aegyptiacus improved the animal’s success in underwater pursuits of prey species capable of making quick, evasive movements. To evaluate their hypothesis, a second team of researchers constructed two battery-powered mechanical models of S. aegyptiacus, one with a sail and one without, and subjected the models to a series of identical tests in a water-filled tank.

Which finding from the model tests, if true, would most strongly support Gimsa and colleagues’ hypothesis?

  • The model with a sail took significantly less time to complete a sharp turn while submerged than the model without a sail did.

  • The model with a sail displaced significantly more water while submerged than the model without a sail did.

  • The model with a sail had significantly less battery power remaining after completing the tests than the model without a sail did. 

  • The model with a sail took significantly longer to travel a specified distance while submerged than the model without a sail did.

ID: 5d6ab069 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. This finding would most strongly support the hypothesis. The hypothesis is that the sail improved the dinosaur’s ability to chase quick, evasive prey. This finding suggests that the sail helped the dinosaur make sharp turns more quickly, which supports that hypothesis. 

Choice B is incorrect. This finding wouldn’t necessarily support the hypothesis. The hypothesis is that the sail improved the dinosaur’s ability to chase quick, evasive prey. It’s unclear how the sail displacing more water would relate to that hypothesis—it doesn’t seem to be relevant. Choice C is incorrect. This finding wouldn’t necessarily support the hypothesis. The hypothesis is that the sail improved the dinosaur’s ability to chase quick, evasive prey. It’s unclear how the difference in battery power between the models would relate to that hypothesis—it doesn’t seem to be relevant. Choice D is incorrect. This finding would actually weaken the hypothesis. The hypothesis is that the sail improved the dinosaur’s ability to chase quick, evasive prey. This finding suggests that the sail slowed the dinosaur down—which would probably make it worse at catching quick, evasive prey. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID e6e6be2d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: e6e6be2d

Overgrazing by purple sea urchins has caused many kelp forests along North America’s west coast to be replaced by urchin barrens—areas stripped of vegetation and covered in purple sea urchins. Urchins in barrens persist in a state of starvation that lessens their nutritional value—and thus their appeal—to many predators. Sarah Gravem and colleagues placed sunflower sea stars, a once-abundant predator species suffering massive population declines in recent years, in aquariums that each contained a nutritionally poor and a nutritionally rich purple sea urchin. The researchers found that the sea stars selected the nutritionally rich urchin in 42.7% of trials and the nutritionally poor urchin in 37.5% of trials, suggesting that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • sunflower sea stars are willing to hunt sea urchins, but if given a choice, they will prey on other more nutritious marine animals instead.

  • sunflower sea stars are reluctant to feed on both nutritionally poor and nutritionally rich sea urchins and are therefore unlikely to thrive in kelp forests.

  • sunflower sea stars are less likely to consume sea urchins in barrens than other species of sea stars are, putting sunflower sea stars at a high risk of extinction.

  • sunflower sea stars do not always avoid foraging on nutritionally poor sea urchins, making sunflower sea star population recovery a potentially important tool for controlling urchin barrens.

ID: e6e6be2d Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of the researchers’ findings about purple sea urchins and sunflower sea stars. The text explains that urchin barrens are areas that used to be kelp forests but are now covered by purple sea urchins. The text suggests that because there is no more vegetation to be consumed in those areas, the urchins exist in a state of starvation that makes them less nutritional for many predators. The text goes on to explain that in a study with a choice between two purple sea urchins, sunflower sea stars (a predator species that has been substantially declining) consumed a nutritionally rich urchin 42.7% of the time and a nutritionally poor urchin 37.5% of the time. Because the sunflower sea stars didn’t always avoid consuming nutritionally poor urchins, even when nutritionally rich ones were available, it follows that helping sunflower sea star populations to grow could help control urchin barrens by increasing the number of sea stars that may consume and thus remove nutritionally poor purple sea urchins from barrens.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates only that when presented with purple sea urchins, the sunflower sea stars in the study consumed both nutritionally rich and nutritionally poor ones. It doesn’t suggest that sunflower sea stars generally prefer other marine animals that are more nutritious; there’s no mention of other marine animals. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that sunflower sea stars are generally reluctant to feed on sea urchins. In fact, the text indicates that the sunflower sea stars in the study did consume sea urchins, feeding on both nutritionally poor and nutritionally rich ones. Choice C is incorrect because the text addresses only the willingness of sunflower sea stars to consume the type of sea urchins found in barrens (nutritionally poor sea urchins), not how likely other species of sea stars are to consume them.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 6675c5c3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 6675c5c3

The following text is from Shyam Selvadurai’s 1994 novel Funny Boy. The seven-year-old narrator lives with his family in Sri Lanka. Radha Aunty is the narrator’s aunt.

Radha Aunty, who was the youngest in my father’s family, had left for America four years ago when I was three, and I could not remember what she looked like. I went into the corridor to look at the family photographs that were hung there. But all the pictures were old ones, taken when Radha Aunty was a baby or young girl. Try as I might, I couldn’t get an idea of what she looked like now. My imagination, however, was quick to fill in this void.

©1994 by Shyam Selvadurai. 

According to the text, why does the narrator consult some family photographs?

  • He wants to use the photographs as inspiration for a story he is writing. 

  • He is curious about how his father dressed a long time ago. 

  • He hopes the photographs will help him recall what his aunt looked like.  

  • He wants to remind his aunt of an event that is shown in an old photograph. 

ID: 6675c5c3 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The text states that the narrator couldn’t remember what his Radha Aunty looked like, so he went to look at the family photographs she was in.

Choice A is incorrect. There’s no mention of any story that the narrator is writing. Rather, we’re told that the narrator couldn’t remember what his aunt looked like, so he went to look at the family photographs she was in. Choice B is incorrect. The text doesn’t mention how the narrator’s father dressed. Rather, we’re told that the narrator couldn’t remember what his aunt looked like, so he went to look at the family photographs she was in. Choice D is incorrect. The text doesn’t mention any events shown in the photographs. Rather, we’re told that the narrator couldn’t remember what his aunt looked like, so he went to look at the family photographs she was in.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 0dccbf17

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 0dccbf17

Henry Ossawa Tanner’s 1893 painting The Banjo Lesson, which depicts an elderly man teaching a boy to play the banjo, is regarded as a landmark in the history of works by Black artists in the United States. Scholars should be cautious when ascribing political or ideological values to the painting, however: beliefs and assumptions that are commonly held now may have been unfamiliar to Tanner and his contemporaries, and vice versa. Scholars who forget this fact when discussing The Banjo Lesson therefore blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • risk judging Tanner’s painting by standards that may not be historically appropriate.

  • tend to conflate Tanner’s political views with those of his contemporaries. 

  • forgo analyzing Tanner’s painting in favor of analyzing his political activity.

  • wrongly assume that Tanner’s painting was intended as a critique of his fellow artists. 

ID: 0dccbf17 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. It most logically completes the text. The text argues that Tanner and his contemporaries may have been unfamiliar with modern beliefs and values. This suggests that scholars who attribute those modern values to Tanner’s painting are risking judging the painting by standards that are not historically accurate.  

Choice B is incorrect. It doesn’t logically complete the text. The text argues that Tanner AND his contemporaries may have been unfamiliar with modern views. It never suggests that Tanner’s views were different from his contemporaries’ views.  Choice C is incorrect. It doesn’t logically complete the text. The text never suggests that scholars should analyze Tanner’s political activity instead of his painting. Rather, the text argues that Tanner and his contemporaries may have been unfamiliar with modern beliefs and values. Choice D is incorrect. It doesn’t logically complete the text. The text never suggests that Tanner wanted to critique his contemporaries with his painting. Rather, the text argues that Tanner AND his contemporaries may have been unfamiliar with modern beliefs and values. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 37e15265

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 37e15265

“The Young Girl” is a 1920 short story by Katherine Mansfield. In the story, the narrator takes an unnamed seventeen-year-old girl and her younger brother out for a meal. In describing the teenager, Mansfield frequently contrasts the character’s pleasant appearance with her unpleasant attitude, as when Mansfield writes of the teenager, blank

Which quotation from “The Young Girl” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “I heard her murmur, ‘I can’t bear flowers on a table.’ They had evidently been giving her intense pain, for she positively closed her eyes as I moved them away.”

  • “While we waited she took out a little, gold powder-box with a mirror in the lid, shook the poor little puff as though she loathed it, and dabbed her lovely nose.”

  • “I saw, after that, she couldn’t stand this place a moment longer, and, indeed, she jumped up and turned away while I went through the vulgar act of paying for the tea.”

  • “She didn’t even take her gloves off. She lowered her eyes and drummed on the table. When a faint violin sounded she winced and bit her lip again. Silence.”

ID: 37e15265 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most effectively illustrates the claim in the text that in describing the teenaged girl, Mansfield contrasts the character’s pleasant appearance with her unpleasant attitude. In the quotation, Mansfield describes the teenager as having a “lovely nose” (a compliment about her appearance) but also as treating her makeup puff “as though she loathed it” (a judgment suggesting her unpleasant attitude).

Choice A is incorrect because the teenager′s reaction to the flowers doesn’t make it clear that she has an unpleasant attitude, and nothing in the quotation indicates that any part of her appearance is pleasant. Choice C is incorrect because the quotation suggests that the teenager has an unpleasant attitude (being upset with the location and leaving the table before the narrator has paid for the meal) but doesn’t give any indication that she has a pleasant appearance. Choice D is incorrect because the quotation suggests that the teenager may have an unpleasant attitude (lowering her eyes, wincing, and sitting in silence) but doesn’t give any indication that any part of her appearance is pleasant.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID f9c4bdab

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: f9c4bdab

A student is writing a paper about One Night in Miami..., a 2020 film directed by Regina King and written by Kemp Powers. Powers adapted the film’s screenplay from his 2013 play, which he wrote after learning about a 1964 meeting that took place in Miami, Florida, between four prominent figures of the Civil Rights movement: Malcolm X, Muhammad Ali, Jim Brown, and Sam Cooke. The student claims that although Powers was inspired by this meeting, the film is best understood not as a precise retelling of historical events but rather as a largely imagined but informed representation of them.

Which quotation from an article about One Night in Miami... would be the most effective evidence for the student to include in support of this claim?

  • “When Powers learned of the meeting, he initially planned to write a much longer work about its four famous participants rather than focusing on the meeting itself.”

  • “One Night in Miami... received numerous awards and nominations, including an Academy Award nomination for Powers for Best Adapted Screenplay.”

  • “Powers has described One Night in Miami... as the story of four friends encouraging and supporting one another while engaged in a crucial political debate about how best to achieve equality for Black people in the United States.”

  • “Powers could find only the most superficial historical details about the meeting, so he read extensively about the four individuals and their thinking at the time in an effort to portray what might have happened between them.”

ID: f9c4bdab Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it provides a quotation that effectively supports the student’s claim about the film One Night in Miami…. The quotation states that in researching the play on which the film was based, Kemp Powers only found superficial details about what actually happened during the 1964 meeting in Miami between four leading Civil Rights leaders, meaning that there is very little information about the meeting in the historical record. In the absence of greater details, it wouldn’t have been possible for the film to be a precise retelling of the historical events it depicts. The quotation explains that to compensate for this lack of information about the meeting, Powers did extensive research into the four figures and how they thought at the time in order to speculate in an informed way about what they might have said or what might have occurred between them. Therefore, the quotation effectively supports the claim that the film is best understood not as a precise retelling of a historical event but as a deeply informed imaginative rendering of that event. 

Choice A is incorrect. Although the quotation discusses how on learning about the 1964 meeting in Miami, Powers was inspired to write a play and, later, to adapt it into a screenplay, it doesn’t discuss Powers’s approach to representing what had occurred in the meeting. Instead, it states that Powers didn’t initially plan to write a story only “focusing on the meeting itself” but rather had considered writing a “much longer” and more expansive work about the meeting’s four participants. Choice B is incorrect because the quotation doesn’t discuss Powers’s approach to representing historical events in his play and in the film; instead, the quotation focuses on the film’s positive critical reception by mentioning that it received numerous awards and nominations. Choice C is incorrect. Although the quotation references historical events that are discussed directly in the play and film by explaining how the four historical figures featured in the story engage in political debates about contemporary issues, it doesn’t specify to what extent Powers’s representation of what occurred during the 1964 meeting in Miami is a factual retelling of what happened and how much is an imaginative rendering of what might have happened. Rather, the quotation focuses on Powers’s description of the film’s basic premise and how the characters engage with the historical context of its setting.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 25893fc7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 25893fc7

In many cultures, a handshake can create trust between people. Engineer João Avelino and his team are designing a robot to shake hands with a human in order to improve human-robot interactions. The robot hand adjusts its movements and pressure to better imitate the feel of a human hand. The researchers want the robot’s handshake to feel realistic because blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • lifelike handshakes may make people more comfortable interacting with robots.

  • it’s easier to program a robot to perform handshakes than it is to program a robot to perform some other types of greetings.

  • people are less likely to interact with robots that don’t look like humans.

  • the robot in the researchers’ study may have uses other than interacting with humans.

ID: 25893fc7 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The text says that handshakes create trust, and that the engineers’ goal is to “improve human-robot interactions.” This suggests that they want the robot’s handshake to feel real because they want humans to trust the robot.

Choice B is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never discusses any other types of greetings, so there is no basis to make this inference. Choice C is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never discusses the appearance of this robot or any other robots, so there is no basis to make this inference. Choice D is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never discusses any uses for the robot other than interacting with humans, so there is no basis to make this inference.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 2df730d0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 2df730d0

90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0Percent of newly installedturbines 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021Rotor Diameters of Newly Installed Wind Turbines in the United States, 2011–2021Year >130 meters <100 meters 100–115 meters 115–130 meters

All other things being equal, the larger a wind turbine’s rotor diameter (the diameter of the imaginary circle swept by the turbine’s rotating blades), the greater amount of energy the turbine can generate. In a research paper on wind power, a student claims that in the United States, the amount of energy generated per newly installed turbine increased substantially between 2011 and 2021.

Which choice best describes data in the graph that support the student’s claim? 

  • The percentage of newly installed turbines with rotor diameters greater than 130 meters increased every year between 2011 and 2021. 

  • In 2011, nearly 80% of turbines installed had rotor diameters of less than 100 meters, whereas only a little more than 20% of turbines installed that year had rotor diameters of 100–115 meters. 

  • No turbines installed in 2011 had rotor diameters greater than 115 meters, whereas the majority of turbines installed in 2021 had rotor diameters greater than 130 meters.

  • Most turbines installed in 2011 had rotor diameters of less than 100 meters, whereas most turbines installed in 2021 had rotor diameters of at least 115 meters. 

ID: 2df730d0 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The text tells us that turbines with larger rotor diameters produce more energy, so if rotor diameters have generally gotten larger between 2011 and 2021, then turbines created in 2021 should produce more energy than those created in 2011.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. The percentage of newly installed turbines with rotor diameters greater than 130 meters didn’t show any visible increase until 2018. Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t justify the claim. The claim is about increasing energy output from 2011 to 2021, but this choice only discusses 2011, so it can’t show evidence of change over time. Choice C is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. In 2021, only about 25% of turbines installed in 2021 had rotor diameters greater than 130 meters.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 5632ffb4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 5632ffb4

In a study of the cognitive abilities of white-faced capuchin monkeys (Cebus imitator), researchers neglected to control for the physical difficulty of the tasks they used to evaluate the monkeys. The cognitive abilities of monkeys given problems requiring little dexterity, such as sliding a panel to retrieve food, were judged by the same criteria as were those of monkeys given physically demanding problems, such as unscrewing a bottle and inserting a straw. The results of the study, therefore, blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • could suggest that there are differences in cognitive ability among the monkeys even though such differences may not actually exist.

  • are useful for identifying tasks that the monkeys lack the cognitive capacity to perform but not for identifying tasks that the monkeys can perform. 

  • should not be taken as indicative of the cognitive abilities of any monkey species other than C. imitator.

  • reveal more about the monkeys’ cognitive abilities when solving artificial problems than when solving problems encountered in the wild.

ID: 5632ffb4 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of the study of capuchin monkeys’ cognitive abilities. The text explains that the study failed to distinguish between outcomes for the tasks performed by the capuchin monkeys, such that simpler tasks requiring less dexterity, or skill, were judged by the same criteria as tasks that demanded more dexterity. Because the study didn’t account for this discrepancy, the researchers might have assumed that observed differences in performance were due to the abilities of the monkeys rather than the complexity of the tasks. In other words, the results may suggest cognitive differences among the monkeys even though such differences may not really exist.

Choice B is incorrect because the text focuses on the fact that the tasks assigned to the capuchin monkeys in the study varied in difficulty and that the variety wasn’t taken into consideration. The text doesn’t suggest that the capuchin monkeys couldn’t perform certain tasks, just that some tasks were more difficult to do. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the study’s results are indicative of the abilities of capuchin monkeys but not of other monkey species; in fact, the text suggests that the results may not even be an accurate reflection of capuchin monkeys’ abilities. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that the researchers compared results for artificial tasks with those for tasks encountered in the wild, although the tasks described in the text—sliding a panel and putting a straw in a bottle—are presumably artificial.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 5d453dcc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 5d453dcc
100 90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0Probability of voting (%) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7Voters’ Political Orientation, Level of Political Information, and Probability of VotingVoters’ political orientation (1 = strong Democrat/liberal; 4 = independent; 7 = strong Republican/conservative) low information high information
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • low information
    • high information
  • The data for the 7 categories are as follows:
    • 1:
      • low information: 78%
      • high information: 92%
    • 2:
      • low information: 62%
      • high information: 85%
    • 3:
      • low information: 57%
      • high information: 86%
    • 4:
      • low information: 47%
      • high information: 80%
    • 5:
      • low information: 62%
      • high information: 87.5%
    • 6:
      • low information: 69%
      • high information: 88%
    • 7:
      • low information: 81.5%
      • high information: 94%

Economists Kerwin Kofi Charles and Melvin Stephens Jr. investigated a variety of factors that influence voter turnout in the United States. Using survey data that revealed whether respondents voted in national elections and how knowledgeable respondents are about politics, Charles and Stephens claim that the likelihood of voting is driven in part by potential voters’ confidence in their assessments of candidates—essentially, the more informed voters are about politics, the more confident they are at evaluating whether candidates share their views, and thus the more likely they are to vote.

Which choice best describes data in the graph that support Charles and Stephens’s claim?

  • At each point on the political orientation scale, high-information voters were more likely than low-information voters to vote. 

  • Only low-information voters who identify as independents had a voting probability below 50%. 

  • The closer that low-information voters are to the ends of the political orientation scale, the more likely they were to vote. 

  • High-information voters were more likely to identify as strong Democrats or strong Republicans than low-information voters were.

ID: 5d453dcc Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it uses data from the graph to effectively support Charles and Stephens’s claim about how level of information affects voters. The graph shows the probability of voting for both high- and low-information voters in seven categories of political orientation. Charles and Stephens claim that “the more informed voters are about politics…the more likely they are to vote.” This statement correctly asserts that the graph shows a higher probability of voting for high-information voters than for low-information voters at each of the seven political orientations. Thus, this statement accurately cites data from the graph that support Charles and Stephens’s claim about how level of information affects voters.

Choice B is incorrect. Although this statement is correct that the only probability in the graph below 50% is for low-information voters categorized as independent (orientation 4), the claim in question is about the relative likelihood that low- and high-information voters will vote, and without some reference to high-information voters, this statement cannot help support such a comparison. Choice C is incorrect. Although this statement is correct that the highest probabilities of voting for low-information voters are at the ends of the orientation scale (1 and 7), the claim in question is about the relative likelihood that low- and high-information voters will vote, and without some reference to high-information voters, this statement cannot help support such a comparison. Choice D is incorrect because the graph does not give any information about how many people are represented in any of the categories, so this statement is not based on data from the graph. Furthermore, even if we did have this information, the claim is about how level of information affects voters’ probability of voting, not whether they’re likely to strongly identify with a particular political party.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID b32c4b3a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: b32c4b3a

The Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), a band of clouds that encircles Earth in the tropics and is a major rainfall source, shifts position in response to temperature variations across Earth’s hemispheres. Data from Huagapo Cave in Peru suggest the ITCZ shifted south during the Little Ice Age (circa 1300–1850), but a shift as far into South America as Huagapo should have led to dry conditions in Central America, which is inconsistent with climate models. To resolve the issue, geologist Yemane Asmerom and colleagues collected data from Yok Balum Cave in Central America and compared them with the Huagapo data. They concluded that during the Little Ice Age, the ITCZ may have expanded northward and southward rather than simply shifted.

Which finding from Asmerom and colleagues’ study, if true, would most directly support their conclusion? 

  • Neither the Yok Balum data nor the Huagapo data show significant local variations in temperature during the Little Ice Age. 

  • Both the Yok Balum data and the Huagapo data show increased temperatures and prolonged dry conditions during the Little Ice Age. 

  • The Yok Balum data show prolonged dry conditions during the same portions of the Little Ice Age in which the Huagapo data show heightened levels of rainfall. 

  • The Yok Balum data and the Huagapo data show strongly correlated patterns of high rainfall during the Little Ice Age.

ID: b32c4b3a Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support Asmerom and colleagues’ conclusion that the ITCZ may have expanded northward and southward rather than shifting south during the Little Ice Age. The text indicates that the ITCZ, a band of clouds in the tropics that is a significant rainfall source, can change position. Data from Peru’s Huagapo Cave suggest that the ITCZ shifted south during the Little Ice Age. But according to the text, if the ITCZ moved into South America in that way, then Central America should have been drier than climate models suggest it was. In other words, rainfall should have been reduced in Central America because the ITCZ, a significant rainfall source, had shifted into South America, but climate models do not show such a reduction in Central America. The text goes on to say that Asmerom and colleagues tried to resolve this apparent conflict by collecting data from Yok Balum cave in Central America and comparing them with data from Huagapo, which led the researchers to conclude that the ITCZ may have expanded both northward and southward rather than simply shifting south. If it is true that Yok Balum in Central America and Huagapo in South America show strongly correlated patterns of high rainfall during the Little Ice Age, such a finding would support Asmerom and colleagues’ conclusion by suggesting that the two areas were affected by the same rainfall source, and thus that the ITCZ may have expanded rather than shifted. 

Choice A is incorrect because there is no information in the text about how, if at all, the ITCZ affects temperature in areas where it is located. Rather, the text states that temperature variations across Earth’s hemispheres can shift the position of the ITCZ. Finding that neither Yok Balum nor Huagapo data show evidence of significant local variations in temperature during the Little Ice Age would have no clear bearing on Asmerom and colleagues’ claim. Choice B is incorrect because finding that both Yok Balum and Huagapo experienced prolonged dry conditions during the Little Ice Age would not support Asmerom and colleagues’ conclusion that the ITCZ, a major source of rainfall, may have expanded northward and southward rather than simply shifting south. Dry conditions in both locations would suggest that the ITCZ did not cover either location. Additionally, finding that temperatures were elevated in both locations would have no clear bearing on Asmerom and colleagues’ conclusion, since there is no information in the text that indicates how, if at all, the ITCZ affects temperature. Choice C is incorrect because finding that Yok Balum experienced prolonged dry conditions at the same time that Huagapo experienced high rainfall would weaken Asmerom and colleagues’ conclusion, not strengthen it. Such a finding would suggest that the ITCZ shifted south and left Central America dry rather than expanding both northward and southward. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID d102706f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: d102706f

Estimates of Tyrannosaurid Bite Force

Study Year Estimation method Approximate bite force (newtons)
Cost et al. 2019 muscular and skeletal modeling 35,000–63,000
Gignac and Erickson 2017 tooth-bone interaction analysis 8,000–34,000
Meers 2002 body-mass scaling 183,000–235,000
Bates and Falkingham 2012 muscular and skeletal modeling 35,000–57,000

The largest tyrannosaurids—the family of carnivorous dinosaurs that includes Tarbosaurus, Albertosaurus, and, most famously, Tyrannosaurus rex—are thought to have had the strongest bites of any land animals in Earth’s history. Determining the bite force of extinct animals can be difficult, however, and paleontologists Paul Barrett and Emily Rayfield have suggested that an estimate of dinosaur bite force may be significantly influenced by the methodology used in generating that estimate.

Which choice best describes data from the table that support Barrett and Rayfield’s suggestion?

  • The study by Meers used body-mass scaling and produced the lowest estimated maximum bite force, while the study by Cost et al. used muscular and skeletal modeling and produced the highest estimated maximum.

  • In their study, Gignac and Erickson used tooth-bone interaction analysis to produce an estimated bite force range with a minimum of 8,000 newtons and a maximum of 34,000 newtons.

  • The bite force estimates produced by Bates and Falkingham and by Cost et al. were similar to each other, while the estimates produced by Meers and by Gignac and Erickson each differed substantially from any other estimate. 

  • The estimated maximum bite force produced by Cost et al. exceeded the estimated maximum produced by Bates and Falkingham, even though both groups of researchers used the same method to generate their estimates.

ID: d102706f Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it accurately describes data from the table that support Barrett and Rayfield’s suggestion about bite force estimates. According to the text, Barrett and Rayfield believe that estimates of dinosaur bite force may be strongly influenced by the methods used to produce them—that is, that different methods may produce significantly different results. The table shows that the studies by Bates and Falkingham and by Cost et al. used the same estimation method (muscular and skeletal modeling) and produced similar bite force estimates (approximately 35,000–57,000 newtons and 35,000–63,000 newtons, respectively). The study by Meers, however, used body-mass scaling and produced a much higher bite force estimate (183,000–235,000 newtons), while the study by Gignac and Erickson used tooth-bone interaction analysis and produced a much lower bite force estimate (8,000–34,000 newtons). The fact that one method produced similar estimates in two different studies and that two different methods used in other studies produced substantially different estimates supports the idea that dinosaur bite force estimates are significantly influenced by the methodology used to produce them.

Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately describes data from the table. The table does show that the studies by Meers and by Cost et al. used different estimation methods and produced very different ranges of estimated dinosaur bite force, which would support Barrett and Rayfield’s suggestion that different methodologies may produce significantly different estimates. However, the table doesn’t show that the study by Meers produced the lowest estimated maximum bite force while the study by Cost et al. produced the highest. In fact, the study by Meers estimated a maximum bite force of approximately 235,000 newtons, which is the highest of all the estimated maximums. Choice B is incorrect. Although the data from Gignac and Ericson’s study are accurately described, a single set of findings from one study using only one methodology can’t show that different methodologies may produce significantly different dinosaur bite force estimates, as Barrett and Rayfield suggest. Choice D is incorrect. Although the table shows that the maximum bite force estimated by Cost et al. was higher than that estimated by Bates and Falkingham, the difference is relatively small; in fact, both teams estimated a minimum bite force of approximately 35,000 newtons and a maximum bite force close to approximately 60,000 newtons. Because these findings demonstrate that a single methodology (muscular and skeletal modeling) produced similar overall results in two studies, the findings don’t support Barrett and Rayfield’s suggestion that different methodologies may produce significantly different dinosaur bite force estimates.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 3d505895

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 3d505895

Parthenogenesis is a form of reproduction in which a female reproduces without mating. She produces an egg containing a single offspring whose DNA, or genetic material, comes entirely from its mother. Among birds, parthenogenesis has been found in a handful of species, including pigeons and turkeys. When scientists at the San Diego Zoo analyzed the DNA of the zoo’s California condors (a species of vulture), they discovered that two individuals weren’t genetically similar enough to any of the males in the condor enclosure to be their offspring. However, both had hatched from eggs laid by females in the enclosure. Thus, the scientists concluded that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • at least one of those individuals’ mothers was born as a result of parthenogenesis.

  • California condors may reproduce through parthenogenesis in zoos but not in the wild.

  • the mothers of the two individuals probably reproduced through parthenogenesis.

  • California condors reproduce through parthenogenesis only if females lack sufficient access to males.

ID: 3d505895 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of parthenogenesis as it relates to two California condors at the San Diego Zoo. The text explains that parthenogenesis is a form of reproduction in which a female reproduces without mating, producing an egg containing an offspring with DNA that comes entirely from its mother. After noting examples of parthenogenesis among birds, the text then reports on a discovery at the San Diego Zoo. According to the text, scientists at the zoo found that two of the zoo’s California condors weren’t similar enough to any of the zoo’s male condors to be their offspring. Given that parthenogenesis occurs without mating and results in an offspring with DNA entirely from its mother, it can reasonably be inferred that the scientists concluded that the mothers of the two condors probably didn’t mate with any of the male condors at the zoo, reproducing through parthenogenesis instead.

Choice A is incorrect because the text never suggests that at least one of the condors’ mothers was born as a result of parthenogenesis. Rather, the text suggests that the two condors were themselves both probably born as a result of parthenogenesis, which would account for their lack of strong genetic resemblance to any of the male condors in the zoo’s condor enclosure. Choice B is incorrect because the text never discusses wild California condors, only California condors living at the San Diego Zoo. For this reason, the text doesn’t support a conclusion that distinguishes between how California condors reproduce in zoos and how they reproduce in the wild. Choice D is incorrect because the text never suggests that the zoo’s female condors lacked sufficient access to males or that this would be a cause of parthenogenesis, indicating only that the condor enclosure included males.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 23b5cb59

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 23b5cb59

Total Electoral College Votes and Popular Votes in the 15th US Presidential Election

Candidate Total electoral college votes Total popular votes
James K. Polk 170 1,339,494
Henry Clay 105 1,300,004
James Gillespie Birney 0 62,103

A student is writing a paper on the history of the 15th presidential election in the United States, which was held in 1844. The student needs to determine how many electoral college votes were cast for the winning candidate, James K. Polk. According to the table, James K. Polk received blank 

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • 170 electoral college votes.

  • 103 electoral college votes.

  • 62 electoral college votes.

  • 44 electoral college votes.

ID: 23b5cb59 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement about the 15th US presidential election. The table shows the total number of electoral college votes and the total number of popular votes received by each of three candidates. The table shows that Polk received 170 electoral college votes.

Choice B is incorrect because the table shows that Polk received 170 electoral college votes, not 103. According to the table, none of the candidates received a total of 103 votes of either type (electoral college or popular). Choice C is incorrect because the table shows that Polk received 170 electoral college votes, not 62. According to the table, none of the candidates received a total of 62 votes of either type (electoral college or popular). Choice D is incorrect because the table shows that Polk received 170 electoral college votes, not 44. According to the table, none of the candidates received a total of 44 votes of either type (electoral college or popular).

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID ac7166f7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: ac7166f7

Researchers Narelle Haworth and Amy Schramm studied bicycling behavior in Queensland, Australia. Haworth and Schramm asked adult bike riders questions about their level of experience, reasons for riding a bike, and route preferences. The researchers claim that experienced riders who mainly bike to work tend to prefer routes that reduce their travel time.

Which survey response from a bike rider in Queensland would best support the underlined claim?

  • “I have a bike, but I don’t ride it very often. When the weather is nice, I sometimes use my bike to go into town to do some shopping.”

  • “I just got a new bike, and I’m looking forward to going on rides with my friends soon.”

  • “I bike to my job every day. There’s a nice bike path that goes through a park, but I use the bike lane on the main road because it’s faster.”

  • “I usually bike to work, but I’m taking the bus now because my bike has a broken part that needs to be fixed.”

ID: ac7166f7 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a response that best supports the underlined claim that experienced riders who mainly bike to work tend to prefer routes that reduce their travel time. The bike rider responds that they bike to work every day and that they use the bike lane because it is faster; thus, it is reasonable to assume that they are an experienced rider who prefers routes that reduce their travel time to work.

Choice A is incorrect because this response does not address the claim. The claim is about experienced riders preferring to take routes that reduce their travel time on the way to work; however, this response is from an inexperienced rider who is discussing biking for personal reasons. Choice B is incorrect because this response is not related to the underlined claim. The response from this rider does not establish the level of experience they have with riding, nor does it state that the rider uses a bike to get to work. Choice D is incorrect. Although this response is from an experienced rider who mainly bikes to work, the response also mentions that the rider’s bike is broken, which is not related to any route preference.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 2ef8e367

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 2ef8e367

“To You” is an 1856 poem by Walt Whitman. In the poem, Whitman suggests that he deeply understands the reader, whom he addresses directly, writing, blank

Which quotation from “To You” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “Your true soul and body appear before me.”

  • “Whoever you are, now I place my hand upon you, that you be my poem.”

  • “I should have made my way straight to you long ago.”

  • “Whoever you are, I fear you are walking the walks of dreams.”

ID: 2ef8e367 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most directly illustrates the text’s claim about Whitman’s poem, “To You.” The text says that in this poem, Whitman suggests that he deeply understands the poem’s reader. This quotation says that the reader’s “true soul and body appear before” Whitman, thereby asserting that he can see the reader as the reader truly is, suggesting that he deeply understands the reader.

Choice B is incorrect because this quotation describes Whitman making the reader the subject of the poem (“you be my poem”), not Whitman deeply understanding the reader. Choice C is incorrect because instead of suggesting that Whitman deeply understands the reader, it emphasizes Whitman’s regret at not having addressed the reader sooner. Choice D is incorrect. Although this quotation shows Whitman directly addressing the reader and expressing concern about the reader, it doesn’t illustrate the idea that Whitman suggests that he deeply understands the reader. The quotation is simply expressing concern about the reader, which doesn’t necessarily imply deep understanding of the reader. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 1b9b29f1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 1b9b29f1

A team of biologists led by Jae-Hoon Jung, Antonio D. Barbosa, and Stephanie Hutin investigated the mechanism that allows Arabidopsis thaliana (thale cress) plants to accelerate flowering at high temperatures. They replaced the protein ELF3 in the plants with a similar protein found in another species (stiff brome) that, unlike A. thaliana, displays no acceleration in flowering with increased temperature. A comparison of unmodified A. thaliana plants with the altered plants showed no difference in flowering at 22° Celsius, but at 27° Celsius, the unmodified plants exhibited accelerated flowering while the altered ones did not, which suggests that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • temperature-sensitive accelerated flowering is unique to A. thaliana.

  • A. thaliana increases ELF3 production as temperatures rise.

  • ELF3 enables A. thaliana to respond to increased temperatures.

  • temperatures of at least 22° Celsius are required for A. thaliana to flower.

ID: 1b9b29f1 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of accelerated flowering in A. thaliana plants. The text indicates that A. thaliana plants show accelerated flowering at high temperatures. To investigate the mechanism for this accelerated flowering, biologists replaced the ELF3 protein in one group of A. thaliana plants with a similar protein found in another plant species that doesn’t show accelerated flowering. The team then compared these modified plants to A. thaliana plants that retained their original ELF3 protein. The text states that the two samples of plants showed no difference in flowering at 22° Celsius, but at 27° Celsius the unaltered plants with ELF3 showed accelerated flowering while the plants without ELF3 didn’t. If accelerated flowering at the higher temperature occurred in the A. thaliana plants with ELF3 but not in the plants without the protein, then ELF3 likely enables A. thaliana to respond to increased temperatures.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention whether any plants other than A. thaliana and stiff brome show temperature-sensitive flowering, so there is no support for the idea that this type of flowering is unique to A. thaliana. Choice B is incorrect because the text discusses the effects of ELF3 and not the production of it. There’s nothing in the text to suggest that the amount of ELF3 in A. thaliana varies with temperature. Choice D is incorrect. While the text states that there was no difference in the flowering of modified and unmodified A. thaliana plants at 22° Celsius, there’s no suggestion that A. thaliana only begins to flower at 22° Celsius; the text doesn’t mention a specific temperature threshold required for A. thaliana flowering.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 61228830

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 61228830

A heliograph is a semaphore device used for sending optical communications—usually in the form of Morse code—by reflecting flashes of sunlight off a mirror. Heliographs were used for rapid communication across expansive distances for military, surveying, and forestry purposes during the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries, but they were largely effective only during the daytime, and the range of the device depended on factors such as the opacity of the air and line of sight. Therefore, heliographs were eventually replaced by technology that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • worked on similar principles but was easier to produce and maintain. 

  • was not so constrained by environmental circumstances.

  • could be used for more than military, surveying, or forestry purposes.

  • enabled communication that didn’t require knowledge of Morse code.

ID: 61228830 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The passage explains that heliographs “were largely effective only during the daytime” and that “the range of the device depended on factors such as the opacity of the air and line of sight.” These constraints would have greatly limited the use of the heliograph, so we can infer that this would have been a reason to replace it with new technology.

Choice A is incorrect. The passage doesn’t discuss the production and maintenance of heliographs, so there’s no basis for this inference. Choice C is incorrect. The passage doesn’t mention any “other purposes” that a heliograph wouldn’t work for, so there’s no basis for this inference. Choice D is incorrect. The passage doesn’t mention knowledge of Morse code as a particular problem with the use of heliographs, so there’s no basis for this inference.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID ad680167

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: ad680167

The recovery of a 1,000-year-old Chinese shipwreck in the Java Sea near present-day Indonesia has yielded a treasure trove of artifacts, including thousands of small ceramic bowls. Using a portable X-ray fluorescence analyzer tool, Lisa Niziolek and her team were able to detect the chemical composition of these bowls without damaging them. By comparing the chemical signatures of the bowls with those of the materials still at old Chinese kiln sites, Niziolek and her team can pinpoint which Chinese kilns likely produced the ceramic bowls.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Because of a new technology, researchers can locate and recover more shipwrecks than they could in the past.

  • Researchers have been able to identify the location of a number of Chinese kilns in operation 1,000 years ago.

  • With the help of a special tool, researchers have determined the likely origin of bowls recovered from a shipwreck.

  • Before the invention of portable X-ray fluorescence, researchers needed to take a small piece out of an artifact to analyze its components.

ID: ad680167 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. According to the text, thousands of ceramic bowls were found in a recovered Chinese shipwreck. The text goes on to say that Niziolek and her team used a special tool, a portable X-ray fluorescence analyzer, to determine the bowls’ chemical signatures. Comparing these chemical signatures with the chemical signatures of materials they had collected from old Chinese kiln sites, the text says, allowed the researchers to identify which kilns had produced the bowls. In other words, the researchers determined the bowls’ origin.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text indicates that the researchers used technology in the form of a portable X-ray fluorescence analyzer, it doesn’t specifically state that this technology is new. In addition, the text says that Niziolek and her team used the tool to determine the chemical composition of bowls that were found in a Chinese shipwreck, not to locate and recover the shipwreck itself. There’s no indication in the text that a new technology can help researchers locate and recover shipwrecks. Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that the researchers collected materials from old kiln sites for chemical comparison with the ceramic bowls, which means that the researchers must have already known the location of those kiln sites. Rather than identifying the location of the kilns, the researchers determined which kilns in operation 1,000 years ago had likely produced the bowls that were found in the shipwreck.  Choice D is incorrect. Although the text says that using a portable X-ray fluorescence analyzer tool enabled Niziolek and her team to analyze artifacts in the form of ceramic bowls without damaging them, the text doesn’t discuss how researchers analyzed artifacts before this tool was invented. Moreover, the point that the bowls were left undamaged isn’t the text’s main idea. Rather, it’s a detail that’s provided to develop the main idea, which is that the researchers used a special tool to determine where the bowls had been produced.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 34c2e387

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 34c2e387

Jürgen Kocka and other historians of capitalism rarely discuss domestic capitalism in Africa before the period of European colonization, implicitly presenting capitalism as external to and imposed on Africa. Crislayne Alfagali and other Africanist scholars have shown, however, that in parts of Africa, returns-focused investment, the establishment of open markets for wage labor, and other features of capitalism predated colonization. One reason for this discrepancy is that historians of capitalism tend to focus on longitudinal economic data drawn from archival records, which do not exist for much of precolonial Africa.

Which statement about Alfagali and other Africanist scholars is best supported by information in the text?

  • They likely make use of different types of evidence than historians of capitalism typically rely on.

  • They likely differ from historians of capitalism in the methods they use to derive longitudinal economic data from archival records.

  • They likely have a different view about which activities should be considered capitalist in nature than historians of capitalism do. 

  • They likely view capitalism as having been more beneficial for Africa than historians of capitalism do. 

ID: 34c2e387 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents a statement about Alfagali and other Africanist scholars that is supported by the text. The last sentence of the text explains that historians of capitalism generally rely on a type of data that requires "archival records, which do not exist for much of precolonial Africa." Nevertheless, Alfagali and other Africanist scholars have demonstrated that features of capitalism including "returns-focused investment,...open markets for wage labor, and other features of capitalism" existed in parts of Africa before colonization. Because archival records typically used by historians of capitalism aren′t available for precolonial Africa, Alfagali and other Africanist scholars of precolonial capitalism in Africa likely used atypical sources for their studies.

Choice B is incorrect because the text states that archival records containing longitudinal economic data "do not exist for much of precolonial Africa." If these records don’t exist for precolonial Africa, then Alfagali and other Africanist scholars couldn’t derive data from them by any method. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that Alfagali and other Africanist scholars define capitalism differently than other historians of capitalism do. On the contrary, the text simply asserts that specific features they found, such as "returns-focused investment [and] open markets for wage labor," are "features of capitalism," which implies scholarly agreement that these activities are capitalist in nature. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate any effects of capitalism in Africa, positive or negative. Rather, the text explains why precolonial Africa has been omitted from mainstream histories of capitalism and presents work by Alfagali and other Africanist scholars that challenges and corrects the historical record of precolonial capitalism.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 2df56712

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 2df56712

Electronic music pioneer Wendy Carlos is credited with the music for three feature films: A Clockwork Orange (1971), The Shining (1980), and Tron (1982). However, her musical score for A Clockwork Orange is mostly made up of her arrangements of Ludwig van Beethoven’s work. Also, almost all the music that she and Rachel Elkind composed for The Shining was unused by director Stanley Kubrick. It did not appear in the film. Of the three films, Tron is the one in which audiences can hear the most of Carlos’s original compositions.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Of the three films for which Carlos is credited, Tron features the most original music from her.

  • The director of The Shining used most of the music that Carlos composed for it.

  • Beethoven is widely considered to be a more important composer than Carlos.

  • Carlos is a notable innovator among film composers in the 1970s and 1980s.

ID: 2df56712 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it best states the main idea of the text. The text indicates that Wendy Carlos scored three feature films: A Clockwork Orange, The Shining, and Tron. It also indicates that Carlos’s work on A Clockwork Orange consisted primarily of electronic arrangements of Beethoven compositions and that very little of what she and Rachel Elkind composed for The Shining was used in the film. But the soundtrack for Tron consists largely of music composed by Carlos, so it contains more of her original music than do the soundtracks for the other two films. Thus, the main idea of the text is that of the three films for which Carlos is credited, Tron features the most original music from her.

Choice B is incorrect because it directly contradicts the text’s claim that "very little of what she and Rachel Elkind composed for The Shining was used in the film." Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t address the perceived quality of different composers, instead, it discusses how much of Carlos’s original work was used in each of the three films she scored. Choice D is incorrect because it doesn’t relate to any of the major themes of the text: the work Wendy Carlos did for three feature films, how much of that work was composed by Carlos, and how much of her original work was ultimately used in the film.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID cebfb2c6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: cebfb2c6

Dated Ages of Lunar Samples from Select Missions

Mission name Year Landing site Approximate age of lunar samples (billions of years)
Apollo 11 1969 Mare Tranquillitatis 3.6
Apollo 15 1971 Mare Imbrium 3.3
Apollo 17 1972 Mare Serenitatis 3.8
Chang’e 5 2020 Oceanus Procellarum 2.0

 

The Apollo program missions were spaceflights to the moon led by the United States during the 1960s and 1970s during which astronauts collected some samples of the moon’s surface. More recently, China launched the Chang’e 5 mission, which returned additional lunar surface samples. Researchers have analyzed and dated each of the samples, concluding that the lunar samples collected during the Chang’e 5 mission are significant because blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the claim?

  • they are much younger than the samples brought back from any of the Apollo missions.

  • they were collected from the same landing site as the Apollo 11 mission.

  • they are closest in age to the samples brought back by the Apollo 17 mission.

  • they helped confirm the predicted ages of the lunar samples from the Apollo missions.

ID: cebfb2c6 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it effectively uses data from the table to complete the claim about the significance of the Chang’e 5 lunar samples. The table shows the approximate ages of lunar samples from four different missions: three Apollo missions and the Chang’e 5 mission. The Chang’e 5 samples are said to be approximately 2 billion years old, while the Apollo samples are each said to be more than 3 billion years old. In other words, based on the data in the table, the Chang’e 5 samples are much younger than those from the Apollo missions.

Choice B is incorrect because the table shows that the Chang’e 5 samples were taken from a landing site at Oceanus Procellarum, which none of the Apollo missions are shown to have visited. Choice C is incorrect because the table shows the Apollo 17 samples as approximately 3.8 billion years old, the Apollo 15 samples as approximately 3.3 billion years old, and the Chang’e 5 samples as approximately 2 billion years old, and therefore, the Chang’e samples are closer in age to the Apollo 15 samples than they are to the Apollo 17 samples. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text or table suggests that the Chang’e 5 samples were used to confirm the ages of the Apollo samples.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID af9e3240

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: af9e3240

Electra is a circa 420–410 BCE play by Sophocles, translated in 1870 by R.C. Jebb. Electra, who is in mourning for her dead father and her long-absent brother, is aware of the intensity of her grief but believes it to be justified: blank

Which quotation from Electra most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “O thou pure sunlight, and thou air, earth’s canopy, how often have ye heard the strains of my lament, the wild blows dealt against this bleeding breast, when dark night fails!”

  • “Send to me my brother; for I have no more the strength to bear up alone against the load of grief that weighs me down.”

  • “I know my own passion, it escapes me not; but, seeing that the causes are so dire, will never curb these frenzied plaints, while life is in me.” 

  • “But never will I cease from dirge and sore lament, while I look on the trembling rays of the bright stars, or on this light of day.”

ID: af9e3240 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. Electra states that she “knows her own passion,” which shows that she’s aware of the intensity of her grief. But she also claims that the “causes are so dire”—meaning the reasons for her grief are so awful—that she can’t let it go, which shows that she believes her grief is justified.

Choice A is incorrect. This quotation doesn’t show that Electra believes her grief is justified. It shows that Electra is aware of its intensity, but it doesn’t suggest that she believes she has a legitimate reason for feeling that way. Choice B is incorrect. This quotation doesn’t show that Electra believes her grief is justified. It shows that Electra is aware of its intensity, but it doesn’t suggest that she believes she has a legitimate reason for feeling that way. Choice D is incorrect. This quotation doesn’t show that Electra believes her grief is justified. It shows that Electra is aware of the intensity of her grief, but it doesn’t suggest that she has a legitimate reason for feeling that way.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 75208874

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 75208874

The widespread use of social media enables linguists to study changes in language usage in real time. A notable recent example is the proliferation of the affix meng- among speakers of Bahasa Indonesia, the official language of Indonesia. Linguists observed meng- originate as an onomatopoetic tag that social-media users applied to images of cats they posted; over time, users increasingly applied it as a prefix to existing words (e.g., mengsedih affixes meng- to the word for sad) in text that they posted. From there, it has begun to move into spoken Bahasa Indonesia. Linguists have noted many similar examples of this phenomenon occurring in other languages, suggesting that social media blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • is more useful for studying informal language than for studying formal or official language.

  • appears to be exerting an exceptionally strong influence on the evolution of Bahasa Indonesia.

  • may give linguists a somewhat misleading sense of how languages are changing.

  • does not merely register changes in language usage but can facilitate such changes.

ID: 75208874 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of linguists using social media to study changes in language usage in real time, providing the specific example of the affix meng- in Bahasa Indonesia. The text states that linguists first observed meng- being used as an onomatopoeic tag on social media, which then spread to being affixed to existing words in text posted on social media; from there, it has begun to move into spoken Bahasa Indonesia. As presented in the text, this progression from online usage to spoken language suggests that social media does more than just register or reflect changes in language—it can actively drive such changes. In the case of meng-, the text suggests, social media facilitated the movement of the affix from an online tag to part of spoken Bahasa Indonesia.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t differentiate between social media’s usefulness for studying informal versus formal or official language; it merely notes that Bahasa Indonesia is an official language. Choice B is incorrect because while the example given in the text focuses on changes in Bahasa Indonesia, the text doesn’t provide any evidence that social media is exerting an exceptionally strong influence on the evolution of this particular language compared to others. In fact, the text states that "linguists have noted many similar examples of this phenomenon occurring in other languages," suggesting that social media’s influence is evident across multiple languages and not unique to Bahasa Indonesia. Choice C is incorrect because the text never suggests that social media provides a somewhat misleading sense of how languages are changing. Rather, the text suggests that by allowing linguists to directly observe linguistic changes, social media offers a clear window into language evolution.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 787729be

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 787729be

Martin Dančák, Wewin Tjiasmanto, and colleagues have identified a new carnivorous plant species (Nepenthes pudica) in Indonesia. Like other carnivorous plants, N. pudica has pitfall traps, or pitchers, that capture prey, but unlike others, the pitchers of N. pudica are located underground. The researchers unearthed the new species on fairly dry ridges with surfaces that host few other plants and animals. Therefore, the researchers hypothesize that the N. pudica species likely blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • represents one of many undiscovered carnivorous plant species in the region.

  • formed pitchers early in development to absorb more moisture.

  • is buried by nearby animals as they forage along the ridges for food.

  • evolved to have underground traps to access more prey than would surface traps.

ID: 787729be Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The text says that N.pudica’s prey-catching pitchers are underground. It also says that the ridges where N. pudica lives don’t have many plants and animals on the surface. This suggests that N. pudica evolved underground pitchers in order to catch more prey.

Choice A is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never mentions the possibility of other undiscovered carnivorous plant species in Indonesia, so there’s no basis to make this inference. Choice B is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text does say that the ridges where N. pudica lives are dry, but it also says that the purpose of carnivorous plant pitchers is to capture prey. It never suggests that these pitchers also absorb moisture, so there’s no basis to make this inference. Choice C is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never suggests that N. pudica’s underground pitcher can catch animals on the surface, so there’s no basis to make this inference.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID e441da80

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: e441da80
1,750 1,500 1,250 1,000 750 500 250 0Number of articles 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019Investigative ArticlesPublished in the Albuquerque Journalfrom 2010 to 2019 Total
  • The line graph: 
    • Begins at 2010, 1,076
    • Rises gradually to 2011, 1,189
    • Rises sharply to 2012, 1,496
    • Rises gradually to 2013, 1,600
    • Falls sharply to 2014, 998
    • Falls gradually to 2015, 903
    • Falls gradually to 2016, 814
    • Rises sharply to 2017, 1,115
    • Falls sharply to 2018, 872
    • Falls sharply to 2019, 465

Investigative journalists research and report about fraud, corruption, public hazards, and more. The graph shows the number of investigative articles published in the Albuquerque Journal newspaper from 2010 to 2019. According to an analyst, although the number of investigative articles published in this newspaper has varied significantly over the period shown, the number overall has fallen since 2010.

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to justify the underlined claim?

  • The newspaper published approximately 1,000 investigative articles in 2010 and approximately 500 in 2019.

  • The smallest annual number of investigative articles published in the newspaper during the period shown is approximately 1,600 in 2013. 

  • The greatest annual number of investigative articles published in the newspaper during the period shown is approximately 1,000 in 2017. 

  • The newspaper published approximately 1,000 investigative articles in 2010 and approximately 1,600 in 2013.

ID: e441da80 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. By comparing the number of investigative articles in 2010 to the number in 2019, we can see that the number has fallen overall.

Choice B is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. The 1,600 articles published in 2013 was the largest annual number of investigative articles published during the period. Also, notice that the claim focuses on an overall change, while this choice just focuses on one year. We can’t determine an overall increase or decrease by looking at just one year. Choice C is incorrect. The 1,000 articles published in 2017 wasn’t the largest number published during the period. Also, notice that the claim focuses on an overall change, while this choice just focuses on one year. We can’t determine an overall increase or decrease by looking at just one year. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t justify the claim. The claim is about a decrease in articles published between 2010 and 2019. This data shows an increase in articles published over a different period (2010-2013).

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 575e67df

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 575e67df

By running computer simulations of the development of our solar system, André Izidoro, Rajdeep Dasgupta, and colleagues concluded that the Sun may have been surrounded by three giant dust rings before the planets started to form. The researchers suggest that the materials in the innermost ring became the four planets closest to the Sun, the materials in the middle ring produced the rest of the planets, and the materials in the outermost ring created the asteroids and other small bodies in the region beyond Neptune. In one simulation, the researchers delayed the initial formation of the middle ring, causing oversized super-Earths to begin developing from the innermost ring. The researchers therefore hypothesize that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • the middle ring formed earlier in the solar system’s development than the initial simulations suggested. 

  • the timing of the initial formation of the middle ring played an important role in determining the eventual size of Earth.

  • if the formation of the outermost ring had occurred earlier in a simulation, all the planets would have become super-Earths.

  • the innermost ring actually formed into all the planets in our solar system, not just the four closest to the Sun.

ID: 575e67df Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically follows from the text’s discussion of André Izidoro, Rajdeep Dasgupta, and colleagues’ computer simulations of our solar system’s development. The text begins by stating that the simulations led the researchers to conclude that the solar system likely formed from three giant dust rings that encircled the Sun. The text explains that the four inner planets, including Earth, formed from the innermost ring and that the remaining planets formed from the middle ring. It then explains that in one simulation, the researchers delayed the formation of the middle ring—that is, they tested to see what would happen if the middle ring had formed later than it actually did. They found that doing so affected the size of the innermost planets, resulting in oversized super-Earths, planets that are much larger than Earth. Since the delayed timing had the effect of changing the size of Earth in the simulation relative to Earth’s real size, it’s reasonable to conclude that the timing of the middle ring’s formation was important in determining Earth’s eventual size. 

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text explains that when the researchers delayed the formation of the middle ring in one simulation, the size of the innermost planets was affected (which suggests that the middle ring likely formed earlier than it did in this simulation), the text doesn’t indicate that this was an initial simulation—that is, a simulation that was conducted before other simulations. Moreover, the text makes no reference to the specific results of any other simulations; therefore, there is no basis for comparing any conclusions based on the simulation in which the middle ring’s formation was delayed with conclusions based on other simulations. Choice C is incorrect because the text discusses how altering the timing of the formation of the middle ring, not the outermost ring, affected the four innermost planets’ eventual size in the researchers’ simulation; therefore, the simulation offers no basis for a conclusion about how the outermost ring’s formation affected the size of the planets. Choice D is incorrect because there is nothing in the text to suggest that the innermost ring produced all the solar system’s planets. Rather, the text states that the simulations showed that the innermost planets formed from the innermost ring and that the remaining planets formed from the middle ring.  

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 1d08c7ee

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 1d08c7ee

Pulitzer Prize–winning writer Héctor Tobar has built a multifaceted career as both a journalist and an author of short stories and novels. In an essay about Tobar’s work, a student claims that Tobar blends his areas of expertise by applying journalism techniques to his creation of works of fiction.

Which quotation from a literary critic best supports the student’s claim?

  • “For one novel, an imagined account of a real person’s global travels, Tobar approached his subject like a reporter, interviewing people the man had met along the way and researching the man’s own writings.”

  • “Tobar got his start as a volunteer for El Tecolote, a community newspaper in San Francisco, and wrote for newspapers for years before earning a degree in creative writing and starting to publish works of fiction.”

  • “Many of Tobar’s notable nonfiction articles are marked by the writer’s use of techniques usually associated with fiction, such as complex narrative structures and the incorporation of symbolism.”

  • “The protagonist of Tobar’s third novel is a man who wants to be a novelist and keeps notes about interesting people he encounters so he can use them when developing characters for his stories.”

ID: 1d08c7ee Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The example of Tobar approaching his subject “like a reporter,” including conducting “interviews” and “research,” shows Tobar applying journalism techniques to his fiction-writing.

Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the claim. It tells us about Tobar’s initial career as a journalist, but it doesn’t say anything about him “applying journalism techniques” to his fiction-writing. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the claim. It tells us that Tobar applied fiction techniques to his nonfiction writing, but we’re looking for evidence of the other way around: that Tobar applied journalism techniques to his fiction-writing. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the claim. It tells us that a character in one of Tobar’s novels applied a journalism technique to his fiction-writing, but it doesn’t tell us that Tobar did that himself.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID e37f79a7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: e37f79a7

Housing Starts in the US, January–April 2022 (in thousands)

Month Housing starts
January 1,669
February 1,771
March 1,713
April 1,803

When construction of a single-family house begins, it is called a housing start. In the first four months of 2022, the highest number of housing starts in the United States was in blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • April.

  • March.

  • January.

  • February.

ID: e37f79a7 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement, identifying the month in which the United States had the highest number of housing starts in 2022. According to the table, which shows the number of US housing starts from January to April 2022, the highest number of housing starts was 1,803 thousand, which occurred in April.

Choice B is incorrect because March had 1,713 thousand housing starts, which is lower than the number of starts in April and in February. Choice C is incorrect because January had 1,669 thousand housing starts, which is the lowest of all the months listed in the table. Choice D is incorrect because February had 1,771 thousand housing starts, which is lower than the number of starts in April.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID adbcbce0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: adbcbce0

The following text is adapted from Christina Rossetti’s 1881 poem “Monna Innominata 2.”

I wish I could remember that first day,

 First hour, first moment of your meeting me,

 If bright or dim the season, it might be

Summer or Winter for [all] I can say;

So unrecorded did it slip away,

 So blind was I to see and to foresee,

 So dull to mark the budding of my tree

That would not blossom yet for many a May.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • The speaker celebrates how the passage of time has strengthened a relationship that once seemed unimportant. 

  • Because the speaker did not anticipate how important a relationship would become, she cannot recall how the relationship began, which she regrets. 

  • As the anniversary of the beginning of an important relationship approaches, the speaker feels conflicted about how best to commemorate it.

  • After years of neglecting a once valuable relationship, the speaker worries it may be too late for her to salvage the relationship. 

ID: adbcbce0 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The speaker says that they wish they could remember when they first met someone, but they can’t remember the meeting at all, because they didn’t know at the time that the relationship would "blossom" later on.

Choice A is incorrect. The speaker does say that the relationship has "blossomed" over time, but only briefly at the end—and they don’t really "celebrate" that fact. Rather, the text has a more regretful tone: it’s about how the speaker can’t remember first meeting this person, and they wish they could. Choice C is incorrect. The speaker doesn’t mention an anniversary—in fact, the speaker can’t remember when they met the person they’re talking about. Choice D is incorrect. The speaker doesn’t say that they neglected the relationship. In fact, the speaker suggests that the relationship has become very important to them—that’s why the speaker wishes that they could remember their first meeting.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID e9521fd1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: e9521fd1

The Uto-Aztecan language family is divided into a northern branch, which includes the Shoshone language of present-day Idaho and Utah, and a southern one, whose best-known representative is Nahuatl, the language of the Aztec Empire in Mexico. Lexical similarities across the family, including of botanical terms, confirm descent from a single language spoken millennia ago, and the family’s geographical distribution suggests an origin in what is now the US Southwest. However, vocabulary pertaining to maize isn’t shared between northern and southern branches, despite the crop’s universal cultivation among Uto-Aztecan tribes. Given archaeological evidence that maize originated in Mexico and diffused northward into what became the US Southwest, some linguists reason that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • northern Uto-Aztecan tribes likely obtained the crop directly from a southern Uto-Aztecan tribe rather than from a non-Uto-Aztecan tribe.

  • variation in maize-related vocabulary within each branch of the Uto-Aztecan family likely reflects regionally specific methods for cultivating the crop.

  • southern Uto-Aztecan tribes likely acquired maize at roughly the same time as northern Uto-Aztecan tribes did, though from different sources.

  • the family’s division into northern and southern branches likely preceded the acquisition of the crop by the Uto-Aztecan tribes.

ID: e9521fd1 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the discussion of Uto-Aztecan languages. The text explains that the northern and southern branches of the Uto-Aztecan language family descended from a single language (believed to have originated in what is now the US Southwest), resulting in similarities across the family’s languages; however, the branches don’t have similar vocabulary for maize, even though maize has been cultivated by all Uto-Aztecan tribes. The text also indicates that maize originated in Mexico and spread northward into what is now the US Southwest—the area where the Uto-Aztecan language family originated. It follows, then, that the language family had already divided into northern and southern branches before maize reached that area; if maize had been present before the division occurred, the family’s origin language would have had terminology for it that likely would have been reflected in the branches, meaning they would have had similar vocabulary for maize. If maize arrived after the division occurred, however, the tribes in the two regions likely would have developed vocabulary pertaining to maize separately, at the times when they acquired the crop.

Choice A is incorrect because the text focuses on vocabulary pertaining to maize in the branches of the Uto-Aztecan language family, and referring only to how some Uto-Aztecan tribes obtained maize wouldn’t directly address the role of language. Moreover, if northern Uto-Aztecan tribes had acquired maize from a southern Uto-Aztecan tribe, it’s reasonable to assume that the northern tribes might have also picked up southern Uto-Aztecan terminology for maize in that exchange. Choice B is incorrect because the text discusses the fact that the northern and southern branches of the Uto-Aztecan language family don’t have shared vocabulary pertaining to maize, not the idea that there are variations in such vocabulary within each branch—that is, the text focuses on differences between the two branches, not on differences between languages within a branch. Choice C is incorrect because the text focuses on vocabulary pertaining to maize in the branches of the Uto-Aztecan language family, and referring only to the timing and source of maize acquisition wouldn’t directly address the role of language. Furthermore, the text implies that southern Uto-Aztecan tribes probably acquired maize before the northern tribes did, given the evidence that maize originated in Mexico—the location of the best-known representative of the southern branch of the Uto-Aztecan language family—before spreading to the north.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 82bdf676

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 82bdf676
100 75 50 25 0Candidate-likability score (higher score = more likable) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7Participants’ Likability Ratings forCandidates by Candidates’ Traitsand Participants’ Ignoble-Trait ScoresIgnoble-trait scores of participants admirable-trait candidates ignoble-trait candidates
  • All values are approximate.
  • The following 2 lines are shown:
    • admirable-trait candidates
    • ignoble-trait candidates
  • The admirable-trait candidates line:
    • Begins at 1, 67
    • Remains level to 2, 67 
    • Remains level to 3, 67
    • Remains level to 4, 67
    • Remains level to 5, 67
    • Rises gradually to 6, 69
    • Remains level to 7, 69
  • The ignoble-trait candidates line: 
    • Begins at 1, 21
    • Rises gradually to 2, 31
    • Rises gradually to 3, 41
    • Rises gradually to 4, 49
    • Rises gradually to 5, 60
    • Rises gradually to 6, 69
    • Rises gradually to 7, 82

Alessandro Nai et al. presented study participants with vignettes about fictive political candidates, portraying them as embodying a personality trait widely considered admirable (e.g., agreeableness) or one considered ignoble (e.g., cynicism). A survey recorded participants’ ratings of the candidates’ likability and showed that across participants, ignoble-trait candidates were less likable than admirable-trait candidates. However, when the researchers factored in the participants’ own personality-trait scores, on a scale of 1 (least ignoble) to 7 (most ignoble), they concluded that this relative ranking of candidates persisted except among the participants with high ignobility scores.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that support the researchers’ conclusion?

  • There was a strong positive correlation between participants’ ignobility scores and admirable-trait candidates’ likability ratings, but there was no correlation between ignobility scores and ignoble-trait candidates’ likability ratings.

  • Participants with an ignobility score of 5 or less rated admirable-trait candidates as more likable than ignoble-trait candidates, whereas participants with an ignobility score of 6 or more rated ignoble-trait candidates as equally likable as or even more likable than admirable-trait candidates.

  • Overall, participants rated admirable-trait candidates as quite likable, and that rating was not significantly affected by the participants’ ignobility scores.

  • Unlike participants with an ignobility score of 6, participants with an ignobility score either greater or less than 6 gave admirable-trait candidates and ignoble-trait candidates different likability ratings.

ID: 82bdf676 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it describes data from the graph that support the researchers’ conclusion that the trend of admirable-trait candidates being rated as more likable than ignoble-trait candidates held true when participants’ own personality-trait scores were factored in, except among participants with high ignobility scores. The values on the x-axis represent survey participants grouped by their own ignobility scores, from low ignobility (1) to high ignobility (7), while the values on the y-axis represent the likability scores given to the political candidates. The graph shows that the full range of participants (from least to most ignoble) gave the admirable-trait candidates (represented by the line with triangles) a likability rating of approximately 70 out of 100; that is, regardless of their own level of ignobility, participants generally found admirable-trait candidates quite likable. However, the graph shows that participants varied in their views of ignoble-trait candidates (represented by the line with squares); likability ratings increased as the participants’ own ignobility scores increased. Participants with low to medium-high ignobility scores (1 to 5) still rated the ignoble-trait candidates as less likable than the admirable-trait candidates, with all ratings falling below approximately 70, but participants with high ignobility scores (6 and 7) gave ratings equal to or higher than approximately 70. In other words, the previously observed trend of ranking admirable-trait candidates as more likable than ignoble-trait candidates persisted for participants with low to medium-high ignobility but not for participants with high ignobility.

Choice A is incorrect because it describes the opposite of what the graph shows. The graph shows a positive correlation between participants’ ignobility scores and ignoble-trait candidates’ likability ratings (as participants’ ignobility scores increased, so did their ratings for ignoble-trait candidates’ likability) and no correlation between ignobility scores and admirable-trait candidates’ likability ratings (all participants gave admirable-trait candidates a rating of approximately 70 out of 100). Choice C is incorrect. The graph does show that regardless of their own ignobility scores, participants rated admirable-trait candidates as quite likable (a rating of approximately 70 out of 100). However, this doesn’t support the researchers’ conclusion because the conclusion has to do with how participants rated both types of candidates, not just the admirable-trait ones; moreover, the conclusion is that relative ratings were actually affected by the participants’ ignobility scores. Choice D is incorrect. The graph does show that only participants with an ignobility score of 6 gave the same likability score to both admirable- and ignoble-trait candidates while participants with other ignobility scores gave a different rating for each candidate, but this doesn’t support the researchers’ conclusion. The conclusion isn’t just that participants gave different ratings to the two types of candidates—it’s that participants with low to medium-high ignobility scores specifically gave higher likability ratings to admirable-trait candidates than to ignoble-trait candidates and that participants with high ignobility scores didn’t.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 881ba6f1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 881ba6f1

Eighteenth-century economist Adam Smith is famed for his metaphor of the invisible hand, which he putatively used to illustrate a robust model of how individuals produce aggregate benefits by pursuing their own economic interests. Note “putatively”: as Gavin Kennedy has shown, Smith deploys this metaphor only once in his economic writings—to make a narrow point about the then-dominant economic theory of mercantilism—and it was largely ignored until some twentieth-century economists eager to secure an intellectual pedigree for their views elevated it to a fully-fledged paradigm. 

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Although Smith is famed for his metaphor of the invisible hand, the metaphor was largely ignored until economists in the twentieth century came to realize that the metaphor was a robust model that anticipated their own views.  

  • Some twentieth-century economists gave Smith’s metaphor of the invisible hand a significance it does not have in Smith’s work, but it is nevertheless a useful model of how individuals produce aggregate benefits by pursuing their own economic interests.

  • Smith’s metaphor of the invisible hand has been interpreted as a model of how individuals acting in their own interest produce aggregate benefits, but it was intended as a subtle critique of the economic theory of mercantilism. 

  • The reputation of Smith’s metaphor of the invisible hand is not due to the importance of the metaphor in Smith’s work but rather to the promotion of the metaphor by some later economists for their own ends.

ID: 881ba6f1 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text explains that economist Adam Smith’s famous metaphor of the invisible hand was putatively (that is, widely assumed but not proven) intended to illustrate a robust model (a consistently accurate generalization) of how individuals pursuing their own economic interests can create broader benefits for the population. The text then emphasizes the lack of affirmative evidence for this idea by calling out the term "putatively," and explaining that, according to Gavin Kennedy, Smith used the metaphor only once in his works, in reference to specific circumstances related to the now-outdated economic view known as mercantilism, and that the metaphor didn’t garner much attention until economists in the twentieth century held it up as a paradigm (a theoretical framework in the field) and thereby implied that Smith shared some of their views on economics. By emphasizing "putatively," the text implies that there is no independent reason to believe that Smith would agree with the metaphor’s use outside of the specific context for which he wrote it and that, therefore, the twentieth-century economists who used it did so to support their own views without regard for the metaphor’s importance to Smith’s work.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text indicates that Smith’s metaphor was largely ignored until some twentieth-century economists revived it and bolstered its status, the text suggests that the later economists used Smith’s metaphor to self-servingly boost their own work while ignoring the original context in which Smith wrote it. Moreover, the statement in this choice fails to reflect the text’s emphasis on Smith’s limited use of the metaphor in his work. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text indicates that some twentieth-century economists altered the significance of Smith’s metaphor, the text doesn’t suggest that the metaphor is a "useful model" of how aggregate benefits arise from individuals’ selfish actions, let alone that this usefulness is unaffected by taking the metaphor out of its original context. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text indicates that Smith’s metaphor was intended as a model of how individuals acting in their own interest produce aggregate benefits and it was written within the context of the now-outdated economic theory of mercantilism, these points are subordinate to the primary idea in the text, which is that Smith’s use of the metaphor was tightly constrained but twentieth-century economists ignored the original context so that they could use the metaphor to suggest, without support, that Smith would agree with their economic views.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 6536183b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 6536183b

In the mountains of Brazil, Barbacenia tomentosa and Barbacenia macrantha—two plants in the Velloziaceae family—establish themselves on soilless, nutrient-poor patches of quartzite rock. Plant ecologists Anna Abrahão and Patricia de Britto Costa used microscopic analysis to determine that the roots of B. tomentosa and B. macrantha, which grow directly into the quartzite, have clusters of fine hairs near the root tip; further analysis indicated that these hairs secrete both malic and citric acids. The researchers hypothesize that the plants depend on dissolving underlying rock with these acids, as the process not only creates channels for continued growth but also releases phosphates that provide the vital nutrient phosphorus.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ hypothesis?

  • Other species in the Velloziaceae family are found in terrains with more soil but have root structures similar to those of B. tomentosa and B. macrantha.

  • Though B. tomentosa and B. macrantha both secrete citric and malic acids, each species produces the acids in different proportions.

  • The roots of B. tomentosa and B. macrantha carve new entry points into rocks even when cracks in the surface are readily available.

  • B. tomentosa and B. macrantha thrive even when transferred to the surfaces of rocks that do not contain phosphates.

ID: 6536183b Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support the researchers’ hypothesis about the plants’ dependence on dissolving rock. The text indicates that the roots of the two plant species grow directly into quartzite rock, where hairs on the roots secrete acids that dissolve the rock. The researchers hypothesize that the plants depend on this process because dissolving rock opens spaces for the roots to grow and releases phosphates that provide the plants with phosphorus, a vital nutrient. If the plants carry out this process of dissolving rock even when the rock already has spaces into which the roots could grow, that would support the researchers’ hypothesis because it suggests that the plants are getting some advantage—such as access to phosphorus—from the action of dissolving rock. If the plants don’t benefit from dissolving rock, they would be expected to grow in the cracks that already exist, as doing so would mean that the plants don’t have to spend energy creating and secreting acids; if, however, the plants create new entry points by dissolving rock even when cracks already exist, that would support the hypothesis that they depend on dissolving rock for some benefit.

Choice A is incorrect because the existence of soil-inhabiting members of the Velloziaceae family with similar root structures to those of the two species discussed in the text wouldn’t support the researchers’ hypothesis that the species discussed in the text depend on dissolving rock. If other such members exist, that might suggest that the root structures can serve more functions than secreting acids to dissolve rock (since dissolving rock may not be necessary for plants living in soil), but that wouldn’t suggest anything about whether the species discussed in the text benefit from dissolving rock. Choice B is incorrect because differences in the proportions of citric and malic acid secreted by the two species would be irrelevant to the hypothesis that the plants depend on dissolving rock. There’s no information in the text to suggest that the proportion of each acid has any bearing on the process of dissolving rock or on any benefits the plants might receive from that process. Choice D is incorrect because if the two species thrive on rocks without phosphates, that would weaken the researchers’ hypothesis that the plants depend on dissolving rock partly because dissolving rock gives them access to phosphates. If the plants can survive on rocks without getting a vital nutrient by dissolving those rocks, then either the nutrient isn’t actually vital for those plants or they can get the nutrient in some way other than by dissolving rocks.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 96d1c1fe

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 96d1c1fe

Tatiana R. Feuerborn and colleagues analyzed the genomes of more than a hundred domesticated dogs from sites in Siberia dating from 11,000 years ago to the present. They found that the dogs constituted a genetically isolated population of Arctic breeds until approximately 2,000 years ago, at which point there was substantial interbreeding with Near Eastern dog breeds. Furthermore, beginning around 2,000 years ago, some sites contain artifacts consistent with a Near East origin, like glass beads, but the people show no evidence of having traveled extensively outside Siberia. From this, Feuerborn and colleagues concluded that around 2,000 years ago blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • dogs and artifacts like glass beads began to be transported from the Near East to Siberia. 

  • people from Siberia began to reach the Near East, where they acquired dogs and artifacts such as glass beads.

  • glass beads and other artifacts from the Near East began to be exchanged for dogs from Siberia. 

  • dogs from the Near East began to be exchanged for glass beads and other artifacts from Siberia.

ID: 96d1c1fe Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of Feuerborn and colleagues’ findings about sites in Siberia. The text states that genomic analysis of many domesticated dogs from Siberian sites dating from the last 11,000 years revealed that the dogs represented a genetically isolated population of breeds (that is, they didn’t reproduce with dogs of any outside breeds) until about 2,000 years ago, when there is evidence that the dogs began interbreeding with breeds from the Near East. The text also indicates that around the same time, the sites began to contain glass beads and other artifacts seeming to be from the Near East, even though there is no evidence that the people of those sites traveled widely outside Siberia. Because there is evidence of Near East dog breeds and Near East artifacts at Siberian sites beginning about 2,000 years ago but no evidence of the people’s travel to the Near East around that time, it’s reasonable to infer that Feuerborn and colleagues concluded that dogs and artifacts like glass beads were transported to Siberia from the Near East, starting around 2,000 years ago.

Choice B is incorrect because the text explicitly states that there is no evidence that the people of the Siberian sites 2,000 years ago traveled extensively beyond Siberia, which they would’ve had to do to reach the Near East; therefore, it wouldn’t make sense to conclude that the presence of Near East dog breeds and artifacts like glass beads suggests that people from Siberia began arriving in the Near East around 2,000 years ago. Choice C is incorrect because the text addresses the presence of Near East dog breeds (and evidence of interbreeding with Siberian dogs) and artifacts like glass beads at Siberian sites starting about 2,000 years ago, suggesting only that the dogs and artifacts started to arrive in Siberia around that time. The text doesn’t suggest the purpose of the arrival of the Near East dogs and artifacts or give any indication of Siberian dog breeds being transported elsewhere through trade. Choice D is incorrect because the text addresses the presence of Near East dog breeds and artifacts like glass beads at Siberian sites starting about 2,000 years ago, suggesting only that the dogs and artifacts started to arrive in Siberia around that time; it doesn’t suggest the purpose of this arrival and makes no mention of Siberian glass beads or other artifacts of Siberian origin.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 2644644a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 2644644a

In countries with right-hand traffic, drivers who want to make a left turn at a traffic intersection with stoplights have to wait for either a gap in oncoming traffic or a designated left-turn signal to turn green. At busy intersections, this often causes a backup of vehicles waiting to turn left or being prevented from proceeding by left-turning vehicles in front of them. Transportation researcher Vikash V. Gayah claims that in urban areas eliminating the option to turn left at busy intersections—both with and without dedicated left-turn signals—would improve traffic flow and, as a result, reduce overall travel times even if such a restriction would require drivers to sometimes travel a slightly longer distance.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researcher’s claim?

  • In a town that installed left-turn signals at all busy intersections, seven out of ten survey respondents agreed with the statement “the streets in my community are easier to navigate by motor vehicle than before.”

  • A traffic study of intersections in a large city shows that on average drivers wait longer to make a left turn at intersections without left-turn signals than at intersections with such signals.

  • After a city eliminated left turns at busy intersections, a package-delivery company reports that its drivers have been able to reach more addresses in the city daily, on average, and therefore deliver more packages there annually.

  • Statistics reveal that school buses in a city that eliminated left turns at most intersections took on average two minutes longer to complete their routes after the restriction took effect than they did before.

ID: 2644644a Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly support Vikash V. Gayah’s claim that eliminating the option to turn left at busy intersections would improve traffic flow and reduce overall travel times. The text begins by describing a problem encountered by drivers in countries with right-hand traffic—namely that drivers wanting to make a left turn must wait for either gaps in oncoming traffic or for designated left-turn signals before proceeding. The resulting backup of vehicles causes increased traffic congestion at busy intersections that slows overall travel times. According to Gayah, eliminating left turns from busy intersections in urban areas would ease the congestion caused by vehicles waiting to turn left. If vehicles spend less time waiting at intersections for left turns, faster overall travel times would result even if some drivers would have to drive slightly longer distances to make the desired left turn. Drivers for package-delivery companies, who presumably spend most of the day driving to destinations across the city in which they are based, would likely provide a good indication of overall traffic patterns across the city. A finding that after a city had eliminated left turns at busy intersections, package-delivery companies were able to complete more daily deliveries on average—which implies faster travel times between package destinations—would therefore support the claim that overall travel times would decrease if left turns were eliminated at busy intersections.

Choice A is incorrect because a finding that a majority of survey respondents agreed with the statement that implementing left-turn signals at all busy intersections made navigating streets in their communities easier wouldn’t support the claim that eliminating the option to turn left altogether at some busy intersections—both with and without dedicated left-turn signals—would improve the flow of traffic and overall traffic times. In fact, the text emphasizes that designated left-turn signals contribute to increased congestion because they require drivers to wait to turn left, which results in a backup of vehicles. Installing such signals at all busy intersections would thus potentially compound the problem of congestion, not improve it. Moreover, although making streets easier for drivers to navigate might indicate that left-turn signals are beneficial to drivers, it doesn’t indicate that overall travel times would necessarily be reduced. Choice B is incorrect because a study concluding that drivers wait longer to make left turns at intersections without dedicated left-turn signals than at intersections with such signals wouldn’t support the claim that eliminating the option to turn left altogether would reduce overall travel times. In fact, the finding would merely support the idea that installing left-turn signals would likely reduce the time drivers spend waiting at busy intersections that didn’t previously have left-turn signals, not that overall travel times would be reduced. Choice D is incorrect because the finding that after a restriction eliminating left turns at most intersections took effect, school buses took longer to complete their routes than they did before the restriction was implemented would contradict rather than support the researcher’s claim that eliminating left turns would reduce overall travel times.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 08ff903e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 08ff903e

A museum curator is writing a biographical statement about Trinidadian-born Chinese dancer, choreographer, and teacher Dai Ailian for a new exhibit on Chinese dance. The curator claims that some of the pieces Dai created shortly after arriving in mainland China in 1941, such as the solo dance Yao Drum, reflect a desire to represent the dances of local communities Dai visited during her travels through China.

Which quotation from a work by a dance historian would be the most effective evidence for the curator to include in support of this claim?

  • “There is no sound or music accompanying Dai’s movements in Yao Drum, aside from the sounds of drumsticks beating against a drum and against each other.”

  • “Unlike some of the works Dai created in the early 1940s, Yao Drum does not feature a narrative structure, humorous elements, or references to real-life events.”

  • “Yao Drum was inspired by a ceremonial dance Dai witnessed during her time performing field research among the Yao people in the province of Guizhou in 1941 or 1942.” 

  • “Yao Drum is notable for its intense physicality, with Dai performing sharp jumps, swift turns, and dramatic sweeps of her legs through the air as she moves in circles on the stage.”

ID: 08ff903e Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. This choice clearly states that Yao Drum was inspired by a ceremonial dance of the Yao people. This directly supports the curator’s claim that some of Dai’s pieces “represent the dances of local communities” she visited.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice discusses the sound and music in Yao Drum, but it doesn’t connect these elements to “the dances of local communities,” which is the focus of the claim. Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t mention the dances of local communities, but instead discusses how Yao Drum is different from some of Dai’s earlier works. Choice D is incorrect. This choice describes the choreography of Yao Drum, but it doesn’t connect these elements to “the dances of local communities,” which is the focus of the claim.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 47f2cddd

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 47f2cddd

“The Rock and the Sea” is an 1893 poem by Charlotte Perkins Gilman. In the poem, a rock is portrayed as intending to confront and restrain the sea: blank

Which quotation from “The Rock and the Sea” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “I am the Rock. Black midnight falls; / The terrible breakers rise like walls; / With curling lips and gleaming teeth / They plunge and tear at my bones beneath.”

  • “I am the Sea. I hold the land / As one holds an apple in his hand, / Hold it fast with sleepless eyes, / Watching the continents sink and rise.”

  • “I am the Rock, presumptuous Sea! / I am set to encounter thee. / Angry and loud or gentle and still, / I am set here to limit thy power, and I will!”

  • “I am the Sea. The earth I sway; / Granite to me is potter’s clay; / Under the touch of my careless waves / It rises in turrets and sinks in caves.”

ID: 47f2cddd Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. This quotation focuses on the rock, which yells at the sea and announces its intent to “limit [the sea’s] power.” This matches the idea of confrontation and restraint in the claim we’re trying to support.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t illustrate the claim. While this quotation does focus on the rock, it suggests that the rock fears the sea. It lacks the sense of boldness and strength implied by the phrase “confront and restrain the sea.” Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t illustrate the claim. This quotation focuses on the sea, not the rock. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t illustrate the claim. This quotation focuses on the sea, not the rock.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 7812801f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 7812801f

The fynbos shrubland is a diverse habitat found only in South Africa. It is adjacent to the Afro-temperate forest, with almost no transition space between the two distinct habitats. Plants in the fynbos have uniquely thin and long root systems that spread out over large distances to absorb nutrients from the soil. Ecologists transplanted tree seedlings from the forest into plots in the fynbos. Seedlings in plots isolated from the roots of fynbos plants exhibited a growth rate five times greater than that of the seedlings in plots in close proximity to the roots of fynbos plants.

Based on the text, what role do fynbos roots most likely have in maintaining the border between the fynbos shrubland and the Afro-temperate forest habitats?

  • Fynbos roots damage the root systems of forest plants, leaving those plants unable to acquire sufficient nutrients.

  • Fynbos roots extend close enough to the forest plants’ roots that they constitute a physical barrier that forest plants’ roots cannot pass.

  • The root systems of fynbos plants allow the plants to take in so many soil nutrients that forest plants are prevented from flourishing in the fynbos.

  • The root systems of fynbos plants enhance the soil immediately surrounding the plants, allowing them to thrive in an otherwise harsh habitat. 

ID: 7812801f Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a conclusion about the role of fynbos roots in maintaining the border with the Afro-temperate forest that can be reasonably inferred from the text. The text states that plants in the fynbos have "uniquely thin and long root systems that spread out over large distances to absorb nutrients from the soil." The text then describes an experiment where forest tree seedlings grown in plots isolated from fynbos roots grew at a rate five times greater than seedlings in areas near fynbos roots. This strongly suggests that fynbos roots are depleting soil nutrients to such an extent that forest plants can’t get enough nutrients from that soil to flourish, thereby hindering the formation of any significant "transition space" between the habitats and helping keep the border between them sharp.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no evidence in the text that fynbos roots physically damage the root systems of forest plants. Instead, the text explicitly describes fynbos plants as having "uniquely thin and long root systems that spread out over large distances to absorb nutrients from the soil." This description establishes that fynbos roots are specialized for efficient nutrient absorption. The experiment then confirms this function of the roots by showing that forest seedlings "isolated from the roots of fynbos plants exhibited a growth rate five times greater" than those near fynbos roots. This result demonstrates that when forest seedlings don’t have to compete with the nutrient-absorbing fynbos roots, they grow much better. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text does indicate that the fynbos and the Afro-temperate forest are distinct from, and adjacent to, each other and that there is "almost no transition space" (area of mixed fynbos and forest plants), the experiment shows that forest plants can grow in soil occupied by fynbos roots, just not very well. So, the idea that the fynbos roots physically obstruct forest plants is unsupported by the text. Choice D is incorrect because it directly contradicts the text’s claim that fynbos roots absorb nutrients from, and therefore deplete, the soil they’re in, and furthermore, nothing in the text suggests that the habitat of the fynbos is harsh in general.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID dd349efc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: dd349efc

Participants’ Evaluation of the Likelihood That Robots Can Work Effectively in Different Occupations

Occupation Somewhat or very unlikely (%) Neutral (%) Somewhat or very likely (%)
television news anchor 24 9 67
teacher 37 16 47
firefighter 62 9 30
surgeon 74 9 16
tour guide 10 8 82

Rows in table may not add up to 100 due to rounding.

Georgia Tech roboticists De’Aira Bryant and Ayanna Howard, along with ethicist Jason Borenstein, were interested in people’s perceptions of robots’ competence. They recruited participants and asked them how likely they think it is that a robot could do the work required in various occupations. Participants’ evaluations varied widely depending on which occupation was being considered; for example, blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the example?

  • 47% of participants believe that it is somewhat or very likely that a robot could work effectively as a teacher, but 37% of respondents believe that it is somewhat or very unlikely that a robot could do so. 

  • 9% of participants were neutral about whether a robot could work effectively as a television news anchor, which is the same percent of participants who were neutral when asked about a robot working as a surgeon.

  • 82% of participants believe that it is somewhat or very likely that a robot could work effectively as a tour guide, but only 16% believe that it is somewhat or very likely that a robot could work as a surgeon.

  • 62% of participants believe that it is somewhat or very unlikely that a robot could work effectively as a firefighter. 

ID: dd349efc Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it effectively uses data from the table to complete the example of variations in participants’ evaluations. The table shows participants’ evaluations of the likelihood that robots could work effectively in different occupations. The text asserts that participants’ evaluations varied widely depending on the occupation being considered and introduces an example supporting that assertion. The data from the table showing that 82% of participants believe that it is somewhat or very likely that a robot could work effectively as a tour guide but only 16% of participants believe that it is somewhat or very likely that a robot could work effectively as a surgeon illustrate this assertion: those data show participants’ views changing substantially with the occupation being considered.  

Choice A is incorrect because it does not describe data that illustrate the assertion that participants’ evaluations varied widely depending on which occupation was being considered. Although this choice accurately describes data in the table, data about participants’ responses when considering a single occupation—teaching—could not be an example of people’s views changing substantially depending on the occupation being considered. Choice B is incorrect because it identifies a similarity in participants’ responses when considering two different occupations, but the assertion that the example is intended to illustrate is that participants’ evaluations varied widely depending on the occupation being considered. Although this choice accurately describes data in the table, those data do not illustrate the assertion in the text. Choice D is incorrect because it does not describe data that illustrate the assertion that participants’ evaluations varied widely depending on which occupation was being considered. Although this choice accurately describes data in the table, data showing participants’ evaluation of just one occupation could not be an example of participants’ evaluations changing depending on the occupation under evaluation. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID e1ee5f5c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: e1ee5f5c

Just Patty is a 1911 novel by Jean Webster. Patty and her friends have just been informed that they will no longer be roommates while at school. Patty talks to Mrs. Trent, the head of the school, about the situation. The narrator presents Patty as trying hard to convince Mrs. Trent to allow the group to continue sharing a room: blank

Which quotation from Just Patty most effectively illustrates the claim? 

  • “[Mrs. Trent’s] lips twitched. It was a fact, deplored by her assistants, that her sense of humour frequently ran away with her sense of justice.”

  • “[Mrs. Trent] nodded dismissal, and the three of them found themselves in the hall again. They looked at one another for a moment of blank silence.”

  • “Patty’s eyes suddenly brightened. She seized [her friends] by [the] elbow and shoved them into the empty schoolroom.”

  • “Patty did use all the diplomacy at her command. Having dwelt touchingly upon their long friendship, and their sorrow at being separated, she passed lightly to the matter of their new roommates.” 

ID: e1ee5f5c Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because the quotation directly illustrates Patty trying hard to convince Mrs. Trent to allow the group to continue sharing a room. The phrase "Patty did use all the diplomacy at her command" explicitly shows her making a determined effort to be persuasive. The quotation further details Patty’s specific tactics: she "dwelt touchingly upon their long friendship, and their sorrow at being separated." These details illustrate the claim by suggesting that Patty carefully crafted and delivered an emotional appeal to Mrs. Trent about the effects of changing the group’s rooming situation.

Choice A is incorrect because although the quotation describes a reaction by Mrs. Trent, it does not reveal anything about the events or conversation that might have prompted this reaction. Instead of depicting Patty’s efforts to be persuasive during such a conversation, the quotation focuses on Mrs. Trent’s character traits; specifically, it describes the relationship between her "sense of humour" and her "sense of justice." While the latter trait may be relevant to Patty’s situation, the quotation doesn’t show the extent of her efforts to convince Mrs. Trent to reconsider the change in rooming arrangements. Choice B is incorrect because this quotation describes the reaction of a group of three students immediately after an encounter with Mrs. Trent. It shows the outcome of an implied conversation but does not provide any evidence about the topic or nature of the conversation itself, and therefore does not illustrate Patty’s efforts during a conversation to convince Mrs. Trent to change her mind about the rooming situation. Choice C is incorrect because although this quotation suggests that Patty can be assertive (she abruptly grabbed her friends and "shoved them into the empty schoolroom"), it doesn’t show Patty asserting herself by trying to convince Mrs. Trent to reconsider the proposed rooming arrangements. The quotation doesn’t allude to Mrs. Trent or to Patty’s desire to continue sharing a room with a group of friends.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID b7f79059

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: b7f79059

The following text is from Ezra Pound’s 1909 poem “Hymn III,” based on the work of Marcantonio Flaminio.

As a fragile and lovely flower unfolds its gleaming
 foliage on the breast of the fostering earth, if
 the dew and the rain draw it forth;
So doth my tender mind flourish, if it be fed with the
 sweet dew of the fostering spirit,
Lacking this, it beginneth straightway to languish,
 even as a floweret born upon dry earth, if the
 dew and the rain tend it not.

Based on the text, in what way is the human mind like a flower?

  • It becomes increasingly vigorous with the passage of time.

  • It draws strength from changes in the weather.

  •  It requires proper nourishment in order to thrive.

  • It perseveres despite challenging circumstances.

ID: b7f79059 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a description of how the human mind is like a flower that is directly supported by the text. The text compares the needs of a “fragile and lovely flower” to those of the speaker’s “tender mind”: both need to be fed if they’re going to survive. Without such feeding, they’ll “beginneth straightway to languish,” or weaken. Thus, the text suggests that the human mind is like a flower in that they both need proper nourishment in order to thrive.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t address the passage of time or describe either the human mind or a flower as becoming increasingly vigorous. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that human minds or flowers draw strength from changes in weather. The references to rain in the text pertain to a flower’s need for water rather than the general effects of changing weather. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the human mind or a flower will persist regardless of challenging circumstances. In fact, the text indicates that they’ll both languish right away if not given what they need.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID b5e9f3c2

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: b5e9f3c2

Ancestral Puebloans, the civilization from which present-day Pueblo tribes descended, emerged as early as 1500 B.C.E. in an area of what is now the southwestern United States and dispersed suddenly in the late 1200s C.E., abandoning established villages with systems for farming crops and turkeys. Recent analysis comparing turkey remains at Mesa Verde, one such village in southern Colorado, to samples from modern turkey populations in the Rio Grande Valley of north central New Mexico determined that the latter birds descended in part from turkeys cultivated at Mesa Verde, with shared genetic markers appearing only after 1280. Thus, researchers concluded that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • conditions of the terrains in the Rio Grande Valley and Mesa Verde had greater similarities in the past than they do today.

  • some Ancestral Puebloans migrated to the Rio Grande Valley in the late 1200s and carried farming practices with them.

  • Indigenous peoples living in the Rio Grande Valley primarily planted crops and did not cultivate turkeys before 1280.

  • the Ancestral Puebloans of Mesa Verde likely adopted the farming practices of Indigenous peoples living in other regions.

ID: b5e9f3c2 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of Ancestral Puebloans’ migration to the Rio Grande Valley. The text states that in the late 1200s C.E., the Ancestral Puebloan civilization abandoned villages in its original homeland, which included the Mesa Verde site. The text goes on to say that recent genetic analysis has demonstrated that the modern turkey population in the Rio Grande Valley descends partly from the ancient turkeys raised at Mesa Verde, and that the genetic markers shared by the two turkey populations first appeared at Mesa Verde only after 1280 C.E. Therefore, it can reasonably be concluded that some Ancestral Puebloans migrated to the Rio Grande Valley in the late 1200s and carried their agricultural practices—including the farming of turkeys—to their new home.

Choice A is incorrect because the text never compares the condition of the Rio Grande Valley’s terrain to that of Mesa Verde’s terrain, either in the present or in the past. Choice C is incorrect. Although genetic analysis has demonstrated that the modern turkey population in the Rio Grande valley descended in part from the turkey population raised by the Ancestral Puebloans of Mesa Verde before their migration to the valley in 1280, this finding doesn’t eliminate the possibility that Indigenous peoples living in the valley before 1280 might also have farmed turkeys. Choice D is incorrect. The text doesn’t consider the possibility that before their migration to the Rio Grande Valley after 1280, the Ancestral Puebloans of Mesa Verde might have adopted turkey farming from an outside Indigenous civilization in another region; instead, the text provides evidence suggesting that the Ancestral Puebloans brought turkey farming to another region—the Rio Grande Valley—after 1280.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 5eda42a3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 5eda42a3

The following text is from Maggie Pogue Johnson’s 1910 poem “Poet of Our Race.” In this poem, the speaker is addressing Paul Laurence Dunbar, a Black author.

Thou, with stroke of mighty pen,
 Hast told of joy and mirth,
And read the hearts and souls of men
 As cradled from their birth.

The language of the flowers,
 Thou hast read them all,
And e’en the little brook
 Responded to thy call.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To praise a certain writer for being especially perceptive regarding people and nature

  • To establish that a certain writer has read extensively about a variety of topics

  • To call attention to a certain writer’s careful and elaborately detailed writing process

  • To recount fond memories of an afternoon spent in nature with a certain writer

ID: 5eda42a3 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states the main purpose of the text. In the first part of the text, the speaker addresses Paul Laurence Dunbar’s ability to understand people (he has “read the hearts and souls of men” and written of their “joy and mirth”). In the second part of the text, the speaker describes Dunbar’s thorough understanding of the natural world (he has read “the language of the flowers” and engaged with “the little brook”). Thus, the text mainly praises Dunbar for being especially perceptive about people and nature. 

Choice B is incorrect because the speaker describes Dunbar as having read the “hearts and souls of men” and the “language of flowers” to convey Dunbar’s ability to comprehend people and nature, not to suggest that Dunbar has literally read any of these things or has read a great deal about them. Choice C is incorrect because the text notes how well Dunbar has made sense of the topics he’s written about but doesn’t address any specific parts of Dunbar’s writing process beyond the suggestion that he used a pen. Choice D is incorrect because the text focuses on Dunbar’s understanding of people and nature as expressed in his writing. Nothing in the text suggests that the speaker is recalling a particular afternoon actually spent in nature with Dunbar; even if there had been a shared experience, the text isn’t focused on reminiscing.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 010fa3f0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 010fa3f0

Simulated Change in Annual Aquifer Input and Irrigation Output if Precipitation Concentration Increases as Climate Models Predict

Baseline concentration of annual precipitation % change in water entering aquifers % change in surface water used for irrigation % change in groundwater used for irrigation
Precipitation is currently somewhat concentrated 4.9 0.4 0.9
Precipitation is currently evenly distributed 11.0 9.0 7.9

Some climate models for the western United States predict that while total annual precipitation may remain unchanged from the present level, precipitation will become concentrated into fewer but more intense rain and snow events. University of Texas climate scientist Geeta Persad and her colleagues simulated how the amount of water entering aquifers and the amount being used for irrigation purposes would change if this were to occur. Persad and her colleagues concluded that concentration of precipitation into fewer events would result in a higher number of dry days, triggering more irrigation, but that this change in irrigation output is highly sensitive to the baseline concentration of precipitation that currently exists in an area.

Which choice best describes data from the table that support Persad and her colleagues’ conclusion?

  • If baseline precipitation is somewhat concentrated, the amount of water being used for irrigation will increase 0.4% for surface water and 0.9% for groundwater, whereas the amount of water entering aquifers will increase 11.0% if baseline precipitation is evenly distributed. 

  • If baseline precipitation is somewhat concentrated, water use for irrigation will increase only slightly, whereas it will increase 9.0% for surface water and 7.9% for groundwater if baseline precipitation is evenly distributed.

  • If baseline precipitation is somewhat concentrated, the amount of water entering aquifers will increase 4.9%, while the amount being used for irrigation will increase 0.4% for surface water and 0.9% for groundwater. 

  • If baseline precipitation is somewhat concentrated, water use for irrigation will decline by a small amount, whereas it will increase 11.0% for surface water and 9.0% for groundwater if baseline precipitation is evenly distributed.

ID: 010fa3f0 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it describes data from the table that support Persad and her colleagues’ conclusion. The text explains that, according to some climate models, precipitation in the western United States will become concentrated into fewer, more intense rain and snow events. According to the text, Persad and her colleagues concluded that more irrigation will consequently be needed but that the change in irrigation output will be highly sensitive to, or greatly affected by, the baseline concentration of precipitation in an area. This conclusion is supported by data from the researchers’ simulations of changes in annual irrigation output in two different scenarios—one in which an area’s annual precipitation is already somewhat concentrated and one in which its annual precipitation is evenly distributed. The table shows that if baseline precipitation is somewhat concentrated, water use for irrigation will increase only slightly, whereas if baseline precipitation is evenly distributed, water use for irrigation will increase much more—9.0% for surface water and 7.9% for groundwater. This difference illustrates the researchers’ conclusion that the amount of additional water needed for irrigation will vary greatly depending on how concentrated or spread out the annual precipitation in an area already is.

Choice A is incorrect because it compares changes in the amount of water being used for irrigation to changes in the amount of water entering aquifers. Persad and her colleagues’ conclusion doesn’t focus on changes to the amount of water entering aquifers; rather, the researchers’ conclusion focuses on changes to irrigation output relative to how concentrated or spread out the annual precipitation in an area is. Choice C is incorrect because it supports only part of Persad and her colleagues’ conclusion. According to the text, the researchers concluded that the concentration of precipitation into fewer events will trigger more irrigation but that this change in irrigation output will be highly sensitive to an area’s baseline concentration of annual precipitation. The data in this choice support the idea that more irrigation will be needed, but to support the rest of the researchers’ conclusion, additional data from the table are required to show that the increases in water use for irrigation will vary depending on how concentrated or spread out the annual precipitation in an area already is. Choice D is incorrect because data in the table indicate no declines in water use for irrigation, showing only increases in the form of positive values.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 8fb67890

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 8fb67890

Archaeologists have discovered a runestone in Norway that may contain the earliest example of written words in Scandinavia. Carbon dating at the discovery site revealed that the stone was likely carved between 1 and 250 CE. Runologist Kristel Zilmer believes the stone will be helpful in learning more about the use of runic alphabets in early Iron Age Scandinavia.

Which choice best states the main topic of the text?

  • Battles of the Iron Age

  • A runestone found in Norway

  • A new method for dating rock samples

  • The research interests of Kristel Zilmer

ID: 8fb67890 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately states the main topic of the text. The text begins by stating that archaeologists in Norway have discovered what may be the oldest known runestone (a stone with an inscription in the runic alphabets used in the region in ancient times). According to the text, the object was created between 1 and 250 CE. The text then mentions a researcher who comments on the runestone’s significance to the study of runic alphabets. Thus, the main focus throughout the text is a runestone found in Norway.

Choice A is incorrect because the text mentions the Iron Age only to indicate the era when the runestone was created and when runic alphabets were in use; there’s no discussion of battles during this era. Choice C is incorrect because the text mentions the carbon dating method just once and does so only to indicate the age of the runestone; moreover, the text doesn’t suggest that this method is new. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text indicates that Zilmer is a runologist, or a scholar of runestones, it does so in a single sentence, so Zilmer’s scholarly interests are therefore not a primary focus of the text.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 6540a976

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 6540a976

To understand how Paleolithic artists navigated dark caves, archaeologist Mª Ángeles Medina-Alcaide and her team tested different lighting methods in a cave in Spain using replicas of artifacts found in European caves with art. They used three different Paleolithic light sources—torches, animal-fat lamps, and fireplaces—determining that each likely had a specific purpose. For instance, the team learned that the animal-fat lamps were less useful than torches while walking because the lamps didn’t illuminate the cave floor.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Medina-Alcaide and her team’s study demonstrated that fireplaces were essential to the creators of Paleolithic cave art.

  • Medina-Alcaide and her team discovered that Paleolithic cave artists in Spain used animal-fat lamps more often than they used torches.

  • Medina-Alcaide and her team were reluctant to draw many conclusions from their study because of the difficulty they had replicating light sources based on known artifacts.

  • Medina-Alcaide and her team tested Paleolithic light sources and learned some details about how Paleolithic artists traveled within dark caves.

ID: 6540a976 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text indicates that archaeologist Mª Ángeles Medina-Alcaide and her team used replicas of Paleolithic light sources to understand how Paleolithic artists moved through dark caves. The researchers learned, for example, that torches were more helpful for moving through caves than animal-fat lamps were. Thus, the main idea of the text is that Medina-Alcaide and her team tested Paleolithic light sources and learned some details about how Paleolithic artists traveled within dark caves.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t address the usefulness of fireplaces for Paleolithic cave artists; it only mentions fireplaces briefly as one of the three lighting methods the researchers tested. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss how often Paleolithic cave artists used each kind of light source tested. Although the text does compare animal-fat lamps with another lighting method, the point of that comparison is that animal-fat lamps were less useful than torches when walking, not that one method was used more often than another. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss either how difficult it was for Medina-Alcaide and her team to replicate light sources or how the team felt about drawing conclusions from their study. Instead, the text reveals that the team was able to conclude that each light source likely had a distinct purpose.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 4f9f8ea6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 4f9f8ea6

Birds of many species ingest foods containing carotenoids, pigmented molecules that are converted into feather coloration. Coloration tends to be especially saturated in male birds’ feathers, and because carotenoids also confer health benefits, the deeply saturated colors generally serve to communicate what is known as an honest signal of a bird’s overall fitness to potential mates. However, ornithologist Allison J. Shultz and others have found that males in several species of the tanager genus Ramphocelus use microstructures in their feathers to manipulate light, creating the appearance of deeper saturation without the birds necessarily having to maintain a carotenoid-rich diet. These findings suggest that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • individual male tanagers can engage in honest signaling without relying on carotenoid consumption.

  • feather microstructures may be less effective than deeply saturated feathers for signaling overall fitness.

  • scientists have yet to determine why tanagers have a preference for mates with colorful appearances.

  • a male tanager’s appearance may function as a dishonest signal of the individual’s overall fitness.

ID: 4f9f8ea6 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Shultz’s finding about male tanagers. The text explains that because carotenoids both contribute to deeply saturated feathers and offer health benefits, having deeply saturated feathers is usually “an honest signal” (a true indication) that a bird is generally fit. However, Shultz and others have found that certain male tanagers can appear to have deeply saturated feathers even if they haven’t consumed a diet rich in carotenoids, thanks to microstructures in their feathers that manipulate light. If those birds aren’t necessarily eating carotenoid-rich diets, they may actually be less fit than other birds that appear to have similarly saturated feathers; this suggests that a male tanager’s appearance may function as a dishonest signal, or a false indication, of the bird’s overall fitness. 

Choice A is incorrect because Shultz’s finding suggests that some tanagers can signal fitness without consuming the carotenoids that contribute to fitness, thereby making those signals dishonest, not that tanagers can give honest signals of their fitness without consuming carotenoids. Choice B is incorrect because Shultz’s finding suggests that the microstructures in certain tanagers’ feathers can give a dishonest signal of fitness, not that the microstructures are less effective than actual pigmentation for signaling fitness. Whether the signal of fitness is honest or dishonest has no bearing on how effective the signal is: a signal is effective if potential mates behave as though it’s true, regardless of whether it’s actually true. Since there’s no information in the text about how potential mates respond to the dishonest signals of some tanagers, there’s no support for the idea that the dishonest signals are less effective than the honest signals. Choice C is incorrect because Shultz’s finding suggests that certain male tanagers may appear to be fitter than they actually are, not that scientists haven’t determined why tanagers prefer mates with colorful appearances. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 2edd7ffe

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 2edd7ffe

Archaeologist Veronica Waweru visited the Lewa Wildlife Conservancy in Kenya. While exploring there, Waweru noticed many rows of shallow pits carved into stone. Waweru believed the pits could have been used as game boards to play ancient versions of mancala, a two-person strategy game that is still popular today. Some of the more recent pits were carved on top of older pits. This led Waweru to think that the game was played at the site for a long time.

According to the text, why does Waweru think that mancala was played at the site for a long time?

  • Some of the newer pits were carved on top of the older pits. 

  • She noticed many rows of shallow pits carved into stone.

  • She discovered the pits at the Lewa Wildlife Conservancy.

  • Some of the pits were shallow and others were quite deep.

ID: 2edd7ffe Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents a statement about Veronica Waweru’s thinking that is supported by the text. The text begins by discussing Waweru’s discovery of evidence that ancient versions of the board game mancala had been played at a site in the Lewa Wildlife Conservancy. The evidence consisted of many rows of shallow pits carved into stone. The text goes on to state that some newer pits were carved on top of older pits, suggesting that people may have continued to play the game there over multiple generations, creating new pits over time. The text then explicitly states that the presence of newer pits carved on top of older pits was precisely what caused Waweru to think that mancala had been played at the site for a long time.

Choice B is incorrect. While the text does state that Waweru "noticed many rows of shallow pits carved into stone," this observation led her to believe that the pits could have been used as game boards for ancient versions of mancala but did not specifically suggest to her that the game had been played at the site for a long time. The multiple rows of pits merely suggest that these pits functioned as part of a game board; they don’t necessarily indicate how long the site had been used for that purpose. Rather, it was the fact that there appeared to be newer pits carved on top of older pits that led Waweru to think that mancala had been played at the site for a long time. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text states that Waweru found the pits at the Lewa Wildlife Conservancy, this isn’t the reason the text gives for why she thought that mancala had been played at the site for a long time. The location of the discovery only provides information about where the game was played, not how long the game had been played there. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention any variation in the depth of the pits. The text only describes the pits collectively as shallow and doesn’t indicate that the depth of the pits factored into Waweru’s thinking about how long the site had been used for playing mancala.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 2c06139b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 2c06139b

Tadpole Body Mass and Toxin Production after Three Weeks in Ponds

Population density Average tadpole body mass (milligrams) Average number of distinct bufadienolide toxins per tadpole Average amount of bufadienolide per tadpole (nanograms) Average bufadienolide concentration (nanograms per milligram of tadpole body mass)
High 193.87 22.69 5,815.51 374.22
Medium 254.56 21.65 5,525.72 230.10
Low 258.97 22.08 4,664.99 171.43

Ecologist Veronika Bókony and colleagues investigated within-species competition among common toads (Bufo bufo), a species that secretes various unpleasant-tasting toxins called bufadienolides in response to threats. The researchers tested B. bufo tadpoles’ responses to different levels of competition by creating ponds with different tadpole population densities but a fixed amount of food. Based on analysis of the tadpoles after three weeks, the researchers concluded that increased competition drove bufadienolide production at the expense of growth.

Which choice uses data from the table to most effectively support the researchers’ conclusion?

  • The difference in average tadpole body mass was small between the low and medium population density conditions and substantially larger between the low and high population density conditions.

  • Tadpoles in the low and medium population density conditions had substantially lower average bufadienolide concentrations but had greater average body masses than those in the high population density condition.

  • Tadpoles in the high population density condition displayed a relatively modest increase in the average amount of bufadienolide but roughly double the average bufadienolide concentration compared to those in the low population density condition.

  • Tadpoles produced approximately the same number of different bufadienolide toxins per individual across the population density conditions, but average tadpole body mass decreased as population density increased.

ID: 2c06139b Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. This data shows that the tadpoles in the high-density pond (meaning those with the most competition) didn’t grow as big as the other two groups but produced more bufadienolide.

Choice A is incorrect. This doesn’t fully support the conclusion. It doesn’t include any data about bufadienolide production. Choice C is incorrect. This doesn’t fully support the conclusion. It doesn’t include any data about growth. Choice D is incorrect. This doesn’t fully support the conclusion. It doesn’t demonstrate that the tadpoles in the high-density pond produced more bufadienolide overall. The fact that they didn’t produce more kinds of bufadienolide isn’t relevant to the conclusion.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID e99a38ec

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: e99a38ec
3.5 3.0 2.5 2.0 1.5 1.0 0.5 0Average humility score(higher values = more humility) mistake with learning mistake without learning controlHumility Scores for Participants’Scenario Responses group
  • The Average humility score data for the 3 bars are as follows:
    • mistake with learning: 3.12
    • mistake without learning: 2.66
    • control: 2.85

Jia Hu and colleagues hypothesized that workplace leaders who reflect on lessons learned from past mistakes are likely to exhibit more humility than leaders who don’t engage in such reflection. To test this, the team placed 301 managers in one of three groups. Participants in two experimental groups were asked to reflect on a mistake, one group focusing on a mistake that resulted in learning and the other group focusing on a mistake that didn’t result in learning. Participants in a control group were asked to reflect on their daily routine. All the participants then described how they would respond to a workplace scenario. After evaluating the responses for evidence of humility, the researchers concluded that their hypothesis was correct.

Which choice best describes data in the graph that support the researchers’ conclusion?

  • None of the three groups’ average humility scores exceeded 3.5.

  • The managers in the control group exhibited only slightly less humility on average than the managers in the two experimental groups did.

  • The managers who reflected on a past mistake that resulted in learning exhibited more humility on average than the managers in the other two groups did.

  • All three groups exhibited less humility on average than the researchers expected.

ID: e99a38ec Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it describes data in the graph that support the researchers’ conclusion that their hypothesis about workplace leaders and humility was correct. According to the text, Jia Hu and colleagues "hypothesized that workplace leaders who reflect on lessons learned from past mistakes are likely to exhibit more humility than leaders who don’t engage in such reflection." The bar graph shows the humility scores for managers who participated in Jia Hu and colleagues’ study. It shows average humility scores for managers who reflected on a past mistake that they learned from, managers who reflected on a past mistake that they didn’t learn from, and managers who were in the control group that, according to the text, simply reflected on their daily routines. The graph shows that managers who reflected on a past mistake they learned from received an average humility score between 3.0 and 3.5. Both the control group and managers who reflected on a mistake they didn’t learn from received a lower average humility score of between 2.5 and 3.0. Thus, the managers who reflected on a past mistake that resulted in learning exhibited more humility on average than the managers in the other two groups did. This supports the researchers’ conclusion that their initial hypothesis that workplace leaders who reflect on past mistakes they learned from exercise greater humility was correct.

Choice A is incorrect. Although according to the graph it’s true that none of the group’s humility scores exceeded 3.5, this idea does not support the researchers’ conclusion that their initial hypothesis was correct. The statement that none of the three groups’ average humility scores exceeded 3.5 does not distinguish between those leaders who reflected on lessons learned from past mistakes and those who didn’t, so it would not support Hu and colleagues’ hypothesis that workplace leaders who reflect on past mistakes they learned from exercise greater humility. Choice B is incorrect. While the graph shows that managers in the control group did exhibit less humility than the experimental group of managers who reflected on a mistake they learned from, the graph also shows that the control group exhibited more (not less) humility than the experimental group that reflected on a mistake they didn’t learn from. Furthermore, the idea that the managers in the control group exhibited only slightly less humility on average than the managers in the two experimental groups did would not support the researchers’ conclusion that their initial hypothesis that workplace leaders who reflect on past mistakes they learned from exercise greater humility was correct. Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication in the graph that all three groups of participants exhibited less humility on average than the researchers expected. The graph and text don’t cite any specific expectations that the researchers had with regard to the humility scores for each group.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 01c1d9ee

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 01c1d9ee

Swahili Speakers in Three African Countries

Country Approximate number of speakers (in millions) Estimated % of population
Democratic Republic of the Congo 22 25
Kenya 55 100
Tanzania 61 100

Swahili is estimated to be the first language of up to 15 million people worldwide. It’s also an officially recognized language in Tanzania, Kenya, and the Democratic Republic of the Congo, which means these countries use Swahili in government documents and proceedings. But even in countries where almost everyone speaks Swahili, for many it isn’t their first language but is instead their second, third, or even fourth language.

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to support the underlined claim?

  • Tanzania has approximately 61 million Swahili speakers, which is much more than the estimated total number of people worldwide for whom Swahili is their first language.

  • Tanzania is estimated to have at most 15 million Swahili speakers, while the country’s total population is approximately 61 million people.

  • Approximately 100 percent of the people who speak Swahili as their first language live in Kenya, which has a total population of approximately 55 million people.

  • Approximately 100 percent of Kenya’s population speaks Swahili, while only about 25 percent of the Democratic Republic of the Congo’s population speaks Swahili.

ID: 01c1d9ee Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to support the underlined claim. The text indicates that Swahili is the first language of up to 15 million people worldwide. The text goes on to claim, in the underlined portion, that even in countries where nearly everyone speaks Swahili, many of the language’s speakers don’t have Swahili as their first language. The table indicates that 61 million people in Tanzania, which amounts to 100 percent of the population, speak Swahili. If 61 million people in Tanzania speak Swahili, but only 15 million people worldwide have Swahili as their first language, that means there are many people in Tanzania who speak Swahili as a language other than their first language. This information about Swahili speakers in Tanzania therefore supports the claim that many Swahili speakers in countries where nearly everyone speaks Swahili speak it as a language other than their first language (such as their second, third, or fourth language). 

Choice B is incorrect because it doesn’t accurately describe information in the table. According to the table, Tanzania has 61 million Swahili speakers, not at most 15 million Swahili speakers. Additionally, the table indicates that 100 percent of Tanzania’s population speak Swahili, which means that the number of Swahili speakers in the country and the country’s total population should be the same, not that they should differ by such a large amount. Choice C is incorrect because there’s no information in the table or the text that indicates where people who speak Swahili as their first language live. Although Kenya’s total population can be inferred from the table—if Kenya has 55 million Swahili speakers and 100% of Kenya’s population speak Swahili, then Kenya must have a population of 55 million people—nothing suggests that all the people who speak Swahili as their first language live in a single country, let alone that they all live in Kenya. Choice D is incorrect. Although the table does indicate that 100 percent of Kenya’s population and 25 percent of the Democratic Republic of the Congo’s population speak Swahili, this comparison is irrelevant to the claim that Swahili isn’t the first language of many of its speakers even in countries where almost everyone speaks Swahili. On its own, a difference in the proportions of the population who speak Swahili cannot reveal whether those Swahili speakers have Swahili as their first language or a subsequent language. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID e47d2524

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: e47d2524

Microplastics are tiny pieces of plastic waste. Areas of the ocean with higher concentrations of microplastic particles also have smaller and fewer waves. A study by Yukun Sun and colleagues found that the concentration of microplastic particles cannot be the only reason for this reduced wave activity because the concentration of particles that would have the observed effect is much higher than that found in these areas of the ocean. However, they found that surfactants, chemicals often used to manufacture plastics, are released into the water from microplastics and have a much stronger wave-reducing effect.

According to the text, what did Sun and colleagues discover about surfactants?

  • They have a much stronger effect on wave activity than microplastics alone do.

  • They are mainly composed of water.

  • They are helpful for removing microplastics from the ocean.

  • They can be used to contain microplastics within certain areas of the ocean.

ID: e47d2524 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents a statement about surfactants that is supported by the text. The text indicates that higher concentrations of microplastics have been associated with waves that are relatively small and few. According to the text, however, a study by Sun and colleagues found that concentrations of microplastic particles can’t be the only reason for the reduced wave activity because a much higher concentration of particles is needed to produce that observed effect. Instead, the text indicates that Sun and colleagues found that surfactants are released from microplastics into the ocean and have a much stronger wave-reducing effect than microplastics alone do.

Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss what surfactants are made of. Instead, it indicates that surfactants are frequently used to manufacture microplastics and that Sun and colleagues discovered that surfactants are released from microplastics into the ocean. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss how microplastics can be removed from the ocean. Instead, the text indicates that Sun and colleagues discovered that surfactants are released into the ocean from microplastics and have a much stronger wave-reducing effect than microplastics alone do. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that surfactants can be used to contain microplastics within certain areas of the ocean. Instead, the text indicates that Sun and colleagues discovered that surfactants are released from microplastics into the ocean and have a much stronger wave-reducing effect than microplastics alone do.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 26ee16ba

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 26ee16ba

Hip-hop pedagogy is a form of teaching that’s gaining popularity across school subjects. It involves incorporating hip-hop and rap music into lessons as well as using hip-hop elements when teaching other subject matters. For example, Quan Neloms’s students look for college-level vocabulary and historical events in rap songs. Researchers claim that in addition to developing students’ social justice awareness, hip-hop pedagogy encourages student success by raising students’ interest and engagement.

Which finding, if true, would most strongly support the underlined claim?

  • Students tend to be more enthusiastic about rap music than they are about hip-hop music.

  • Students who are highly interested in social justice issues typically don’t sign up for courses that incorporate hip-hop and rap music.

  • Educators report that they enjoy teaching courses that involve hip-hop and rap music more than teaching courses that don’t.

  • Courses that incorporate hip-hop and rap music are among the courses with the highest enrollment and attendance rates.

ID: 26ee16ba Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. Enrollment and attendance are logical ways to measure whether students are interested and engaged. High enrollment and attendance suggests a high level of interest and engagement.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the claim. Students’ preferences between hip-hop and rap aren’t relevant to the claim, which is focused on whether or not students like classes that use hip-hop pedagogy (which includes the educational use of both hip-hop and rap). Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the claim. While the first part of the sentence discusses social justice, the underlined claim focuses on student success, which is unrelated. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the claim. This tells us about teacher enjoyment, which isn’t relevant to a claim about student interest and engagement.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 31ad8024

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 31ad8024

Water flowing around an obstruction creates vortices (patterns of swirls) of varying size; by detecting the vortices, fish can determine the size and position of the obstruction. Testing by Yuzo R. Yanagisuru, Otar Akanyeti, and James C. Liao using models of three head shapes—narrow (low ratio of width to length), intermediate, and wide (high ratio of width to length)—showed that for medium-sized vortices, fish with wide heads would be least able to distinguish between vortices and general turbulence in the water. A second research team has therefore hypothesized that in low-visibility conditions, wider-headed fish will be less likely than narrower-headed fish to detect obstructions. 

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the second research team’s hypothesis?

  • A study using obstructions that created medium-sized vortices in low-visibility conditions found that the bristlemouth (Chaetostoma yurubiense), which has a relatively wide head, bumped into more than half of the obstructions.

  • A study using obstructions that created medium-sized vortices in low-visibility conditions found that some specimens of dusky smooth-hound (Mustelus canis), which has a relatively narrow head, bumped into the obstructions more often than other specimens of the same fish did.  

  • A study using obstructions that created medium-sized vortices in low-visibility conditions found that the wider-headed bristlemouth (Chaetostoma yurubiense) bumped into obstructions more often than the narrower-headed dusky smooth-hound (Mustelus canis) did. 

  • A study using obstructions that created medium-sized vortices in low-visibility conditions found that the narrower-headed dusky smooth-hound (Mustelus canis) bumped into the obstructions just as often as the wider-headed bristlemouth (Chaetostoma yurubiense) did.   

ID: 31ad8024 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly support the second research team’s hypothesis about how a fish’s head shape affects the fish’s ability to detect obstructions. The text explains that fish detect obstructions using water vortices and that testing by Yanagisuru, Akanyeti, and Liao showed that fish with wide heads struggle to distinguish medium-sized vortices from general turbulence in the water. Based on this finding, a second research team hypothesized that in low-visibility conditions, wider-headed fish would be less effective at detecting obstructions than narrower-headed fish. The finding that wider-headed bristlemouth fish bumped into obstructions more often than narrower-headed dusky smooth-hound fish did under the specified conditions (low visibility with medium-sized vortices) would directly support the second team’s hypothesis.

Choice A is incorrect because it would provide only partial support for the second research team’s hypothesis. While this finding shows that wide-headed bristlemouth fish bumped into many obstructions, it provides no comparison with narrow-headed fish. The hypothesis specifically predicts a difference in detection ability between fish with wider heads and those with narrower heads, so supporting evidence would need to include data from both head types to allow for this comparison. Choice B is incorrect because it would not support the second research team’s hypothesis comparing obstruction detection between fish with wide heads and those with narrow heads. Instead, it examines variation within a single narrow-headed species, which would not address the hypothesis about differences between fish with wider and narrower head shapes. Choice D is incorrect because this finding would contradict rather than support the second research team’s hypothesis. The hypothesis predicts that wider-headed fish will be less likely to detect obstructions than narrower-headed fish in low-visibility conditions, which would result in wider-headed fish bumping into obstructions more frequently. A finding showing equal bumping rates between fish with the two head shapes would indicate no relationship between head width and detection ability, directly contradicting the hypothesis.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID f2250478

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: f2250478

Among social animals that care for their young, such as chickens, macaque monkeys, and humans, newborns appear to show an innate attraction to faces and face-like stimuli. Elisabetta Versace and her colleagues used an image of three black dots arranged in the shape of eyes and a nose or mouth to test whether this trait also occurs in Testudo tortoises, which live alone and do not engage in parental care. They found that tortoise hatchlings showed a significant preference for the image, suggesting that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • face-like stimuli are likely perceived as harmless by newborns of social species that practice parental care but as threatening by newborns of solitary species without parental care.

  • researchers should not assume that an innate attraction to face-like stimuli is necessarily an adaptation related to social interaction or parental care.

  • researchers can assume that the attraction to face-like stimuli that is seen in social species that practice parental care is learned rather than innate.

  • newly hatched Testudo tortoises show a stronger preference for face-like stimuli than adult Testudo tortoises do. 

ID: f2250478 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of the study by Versace and colleagues. The text indicates that newborn animals of some species are attracted to faces and to stimuli that resemble faces. These species, the text says, share two characteristics: they’re social and they practice parental care, meaning that parents care for their young. The text goes on to describe Versace and colleagues’ experiment, which showed that Testudo tortoises, which aren’t social and don’t practice parental care, were attracted to a stimulus that resembles a face. Since Versace and colleagues have shown that a species that isn’t social and doesn’t practice parental care nevertheless has the innate characteristic of being attracted to face-like stimuli, it follows that this characteristic shouldn’t be assumed to be an adaptation related to social interaction or parental care.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that the tortoise hatchlings, which are solitary and don’t practice parental care, were attracted to the face-like stimuli, not that they perceived the stimuli as threatening. Choice C is incorrect because the phenomenon discussed in the text is an attraction to faces and face-like stimuli on the part of newborn animals, which can’t show any learned characteristics since they were just born. Additionally, the text tells us that the tortoises Versace and colleagues studied aren’t social and don’t practice parental care, so any findings about those tortoises wouldn’t be relevant to the question of whether an attraction to faces in social species that practice parental care is innate or learned. Choice D is incorrect because the text gives no indication that adult tortoises were tested on face-like stimuli and, if adults were in fact tested, no information about how they responded is provided. Since no information about adult tortoises’ responses is provided, no conclusion comparing those responses to the responses of newly hatched tortoises can be supported.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 0b96fa93

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 0b96fa93

Maximum Height of Maple Trees When Fully Grown

Tree type Maximum height (feet) Native to North America
Sugar maple 75 yes
Silver maple 70 yes
Red maple 60 yes
Japanese maple 25 no
Norway maple 50 no

For a school project, a forestry student needs to recommend a maple tree that is native to North America and won’t grow more than 60 feet in height. Based on the characteristics of five common maple trees, she has decided to select a blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the text?

  • silver maple.

  • sugar maple.

  • red maple.

  • Norway maple.

ID: 0b96fa93 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement about the forestry student’s project. The table shows five types of maple trees, each tree’s maximum height, and whether each tree is native to North America. The text indicates that the student needs to recommend a maple tree that’s native to North America and won’t reach a height greater than 60 feet. The red maple is the only tree listed in the table that meets these criteria: its maximum height is 60 feet—meaning that it won’t grow higher than 60 feet—and it’s native to North America.

Choice A is incorrect because the text states that the student needs to recommend a tree that’s native to North America and won’t grow higher than 60 feet, but the table shows that the maximum height of the silver maple is 70 feet. Choice B is incorrect because the text states that the student needs to recommend a tree that’s native to North America and won’t grow higher than 60 feet, but the table shows that the maximum height of the sugar maple is 75 feet. Choice D is incorrect because the text states that the student needs to recommend a tree that’s native to North America and won’t grow higher than 60 feet, but the table shows that the Norway maple isn’t native to North America. 

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID d5d3ea31

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: d5d3ea31

“The Yellow Wallpaper” is an 1892 short story by Charlotte Perkins Gilman. In the story, the narrator expresses mixed feelings about her surroundings: blank

Which quotation from “The Yellow Wallpaper” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “This wallpaper has a kind of sub-pattern in a different shade, a particularly irritating one, for you can only see it in certain lights, and not clearly then.”

  • “By moonlight—the moon shines in all night when there is a moon—I wouldn’t know it was the same paper.”

  • “I’m really getting quite fond of the big room, all but that horrid [wall]paper.”

  • “The color is repellant, almost revolting; a smouldering, unclean yellow, strangely faded by the slow-turning sunlight.”

ID: d5d3ea31 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively illustrates the claim that the narrator of "The Yellow Wallpaper" has mixed feelings about her surroundings. She says she is "really getting quite fond of the big room," a positive sentiment, but also describes the room’s wallpaper as "horrid," a negative sentiment. Since some of her feelings about her surroundings are positive and others are negative, they are best described as mixed.

Choice A is incorrect because though the narrator describes the room’s wallpaper as "irritating," a negative sentiment, she does not mention a positive sentiment. Thus, the quotation does not effectively illustrate the claim that the narrator has mixed feelings about her surroundings. Choice B is incorrect because it describes how the appearance of the room’s wallpaper changes at night but does not mention the narrator’s feelings about her surroundings. Choice D is incorrect because though the narrator describes the room’s wallpaper as "repellant," a negative sentiment, she does not mention a positive sentiment. Thus, the quotation does not effectively illustrate the claim that the narrator has mixed feelings about her surroundings.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 6e0e0de1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 6e0e0de1

Aerogels are highly porous foams consisting mainly of tiny air pockets within a solidified gel. These lightweight materials are often applied to spacecraft and other equipment required to withstand extreme conditions, as they provide excellent insulation despite typically being brittle and eventually fracturing due to degradation from repeated exposure to high heat. Now, Xiangfeng Duan of the University of California, Los Angeles, and colleagues have developed an aerogel with uniquely flexible properties. Unlike earlier aerogels, Duan’s team’s material contracts rather than expands when heated and fully recovers after compressing to just 5% of its original volume, suggesting that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • the aerogel’s remarkable flexibility results from its higher proportion of air pockets to solidified gel as compared to other aerogels.

  • the aerogel’s overall strength is greater than that of other insulators but its ability to withstand exposure to intense heat is lower.

  • the aerogel will be more effective as an insulator for uses that involve gradual temperature shifts than for those that involve rapid heat increases.

  • the aerogel will be less prone to the structural weakness that ultimately causes most other aerogels to break down with use.

ID: 6e0e0de1 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of aerogels. The text states that aerogels—highly porous foams—offer "excellent insulation" but typically break down after prolonged exposure to high heat. However, according to the text, Duan and colleagues developed an aerogel that "contracts rather than expands when heated" and recovers its original volume after this contraction. Thus, it is logical to conclude that Duan’s team’s aerogel material will be less prone to the structural weakness that caused earlier aerogels to break down.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text indicates that aerogels consist "mainly of tiny air pockets within a solidified gel," it doesn’t mention the number or proportion of air pockets to solidified gel in typical aerogels or in the aerogel developed by Duan’s team. Choice B is incorrect because the text suggests that the aerogel developed by Duan’s team has a higher, not a lower, ability to withstand exposure to intense heat due to its contraction and subsequent recovery. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text discusses temperature tolerances of aerogels and says that they offer "excellent insulation despite typically being brittle and eventually fracturing," it doesn’t discuss how different rates of temperature change can affect aerogels.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 493c46bc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 493c46bc

In the South Pacific, New Caledonian crows use two different kinds of stick tools. One tool is complex. The crows shape a stick from a rare plant into a hook. The other tool is basic. The crows find a stick without a hook on the ground. The hooked tool is harder to get but is much better than the basic tool at removing prey from holes. When studying New Caledonian crows, ecologist Barbara Klump found that they hold the hooked tools in their claws when not using them, or they carefully put them in a safe place. The crows don’t do the same with the basic tools. This suggests to Klump that the blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • hooked stick tools are more valuable to the crows than the stick tools without hooks.

  • hooked stick tools are easier for most of the crows to hold than the stick tools without hooks.

  • crows prefer to share their hooked stick tools but don’t share the stick tools without hooks.

  • crows realize that both kinds of stick tools are less effective than their claws are at removing prey from holes.

ID: 493c46bc Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the two types of stick tools used by New Caledonian crows. The text indicates that the more effective type of tool has a hook that the crows make themselves, while the other type of tool is simply a stick without a hook that the crows find and don’t shape in any way. According to the text, Klump found that the crows keep hooked tools—but not the tools without hooks—in their grasp or in safe places when they aren’t using the tools. If the hooked tools are more effective than the tools without hooks are and the crows are more protective of the hooked tools than they are of the tools without hooks, it’s reasonable to conclude that the hooked tools are more valuable to the crows than the tools without hooks are.

Choice B is incorrect because the text gives no indication of how easy it is for the crows to hold either the hooked tools or the tools without hooks. The text does state that crows hold the hooked tools and not the tools without hooks when the tools aren’t in use. However, the text also indicates that the hooked tools require work from the crows to make and are more useful for helping the crows catch prey than the tools without hooks are. This context suggests that the crows hold the hooked tools because they’re more valuable to the crows than the tools without hooks are, not because the hooked tools are easier to hold. Choice C is incorrect because the text makes no mention of the crows sharing tools. Additionally, the text indicates that when the crows aren’t using the hooked tools, they either grasp the tools or store them safely, which suggests that the crows try to maintain possession of the hooked tools, not that crows prefer to share those tools. Choice D is incorrect because the text says nothing about the crows using their claws to remove prey from holes, so there’s no evidence that the crows perceive the stick tools to be less effective than their claws are.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID b074cc05

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: b074cc05
7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0Approximate number of jobs(in thousands) 2010 2019Employment in Technology inHawaii in 2010 and 2019Year engineering services technical consulting services computer services
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • engineering services
    • technical consulting services
    • computer services
  • All data are approximate.
  • The Approximate number of jobs data for the 2 categories are as follows:
    • 2010:
      • engineering services: 6 thousand jobs
      • technical consulting services: 4 thousand jobs
      • computer services: 6 thousand jobs
    • 2019: 
      • engineering services: 6 thousand jobs
      • technical consulting services: 5 thousand jobs
      • computer services: 5 thousand jobs

A student in Hawaii is interested in pursuing a career in technology and decides to do some research on local trends. The student notices that the number of jobs in computer services in 2010 was blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the statement? 

  • higher than the number of jobs in technical consulting services, and in 2019 was about the same as the number of jobs in engineering services.

  • about the same as the number of jobs in engineering services, and in 2019 was about the same as the number of jobs in technical consulting services.

  • lower than the number of jobs in engineering services, but in 2019 was higher than the number of jobs in engineering services.

  • about the same as the number of jobs in technical consulting services, but in 2019 was lower than the number of jobs in technical consulting services.

ID: b074cc05 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it uses data from the graph to effectively complete the statement regarding what the student notices about the number of jobs in computer services in 2010. The graph shows that in 2010, the number of computer services jobs was approximately 6,000, which is the same approximate number of jobs in engineering services. Additionally, the graph shows that in 2019, the number of jobs in technical consulting services and the number of jobs in computer services were about the same, at approximately 5,000.

Choice A is incorrect. While the graph shows that in 2010 the number of computer services jobs (about 6,000) was higher than the number of technical consulting services jobs (about 4,000), in 2019 the number of computer services jobs (about 5,000) was not about the same as the number of engineering services jobs (about 6,000). Choice C is incorrect because according to the graph, the number of jobs in computer services was lower than the number of jobs in engineering services in 2019, not 2010. Additionally, the graph shows that in 2019, the number of computer services jobs (about 5,000) was not higher than the number of jobs in engineering services (about 6,000). Choice D is incorrect because the graph shows that the number of computer services jobs was about the same as the number of technical consulting services jobs in 2019, not 2010. This also means the number of computer services jobs could not have been lower than the technical consulting services jobs in 2019 if they were about the same.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 1db1a9a6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 1db1a9a6
45 40 35 30 25 20 15 10 5 0Yield (pounds per acre) 2017 2018 2019Cantaloupe YieldYear control nitrogen fertilizer
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • control
    • nitrogen fertilizer
  • The data for the 3 categories are as follows:
    • 2017:
      • control: 23.8 pounds per acre
      • nitrogen fertilizer: 33.8 pounds per acre
    • 2018:
      • control: 31.6 pounds per acre
      • nitrogen fertilizer: 41.5 pounds per acre
    • 2019:
      • control: 18.4 pounds per acre
      • nitrogen fertilizer: 27.2 pounds per acre

To test the effects of a nitrogen fertilizer on cantaloupe production, researchers grew cantaloupe plants and harvested their fruit over three years. In each year, half the plants were grown using a nitrogen fertilizer, and the other half were grown using a control fertilizer that contained no nitrogen. The researchers concluded that the nitrogen fertilizer increases cantaloupe yield.

Which choice best describes data in the graph that support the researchers’ conclusion?

  • In every year of the experiment, plants treated with the nitrogen fertilizer had a yield of at least 30 pounds per acre.

  • In every year of the experiment, plants treated with the nitrogen fertilizer had a greater yield than did plants treated with the control fertilizer. 

  • The 2018 yield for plants treated with the control fertilizer was greater than was the 2019 yield for plants treated with the nitrogen fertilizer. 

  • The yield for plants treated with the nitrogen fertilizer increased from 2017 to 2018. 

ID: 1db1a9a6 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it describes data from the graph that support the researchers’ conclusion that using nitrogen fertilizer increases cantaloupe production. The bar graph shows the cantaloupe yield for plants grown with nitrogen fertilizer and for those grown with a control fertilizer (without nitrogen) for three consecutive years (2017–2019). For each year in the graph, the yield for the nitrogen group is greater than the yield for the control group. In pounds per acre, the value in 2017 for the nitrogen-group yield is greater than 30 while the control-group yield is less than 25; in 2018 the nitrogen-group yield is greater than 40 while the control-group yield is less than 35; and in 2019 the nitrogen-group yield is greater than 25 while the control-group yield is less than 20. Thus, these data from the graph strongly support the conclusion that using nitrogen fertilizer increases cantaloupe yield.

Choice A is incorrect because the bar graph shows that in 2019 the nitrogen group had a yield below 30 pounds per acre. Choice C is incorrect. Although this choice accurately describes data in the bar graph—in 2018, the control-group yield is greater than 30 pounds per acre, and in 2019 the nitrogen-group yield is less than 30 pounds per acre—a claim that the control-group yield exceeds that of the nitrogen group strongly conflicts with the researchers’ conclusion that nitrogen fertilizer produces larger yields. Choice D is incorrect. Although it is true that the bar graph shows a higher yield for the nitrogen group in 2018 than in 2017, without the control to compare against, it is impossible to know whether the increase is due to the fertilizer and not, for example, more favorable weather in 2018 than in 2017. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 16a4a83b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 16a4a83b

An Ideal Husband is an 1895 play by Oscar Wilde. In the play, which is a satire, Wilde suggests that a character named Lady Gertrude Chiltern is perceived as both extremely virtuous and unforgiving, as is evident when another character says blank

Which quotation from An Ideal Husband most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “Lady Chiltern is a woman of the very highest principles, I am glad to say. I am a little too old now, myself, to trouble about setting a good example, but I always admire people who do.”

  • “Do you know, [Lady Chiltern], I don’t mind your talking morality a bit. Morality is simply the attitude we adopt towards people whom we personally dislike.”

  • “[Lady Chiltern] does not know what weakness or temptation is. I am of clay like other men. She stands apart as good women do—pitiless in her perfection—cold and stern and without mercy.”

  • “Lady Chiltern, you are a sensible woman, the most sensible woman in London, the most sensible woman I know.”

ID: 16a4a83b Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses a quotation to illustrate the claim that Lady Gertrude Chiltern is perceived as “both extremely virtuous and unforgiving.” In the quotation, a man describes Lady Chiltern as someone who “does not know what weakness or temptation is.” In other words, the man regards her as someone who is strong and adheres to a strict definition of moral perfection. However, he ironically suggests that this definition excludes mercy and forgiveness—qualities that are also thought of as virtues; according to him, Lady Chiltern is “pitiless in her perfection—cold and stern and without mercy.” This description supports the idea that Lady Chiltern is perceived by others as virtuous as well as unforgiving.

Choice A is incorrect. The quotation supports the claim that Lady Chiltern is perceived as virtuous, in that it describes her as “a woman of the very highest principles.” However, it doesn’t characterize her as unforgiving or being perceived as such. Choice B is incorrect. The quotation suggests that Lady Chiltern is concerned with morality, but it suggests that her interest in discussing it is fundamentally hypocritical and functions as a means by which to judge others. However, the quotation doesn’t address the question of whether Lady Chiltern is unmerciful to those who seek forgiveness for harm they have caused. Choice D is incorrect because it doesn’t address either Lady Chiltern’s perceived virtuousness or her perceived lack of forgiveness; instead, it expresses the belief that she is sensible.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 0b696a0c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 0b696a0c

NASA’s Cassini probe has detected an unusual wobble in the rotation of Mimas, Saturn’s smallest moon. Using a computer model to study Mimas’s gravitational interactions with Saturn and tidal forces, geophysicist Alyssa Rhoden and colleagues have proposed that this wobble could be due to a liquid ocean moving beneath the moon’s icy surface. The researchers believe other moons should be examined to see if they too might have oceans hidden beneath their surfaces.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Rhoden and colleagues were the first to confirm that several of Saturn’s moons contain hidden oceans.

  • Research has failed to identify signs that there is an ocean hidden beneath the surface of Mimas.

  • Rhoden and colleagues created a new computer model that identifies moons with hidden oceans without needing to analyze the moons’ rotation. 

  • Research has revealed that an oddity in the rotation of Mimas could be explained by an ocean hidden beneath its surface.

ID: 0b696a0c Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The study isn’t definitive, but it says that Mimas’s wobbly rotation could be explained by the hidden ocean.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice goes too far beyond the information in the text. Rhoden’s team proposed that one moon of Saturn could have a liquid ocean beneath its surface, and that other moons should also be examined, but no one has confirmed anything. Choice B is incorrect. This choice conflicts with the text. Research has  identified at least one sign—the unusual wobble in Mimas’s rotation—that might be due to a hidden ocean beneath its surface. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t reflect the text. The computer model studies “gravitational interactions,” which seem to account for the wobbly rotation of Mimas.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 37a49687

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 37a49687

40 30 20 10 0Number of individual young fish Winter Spring FallNumber of Young Fish Collected at Mangrove Sites in the Egyptian Red Sea During Three Seasons of 2010Season Common silver-biddy Red Sea goatfish Milkfish

Mangroves are trees or bushes that grow on the coastlines of seas and rivers. Areas with mangroves are great places for young fish since they help keep these fish fed and protected while they grow. To study the importance of mangroves to young fish, researchers Mohamed A.Abu El-Regal and Nesreen K. Ibrahim collected and identified young fish from three different mangrove sites in the Egyptian Red Sea. They collected fish in the winter, spring, and autumn of 2010, collecting a total of 269 fish from 21 different species. For some species, more fish were collected in the winter than the other two seasons, for instance: blank

Which choice most effectively uses the data in the graph to complete the example?

  • more common silver-biddy and milkfish were collected in the winter than in either of the other two seasons.

  • the common silver-biddy was collected more frequently than the other two species in all three seasons.

  • in the spring, researchers collected more Red Sea goldfish than they collected from the other two species.

  • in the fall, researchers collected 10 common silver-biddy but collected no milkfish or Red Sea goatfish.

ID: 37a49687 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The claim is about which fish were collected more in winter than in other seasons. By comparing the number of common silver-biddy and milkfish collected in each season, we can see that more of these fish were collected in winter than in any other season.

Choice B is incorrect. The claim is about which fish were collected more in winter than in other seasons. This statement compares collections across the three species of fish, rather than comparing collections of individual types of fish across seasons. Choice C is incorrect. The claim is about which fish were collected more in winter than in other seasons. This statement is about spring, rather than winter. Choice D is incorrect. The claim is about which fish were collected more in winter than in other seasons. This statement is about fall, rather than winter, fish collections.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 0113152f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 0113152f

American fashion designer Patrick Kelly was known for his love of colorful buttons. Many of his signature dresses feature bold assortments of buttons throughout the garment. In a paper, a fashion design student claims that Kelly’s use of buttons as decoration was inspired by his childhood observations of the styles and actions of the women in his family.

Which quotation from a work by a historian would be the most effective evidence for the student to include in support of this claim?

  • “Although some of the assortments of buttons appear to be mismatched pieces scattered randomly throughout Kelly’s dresses, his most famous designs feature carefully crafted patterns of matching buttons.”

  • “Many of Kelly’s contemporaries were inspired by his designs to incorporate buttons, as well as zippers and snaps, as decorative items in their work.” 

  • “Kelly’s grandmother, who would repair clothing when he was a child, frequently added mismatched buttons to the clothes to draw attention away from any flaws in the garments.”

  • “Kelly was destined to be a designer from a young age: he learned how to sew clothing from his aunt Bertha, and his love of drawing was developed by his mother.”

ID: 0113152f Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. This quotation draws a direct connection between the use of buttons and Kelly’s stylish female relatives.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice mentions Kelly’s use of buttons, but it doesn’t connect that design choice to the influence of women in Kelly’s family. Choice B is incorrect. This choice discusses how other designers were inspired by Kelly, which doesn’t provide evidence that Kelly was inspired by his family. Choice D is incorrect. While this choice does refer to fashionable women in Kelly’s family, it doesn’t connect their influence to Kelly’s use of buttons.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 3a1f02b0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 3a1f02b0

The following text is adapted from Frances Hodgson Burnett’s 1911 novel The Secret Garden. Mary, a young girl, recently found an overgrown hidden garden.

Mary was an odd, determined little person, and now she had something interesting to be determined about, she was very much absorbed, indeed. She worked and dug and pulled up weeds steadily, only becoming more pleased with her work every hour instead of tiring of it. It seemed to her like a fascinating sort of play.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Mary hides in the garden to avoid doing her chores.

  • Mary is getting bored with pulling up so many weeds in the garden.

  • Mary is clearing out the garden to create a space to play.

  • Mary feels very satisfied when she’s taking care of the garden.

ID: 3a1f02b0 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text describes Mary’s activities in an overgrown hidden garden, saying that she was “very much absorbed” and was “only becoming more pleased with her work every hour” rather than getting tired of it. She also thinks of garden activities as a “fascinating sort of play.” Thus, the main idea of the text is that Mary feels very satisfied when taking care of the garden.

Choice A is incorrect because the text never makes any mention of Mary’s chores. Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that Mary finds pulling up weeds to be fascinating, not boring. Choice C is incorrect because Mary thinks of garden activities in and of themselves as play, not as something necessary to do to create a space to play.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID f38b40ac

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: f38b40ac

In addition to her technical skill and daring feats, American stunt pilot Bessie Coleman was also known for dazzling the crowds that came to watch her air shows in the 1920s with her exuberant personality. During her career, she was careful and purposeful about how she crafted her public persona. An aviation researcher has claimed that Coleman intentionally defied social norms of the time by how she chose to present herself to the public.

Which quotation from an article about Coleman would most directly support the aviation researcher’s claim?

  • “For her air shows, Coleman frequently used the Curtiss JN-4, or ‘Jenny,’ which at that time was one of the most well-known types of planes.”

  • “While Coleman was beloved by spectators for her charisma, she had a more complicated relationship with her managers and staff, who at times found her behavior too impulsive and demanding.”

  • “Coleman once considered leaving her career as a stunt pilot to focus her efforts on giving speeches, which she felt would better support her public image.” 

  • “Although female pilots were typically expected to wear traditional but impractical attire that included dresses or skirts, photographs of Coleman show her wearing pants and leather jackets.”

ID: f38b40ac Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. This choice supports the claim of Coleman’s intentional defiance of social norms: female pilots were expected to wear skirts, but Coleman wore pants and leather jackets instead.

Choice A is incorrect. Coleman flew a well-known, common plane, which would not have defied social norms among pilots. Choice B is incorrect. Her complicated relationship with managers and staff would not have been a component of Coleman’s public persona. This choice also fails to mention any “social norms of the time.” Choice C is incorrect. While this quotation suggests that Coleman was careful and purposeful about her public image, it doesn’t directly mention anything about “social norms of the time.”

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID a0b58ef0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: a0b58ef0

The Younger Dryas was a period of extreme cooling from 11,700 to 12,900 years ago in the Northern Hemisphere. Some scientists argue that a comet fragment hitting Earth brought about the cooling. Others disagree, partly because there is no known crater from such an impact that dates to the beginning of the period. In 2015, a team led by Kurt Kjær detected a 19-mile-wide crater beneath a glacier in Greenland. The scientists who believe an impact caused the Younger Dryas claim that this discovery supports their view. However, Kjær’s team hasn’t yet been able to determine the age of the crater. Therefore, the team suggests that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • it can’t be concluded that the impact that made the crater was connected to the beginning of the Younger Dryas.

  • it can’t be determined whether a comet fragment could make a crater as large as 19 miles wide.

  • scientists have ignored the possibility that something other than a comet fragment could have made the crater.

  • the scientists who believe an impact caused the Younger Dryas have made incorrect assumptions about when the period began.

ID: a0b58ef0 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of a crater’s connection to the start of the Younger Dryas. According to the text, some scientists believe that a comet fragment hitting Earth caused the cooling of the Younger Dryas period to come about. The text then indicates that a team of scientists found a crater in Greenland, which some believe supports the theory of a comet fragment hitting Earth to initiate the Younger Dryas. However, the text also notes that the team was unable to determine the age of the crater. If the age of the crater can’t be determined, then its connection to the Younger Dryas period of time can’t be confirmed either. Thus, it can’t be concluded that the impact that made the crater was connected to the beginning of the Younger Dryas.

Choice B is incorrect because though the text suggests that the age of the comet crater found by a team of scientists is uncertain, it doesn’t address whether a comet fragment can make a crater as large as 19 miles wide. The text doesn’t consider the size of comet fragments and how they relate to the size of craters they might make. Choice C is incorrect because the debate in the text centers on the age of the crater found, not the cause of the crater. The text doesn’t indicate uncertainty about what caused the discovered crater. Choice D is incorrect because the text suggests that the age of the crater found by the team of scientists is uncertain, not that the dates of the Younger Dryas are uncertain or incorrect. The text states that "the Younger Dryas was a period of extreme cooling from 11,700 to 12,900 years ago" but doesn’t indicate any debate about the timing of the period.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 89f71526

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 89f71526

3.5 3.0 2.5 2.0 1.5 1.0 0.5 0Deformation rate(centimeters per month) Alcedo Maule Fernandina Pacaya Sierra NegraDeformation Rate of Five Volcanoes volcano

When magma moves underneath a volcano, it causes the surface of the volcano to change. This is known as deformation. Researchers recently calculated the amount of deformation occurring each month for five volcanoes in Latin America. Although Sierra Negra experienced a lot of deformation, its deformation rate was still lower than that of blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the statement?

  • Alcedo.

  • Pacaya.

  • Fernandina.

  • Maule.

ID: 89f71526 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. Pacaya had a deformation rate of almost 3.5 centimeters per month, while Sierra Negra had a deformation rate of less than 3 centimeters per month. Therefore, Sierra Negra’s deformation rate was lower than Pacaya’s.

Choice A is incorrect. Alcedo has a lower rate of deformation than Sierra Negra. Choice C is incorrect. Fernandina has a lower rate of deformation than Sierra Negra. Choice D is incorrect. Maule has a lower rate of deformation than Sierra Negra.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 3430be35

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 3430be35
80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0Mean chosen price ($) 1 2Mean Ticket Prices Chosen in Two Studiesof Participative Pricing MessagingStudy pay what you can pay what you think it’s worth pay what you want
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown: 
    • pay what you can
    • pay what you think it’s worth
    • pay what you want
  • The Mean chosen price data for the 2 categories are as follows:
    • Study 1: 
      • pay what you can: $30.33
      • pay what you think it’s worth: $55.19
      • pay what you want: $27.85
    • Study 2: 
      • pay what you can: $39.83
      • pay what you think it’s worth: $73.93
      • pay what you want: $29.64

Participative pricing, in which purchasers choose the prices they pay for products, can enable sellers to capitalize on the heterogeneous values consumers assign to the same goods and services, but doing so requires careful messaging. Annie Peng Cui and Jennifer Wiggins recruited 171 participants (ages 18–60) online for an initial study and 83 students (ages 18–31) at a state university for a second study to test the effect of three different messages—“pay what you can,” “pay what you think it’s worth,” and “pay what you want”—on how much participants would pay for concert tickets. Their results illustrate both the heterogeneity of consumer valuations and how sellers can benefit by prompting consumers to consider their own valuations: blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the text?

  • the students tended to value the concert tickets more highly than did the more age-diverse group recruited online, but when considering what they could afford to pay, the students tended to choose a lower price than did the other group. 

  • in all three messaging conditions, the group of participants recruited online tended to choose lower prices than did the students, but both groups tended to choose prices closest to the actual cost of the tickets when prompted to consider the tickets’ value. 

  • the students tended to value the concert tickets more highly than did the more age-diverse group recruited online, but both groups tended to choose a higher price when considering the value of the tickets than when considering what they could afford or wanted to pay. 

  • within each group of participants, there was wide variation in the value that individuals assigned to the concert tickets, but the students tended to assign a higher value to the tickets than did the more age-diverse group recruited online.

ID: 3430be35 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the text about the effect of messaging on participative pricing. The graph shows mean ticket prices chosen by participants in response to three messages across two studies: Study 1, which the text indicates was conducted with an age-diverse group recruited online, and Study 2, which was conducted with student participants. The graph indicates that in the "pay what you think it’s worth" condition, the mean price of the concert tickets in Study 2 was about $74, which is greater than the mean price of about $55 in Study 1. In other words, when participants were asked to consider their valuation of the tickets, the response was heterogeneous, or mixed. Moreover, according to the graph, both Study 1 and Study 2 show higher prices for the tickets under the "pay what you think it’s worth" condition than they do under both the "pay what you can" and the "pay what you want" conditions. That is, the data suggest that both groups of participants named higher prices when considering the value of the tickets than when considering either what they could afford or wanted to pay, a finding that supports the idea that sellers can benefit when prompting consumers to consider their own valuations when they choose prices.

Choice A is incorrect because it contradicts information in the graph. Although the graph shows that students in Study 2 assigned a higher value to the tickets than did the age-diverse group in Study 1, which would support the idea that consumer valuations were heterogeneous, the graph shows that in the "pay what you can" (i.e., what you can afford) condition, the students in Study 2 assigned a higher price (about $40), not a lower price, than the age-diverse group in Study 1 did (about $30). Moreover, even if it were true that the students had assigned a lower price in this condition, it wouldn’t support the result described in the text, only that the participants across the two studies had different ideas of what they can afford to pay. Choice B is incorrect. Although a finding that participants tended to choose prices that were closest to the actual ticket costs in the "pay what you think it’s worth" condition would support the idea that sellers benefit by prompting consumers to think about their own valuations (since it’s implied that sellers would lose money in the other conditions, where chosen prices were lower than the participants’ valuations), neither the text nor the graph addresses how any of the prices chosen by the study participants relate to the tickets’ actual market price. Choice D is incorrect. Although the wide variation in participant valuations would support the idea that consumer valuations tend to be heterogeneous, neither the text nor the graph provides any information from which to discern the relative levels of variance among the responses from participants in either study.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 7f293254

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 7f293254

Art collectives, like the United States- and Vietnam-based collective The Propeller Group or Cuba’s Los Carpinteros, are groups of artists who agree to work together: perhaps for stylistic reasons, or to advance certain shared political ideals, or to help mitigate the costs of supplies and studio space. Regardless of the reasons, art collectives usually involve some collaboration among the artists. Based on a recent series of interviews with various art collectives, an arts journalist claims that this can be difficult for artists who are often used to having sole control over their work.

Which quotation from the interviews best illustrates the journalist’s claim?

  • “The first collective I joined included many amazingly talented artists, and we enjoyed each other’s company, but because we had a hard time sharing credit and responsibility for our work, the collective didn’t last.” 

  • “We work together, but that doesn’t mean that individual projects are equally the work of all of us. Many of our projects are primarily the responsibility of whoever originally proposed the work to the group.”

  • “Having worked as a member of a collective for several years, it’s sometimes hard to recall what it was like to work alone without the collective’s support. But that support encourages my individual expression rather than limits it.”

  • “Sometimes an artist from outside the collective will choose to collaborate with us on a project, but all of those projects fit within the larger themes of the work the collective does on its own.”

ID: 7f293254 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents the quotation that best illustrates the journalist’s claim. By indicating that a collective didn’t continue because it was hard to share credit and responsibilities within the group even though the company was enjoyable, the quotation shows that working collaboratively can be difficult for artists who are used to having complete control over their work.

Choice B is incorrect because the quotation indicates that members of a collective are able to collaborate together and have agreed on a fair way to manage their responsibilities; this doesn’t demonstrate the challenge of sharing control among members of a collective. Choice C is incorrect because the quotation highlights the support and encouragement of individual expression an artist experiences due to working in a collective; these positive aspects don’t demonstrate the challenge of sharing control among members of a collective. Choice D is incorrect because the quotation doesn’t address any challenges of sharing control among members of a collective; it simply indicates that artists sometimes choose to work with collectives without having to be a member. Therefore, the quotation doesn’t illustrate the journalist’s claim. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 3ae2638c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 3ae2638c

In documents called judicial opinions, judges explain the reasoning behind their legal rulings, and in those explanations they sometimes cite and discuss historical and contemporary philosophers. Legal scholar and philosopher Anita L. Allen argues that while judges are naturally inclined to mention philosophers whose views align with their own positions, the strongest judicial opinions consider and rebut potential objections; discussing philosophers whose views conflict with judges’ views could therefore blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • allow judges to craft judicial opinions without needing to consult philosophical works.

  • help judges improve the arguments they put forward in their judicial opinions.

  • make judicial opinions more comprehensible to readers without legal or philosophical training.

  • bring judicial opinions in line with views that are broadly held among philosophers.

ID: 3ae2638c Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Anita Allen’s argument about judges citing philosophers in their judicial opinions. The text indicates that judges sometimes cite philosophers when writing their judicial opinions and that, according to Allen, judges tend to cite philosophers whose views are in agreement with those of the judges themselves. Allen claims, however, that the best judicial opinions consider potential objections and rebut them, which suggests that judges may be able to strengthen their opinions by including discussions of philosophers with views contrary to their own.  

Choice A is incorrect because Allen’s claim is that judges could improve their judicial opinions by citing philosophers who disagree with the views expressed in the opinions, which would necessarily require judges to consult philosophical works. Choice C is incorrect because there’s no discussion in the text about making judicial opinions more easily understood by any particular group of readers. The focus of the text is on Allen’s claim that judicial opinions could be strengthened by the inclusion of discussions of philosophers whose views disagree with those of the judges authoring the opinions. Choice D is incorrect because the text presents Allen’s argument that discussing philosophers whose views judges disagree with could strengthen judicial opinions, not that doing so could bring those opinions into line with views that are popular among philosophers. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 23a7038f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 23a7038f

Shimmering is a collective defense behavior that researchers have observed in giant honeybee colonies. When shimmering, different groups of bees flip their bodies up and down in what looks like waves. This defense is initiated when hornets hover near a colony, serving to deter the hornets from approaching the bees. Researchers hypothesize that this behavior is a specialized defense response to hornets, as it is not observed when other, larger predators approach the colony. 

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Researchers are unsure how giant honeybees defend against predators larger than hornets. 

  • Researchers think that shimmering in giant honeybees is a specific defense against hornets. 

  • Hornets are known to be the main predator of giant honeybees. 

  • Several different species of insects use shimmering to defend against hornets. 

ID: 23a7038f Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The text describes a study about how giant honeybees use shimmering to defend against hornets, but not other predators. The researchers conclude that shimmering could be a specialized defense response to hornets.

Choice A is incorrect. The text says that giant honeybees don’t appear to use shimmering against other, larger predators. However, it never suggests that researchers don’t know which other defenses giant honeybees do use for those predators. Choice C is incorrect. The text says that hornets are one predator of giant honeybees, but it doesn’t say that hornets are the main predator of giant honeybees. This choice also fails to mention “shimmering,” which is a major focus of the text. Choice D is incorrect. The text only discusses the shimmering of giant honeybees—it doesn’t discuss other insects’ defense responses at all.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 4d38c2ea

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 4d38c2ea

Gorgets, or necklaces with large pendants, have been part of the ceremonial attire of tribes from the US Southeast for centuries. One of the oldest examples, the Fairfield Gorget, was found in Fairfield, Missouri, in 1958. Its overall design resembles that of other art from the region during the Mississippian period (900–1600 CE). Yet the image on the gorget is of a jaguar—a species whose range doesn’t extend to Missouri. Jaguar images are common in ancient Mexican art, and Mexico lies squarely in the species’ range. Therefore, some scholars argue that long-distance trade in Mexican art objects brought the imagery to Missouri, where a local artist could have adopted it and incorporated it into the Fairfield Gorget.

Which finding, if true, would most strongly support the underlined explanation?

  • The Fairfield Gorget is dated not to the Mississippian period but instead to the earlier Woodland period, which ended around 900 CE.

  • The range of the jaguar is shown to have expanded dramatically after the Mississippian period came to a close around 1600 CE.

  • An ancient Mexican art object is found at a site that dates to the Mississippian period and is close to where the Fairfield Gorget was found.

  • Certain works by present-day artists from Southeastern tribes reflect outside cultural influences, including contemporary Mexican art.

ID: 4d38c2ea Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most strongly support the underlined explanation that the jaguar imagery on the Fairfield Gorget could have been inspired by art objects brought to Missouri from Mexico. The text describes the Fairfield Gorget as one of the oldest examples of these necklaces, noting that it’s similar to other art from the Mississippian period except for its image of a jaguar. The text goes on to explain that this is unusual because the jaguar’s range didn’t include Missouri. The Fairfield Gorget’s artist likely wouldn’t have encountered a live jaguar, but since such jaguar images were common in ancient Mexican art (and the jaguar’s range did include Mexico), perhaps some of that art inspired the gorget’s artist. Therefore, evidence that an ancient Mexican art object had been found at a site that was close to the Fairfield Gorget in both location and time period would strongly support the explanation that long-distance trade from Mexico took place during the Mississippian period and that jaguar imagery could have reached Missouri by those means.

Choice A is incorrect. The underlined explanation indicates that Mexican artistic influence preceded the creation of the Fairfield Gorget. An artifact from Mexico that appeared in Missouri only after the gorget was created cannot support such a claim. Choice B is incorrect. The underlined explanation pertains to whether the jaguar image on the Fairfield Gorget was suggested to the Mississippian artist who made it by encounters with depictions of jaguars in Mexican art. The appearance of jaguars in Missouri after the Mississippian period cannot provide evidence for such a claim. Choice D is incorrect. The underlined explanation pertains to influence that Mexican art might have had on Mississippian art, restricted to the period from 900 CE to 1600 CE. The actions of contemporary artists cannot provide evidence for centuries-old networks of artistic influence and exchange.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 7a895def

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 7a895def

Georgia Douglas Johnson wrote many plays in the 1920s and 1930s. At the time, professional theater companies rarely put on plays by Black women, so few of Johnson’s plays made it to the stage. Only a small number of her plays were published in her lifetime. But that doesn’t mean that Johnson never learned what other people thought of her plays. Johnson hosted weekly get-togethers for fellow Black writers and artists in her Washington, D.C., home. Attendees would read and discuss one another’s work, including Johnson’s own. These gatherings could therefore serve as blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • an occasion for professional theater companies to put on plays. 

  • an opportunity for Johnson to get feedback on her plays. 

  • a way for Johnson to learn about plays that were produced in other cities.

  • subject matter for future plays by Johnson. 

ID: 7a895def Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The passage tells us that attendees at Johnson’s get-togethers "would read and discuss one another’s work." This suggests that the gatherings could provide an opportunity for Johnson to get feedback on her plays. Notice how the text foreshadows this conclusion by the mention of Johnson learning "what other people thought of her plays."

Choice A is incorrect. The passage doesn’t mention theater companies attending the get-togethers, so there is no basis for this inference. Choice C is incorrect. The passage doesn’t mention learning about plays from other cities, so there is no basis for this inference. Choice D is incorrect. The passage doesn’t mention Johnson using the get-togethers as inspiration for future plays, so there is no basis for this inference.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 5cf5c0d3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 5cf5c0d3

Credited Film Output of James Young Deer, Dark Cloud, Edwin Carewe, and Lillian St. Cyr

Individual Years active Number of films known and commonly credited
James Young Deer 1909–1924 33 (actor), 35 (director), 10 (writer)
Dark Cloud 1910–1920 35 (actor), 1 (writer)
Edwin Carewe 1912–1934 47 (actor), 58 (director), 20 (producer), 4 (writer)
Lillian St. Cyr (Red Wing) 1908–1921 66 (actor)

Some researchers studying Indigenous actors and filmmakers in the United States have turned their attention to the early days of cinema, particularly the 1910s and 1920s, when people like James Young Deer, Dark Cloud, Edwin Carewe, and Lillian St. Cyr (known professionally as Red Wing) were involved in one way or another with numerous films. In fact, so many films and associated records for this era have been lost that counts of those four figures’ output should be taken as bare minimums rather than totals; it’s entirely possible, for example, that blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the example?

  • Dark Cloud acted in significantly fewer films than did Lillian St. Cyr, who is credited with 66 performances.

  • Edwin Carewe’s 47 credited acting roles includes only films made after 1934.

  • Lillian St. Cyr acted in far more than 66 films and Edwin Carewe directed more than 58. 

  • James Young Deer actually directed 33 films and acted in only 10.

ID: 5cf5c0d3 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it uses data from the table to effectively exemplify the idea that the film outputs of the four individuals included in the table should be considered bare minimums—that is, that we should assume that the individuals actually had higher outputs than those recorded. The table presents the years during which the individuals were active and the number of known films the individuals are credited in. The table indicates that Lillian St. Cyr has 66 film credits as an actor and that Edwin Carewe has 58 film credits as a director; it follows that if some films and records for the era were lost, it’s possible that Lillian St. Cyr acted in far more than 66 films and that Edwin Carewe directed more than 58 films.

Choice A is incorrect because it doesn’t effectively exemplify the idea that the film outputs of the four individuals included in the table should be considered bare minimums. Rather than addressing the idea that the individuals likely had higher outputs than those presented in the table, this choice simply compares data from the table to make the point that Dark Cloud has fewer credited acting roles than Lillian St. Cyr (35 and 66, respectively). Choice B is incorrect because it misrepresents data from the table, even though it may exemplify the idea that the film outputs of the four individuals included in the table should be considered bare minimums by implying that Edwin Carewe acted in more than 47 films. The table indicates that Edwin Carewe was active from 1912 to 1934, meaning that his 47 credited acting roles were in films made before or during 1934, not after that time. Choice D is incorrect because it doesn’t effectively exemplify the idea that the film outputs of the four individuals included in the table should be considered bare minimums. Instead of addressing the idea that the individuals likely had higher outputs than those recorded, this choice suggests that James Young Deer actually acted in and directed fewer films than presented in the table (only 33 known films as a director instead of 35, and only 10 known films as an actor instead of 33).

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID f3f444bc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: f3f444bc

Many mosquito repellents contain natural components that work by activating multiple odor receptors on mosquitoes’ antennae. As the insects develop resistance, new repellents are needed. Ke Dong and her team found that EBF, a molecular component of a chrysanthemum-flower extract, can repel mosquitoes by activating just one odor receptor—and this receptor, Or31, is present in all mosquito species known to carry diseases. Therefore, the researchers suggest that in developing new repellents, it would be most useful to blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • identify molecular components similar to EBF that target the activation of Or31 receptors.

  • investigate alternative methods for extracting EBF molecules from chrysanthemums.

  • verify the precise locations of Or31 and other odor receptors on mosquitoes’ antennae.

  • determine the maximum number of different odor receptors that can be activated by a single molecule.

ID: f3f444bc Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of mosquito repellents. The text begins by explaining that many repellents work by using natural components to activate multiple odor receptors on mosquitoes’ antennae, and that new repellents must be created whenever mosquitoes become resistant to older ones. The text then highlights a research team’s discovery that EBF, a molecular component of a chrysanthemum-flower extract, can repel mosquitoes by activating a single odor receptor, Or31, that is shared by all species of mosquitoes known to carry diseases. The text suggests that compared to the repellents mentioned earlier, a repellent that acts on the Or31 receptor would be more effective: by noting that all mosquito species known to carry diseases share the Or31 receptor, the text suggests that the Or31 receptor may be unique in this respect, meaning that a repellent such as EBF that acts on it would be more effective since it works on a single receptor shared by all mosquito species that carry diseases, rather than a combination of receptors that is not shared by all species. Once mosquitoes become resistant to EBF, it would therefore make sense for researchers to look for other molecular components similar to EBF that target the activation of Or31 receptors, since a single such component could also repel all disease-carrying mosquitoes.

Choice B is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that EBF molecules are difficult to extract from chrysanthemums and that investigating alternative extraction methods would therefore be useful for developing efficient and effective mosquito repellents. Rather, the text suggests that researchers developing new mosquito repellents should aim to identify molecular components similar to EBF, since that component targets the Or31 odor receptor shared by all species of mosquitoes known to carry diseases. Choice C is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that researchers are unaware of the precise location of Or31 and other odor receptors in mosquitoes’ antennae or that knowing this information would be useful for developing efficient and effective mosquito repellents. Rather, the text suggests that researchers developing new mosquito repellents should aim to identify molecular components similar to EBF, which targets the Or31 odor receptor. Choice D is incorrect because it doesn’t logically follow that the discovery of one odor receptor shared by all disease-bearing mosquitoes should lead to further research into which repellents might activate the greatest number of odor receptors. Rather, the text suggests that researchers developing new mosquito repellents should instead search for additional molecular components that, like EBF, activate the one odor receptor that is known to be shared by all disease-bearing mosquitoes.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID a12a83ce

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: a12a83ce

The following text is from William Shakespeare’s play The Tempest, first performed in 1611. Miranda has lived on an island with her father, Prospero, since she was three years old. Prospero has stated that Miranda likely does not remember anything other than her life on the island.

MIRANDA: ’Tis far off,

And rather like a dream than an assurance

That my remembrance warrants. Had I not

Four or five women once that tended me?

 

PROSPERO: Thou hadst, and more, Miranda. But how is it

That this lives in thy mind? What seest thou else

In the dark backward and abysm of time?

If thou remember’st ought ere thou camest here,

How thou camest here thou mayst.

In the text, which point does Prospero most directly make about Miranda and her memories?

  • Miranda’s reminiscences about her early childhood have a melancholy quality that betrays her discontented view of her current circumstances.

  • Miranda’s doubts about the accuracy of one recollection of a place other than the island are clouding her judgment and seem to be making her reluctant to explore her recollection of traveling to the island.

  • Miranda’s ability to summon details of an experience she had before arriving on the island suggests that she may also be able to summon details of her arrival on the island.

  • Miranda’s impression of a scene is vague because she is remembering a scenario she had daydreamed about as a child rather than a scenario that had occurred in reality.

ID: a12a83ce Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a point that Prospero makes about Miranda. The text begins with Miranda responding to Prospero’s claim that she probably doesn’t remember her life before the island. She describes a distant memory, asking if she had "four or five women" caring for her. Prospero confirms this ("thou hadst") and then asks what else she can recall, stating that because she remembers one thing from the time before she lived on the island ("ought ere thou camest here"), she might also remember arriving on the island ("how thou camest here"). That is, Prospero indicates that Miranda’s ability to summon details of an experience from before her arrival on the island suggests that she may also be able to summon details of her arrival.

Choice A is incorrect because Prospero doesn’t say anything about how Miranda presents her early childhood memory of having several people care for her—he indicates only his surprise that she remembers something from so long ago ("the dark backward and abysm of time") and his thought that she may also be able to recall another childhood event: her arrival on the island. Further, Prospero doesn’t suggest that he believes Miranda is discontent in her current circumstances. Choice B is incorrect. Although Miranda suggests some doubt about her recollection of a place other than the island, in that she describes it as "like a dream" she can’t be certain of, Prospero doesn’t mention her uncertainty—though he himself wonders how it is possible that she correctly recalls something from so long ago ("abysm of time"). Rather than indicating that doubt is making Miranda reluctant, Prospero simply states that Miranda may have the ability to remember traveling to the island. Choice D is incorrect. Although Miranda describes a vague impression of several people who cared for her as a young child and states that it is "rather like a dream" instead of something she is certain is real, Prospero doesn’t indicate that Miranda is remembering a childhood daydream. Instead, he confirms that what Miranda remembers actually happened, answering her question about having had caregivers with "thou hadst," and asks her what else she can remember from long ago.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 5cd55c77

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 5cd55c77

During their larval phase, numerous species of coral reef fish are drawn toward areas where light is present. To better understand how artificial light at night (ALAN) might affect some coral reef fish, researchers explored the effect of exposure to low levels of ALAN on the reproductive success of the common clownfish (Amphiprion ocellaris). While exposure to low levels of ALAN had no significant effect on spawning frequency and egg fertilization in A. ocellaris, incubation in the presence of ALAN completely inhibited hatching. These findings suggest that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • A. ocellaris that settle in areas with low levels of ALAN have significantly higher rates of successful egg fertilization than A. ocellaris that settle in areas without ALAN do.

  • the reproductive success of A. ocellaris would be at risk if they were to selectively settle in regions that are regularly exposed to low levels of ALAN.

  • the reproductive success of A. ocellaris is more greatly affected by the presence of low levels of ALAN during incubation than the reproductive success of other species of coral reef fish is.

  • the spawning frequency of A. ocellaris was more strongly affected by the presence of low levels of ALAN than egg fertilization was, though both were less affected than incubation. 

ID: 5cd55c77 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of artificial light at night (ALAN) and the common clownfish (A. ocellaris). The text indicates that researchers found that when A. ocellaris is exposed to low levels of ALAN, spawning frequency and egg fertilization aren’t significantly affected but hatching is completely inhibited—that is, the eggs never hatch. Therefore, if A. ocellaris were to settle only in regions where the fish would be regularly exposed to low levels of ALAN, their eggs would stop hatching and their reproductive success would be at risk.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that exposure to low levels of ALAN had no significant effect on egg fertilization for A. ocellaris, so there’s no reason to expect there would be any significant difference in rates of successful egg fertilization between areas with low levels of ALAN and areas without ALAN. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss the particular effects of low levels of ALAN on any species of coral reef fish besides A. ocellaris. For this reason, there’s no support in the text for the idea that the reproductive success of A. ocellaris is more greatly affected by the presence of low levels of ALAN than the reproductive success of other species of coral reef fish is. Choice D is incorrect. The text does indicate that A. ocellaris incubation was most strongly affected by low levels of ALAN, but it doesn’t indicate that there was a greater effect on spawning frequency than on egg fertilization; in fact, the text states that there was no significant effect on either.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 9aa5efc4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 9aa5efc4

Born in 1891 to a Quechua-speaking family in the Andes Mountains of Peru, Martín Chambi is today considered to be one of the most renowned figures of Latin American photography. In a paper for an art history class, a student claims that Chambi’s photographs have considerable ethnographic value—in his work, Chambi was able to capture diverse elements of Peruvian society, representing his subjects with both dignity and authenticity.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the student’s claim?

  • Chambi took many commissioned portraits of wealthy Peruvians, but he also produced hundreds of images carefully documenting the peoples, sites, and customs of Indigenous communities of the Andes.

  • Chambi’s photographs demonstrate a high level of technical skill, as seen in his strategic use of illumination to create dramatic light and shadow contrasts.   

  • During his lifetime, Chambi was known and celebrated both within and outside his native Peru, as his work was published in places like Argentina, Spain, and Mexico.

  • Some of the peoples and places Chambi photographed had long been popular subjects for Peruvian photographers.

ID: 9aa5efc4 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support the claim about Chambi’s photographs. The text describes a student advancing the claim that Chambi’s photographs “have considerable ethnographic value”—meaning that they are valuable as records of cultures—and that they “capture diverse elements of Peruvian society” in a respectful way. If it’s true that Chambi carefully photographed people from a range of different communities in Peru as well as photographed the customs and sites of different communities, that would lend support to the claim that the photographs have ethnographic value as depictions of diverse elements of society in Peru. 

Choice B is incorrect because the student’s claim is that Chambi’s photographs have considerable ethnographic value because they depict diverse elements of Peruvian society; the student doesn’t claim anything about the technical skill demonstrated in the photographs. Choice C is incorrect because neither Chambi’s reputation nor the locations where his photographs may have been published would be relevant to the student’s claim that his photographs are valuable as an ethnographic record of Peru’s diverse society. Choice D is incorrect because the popularity among other photographers of the people and places that Chambi photographed would be irrelevant to the student’s claim that Chambi’s photographs are valuable as an ethnographic record of Peru’s diverse society. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID b2e54b50

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: b2e54b50

Correlations Between Congestion Ratings and Features of the Crowd in Raters’ Immediate Vicinity

Crowd feature Before obstacle After obstacle Overall
Density 0.8592 0.7308 0.7447
Velocity negative 0.9357 negative 0.9518 negative 0.8587

Researcher Xiaolu Jia and colleagues monitored individuals’ velocity and the surrounding crowd density as a group of study participants walked through a space and navigated around an obstacle. Participants rated how congested it seemed before the obstacle, after the obstacle, and overall, and the researchers correlated those ratings with velocity and density. (Correlations range from negative 1 to 1, with greater distance from 0 indicating greater strength). The researchers concluded that the correlations with velocity are stronger than those with density.

Which choice best describes data from the table that support the researchers’ conclusion?

  • The correlation between congestion ratings before the obstacle and density is further from 0 than the correlation between overall congestion rating and velocity is.

  • The correlation between congestion ratings before the obstacle and velocity is further from 0 than the correlation between congestion overall and velocity is.

  • For each of the three ratings, the correlation with velocity is negative while the correlation with density is positive.

  • For each of the three ratings, correlations with velocity are further from 0 than the corresponding correlations with density are.

ID: b2e54b50 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The text tells us that the farther the correlation is from 0, the “stronger” it is (doesn’t matter if it’s negative or positive). The table shows that the correlations with velocity are farther from zero than the correlations with density, which supports the conclusion that the correlations with velocity are stronger.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the conclusion. It makes an “apples to oranges” comparison by comparing density and velocity correlations across features instead of comparing them for each feature. Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the conclusion. It doesn’t include the density correlations for comparison. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the conclusion. The text tells us that the farther the correlation is from 0, the “stronger” it is: it doesn’t matter for “strength” whether it’s negative or positive.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID cca6fae9

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: cca6fae9

Delta 15-N Values in Seagrass Samples from Four Sites on the Yucatan, 2016–2017

Site February 2016 October 2016 February 2017 October 2017
Akumal Bay no data available 3.3 2.0 6.3
Mahahual 0.7 no data available 2.5 3.4
Tulum 6.1 5.9 2.3 5.5
Xahuayxol 0.9 0.3 −0.9 1.4

Because water from natural, uncontaminated sources is less enriched with the stable nitrogen isotope 15N than wastewater from human activities is, the presence of such wastewater in nature can be detected by examining delta 15-N values (a measure of the ratio of 15N to 14N) in plants. Karla A. Camacho-Cruz and colleagues assessed delta 15-N values in the seagrass Thalassia testudinum from sites on Mexico’s Yucatan peninsula with intermediate tourism development, including Akumal Bay and Tulum, and low tourism development, including Mahahual and Xahuayxol, throughout 2016 and 2017. The data suggest that the intermediate-tourism sites experienced influxes of human wastewater. However, the researchers concluded that this happened intermittently.

Which choice best describes data from the table that support the underlined conclusion?

  • Although delta 15-N values were generally higher in Akumal Bay and Tulum than in Mahahual and Xahuayxol, the values were lower in Akumal Bay than in Mahahual and Xahuayxol in February 2017.

  • Delta 15-N values reached their lowest level in February 2017 in both Akumal Bay and Tulum, but no data were available for Akumal Bay in February 2016, when the values reached their highest level in Tulum.

  • Although all sites showed considerable variation in delta 15-N values, the values remained relatively constant in Akumal Bay from October 2016 to February 2017 and in Tulum from February 2016 to October 2016.

  • In Akumal Bay and Tulum, delta 15-N values fluctuated considerably across the three measurements made from October 2016 to October 2017.

ID: cca6fae9 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it describes data from the table that support the underlined conclusion. The text accompanying the table states that delta 15-N values (a measure of the ratio of two nitrogen isotopes) can be used as an indirect means of measuring the ratio of human wastewater to water from uncontaminated sources—the higher the delta 15-N values, the greater the presence of human wastewater. The text goes on to mention an experiment conducted by Camacho-Cruz and colleagues measuring delta 15-N values in seagrass on the Yucatan peninsula at several sites, four of which are presented in the table accompanying the text. Two of the sites noted in the table, Akumal Bay and Tulum, had intermediate tourism development, and two others, Mahahual and Xahuayxol, had low tourism development. It is reasonable to infer that sites with intermediate tourism have a greater human presence than those with low tourism and therefore are subject to greater amounts of wastewater and exhibit higher delta 15-N values in seagrass. However, Camacho-Cruz and colleagues found that the increase in delta 15-N values was not constant. The table supports this conclusion because the two intermediate-tourism sites (Akumal Bay and Tulum) had delta 15-N values that fluctuated considerably—both had higher delta 15-N values than the two low-tourism sites (Mahahual and Xahuayxol) in October 2016 and October 2017, but in February 2017 the delta 15-N values for the intermediate-tourism sites dropped significantly (in fact, Mahahual, a low-tourism site, had a higher delta 15-N value for that period). The fluctuations in values in Akumal Bay and Tulum support the conclusion that these sites experienced influxes of human wastewater intermittently.

Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately describes data from the table: in February 2017 the delta 15-N value in Akumal Bay was higher than the delta 15-N value in Xahuayxol, not lower. Choice B is incorrect because the absence of data for delta 15-N levels in Akumal Bay in February 2016 would neither prove nor disprove that the presence of human wastewater at Akumal Bay and Tulum was not constant. Despite the unavailable data, there is still enough information to conclude that delta 15-N levels at both sites fluctuated significantly and that influxes of human wastewater therefore happened intermittently. Choice C is incorrect because a constancy in delta 15-N values would not indicate that the influx of human wastewater was intermittent, but rather the opposite. Moreover, the two periods selected are not indicative of general trends in the whole table (for example, the values fluctuated significantly in Akumal Bay between February 2017 and October 2017, and in Tulum between October 2016 and February 2017).

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 8af28416

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 8af28416
2,800 2,600 2,400 2,200 2,000 1,800 1,600 1,400 1,200 1,000 800 600 400 200 0Number of organic farms California Wisconsin New York Pennsylvania Iowa WashingtonUS States with the Greatest Number of Organic Farms in 2016 State
  • All values are approximate.
  • The data for the 6 categories are as follows:
    • California: About halfway above 2,600
    • Wisconsin: Less than halfway above 1,200
    • New York: Less than halfway above 1,000
    • Pennsylvania: 800
    • Iowa: More than halfway above 600
    • Washington: About halfway above 600

Organic farming is a method of growing food that tries to reduce environmental harm by using natural forms of pest control and avoiding fertilizers made with synthetic materials. Organic farms are still a small fraction of the total farms in the United States, but they have been becoming more popular. According to the US Department of Agriculture, in 2016 California had between 2,600 and 2,800 organic farms and blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the text?

  • Washington had between 600 and 800 organic farms.

  • New York had fewer than 800 organic farms.

  • Wisconsin and Iowa each had between 1,200 and 1,400 organic farms.

  • Pennsylvania had more than 1,200 organic farms.

ID: 8af28416 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it uses data from the graph to accurately complete the text. The graph shows the number of organic farms located in each of six US states in 2016: between 2,600 and 2,800 in California; between 1,200 and 1,400 in Wisconsin; between 1,000 and 1,200 in New York; approximately 800 in Pennsylvania; and between 600 and 800 in both Iowa and Washington. The last sentence of the text provides information about the number of organic farms in 2016, first describing the number in California. The best completion of the sentence is the choice that accurately describes the number of organic farms in 2016 in another state, which the assertion that Washington had between 600 and 800 organic farms provides.

Choice B is incorrect because it doesn’t accurately reflect the data from the graph. The graph indicates that there were between 1,000 and 1,200 organic farms in New York, not fewer than 800 organic farms. Choice C is incorrect because it doesn’t accurately reflect the data from the graph. While the graph indicates that there were between 1,200 and 1,400 organic farms in Wisconsin in 2016, there were only between 600 and 800 in Iowa. Choice D is incorrect because it doesn’t accurately reflect the data from the graph. The graph indicates that in 2016 there were approximately 800 organic farms in Pennsylvania, not more than 1,200. 

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID f495b554

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: f495b554

Silicon-based photovoltaic cells account for 95% of the cells used in solar panels worldwide despite converting an average of only 18–22% of the sunlight that reaches them. In a study addressing this relative inefficiency, a team led by Laura Miranda-Pérez demonstrated that the addition of a thin layer of the mineral perovskite—which captures the blue range of light in the solar spectrum, whereas silicon captures the red range—allows the cells to convert 29.5% or more of the Sun’s energy into usable electricity. Cells made with only perovskite, however, are no more efficient than silicon-based ones. It’s reasonable to conclude, then, that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • photovoltaic cells with both silicon and perovskite are more efficient because they make use of more of the solar spectrum. 

  • photovoltaic cells with only perovskite and no silicon would likely convert more than 29.5% of the Sun’s energy.

  • solar power will remain elusive until photovoltaic cells are replaced with a more practical technology. 

  • researchers need to evaluate whether other minerals like perovskite are as effective as perovskite seems to be.

ID: f495b554 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically completes the text’s discussion of the efficiency of various photovoltaic cells. The text indicates that Miranda-Pérez and her team found that adding a layer of perovskite to silicon-based cells increased the percentage of sunlight converted to usable electricity relative to the percentage converted to electricity by silicon-based cells. Using cells with only perovskite and no silicon, however, resulted in no improvement in efficiency over silicon-based cells. The text also states that perovskite captures light in the blue range of the solar spectrum and silicon captures light in the red range of the spectrum. If perovskite and silicon capture different parts of the solar spectrum and the combination of perovskite and silicon results in greater efficiency than the use of either perovskite or silicon alone does, then it is reasonable to infer that the improved efficiency of perovskite-silicon cells could be attributable to their making use of more of the solar spectrum than perovskite-based or silicon-based cells do.

Choice B is incorrect because it is directly contradicted by the text, which says that silicon-based cells convert 18%–22% of the sunlight that reaches them to electricity and that cells with only perovskite are no more efficient than silicon-based cells are. Perovskite-only cells thus must convert 22% or less—not more than 29.5%—of the sunlight that reaches them to electricity. Choice C is incorrect because the text focuses on a possible improvement to photovoltaic cells and makes no mention of any alternatives to those cells, so there is no reason to conclude that photovoltaic cells must be replaced with some other technology. Additionally, the text presents solar power as something that currently exists, so it wouldn’t make sense to conclude that solar power will remain elusive. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that there is a need to evaluate the effectiveness of other minerals than perovskite. In fact, the text gives no indication that it is even possible to use other minerals than silicon and perovskite in photovoltaic cells. Instead, the text is focused on the effect of combining perovskite and silicon and the different parts of the solar spectrum that perovskite and silicon capture.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 73c091d2

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 73c091d2

Many trees produce growth rings as they age, with each ring in a tree’s trunk representing one year in the tree’s life. This often makes it fairly easy to determine how old a tree was when it was cut down. To do so, you look at the tree stump and count the dark rings you see. But a researcher claims that this method often can’t be used to identify the age of olive trees.

Which detail, if true, would most directly support the researcher’s claim?

  • The oldest olive tree in the world is likely over 1,100 years old. 

  • Narrow growth rings can suggest that an olive tree experienced harsh conditions.

  • Many olive trees have growth rings that are difficult to see.

  • Olive trees thrive in areas with hot, dry summers. 

ID: 73c091d2 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a detail that, if true, would most directly support the researcher’s claim about the difficulty of determining olive tree age by ring counting. The text explains that for many trees, counting the dark rings visible in a tree stump is a reliable method for determining the tree’s age. However, if olive trees have growth rings that are difficult to see, it would be hard to count the individual rings. Therefore, the ring-counting method would be challenging or impossible to use for olive trees. This directly supports the researcher’s claim that the ring-counting method often can’t be used for olive trees because it identifies a specific characteristic of olive trees that could render this approach impracticable.

Choice A is incorrect because the probable age of the oldest olive tree doesn’t explain why counting rings wouldn’t work for determining olive tree age. The older age of some olive trees might make counting more tedious but doesn’t pose an insurmountable obstacle to adopting the method. The researcher’s claim is about the feasibility of the ring-counting method for olive trees, not about the potential impracticality of employing this method for particularly long-lived trees. Choice B is incorrect because the fact that narrow growth rings might indicate harsh growing conditions has no direct bearing on the claim that counting rings often can’t be used to determine olive tree age. It is possible that growth rings that are too narrowly spaced might be difficult to count, but the researcher’s claim relates to the inapplicability of the ring-counting method to olive trees in general rather than to olive trees that have experienced harsh conditions. Moreover, as long as they are visible, even narrow growth rings might permit the ring-counting method to be used to determine tree age. Choice D is incorrect because the ideal climate conditions for olive trees don’t explain why counting rings wouldn’t work as a method for determining their age. While growing conditions might affect ring formation patterns, the simple fact that olive trees thrive in hot, dry environments doesn’t directly address why the conventional method of counting rings would be ineffective for determining their age.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 303bcc41

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 303bcc41
3.0 2.5 2.0 1.5 1.0 0.5 0Global biomass (millionsof metric tons) African bush elephant eastern gray kangaroo wild boar white-tailed deerTop Four Species of Wild LandMammals by Global Biomass species
  • The Global biomass data for the 4 bars are as follows:
    • African bush elephant: 1.3 million metric tons
    • eastern gray kangaroo: 0.6 million metric tons
    • wild boar: 1.9 million metric tons
    • white-tailed deer: 2.7 million metric tons

Global biomass is the total mass of living material, such as animals and plants, on Earth. A team of scientists estimated the global biomass, by species, of various wild land mammals. The team found that the species with the highest global biomass is the blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the sentence?

  • wild boar.

  • eastern gray kangaroo.

  • African bush elephant.

  • white-tailed deer.

ID: 303bcc41 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it accurately identifies the species with the highest global biomass, the white-tailed deer at approximately 2.7 million metric tons. The graph shows the global biomass for four wild land mammal species with the highest global biomass. The graph indicates that the African bush elephant’s global biomass is about 1.3 million metric tons, the eastern gray kangaroo’s is about 0.6 million metric tons, and the wild boar’s is about 1.9 million metric tons. These values are all lower than the global biomass for the white-tailed deer’s approximately 2.7 million metric tons. Thus, the white-tailed deer is the species with the highest global biomass.

Choice A is incorrect because although the graph indicates that the wild boar has a relatively high global biomass of about 1.9 million metric tons, it is not the species with the highest value. The white-tailed deer is the species with the highest global biomass at about 2.7 million metric tons. Choice B is incorrect because the eastern gray kangaroo has the lowest global biomass value shown on the graph at about 0.6 million metric tons, not the highest global biomass. The white-tailed deer has the highest at about 2.7 million metric tons. Choice C is incorrect because although the African bush elephant has a substantial global biomass of about 1.3 million metric tons, it is not the species with the highest value according to the graph. The white-tailed deer has the highest global biomass at about 2.7 million metric tons.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 16ce90d9

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 16ce90d9

In 2018, scientists discovered an immense aggregation of Muusoctopus robustus (pearl octopuses) along a hydrothermal vent 3,200 meters beneath the ocean’s surface. Water temperatures at this site—named the Octopus Garden—climb as high as 11°C, much warmer than the ambient 1.6°C typical at this depth. Based on observations made over three years, scientists concluded that temperatures at the site likely confer reproductive benefits and that the site is used exclusively for reproduction—6,000 M. robustus adults, hatchlings, and eggs were observed at the garden, but no juveniles were present.

Which statement about M. robustus and the Octopus Garden is best supported by the text?

  • M. robustus leave the Octopus Garden upon reaching an intermediary stage of development.

  • The M. robustus population at the Octopus Garden remains stable despite variations in water temperature. 

  • M. robustus nests in the Octopus Garden contain on average fewer but larger eggs than nests at similar ocean depths. 

  • The Octopus Garden provides an ideal feeding ground for M. robustus hatchlings.

ID: 16ce90d9 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the M. robustus population at the Octopus Garden. The text states that the scientists concluded that the site is likely used only for reproduction because over three years they saw many adults, freshly hatched octopuses, and eggs but didn’t see any juveniles. This suggests that the M. robustus octopuses that hatch at the Octopus Garden leave the site when they reach an intermediary state of development, returning only as adults for reproductive purposes.

Choice B is incorrect because the text never discusses the stability of the M. robustus population at the site, only that the scientists observed 6,000 adults, hatchlings, and eggs there. Further, the text presents the site’s temperatures as likely beneficial. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t provide any details about the eggs at the site and makes no mention of nests; it indicates only that eggs are present along with hatchlings and adults. Choice D is incorrect because the text makes no mention of the hatchlings feeding at the Octopus Garden, indicating only that the temperatures at the site are probably beneficial and that the site is likely used for reproduction.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 25fc2534

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 25fc2534

Marine archaeologists have found much of the wooden hull of a sixteenth-century ship in a flooded quarry in southeast England. When it is exposed to air and water, wood rots quickly unless it is protected by sediment that shields it from oxygen. Therefore, the discovered ship was likely blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • covered by a protective sediment layer in the quarry.

  • one of several other ships buried in the same quarry.

  • a confirmation of previous theories about the type of wood that was used in sixteenth-century ships.

  • first constructed much earlier than previously thought.

ID: 25fc2534 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the discovered ship. The text states that much of the ship’s wooden hull was found in a quarry. The text also states that wood rots quickly unless it is protected by sediment, which shields the wood from exposure to oxygen. It is therefore reasonable to infer that the surviving portion of the ship’s hull was covered by an oxygen-shielding layer of sediment.

Choice B is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests other ships have been or are likely to be found in the same quarry. The fact that much of this ship’s wood survived for centuries in the quarry does raise the possibility that there might be other preserved ships, but the text provides no support for such a conclusion. Choice C is incorrect because the text does not address the type of wood used in sixteenth-century ships or any theories pertaining to wood choice in ships. Choice D is incorrect because the text states only that the ship is from the sixteenth century, with no other dates offered for its construction, and thus there is no basis to consider alternative ages for the ship. Additionally, even if the ship was constructed earlier, it is not logically connected to the text’s discussion of how it was preserved.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 145da981

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 145da981

Effect of Paywall Introduction on Newspaper Companies’ Revenues

Newspaper Total revenue change ($ in thousands) Percentage change (%) Newspaper size
Los Angeles Times 93,966 12.5 large
The New York Times 235,788 20 large
The Denver Post negative 3,765 negative 1 small
Sun Sentinel negative 24,899 negative 11.9 small
Chicago Tribune 94,492 19 large

Digital paywalls restrict access to online content to those with a paid subscription. In an investigation of the effect of paywalls on newspaper company revenues for print and digital subscriptions and advertising, Doug J. Chung and colleagues compared actual outcomes (with a paywall) to control estimates (without a paywall). The researchers concluded that introducing a paywall is generally more beneficial for larger newspapers, which have high circulation and tend to offer a substantial amount of unique online content.

Which choice best describes data from the table that support Chung and colleagues’ conclusion?

  • The Chicago Tribune and the Los Angeles Times had similar total revenue changes, but the Los Angeles Times had a smaller percentage change.

  • The Los Angeles Times had a 12.5% revenue change, while the Chicago Tribune had a 19% revenue change.

  • The New York Times had a 20% revenue change, while the Denver Post had a negative 1% revenue change.

  • The Denver Post had only a negative 1% revenue change, which was the smallest percentage change of the selected companies.

ID: 145da981 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The conclusion is that paywalls are more beneficial for large newspapers. This data supports that conclusion by comparing the revenue increase of a large newspaper to the revenue decrease of a small newspaper.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the conclusion. It doesn’t include any small newspapers for comparison. Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the conclusion. It doesn’t include any small newspapers for comparison. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the conclusion. It doesn’t include any large newspapers for comparison.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 2d2983b3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 2d2983b3

Pigments give paints and dyes their color. Ocher is a mineral-based pigment used to make several colors, including red. Red ocher gets its color from iron oxide. Pigments can also be plant-based; plant-based pigments contain a high level of carbon. In a 2023 study, archaeologists tested the red pigment on decorated beads made by members of the Natufian culture approximately 15,000 years ago. The test showed that the pigment found on several beads contained no iron but had a high level of carbon. This finding led the researchers to conclude that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • the Natufian beads examined in the study are the oldest surviving examples of the use of plant-based pigments for decorating beads. 

  • the Natufian beadmakers used plant-based pigments rather than ocher to decorate some of the beads examined in the study. 

  • the Natufian beadmakers preferred to use plant-based pigments because they are much brighter than mineral-based pigments are.

  • the pigments used by the Natufian beadmakers likely came from plants because ocher was difficult to find.

ID: 2d2983b3 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of the chemical content of pigments. The text begins by differentiating between two kinds of pigments: mineral-based pigments such as red ocher, which get their color from iron oxide, and plant-based pigments, which have a high level of carbon. The text then goes on to describe an analysis by archaeologists of the pigment of decorated beads made by members of the Natufian culture around 15,000 years ago. The archaeologists found that the red pigment on some of the beads contained no iron but had a high level of carbon. Since red ocher gets its color from iron oxide, while plant-based pigments have a high level of carbon, the researchers concluded that the Natufian beadmakers used plant-based pigments to decorate some of the beads examined in the study.

Choice A is incorrect because the text does not indicate that the Natufians were the first to use plant-based pigments, so it cannot be concluded that the beads in the study were the oldest surviving examples of the use of plant-based pigments for decorating beads. Choice C is incorrect because the text does not compare the brightness of plant-based and mineral-based pigments. Choice D is incorrect. While it can be concluded that the Natufian beadmakers used plant-based pigments because the pigment found on several beads had a high level of carbon, the text offers no evidence that ocher was difficult to find.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 224428ac

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 224428ac
400 300 200 100 0Number of condors 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020California Condor Populations 2014–2020Year captive wild
  • The following 2 lines are shown:
    • captive
    • wild
  • The captive line:
    • Begins at 2014, 193 condors
    • Falls gradually to 2015, 167 condors
    • Rises gradually to 2016, 170 condors
    • Rises gradually to 2017, 173 condors
    • Rises gradually to 2018, 176 condors
    • Rises gradually to 2019, 181 condors
    • Falls gradually to 2020, 175 condors
  • The wild line:
    • Begins at 2014, 228 condors
    • Rises gradually to 2015, 268 condors
    • Rises gradually to 2016, 276 condors
    • Rises gradually to 2017, 290 condors
    • Rises gradually to 2018, 312 condors
    • Rises gradually to 2019, 337 condors
    • Falls gradually to 2020, 329 condors

The California Condor Recovery Program is working to protect this large, rare American vulture from extinction. The program captured 27 wild condors in 1987 in order to protect and breed them. Captive birds have been reintroduced into the wild since 1992. Although the California condor is still a rare species, many biologists claim that the program has been reasonably successful.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that support the biologists’ claim?

  • The number of captive California condors steadily decreased between 2014 and 2020.

  • The numbers of California condors living both in captivity and in the wild decreased only slightly from 2019 to 2020.

  • The difference between the number of captive and wild California condors remained relatively steady between 2014 and 2017. 

  • The number of wild California condors increased overall from 2014 to 2020 and exceeded the number of those living in captivity.

ID: 224428ac Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it best describes data from the graph that support the biologists’ claim. The text accompanying the graph describes the efforts of the California Condor Recovery Program, which is working to protect the condor from extinction. The program captured some condors in 1987 in order to breed them and has been reintroducing captive birds into the wild since 1992. Many biologists claim the program has been a success, as the text explains, and it is reasonable to infer that an indication of the program’s success would be an increase in the wild condor population compared to the captive condor population. The graph shows the wild and captive condor populations in California between 2014 and 2020. In 2014 there were slightly more than 200 wild condors in California, but by 2020 there were more than 300. Meanwhile, over the same period the captive condor population remained under 200. Thus, the biologists’ claim about the program’s success is supported by data from the graph showing that the number of wild California condors increased overall from 2014 to 2020 and exceeded the number of those living in captivity.

Choice A is incorrect because it does not accurately describe data from the graph. The number of captive California condors did not steadily decrease between 2014 and 2020: rather, it increased slightly during some years and decreased slightly during others, generally remaining at slightly less than 200. Choice B is incorrect. Even though the graph does show a slight decrease in both the captive and wild condor populations from 2019 to 2020, such a decrease during a particular year would not demonstrate the program’s success. Choice C is incorrect because it does not accurately describe data from the graph. The difference between the number of captive and wild California condors did not remain relatively steady between 2014 and 2017. While the number of captive condors remained roughly the same during that period, the number of wild condors increased, so the difference between the number of captive and wild condors increased as well.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID eca09a92

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: eca09a92

If an animal has been extinct for a long time, how can scientists learn what color it was? One group of scientists came up with a possible answer. When the scientists examined the fossilized feather of an extinct bird, they found melanosomes in it. Melanosomes produce pigment, or grains of color, inside cells. Because melanosomes are shaped differently depending on which colors they produce, the scientists hypothesized that they could blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • show how melanosomes can be found in fossils belonging to animals from other extinct species.

  • determine the colors of the bird based on the appearance of the melanosomes in the feather.

  • explain why the melanosomes in the feather were so well preserved.

  • identify the colors of extinct animals whose fossils lack melanosomes.

ID: eca09a92 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of a hypothesis by one group of scientists about how to determine the colors of a long-extinct animal. The text explains that the scientists found melanosomes in the fossilized feather of an extinct bird and that melanosomes are responsible for producing color inside cells. The text also explains that melanosomes have different shapes depending on the colors they produce. Given this information, it follows that the scientists hypothesized that they could determine the colors of the extinct bird by examining the shapes of the melanosomes in the feather.

Choice A is incorrect because the text never suggests that the scientists were seeking to show how melanosomes can be found in fossils belonging to animals from other extinct species. Rather, the text indicates that the scientists were seeking to identify an extinct bird’s colors, and the text strongly suggests that the scientists hypothesized that they could achieve their goal by examining the shapes of the melanosomes in the bird’s fossilized feather. Choice C is incorrect because the text never suggests that the scientists were seeking to explain why the melanosomes in the feather were so well preserved. Rather, the text indicates that the scientists were seeking to identify an extinct bird’s colors, and the text strongly suggests that the scientists hypothesized that they could achieve their goal by examining the shapes of the melanosomes in the bird’s fossilized feather. Choice D is incorrect because the text suggests only one method of identifying the colors of extinct animals: by examining the shapes of melanosomes found in fossils. The text doesn’t discuss other methods for learning the colors of extinct animals and therefore provides no support for the idea that the scientists could identify the colors of extinct animals whose fossils lack melanosomes.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID ede3f942

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: ede3f942

Total Areas of Five Tribal Nations in California

Tribal nation Location Area (square miles)
Hoopa Valley Tribe Northern California 141.68
La Jolla Band of Luiseño Indians Southern California 13.50
Pauma Band of Luiseño Mission Indians Southern California 9.36
Agua Caliente Band of Cahuilla Indians Northern California 53.68
Los Coyotes Band of Cahuilla and Cupeño Indians Southern California 39.21

In what is now the state of California, there are over 100 tribal nations. One of the largest, the Hoopa Valley Tribe, covers 141.68 square miles in the northern part of the state. However, most tribal nations in California are less than 50 square miles in total area. For example, the total area of the Los Coyotes Band of Cahuilla and Cupeño Indians in Southern California is blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to support the statement?

  • 13.50 square miles.

  • 53.68 square miles.

  • 9.36 square miles.

  • 39.21 square miles.

ID: ede3f942 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to support the statement about the tribal nation of Los Coyotes Band of Cahuilla and Cupeño Indians in California. The text states that most tribal nations in California are less than 50 square miles in total area and provides Los Coyotes Band of Cahuilla and Cupeño Indians as an example. According to the table, the tribal nation of Los Coyotes Band of Cahuilla and Cupeño Indians covers 39.21 square miles in Southern California, which is less than 50 square miles.

Choice A is incorrect because it cites the area of La Jolla Band of Luiseño Indians (13.50 square miles), not that of Los Coyotes Band of Cahuilla and Cupeño Indians. Choice B is incorrect because it cites the area of the Agua Caliente Band of Cahuilla Indians (53.68 square miles), not that of Los Coyotes Band of Cahuilla and Cupeño Indians. Additionally, this area is greater than 50 square miles and therefore wouldn’t be an effective example for illustrating the text’s statement that most tribal nations in California are less than 50 square miles in total area. Choice C is incorrect because it cites the area of the Pauma Band of Luiseño Mission Indians (9.36 square miles), not that of Los Coyotes Band of Cahuilla and Cupeño Indians.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 7dab4d5d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 7dab4d5d
600 540 480 420 360 300 240 180 120 60 0Mean test score (higher scores indicate greater attentiveness) first second thirdMean Attentiveness Scores by Leave Time Condition Test administration no leave 2–4 days leave 1–5 weeks leave
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • no leave
    • 2–4 days leave
    • 1–5 weeks leave
  • The data for the 3 categories are as follows:
    • First test administration: 
      • no leave: 546
      • 2–4 days leave: 455
      • 1–5 weeks leave: 545
    • Second test administration:
      • no leave: 470
      • 2–4 days leave: 575
      • 1–5 weeks leave: 518
    • Third test administration:
      • no leave: 500
      • 2–4 days leave: 510 
      • 1–5 weeks leave: 480

To investigate potential cognitive benefits of taking leave from work, psychologist Jan Packer and colleagues conducted a six-month study of Australian university staff members who took no leave from work during the study, took 2–4 days of leave, or took 1–5 weeks of leave. Tests of attentiveness were administered to participants three times during the study: at random for the no-leave staff, and for the rest, one week before their leave, one week following their return to work, and one week after the second test administration. After analyzing the results, the researchers concluded that longer leave times might not confer a greater cognitive benefit than shorter leave times do.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that support the researchers’ conclusion?

  • In the second test administration, participants who took 2–4 days of leave had higher average attentiveness scores than did those who took no leave, but in the third test administration, those who took no leave had higher average scores than those who took 1–5 weeks of leave.

  • In the first test administration, participants who took 2–4 days of leave had lower average attentiveness scores than did those who took 1–5 weeks of leave and those who took no leave.

  • In both the second and third test administrations, participants who took 2–4 days of leave had higher average attentiveness scores than did participants who took 1–5 weeks of leave.

  • In the second and third test administrations, participants who took 2–4 days of leave had higher average attentiveness scores than did those who took no leave.

ID: 7dab4d5d Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it describes data from the graph that support Jan Packer and colleagues’ conclusion about the effect of leave time on the attentiveness of university employees. According to the text, the researchers’ study design included a group of employees who took no leave, a group who took 2–4 days of leave, and a group who took 1–5 weeks of leave. The participants who took leave were tested for attentiveness one week before their leave (the first test administration), one week after their return to work (the second test administration), and two weeks after their return (the third test administration). The participants who took no leave were tested three times at random. The graph shows that at one week after their return to work, participants who took only 2–4 days of leave had an average attentiveness score of between 540 and 600, while participants who took 1–5 weeks of leave had an average score of between 480 and 540. At two weeks after their return to work, those who took only 2–4 days of leave had an average score of between 480 and 540, while those who took 1–5 weeks of leave had an average score of approximately 480. In other words, the graph shows that on both post-leave testing dates, participants with longer leave times had lower average attentiveness scores than those with shorter leave times. Since attentiveness is an indicator of cognitive functioning, these data confirm Packer and colleagues’ conclusion that longer leave times might not confer a greater cognitive benefit than shorter leave times do.

Choice A is incorrect. The graph does show that in the second test administration, participants who took 2–4 days of leave had higher average attentiveness scores than did those who took no leave and also shows that in the third test administration, those who took no leave had higher average scores than those who took 1–5 weeks of leave. But neither of these findings has a direct bearing on the researchers’ conclusion, which concerns a comparison of participants who took 2–4 days of leave with those who took 1–5 weeks, rather than a comparison of either group with participants who took no leave. Choice B is incorrect. Although the graph does show that in the first test administration, participants who took 2–4 days of leave had lower average attentiveness scores than did those who took 1–5 weeks of leave and those who took no leave, this test administration occurred before any participants went on leave; therefore, these results have no bearing on the researchers’ conclusion about how the amount of leave taken by participants affected their cognitive functioning. Choice D is incorrect. Although the graph does show that in the second and third test administrations, participants who took 2–4 days of leave had higher average attentiveness scores than did those who took no leave, the researchers’ conclusion is about the effects of short leave compared with the effects of long leave, not the effects of short leave compared with the effects of no leave. These results are therefore irrelevant to the conclusion.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 014b3394

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 014b3394

Average Number and Duration of Torpor Bouts and Arousal Episodes for Alaska Marmots and Arctic Ground Squirrels, 2008–2011

Feature Alaska marmots Arctic ground squirrels
torpor bouts 12 10.5
duration per bout 13.81 days 16.77 days
arousal episodes 11 9.5
duration per episode 21.2 hours 14.2 hours

When hibernating, Alaska marmots and Arctic ground squirrels enter a state called torpor, which minimizes the energy their bodies need to function. Often a hibernating animal will temporarily come out of torpor (called an arousal episode) and its metabolic rate will rise, burning more of the precious energy the animal needs to survive the winter. Alaska marmots hibernate in groups and therefore burn less energy keeping warm during these episodes than they would if they were alone. A researcher hypothesized that because Arctic ground squirrels hibernate alone, they would likely exhibit longer bouts of torpor and shorter arousal episodes than Alaska marmots.

Which choice best describes data from the table that support the researcher’s hypothesis?

  • The Alaska marmots’ arousal episodes lasted for days, while the Arctic ground squirrels’ arousal episodes lasted less than a day.

  • The Alaska marmots and the Arctic ground squirrels both maintained torpor for several consecutive days per bout, on average.

  • The Alaska marmots had shorter torpor bouts and longer arousal episodes than the Arctic ground squirrels did.

  • The Alaska marmots had more torpor bouts than arousal episodes, but their arousal episodes were much shorter than their torpor bouts. 

ID: 014b3394 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it describes data from the table that support the researcher’s hypothesis. According to the text, the researcher hypothesized that Arctic ground squirrels would exhibit longer torpor bouts and shorter arousal episodes than Alaska marmots do—or, put the other way, that the marmots would show shorter torpor bouts and longer arousal episodes than the ground squirrels do. The table shows data about torpor bouts and arousal episodes for the two species from 2008 to 2011. According to the table, the average duration of torpor bouts was 13.81 days for Alaska marmots, shorter than the average of 16.77 days for Arctic ground squirrels, and the average duration of arousal episodes was 21.2 hours for Alaska marmots, longer than the average of 14.2 hours for Arctic ground squirrels. Thus, the table supports the researcher’s hypothesis by showing that Alaska marmots had shorter bouts of torpor and longer arousal episodes than Arctic ground squirrels did.

Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately describes data from the table and doesn’t support the researcher’s hypothesis. The table shows that the average duration of arousal episodes was less than a day for both Alaska marmots (21.2 hours) and Arctic ground squirrels (14.2 hours). Additionally, information about arousal episodes for Alaska marmots and Arctic ground squirrels isn’t sufficient to support a hypothesis involving comparisons of both arousal episodes and torpor bouts for those animals. Choice B is incorrect because it doesn’t support the researcher’s hypothesis, which involves comparisons of arousal episodes as well as torpor bouts for Alaska marmots and Arctic ground squirrels. Noting that both animals had torpor bouts lasting several days, on average, doesn’t address arousal episodes at all, nor does it reveal how the animals’ torpor bouts compared. Choice D is incorrect because it doesn’t support the researcher’s hypothesis. Although the table does show that Alaska marmots had more torpor bouts (12) than arousal episodes (11) and that their arousal episodes were much shorter than their torpor bouts (21.2 hours and 13.81 days, respectively), comparing data across only Alaska marmot behaviors isn’t sufficient to support a hypothesis about torpor and arousal behaviors of both Alaska marmots and Arctic ground squirrels.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID d76ea360

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: d76ea360

Puerto Rico is an island in the Caribbean Sea. Indigenous people there started raising guinea pigs about 1,700 years ago. Guinea pigs had originally been domesticated much earlier in both Colombia and Peru. So were guinea pigs brought to Puerto Rico from Colombia or from Peru? Ancient Caribbean trade routes connected Puerto Rico with Colombia but not with Peru. Therefore, guinea pigs in Puerto Rico probably came from Colombia and descended from Colombian guinea pigs.

Which finding, if true, would most directly weaken the underlined claim?

  • Ancient guinea pigs in Puerto Rico were genetically less similar to ancient guinea pigs in Colombia than to ancient guinea pigs in Peru.

  • Guinea pigs are common in ancient Puerto Rican art, especially in pottery.

  • Modern breeds of guinea pigs don’t look like images of guinea pigs in ancient art from Puerto Rico, Colombia, and Peru.

  • The guinea pig population of ancient Colombia was much larger than the guinea pig population of ancient Peru.

ID: d76ea360 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly weaken the underlined claim that guinea pigs in Puerto Rico probably came from Colombia and descended from Colombian guinea pigs. The text makes this claim based on the fact that ancient trade routes connected Puerto Rico with Colombia but not with Peru. However, if it’s true that ancient guinea pigs in Puerto Rico were genetically less similar to ancient guinea pigs in Colombia than to ancient guinea pigs in Peru, this would suggest that the Puerto Rican guinea pigs didn’t descend from Colombian guinea pigs. Instead, Puerto Rican guinea pigs’ greater genetic similarity to Peruvian guinea pigs implies that ancient guinea pigs in Puerto Rico were likely brought to the island from Peru, despite the lack of direct ancient trade routes between the two regions.

Choice B is incorrect. While a finding about how common guinea pig imagery is in ancient Puerto Rican art would indicate the cultural significance of guinea pigs, it wouldn’t be relevant to a claim about the geographical origin or descent of the guinea pig population on the island. The guinea pigs depicted in the artwork could have descended from guinea pigs in either Colombia or Peru; therefore, the finding would neither weaken nor strengthen the claim that guinea pigs in Puerto Rico probably came from Colombia and descended from Colombian guinea pigs. Choice C is incorrect because the finding that modern breeds of guinea pigs don’t look like images of guinea pigs in ancient art from Puerto Rico, Colombia, and Peru wouldn’t address the ancestral relationships between ancient guinea pig populations in these three regions. Therefore, the finding would neither weaken nor strengthen the claim that guinea pigs in Puerto Rico probably came from Colombia and descended from Colombian guinea pigs. Choice D is incorrect because a finding about the population sizes of guinea pigs in ancient Colombia and ancient Peru wouldn’t be relevant to a claim about which population the Puerto Rican guinea pigs likely descended from. The smaller guinea pig population of Peru could still have been the source for the Puerto Rican guinea pig population.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 66fd248a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 66fd248a

“Poetry” is a 1919 poem by Marianne Moore. The poem highlights an ambivalence toward poetry as the speaker acknowledges its merits while also expressing a sense of displeasure, writing blank

Which quotation from “Poetry” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “nor is it valid / to discriminate against ‘business documents and / school-books’; all these phenomena are important.”

  • “One must make a distinction / however: when dragged into prominence by half poets, the result is not / poetry”

  • “when [poems] become so derivative as to become unintelligible, the / same thing may be said for all of us—that we / do not admire what / we cannot understand.”

  • “Reading [poetry], however, with a perfect contempt for it, one discovers that there is in / it after all, a place for the genuine.”

ID: 66fd248a Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most effectively uses a quotation from "Poetry" to illustrate the claim that the poem highlights an ambivalence, or a conflicted attitude, toward poetry. In the quotation, the speaker suggests that one might read poetry with "contempt," or disdain, for it, but even with this negative attitude one will find "a place for the genuine." Because the quotation expresses conflicting attitudes toward poetry, it effectively illustrates the speaker’s ambivalence in discussing the merits and displeasure of reading poetry.

Choice A is incorrect because it doesn’t mention poetry or show ambivalence. Choice B is incorrect. Although the idea of "half poets" may seem to relate to ambivalence, the speaker mentions only negative attitudes toward certain works and the quotation therefore lacks a contrasting positive or neutral attitude that would be needed to indicate ambivalence. Choice C is incorrect because the speaker mentions only negative attitudes toward certain works and the quotation therefore lacks a contrasting positive or neutral attitude that would be needed to indicate ambivalence.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 7921b86b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 7921b86b

Oluwaseyi Moejoh cofounded U-recycle Initiative Africa when she was only a teenager. Moejoh and her team founded the organization to teach young people how their actions affect the environment and why recycling is important. For example, the organization put on an exhibit of art made using recycled materials. 

According to the text, what is one reason Moejoh and others founded U-recycle Initiative Africa? 

  • To bring attention to overlooked African artists

  • To teach young people why recycling is important

  • To help adults gain important outdoor skills

  • To give teenagers advice about starting businesses

ID: 7921b86b Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it describes a reason that Moejoh and team founded U-recycle Initiative Africa. The text mentions two reasons the initiative was founded: to teach young people about how they affect the environment and to teach them “why recycling is important.” Thus, teaching the importance of recycling to young people accurately describes a motivation that the text cites as a reason for the initiative’s founding.

Choice A is incorrect. Although art is mentioned in the text, there are no details about artists or whether they are being overlooked. Choice C is incorrect because the text is explicitly about young people and their relationship to the environment and recycling. There is no mention of adults or outdoor skills. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text discusses young people, which likely includes teenagers, there is no mention of starting businesses.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 46e45728

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 46e45728

Daily Distance Traveled by Adult Mountain Lions in Three Seasons

Season Kilometers per day traveled by adult females Kilometers per day traveled by adult males
cold-dry 9.28 15.81
monsoon 12.64 18.93
hot-dry 12.48 18.87

Wildlife researcher Dana L. Karelus and her colleagues tracked the movements of female and male adult mountain lions over three seasons: the cold-dry season, the hot-dry season, and the monsoon season. They found that the least amount of travel per day occurred in blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • the cold-dry season for both females and males.

  • the cold-dry season for females and the hot-dry season for males.

  • the hot-dry season for females and the monsoon season for males.

  • the monsoon season for both females and males. 

ID: 46e45728 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. Females only traveled 9.28 km per day in the cold-dry season, versus 12.64 and 12.48 km per day in the monsoon and hot-dry seasons, respectively. Males only traveled 15.81 km per day per day in the cold-dry season, versus 18.93 and 18.87 km per day in the monsoon and hot-dry seasons, respectively. So, the cold-dry season was the season where both males and females had the least daily travel.

Choice B is incorrect. Although females traveled least in the cold-dry season, males didn’t travel least in the hot-dry season. Instead, they traveled less per day in the cold-dry season as well. Choice C is incorrect. Females had less daily travel in the cold-dry season than in the hot-dry season (9.28 versus 12.48 km per day), and males had less daily travel in the cold-dry season than in the monsoon season (15.81 versus 18.93 km per day). Choice D is incorrect. In fact, both females and males traveled the most kilometers per day in the monsoon season.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 9c407117

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 9c407117

A student performs an experiment testing her hypothesis that a slightly acidic soil environment is more beneficial for the growth of the plant Brassica rapa parachinensis (a vegetable commonly known as choy sum) than a neutral soil environment. She plants sixteen seeds of choy sum in a mixture of equal amounts of coffee grounds (which are highly acidic) and potting soil and another sixteen seeds in potting soil without coffee grounds as the control for the experiment. The two groups of seeds were exposed to the same growing conditions and monitored for three weeks.

Which finding, if true, would most directly weaken the student’s hypothesis?

  • The choy sum planted in the soil without coffee grounds were significantly taller at the end of the experiment than the choy sum planted in the mixture of soil and coffee grounds.

  • The choy sum grown in the soil without coffee grounds weighed significantly less at the end of the experiment than the choy sum grown in the mixture of soil and coffee grounds.

  • The choy sum seeds planted in the soil without coffee grounds sprouted significantly later in the experiment than did the seeds planted in the mixture of soil and coffee grounds.

  • Significantly fewer of the choy sum seeds planted in the soil without coffee grounds sprouted plants than did the seeds planted in the mixture of soil and coffee grounds.

ID: 9c407117 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it describes an experimental outcome that would most directly weaken the student’s hypothesis. According to the text, the student hypothesizes that Brassica rapa parachinensis (choy sum) will benefit more from acidic soil than it will from neutral soil. The text then explains that the student planted 16 choy sum seeds in potting soil with coffee grounds added to increase acidity and another 16 seeds in soil without coffee grounds as a control (a group identical to the experimental group except for the experimental modification being tested). If the hypothesis were correct, the plants in the more acidic soil-and-coffee-grounds mixture would grow faster than those in the control group. However, choice A proposes a scenario in which the plants in soil without coffee grounds were “significantly taller” than those in the more acidic mixture—an outcome that weakens the hypothesis that higher acidity is beneficial to the plants’ growth.

Choice B is incorrect. If the choy sum planted in the neutral soil produced less plant matter and therefore weighed less than the choy sum planted in the acidic soil-and-coffee-grounds mixture, this finding would strengthen the student’s hypothesis, not weaken it. Choice C is incorrect. If seeds planted in neutral soil (without coffee grounds) sprouted significantly later than seeds planted in the acidic soil-and-coffee-grounds mixture, this finding would strengthen, not weaken, the student’s hypothesis that acidic soil benefits choy sum. Choice D is incorrect. If seeds planted in the neutral soil (without coffee grounds) sprouted significantly fewer plants than seeds planted in the acidic soil-and-coffee-grounds mixture did, this finding would strengthen, not weaken, the student’s hypothesis that choy sum benefits from acidic soil.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 6d69ab93

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 6d69ab93

Initially observed in 2017, the interstellar object ‘Oumuamua is the first object of its kind to be seen in our solar system. Researchers have been puzzled because its acceleration cannot be entirely explained by the gravitational pull of nearby bodies: there must be a nongravitational influence on its velocity and trajectory. Some previously suggested explanations for this nongravitational acceleration involve mechanisms that are unlikely or unrealistic, such as geometric effects from ‘Oumuamua being potentially composed of several spatially separated bodies. Now, Jennifer Bergner and colleagues propose that the nongravitational acceleration is due to the gaseous expulsion of entrapped hydrogen from ‘Oumuamua’s water-rich icy body.

Which statement, if true, would most strongly support the claim made by Bergner and colleagues about the cause of ‘Oumuamua’s acceleration?

  • Existing proposed models of outgassing from ‘Oumuamua include the direct conversion of nitrogen or carbon monoxide from a solid to a gaseous state without becoming liquid, but these models have theoretical or observational inconsistencies.

  • ‘Oumuamua’s trajectory is inconsistent with a nongravitational acceleration that would be caused by the release of hydrogen gas resulting from the processing of water ice (H2O), but the interstellar object’s observable properties can be explained if it has a significant component of molecular hydrogen ice (H2).

  • Since nongravitational accelerations of interstellar objects are several orders of magnitude weaker than gravitational accelerations, deviation from behavior that could be fully attributed to gravitational pull has been detected on a limited number of objects similar to ‘Oumuamua.

  • Exposure to interstellar cosmic radiation can result in the formation of embedded pockets of hydrogen gas in water ice; moreover, when traveling through the solar system, ‘Oumuamua experienced warming sufficient to alter its icy structure and allow for outgassing.

ID: 6d69ab93 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents findings that, if true, would support the claim made by Bergner and colleagues that the nongravitational acceleration of ‘Oumuamua is due to the expulsion of entrapped hydrogen. The text first introduces the observation of a unique interstellar object named ‘Oumuamua and goes on to explain that the object exhibited nongravitational acceleration that could not be fully attributed to the expected cause: gravitational pull of nearby celestial bodies. The text concludes by stating that Bergner and colleagues claim that the nongravitational acceleration is caused by expulsion of hydrogen gas from ‘Oumuamua’s water-rich icy body. To support this claim requires evidence that hydrogen gas could be present within ‘Oumuamua at all, which this answer choice presents: cosmic radiation can result in embedded pockets of hydrogen gas in water ice. Additionally, evidence that this gas can be released from such a body is required to fully support the claim, which this answer choice goes on to provide: ‘Oumuamua experienced sufficient warming as it traveled through the solar system to alter its icy structure and release the hydrogen gas. Thus, this answer choice provides the best evidence to support Bergner and colleagues’ claim.

Choice A is incorrect because this answer choice concerns faults with previous models of outgassing from ‘Oumuamua of carbon monoxide and nitrogen, which would not support a claim regarding hydrogen outgassing. Furthermore, inconsistencies in other models would not provide evidence in support of a different model or explanation. Choice B is incorrect. The evidence presented in this answer choice would weaken the claim proposed by Bergner and colleagues that the nongravitational acceleration of ‘Oumuamua is caused by the expulsion of hydrogen gas because this answer choice suggests that there is evidence that refutes this claim: ‘Oumuamua’s trajectory is inconsistent with a nongravitational acceleration caused by the release of hydrogen gas. Furthermore, the remaining portion of this answer choice is unrelated to the claim. Choice C is incorrect because the claim being made by Bergner and colleagues concerns the expulsion of entrapped hydrogen gas, but this answer choice is concerned solely with the differences in magnitude of gravitational and nongravitational acceleration, which would not support Bergner’s claim. Furthermore, this answer choice discusses interstellar objects similar to ‘Oumuamua, but the text states that ‘Oumuamua is the first observed object of its kind in our solar system, so evidence from other, similar bodies would not be available.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 84136d69

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 84136d69

Five of the Responses to Survey about Actions to Conserve Energy

Action Action category Percentage of respondents selecting action (%)
Use efficient cars/hybrids efficiency 2.8
Change thermostat setting curtailment 6.3
Use bike or public transportation instead of car curtailment 12.9
Use efficient light bulbs efficiency 3.6
Turn off lights curtailment 19.6

In a survey of public perceptions of energy use, researcher Shahzeen Attari and her team asked respondents to name the most effective action ordinary people can take to conserve energy. The team categorized each action as either an efficiency or a curtailment and found that respondents tended to name curtailments more often than they did efficiencies. For example, 19.6% of respondents stated that the most effective way to conserve energy is to turn off the lights, while only blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the text?

  • 6.3% of respondents said it was most effective to use efficient cars or hybrids.

  • 2.8% of respondents said it was most effective to change the thermostat setting.

  • 12.9% of respondents said it was most effective to use a bike or public transportation.

  • 3.6% of respondents said it was most effective to use efficient light bulbs.

ID: 84136d69 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the text’s discussion of Attari and her team’s survey results. The text states that the team asked respondents to identify the most effective action people can take to save energy, with the team classifying each action as either an efficiency or a curtailment. According to the text, respondents named curtailments more often than they did efficiencies. The text then offers an example that begins by citing a curtailment, turning off the lights, that was selected by a relatively high percentage of respondents (19.6%). Given that the example is presented in support of the idea that more respondents selected curtailments than efficiencies, the most effective way to complete the example is by citing an efficiency, using efficient light bulbs, that was selected by a relatively low percentage of respondents (only 3.6%).

Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately describes data in the table. The data indicate that 6.3% of respondents said the most effective action was to change the thermostat setting, not to use efficient cars or hybrids. Choice B is incorrect because it inaccurately describes data in the table. The data indicate that 2.8% of respondents said the most effective action was to use efficient cars/hybrids, not to change the thermostat setting. Choice C is incorrect because it mentions a curtailment (using a bike or public transportation) and not an efficiency. The text states that a research team asked respondents to identify the most effective action people can take to save energy, with the team classifying each action as either an efficiency or a curtailment. According to the text, respondents named curtailments more often than they did efficiencies. The text then offers an example that begins by citing a curtailment, turning off the lights, that was selected by a relatively high percentage of respondents (19.6%). Given that the example is presented in support of the idea that more people selected curtailments than efficiencies, the most effective way to complete the example is not by referring to another curtailment but rather by referring to an efficiency that was selected by a relatively low percentage of respondents.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 95146ebb

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 95146ebb

The ice melted on a Norwegian mountain during a particularly warm summer in 2019, revealing a 1,700-year-old sandal to a mountaineer looking for artifacts. The sandal would normally have degraded quickly, but it was instead well preserved for centuries by the surrounding ice. According to archaeologist Espen Finstad and his team, the sandal, like those worn by imperial Romans, wouldn’t have offered any protection from the cold in the mountains, so some kind of insulation, like fabric or animal skin, would have needed to be worn on the feet with the sandal.

What does the text indicate about the discovery of the sandal?

  • Temperatures contributed to both protecting and revealing the sandal.

  • The discovery revealed that the Roman Empire had more influence on Norway than archaeologists previously assumed.

  • Archaeologists would have found the sandal eventually without help from the general public.

  • The sandal would have degraded if it hadn’t been removed from the ice.

ID: 95146ebb Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. A "particularly warm summer" revealed the sandal, and centuries of ice kept it "well preserved."

Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t reflect the information in the text. The sandal is similar to Roman sandals, but there is no indication that it was a result of Roman influence. Choice C is incorrect. The text doesn’t support this choice. We don’t have enough information to know whether or not archaeologists would have found the sandal without people like the treasure-hunting mountaineer. Choice D is incorrect. The text says the opposite of this choice. The sandal was preserved by the ice for centuries.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 9077be25

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 9077be25

Alice Guy-Blaché directed hundreds of films between 1896 and 1920. She wanted audiences to feel like they were watching real people on screen. She would encourage actors in her films to behave naturally. Guy-Blaché even hung a large sign reading “Be Natural” in the studio where she made her films. At the time, films lacked sound, so actors needed to rely solely on their bodies and facial expressions to convey emotions. As a result, actors tended to highly exaggerate their actions and expressions. The style of acting in Guy-Blaché’s films was therefore blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • copied by many of Guy-Blaché’s peers.

  • familiar to actors who had worked on other directors’ films. 

  • very unusual for the period. 

  • better than film acting today.

ID: 9077be25 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The text tells us that “actors tended to highly exaggerate their actions and expressions” in films produced from 1896 to 1920. This suggests that the natural style of acting in Guy-Blaché’s films was very unusual for the time.

Choice A is incorrect. The text never discusses any other directors copying the style of acting found in Guy-Blaché’s films, and in fact suggests the opposite—that it was unusual for directors to suggest this style of acting at the time. Choice B is incorrect. The text never discusses actors’ familiarity with the style of acting found in Guy-Blaché’s films, so there isn’t much basis for this inference. But since the text tells us that other films of the period used a highly exaggerated form of acting, we might predict that the natural style in Guy-Blachés films would have been unfamiliar to these actors. Choice D is incorrect. The text never discusses film acting today, so there’s no basis for this inference.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID f27559d4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: f27559d4

Volunteering, or giving time for a community service for free, is a valuable form of civic engagement because helping in a community is also good for society as a whole. In a survey of youths in the United States, most young people said that they believe volunteering is a way to help people on an individual level. Meanwhile, only 6% of the youths said that they think volunteering is a way to help fix problems in society overall. These replies suggest that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • many young people think they can volunteer only within their own communities.

  • volunteering may be even more helpful than many young people think it is.

  • volunteering can help society overall more than it can help individual people.

  • many young people may not know how to find ways to volunteer their time.

ID: f27559d4 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of volunteering. The text asserts that volunteering benefits both the community in which one volunteers and society as a whole. It then states that in a survey of young people, a majority of respondents said that volunteering helps individuals, but only 6% of respondents said that volunteering helps society as a whole. If volunteering does in fact help society as a whole, as the text says, but only 6% of young people believe it does, then it’s reasonable to conclude that volunteering is more helpful than many young people think it is. 

Choice A is incorrect because the text discusses young people’s beliefs about the benefits of volunteering, not where young people believe they are able to volunteer. Nothing in the text suggests that many young people believe they are only able to volunteer in their own communities. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text indicates that volunteering is beneficial for society as a whole, nothing in the text suggests that volunteering can benefit society more than it can benefit individual people. The text doesn’t compare the benefits to society with the benefits to individuals. Choice D is incorrect because the text discusses young people’s beliefs about the benefits of volunteering, not how to find volunteering opportunities. There’s nothing in the text to suggest that many young people don’t know how to volunteer. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID eaf22802

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: eaf22802

A student in a political science course is writing a paper on Aristotle’s The Politics, in which Aristotle offers his opinion on political instability and gives advice on how constitutions can be preserved. Aristotle observes that different forms of government can fall in different ways—for example, oligarchies might grant power to military leaders during wartime who refuse to relinquish that power during peacetime—but some methods of preserving order apply across all forms of government. The student claims that in particular Aristotle asserts that in a healthy state obedience to law must be as close to absolute as possible and that even minor infractions should not be ignored.

Which quotation from a philosopher’s analysis of The Politics would best support the student’s claim?

  • “When constructing his argument regarding the characteristics of a well-functioning government, Aristotle asserts that ‘Transgression creeps in unperceived and at last ruins the state,’ illustrating this idea with a comparison to frequent small expenditures slowly and almost imperceptibly chipping away at a fortune until it is ultimately depleted.”

  • “When Aristotle writes on the necessity of avoiding corruption in government, he proposes that ‘every state should be so administered and so regulated by law that its magistrates cannot possibly make money.’ In particular, he thinks oligarchies are particularly susceptible to corruption through bribery.”

  • “When Aristotle considers the health of constitutions, he states that ‘Constitutions are preserved when their destroyers are at a distance, and sometimes also because they are near, for the fear of them makes the government keep in hand the constitution.’ He holds that rulers who wish to see constitutions preserved must continually remind the populace of the dangers that would result from a constitutional collapse.”

  • “When contrasting different forms of government, Aristotle holds that ‘oligarchies may last, not from any inherent stability in such forms of government, but because the rulers are on good terms both with the unenfranchised and with the governing classes.’ That is, oligarchic leaders who wish to hold on to power will introduce members of disenfranchised classes into government in a participatory role.”

ID: eaf22802 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents the quotation that best supports the student’s claim that in The Politics, Aristotle gives advice on preserving constitutions—preventing governments from falling and maintaining order—and specifically asserts that in a healthy state, laws must be followed as strictly as possible and infractions should not be overlooked even if they are minor. The philosopher states that when Aristotle builds his argument about the characteristics of a well-functioning government, Aristotle asserts that transgression, or violation of law, will ruin the state if it "creeps in unperceived," or goes unnoticed. The philosopher then adds that Aristotle illustrates this point by comparing the situation to one in which small but frequent expenses diminish a fortune almost unnoticeably until, eventually, the fortune is entirely gone. In other words, the philosopher indicates that Aristotle makes the point that total obedience to law preserves a healthy state while even small violations, if ignored, will undermine the health of the state.

Choice B is incorrect because the philosopher addresses Aristotle’s observation about corruption within the government (in particular, preventing the possibility that members of the government can take bribes), and although corruption can involve infractions, the observation is about a subset of people within the state and isn’t directly connected to the importance of upholding total obedience to the law throughout the state. Choice C is incorrect because the philosopher discusses Aristotle’s point about those who would intentionally destroy a constitution altogether and the need for rulers to remind the populace that it would be dangerous for a constitution to collapse, but neither idea is directly connected to the importance of upholding total obedience to the law. Choice D is incorrect because the philosopher explains that Aristotle makes the point that oligarchic leaders may retain power by having members of disenfranchised classes participate in government alongside governing classes, and this point doesn’t address the importance of ensuring obedience to the law and addressing even minor violations.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID d1539546

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: d1539546

Tides can deposit large quantities of dead vegetation within a salt marsh, smothering healthy plants and leaving a salt panne—a depression devoid of plants that tends to trap standing water—in the marsh’s interior. Ecologist Kathryn Beheshti and colleagues found that burrowing crabs living within these pannes improve drainage by loosening the soil, leading the pannes to shrink as marsh plants move back in. At salt marsh edges, however, crab-induced soil loosening can promote marsh loss by accelerating erosion, suggesting that the burrowing action of crabs blank    

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • can be beneficial to marshes with small pannes but can be harmful to marshes with large pannes.

  • may promote increases in marsh plants or decreases in marsh plants, depending on the crabs’ location.

  • tends to be more heavily concentrated in areas of marsh interiors with standing water than at marsh edges.

  • varies in intensity depending on the size of the panne relative to the size of the surrounding marsh.

ID: d1539546 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The text says that crab burrowing in the pannes enables plants to grow there again. It also says that crab burrowing at the edges of the marsh speeds up marsh loss. This suggests that burrowing crabs can either help or hurt marshes, depending on where they’re located.

Choice A is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never discusses pannes of different sizes. Choice C is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never suggests that crabs do more burrowing in the pannes (the areas with standing water) than they do at the edges. Rather, the text says that the burrowing that happens in the pannes is beneficial, while the burrowing that happens at the edges is harmful. Choice D is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never discusses the intensity of crab burrowing, nor does it discuss the size of the panne relative to the size of the marsh.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID faaf484f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: faaf484f

Percent of Residents of City Areas in Favor of Adding More Bike Paths

City Area Percent of area’s residents in favor of adding more bike paths
North East 12%
North Central 26%
North West 46%
South West 88%
South Central 33%

A city’s Parks and Recreation department is interested in providing residents with more opportunities for bicycling in their neighborhoods. They’re considering adding more bike paths and conducted a survey to understand where demand for more bike paths is highest. The survey indicated the highest level of demand, with 88 percent of the residents interested in adding more bike paths, is in the city’s blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • South West area.

  • South Central area.

  • North East area.

  • North Central area.

ID: faaf484f Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement about the bike path survey. The table presents the percent of residents from five city areas who are in favor of adding more bike paths. With 88 percent of residents in favor of adding bike paths, the city’s South West area has the highest level of demand. 

Choice B is incorrect because, according to the data in the table, 33 percent of residents in the South Central area of the city are in favor of additional bike paths. The area of the city that has 88 percent of its surveyed residents in favor of additional bike paths will best complete the statement. Choice C is incorrect because, according to the data in the table, 12 percent of residents in the North East area of the city are in favor of additional bike paths. The area of the city that has 88 percent of its surveyed residents in favor of additional bike paths will best complete the statement. Choice D is incorrect because, according to the data in the table, 26 percent of residents in the North Central area of the city are in favor of additional bike paths. The area of the city that has 88 percent of its surveyed residents in favor of additional bike paths will best complete the statement.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 627d93e3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 627d93e3
0.25 0.20 0.15 0.10 0.05 0Radial growth (centimeters per year) current moderate change extreme changeModeled Radial Growth of Sugar Maple TreesClimate scenario with nitrogen without nitrogen
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • with nitrogen
    • without nitrogen
  • All values are approximate.
  • The data for the 3 categories are as follows:
    • current:
      • with nitrogen: 0.21 centimeters per year
      • without nitrogen: 0.16 centimeters per year
    • moderate change:
      • with nitrogen: 0.19 centimeters per year
      • without nitrogen: 0.15 centimeters per year
    • extreme change:
      • with nitrogen: 0.06 centimeters per year
      • without nitrogen: 0.04 centimeters per year

Inés Ibáñez and colleagues studied a forest site in which some sugar maple trees receive periodic fertilization with nitrogen to mimic the broader trend of increasing anthropogenic nitrogen deposition in soil. Ibáñez and colleagues modeled the radial growth of the trees with and without nitrogen fertilization under three different climate scenarios (the current climate, moderate change, and extreme change). Although they found that climate change would negatively affect growth, they concluded that anthropogenic nitrogen deposition could more than offset that effect provided that change is moderate rather than extreme.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that support Ibáñez and colleagues’ conclusion?

  • Growth with nitrogen under the current climate exceeded growth with nitrogen under moderate change, but the latter exceeded growth without nitrogen under extreme change. 

  • Growth without nitrogen under the current climate exceeded growth without nitrogen under moderate change, but the latter exceeded growth with nitrogen under extreme change. 

  • Growth with nitrogen under moderate change exceeded growth without nitrogen under moderate change, but the latter exceeded growth without nitrogen under extreme change. 

  • Growth with nitrogen under moderate change exceeded growth without nitrogen under the current climate, but the latter exceeded growth with nitrogen under extreme change. 

ID: 627d93e3 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it describes data from the graph that support Ibáñez and colleagues’ conclusion that increasing anthropogenic nitrogen deposition can compensate for the negative effect of climate change on tree growth if that change is moderate but not if it’s extreme. The bar graph shows the growth of sugar maple trees with and without nitrogen fertilization under three different climate-change scenarios: current conditions, a moderate change, and an extreme change. According to the graph, radial growth without nitrogen fertilization is projected to be about 0.16 centimeters (cm) under current conditions, 0.15 cm under a moderate change, and 0.04 cm under an extreme change. The graph also shows that with nitrogen fertilization, growth is projected to be about 0.18 centimeters under a moderate change but only about 0.06 centimeters under an extreme change. Thus, the data in the graph support the researchers’ conclusion by showing greater growth for a moderate change using nitrogen fertilization than they do either under current conditions without nitrogen fertilization or under an extreme change with nitrogen fertilization.

Choice A is incorrect. Although it accurately represents the data in the graph, this fact pattern doesn’t support Ibáñez and colleagues’ conclusion that the decline in radial growth due to climate change will be partly offset by higher levels of anthropogenic nitrogen, but only if change to the climate is moderate and not if it’s extreme. To support this would require comparing radial growth without nitrogen fertilization under current climate conditions to the growth with nitrogen fertilization under both moderate and extreme changes. This choice mentions only growth with nitrogen fertilization under current climate conditions and moderate change and growth without nitrogen fertilization under an extreme change, which don’t provide a basis to determine whether higher nitrogen in the future will be able to offset reduced growth due to climate change. Choice B is incorrect. Although it accurately represents the data in the graph, this fact pattern doesn’t support Ibáñez and colleagues’ conclusion that the decline in radial growth due to climate change will be partly offset by higher levels of atmospheric nitrogen, but only if change to the climate is moderate and not if it’s extreme. The support needed would compare radial growth under current climate conditions without nitrogen fertilization to the growth with nitrogen fertilization under moderate and extreme changes. This choice mentions only growth without nitrogen fertilization under current conditions and moderate change and growth with nitrogen fertilization under extreme change, which don’t provide a basis to determine whether higher nitrogen in the future will be able to offset reduced growth due to climate change. Choice C is incorrect. Although it accurately represents the data in the graph, this fact pattern doesn’t support Ibáñez and colleagues’ conclusion that the decline in radial growth due to climate change will be partly offset by higher levels of atmospheric nitrogen, but only if change to the climate is moderate and not if it’s extreme. The support needed would compare radial growth without adding nitrogen under current climate conditions to the growth with nitrogen fertilization under moderate and extreme changes. This choice mentions only the growth with and without nitrogen fertilization under moderate climate change and growth without nitrogen fertilization under extreme change, which don’t provide a basis to determine whether higher nitrogen in the future will be able to offset reduced growth due to climate change.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID bbfa2bb6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: bbfa2bb6

Hevea brasiliensis, a tree in the Amazon rainforest, is the world’s main source of natural rubber. The tree produces a milky substance called latex that is used to make rubber. The bark of Hevea brasiliensis is helpful for the process of making rubber because it has a unique structure that makes it easy to collect latex. A network of tubes in the tree’s inner bark helps the latex to flow out easily when people make small cuts into the bark. 

What feature of Hevea brasiliensis does the text say is helpful for the process of making rubber?

  • Its latex produces rubber of an especially high quality. 

  • Its bark has a unique structure that makes it easy to collect latex. 

  • It is able to grow in a wide variety of climates around the world. 

  • It is one of only two trees in the Amazon that produce latex.

ID: bbfa2bb6 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately states what feature of Hevea brasiliensis is helpful for the process of making rubber. According to the text, this tree species produces latex, which is used to make rubber, and its inner bark contains a "network of tubes" that, when cut, enables the latex to flow out. The text explicitly states that this feature of Hevea brasiliensis is "helpful for the process of making rubber."

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention the quality of the rubber produced from the latex of Hevea brasiliensis or compare its quality to that of rubber produced from other sources. Choice C is incorrect because the text never discusses the climates in which Hevea brasiliensis grows. Moreover, the text mentions only one region where this tree is found: the Amazon rainforest. Choice D is incorrect. Because the text states that Hevea brasiliensis is the world’s "main source of natural rubber," it can be inferred that there is at least one other source. However, the text doesn’t specify whether that other source is also a tree species and, if so, whether that species grows in the Amazon rainforest.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID df9c5a1d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: df9c5a1d

Juvenile Plants Found Growing on Bare Ground and in Patches of Vegetation for Five Species

Species Bare ground Patches of vegetation Total Percent found in patches of vegetation
T. moroderi 9 13 22 59.1%
T. libanitis 83 120 203 59.1%
H. syriacim 95 106 201 52.7%
H. squamatum 218 321 539 59.6%
H. stoechas 11 12 23 52.2%

Alicia Montesinos-Navarro, Isabelle Storer, and Rocío Perez-Barrales recently examined several plots within a diverse plant community in southeast Spain. The researchers calculated that if individual plants were randomly distributed on this particular landscape, only about 15% would be with other plants in patches of vegetation. They counted the number of juvenile plants of five species growing in patches of vegetation and the number growing alone on bare ground and compared those numbers to what would be expected if the plants were randomly distributed. Based on these results, they claim that plants of these species that grow in close proximity to other plants gain an advantage at an early developmental stage.

Which choice best describes data from the table that support the researchers’ claim?

  • For all five species, less than 75% of juvenile plants were growing in patches of vegetation.

  • The species with the greatest number of juvenile plants growing in patches of vegetation was H. stoechas.

  • For T. libanitis and T. moroderi, the percentage of juvenile plants growing in patches of vegetation was less than what would be expected if plants were randomly distributed.

  • For each species, the percentage of juvenile plants growing in patches of vegetation was substantially higher than what would be expected if plants were randomly distributed.

ID: df9c5a1d Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it provides the most direct support from the table for the claim that the plants growing in close proximity to other plants gained an advantage at an early developmental stage. The table shows the total number of juvenile plants from five species that were found growing on bare ground and in patches of vegetation as well as the percentage of the total number of each species that were growing in patches of vegetation. For each of the five species, more than 50% of the juvenile plants were growing in patches of vegetation. The text notes, however, that a random distribution of plants across the landscape should result in only about 15% of the plants being found in patches of vegetation. In other words, for each of the five species, the percentage of juvenile plants found growing in patches of vegetation was substantially higher than could be explained by chance alone. This finding supports the claim in the text: if plants growing in patches are overrepresented among plants that have survived to the juvenile stage, as the data show they are, then it suggests that it’s advantageous for plants at an early stage of development to grow in patches of vegetation.  

Choice A is incorrect because the statement that less than 75% of juvenile plants were found growing in patches of vegetation, while true, doesn’t clearly support the claim that the plants growing in close proximity to other plants gained an advantage at an early developmental stage. Saying that less than 75% of plants were found in patches doesn’t indicate how the percentage growing in patches compares with the percentage that would be expected to grow in patches on the basis of chance alone, which is the information necessary to evaluate whether the claim in the text has support in the table. Put another way, if the percentage of plants found growing in patches was 15% or less, it would be true that less than 75% were found in patches, but the data would in fact weaken the claim in the text, not strengthen it, since the data would show that growing in patches wasn’t advantageous. Choice B is incorrect because only 12 plants of this species were found growing in patches, which was the lowest number of any species, not the greatest number. Additionally, even if it were true that this species had the greatest number of plants growing in patches, the finding would be irrelevant to the claim that plants of all five species gained an advantage by growing in close proximity to other plants. Choice C is incorrect because 59.1% of the plants of these species were found growing in patches, which is a far greater percentage, not a lower percentage, than what would be expected if plants were randomly distributed (around 15%). Additionally, if it were true that the percentage of plants growing in patches was lower for these species than what would be expected from chance alone, that finding would weaken, not strengthen, the claim that growing in patches is advantageous. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID df654a2b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: df654a2b

Zines are small-scale, self-printed magazines. They have been around since the Black literary zine Fire!! was created in the 1920s. Since then, zines have appealed to creators looking for an inexpensive form of expression to share with a select audience. Zine creators often mix art with social commentary and challenge mainstream culture. At first, the internet appeared to replace the zine, but this old form persists. Today, there are enough zines in the United States to support annual zine festivals. This suggests that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • creators can reach a larger audience by posting online.

  • zines are still a meaningful form of expression.

  • creators can continue to explore new art forms.

  • zines are good sources of mainstream culture.

ID: df654a2b Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically follows from the text’s point about zines today. The text describes zines as a form of expression that goes back to the 1920s and asserts that "this old form persists." The text then indicates that multiple zines exist in the US today and that they are popular enough to support annual festivals, a point that suggests that people continue to view zines as a meaningful form of expression.

Choice A is incorrect because the text’s point about current interest in zines in the US doesn’t logically suggest that zine creators can reach a larger audience by posting online. The text indicates that zines have long had an audience, and there’s no indication that online posts have caused that audience to grow; there’s no mention of zine creators’ use of the internet at all. Choice C is incorrect because the idea that zine creators can explore new art forms—while objectively true—isn’t logically connected to the text’s discussion of zines as an existing form of expression (one that often includes art) or the point that zines are still popular enough in the US to support annual festivals. Choice D is incorrect because the point that zines are popular enough in the US today to support annual festivals doesn’t logically suggest that zines present mainstream culture (or are themselves mainstream); moreover, the text states that zine creators often "challenge mainstream culture."

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 1d0b5bf4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 1d0b5bf4

To create the poems in her 2017 collection One Last Word, poet Nikki Grimes used a writing method called the golden shovel. This method often involves choosing a line from an existing poem and then using each word from that line as the last word of each line in a new poem. Grimes wanted the poems in One Last Word to honor important Black poets of the past, so she chose lines by poets such as Langston Hughes and Georgia Douglas Johnson. Writing in this way can be challenging and might seem as though it would produce awkward poems. However, reviewers praised One Last Word as a beautiful and powerful tribute to the poets who inspired it. This reaction suggests that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • most reviewers didn’t understand Grimes’s goal for One Last Word.

  • Grimes successfully used the golden shovel method to achieve her goal for One Last Word.

  • Langston Hughes and Georgia Douglas Johnson are two of Grimes’s favorite poets.

  • Grimes inspired many other writers to create poems using the golden shovel method.

ID: 1d0b5bf4 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Nikki Grimes’s poetry collection One Last Word. The text explains that Grimes used a writing method called the golden shovel to create the poems in her book. According to the text, the method involves basing a new poem on a line from an existing poem. The text then mentions Langston Hughes and Georgia Douglas Johnson as examples of important Black poets whose lines of poetry form the basis of Grimes’s poems. The text goes on to say that this writing method is difficult and that the resulting poems can be awkward, but reviewers have positively reviewed Grimes’s book. If the reviewers of One Last Word specifically note that the work is a “beautiful and powerful tribute to the poets who inspired it,” then they must have appreciated how Grimes used the golden shovel method to pay tribute to other poets. This suggests that Grimes was successful in using the golden shovel method to achieve her goal of honoring Black poets in her book.

Choice A is incorrect because the reaction suggests that most reviewers did understand Grimes’s goal for her book. According to the text, the reviewers noted that the poems in her book were a “beautiful and powerful tribute to the poets who inspired it.” Earlier, the text claims that Grimes intended the poems “to honor important Black poets of the past,” so in their praise of her book, the reviewers clearly indicated that they understood Grimes’s goal. Choice C is incorrect. Although it’s likely that Grimes sought to honor Hughes and Johnson in her book of poetry because they’re among her favorite poets, this fact isn’t suggested by the reviewers’ positive reaction to her book. Instead, the reaction suggests that Grimes was successful in her use of the golden shovel method. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss whether other writers were inspired by Grimes to use the golden shovel method in their poetry. The text mentions the poets Hughes and Johnson as examples of poets honored in Grimes’s book and describes reviewers’ positive reception of her book, but it doesn’t detail Grimes’s impact on other writers.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID dc47c2ac

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: dc47c2ac

Although most songbirds build open, cupped nests, some species build domed nests with roofs that provide much more protection. Many ecologists have assumed that domed nests would provide protection from weather conditions and thus would allow species that build them to have larger geographic ranges than species that build open nests do. To evaluate this assumption, a research team led by evolutionary biologist Iliana Medina analyzed data for over 3,000 species of songbirds.

Which finding from Medina and her colleagues’ study, if true, would most directly challenge the assumption in the underlined sentence?

  • Species that build open nests tend to have higher extinction rates than species that build domed nests.

  • Species that build open nests tend to be smaller in size than species that build domed nests.

  • Species that build open nests tend to use fewer materials to build their nests than species that build domed nests do.

  • Species that build open nests tend to have larger ranges than species that build domed nests.

ID: dc47c2ac Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would challenge the assumption that many ecologists have made about the connection between the building of domed nests and geographic range in songbirds. The text says that many ecologists have assumed that since domed nests provide protection from weather conditions, songbird species that build such nests should be able to have larger geographic ranges than songbird species that build open nests do. If Medina and her colleagues found that species that build open nests tend to have larger geographic ranges than species that build domed nests do, their finding would show the opposite of what the ecologists have assumed. It would therefore challenge the ecologists’ assumption.

Choice A is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that there’s a relationship between songbird species’ extinction rates and their geographic ranges. The finding that species that build open nests tend to have higher extinction rates than species that build domed nests do would therefore have no clear bearing on the ecologists’ assumption that domed nests allow species that build them to have larger geographic ranges than those of species that build open nests. Choice B is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that there’s a relationship between songbird species’ sizes and their geographic ranges. The finding that species that build open nests tend to be smaller in size than species that build domed nests are would therefore have no clear bearing on the ecologists’ assumption that domed nests allow species that build them to have larger geographic ranges than those of species that build open nests. Choice C is incorrect because although the text indicates that many ecologists have assumed that there’s a connection between how songbird species build their nests and the species’ geographic ranges, the text says that this assumption is based on the shape of the nests—that is, whether the nests are domed or open—not the number of materials used. The finding that species that build open nests tend to use fewer materials to build their nests than species that build domed nests do would therefore have no clear bearing on the ecologists’ assumption that domed nests allow species that build them to have larger geographic ranges than those of species that build open nests.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 7fdba7ad

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 7fdba7ad

The Milky Way galaxy is composed of millions of stars in a relatively flat structure containing a thin disk and a thick disk. Based on computer simulations and analysis of data on the brightness, position, and chemical composition of about 250,000 stars in the thick disk (collected from two telescopes, one in China and one orbiting in space), astrophysicists Maosheng Xiang and Hans-Walter Rix claim that the thick disk of the Milky Way formed in two distinct phases rather than a single one.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ claim?

  • The telescopes used by the researchers have detected stars of similar ages in galaxies other than the Milky Way.

  • There’s an age difference of about 2 billion years between certain stars in the thick disk.

  • The thin disk contains about twice as many stars that can be seen from Earth as the thick disk does.

  • The stars in the Milky Way tend to have very similar chemical compositions.

ID: 7fdba7ad Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. A consistent age difference of 2 billion years between certain stars within the thick disk would support the claim that the thick disk formed in two phases instead of one, with the second phase beginning 2 billion years after the first phase.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the claim. The researchers base their claim on their study of stars inside the thick disk of the Milky Way. This choice makes a comparison to stars in other galaxies, which isn’t relevant. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the claim. The researchers base their claim on their study of stars inside the thick disk. This choice makes a comparison to the thin disk, which isn’t relevant. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the claim. It’s too general. The claim is specifically about the thick disk.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 485962a6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 485962a6

Astronomers investigated the Arabia Terra region of Mars because it appears to contain irregularly shaped craters that may have been caused by massive volcanic explosions. In their investigations of Arabia Terra, the researchers found remnants of ash deposits in an amount and thickness that would result from a massive volcanic eruption. However, erosion and past resurfacing events could have modified the surface of the planet. Therefore, blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • the current makeup of the Arabia Terra region might not accurately reflect the volcanic activity of Mars’s past.

  • eruptions from Mars’s volcanoes were likely not as massive as astronomers previously believed.

  • ash was most likely expelled from multiple different volcanoes on Mars’s surface.

  • the craters found in the Arabia Terra region were necessarily created by events other than volcanic eruptions.

ID: 485962a6 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of the Arabia Terra region of Mars. According to the text, there are craters in Arabia Terra that could be the result of volcanic activity, and researchers have found evidence of ash deposits consistent with a large eruption. The text goes on to note, however, that erosion and other events could have altered the surface of Mars. This observation suggests that current conditions on Mars’s surface are not necessarily a reliable guide to past events—some signs of past events could have been transformed or erased entirely—and thus the current makeup of Arabia Terra may not accurately reflect past volcanic activity. 

Choice B is incorrect because the text suggests only that past events could have changed Mars’s surface such that its current appearance isn’t a reliable guide to past activity, not that it’s likely that past eruptions were not as massive as astronomers previously believed. Nothing in the text supports a conclusion about the likely size of past eruptions. Choice C is incorrect because the observation that resurfacing events could have changed the appearance of Mars doesn’t imply that the ash discussed in the text likely came from multiple volcanoes. Although it’s possible that the ash came from different volcanoes, there’s no information in the text supporting a conclusion about how likely that possibility is. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that the Arabia Terra craters had to have been created by something other than volcanic eruptions. Although the text does suggest that the evidence consistent with volcanic eruptions shouldn’t be taken as definitive proof of past eruptions, that doesn’t mean that the craters couldn’t have been created by eruptions, only that we can’t be certain they were. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID d2e0cba5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: d2e0cba5

In a study of new technology adoption, Davit Marikyan et al. examined negative disconfirmation (which occurs when experiences fall short of one’s expectations) to determine whether it could lead to positive outcomes for users. The team focused on established users of  “smart home” technology, which presents inherent utilization challenges but tends to attract users with high expectations, often leading to feelings of dissonance. The researchers found that many users employed cognitive mechanisms to mitigate those feelings, ultimately reversing their initial sense of disappointment.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Research suggests that most users of smart home technology will not achieve a feeling of satisfaction given the utilization challenges of such technology.

  • Although most smart home technology is aimed at meeting or exceeding users’ high expectations, those expectations in general remain poorly understood.

  • Research suggests that users with high expectations for a new technology can feel content with that technology even after experiencing negative disconfirmation.

  • Although negative disconfirmation has often been studied, little is known about the cognitive mechanisms shaping users’ reactions to it in the context of new technology adoption.

ID: d2e0cba5 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The passage begins by describing the study, and concludes with its results: "many users employed cognitive mechanisms to mitigate those feelings [of negative disconfirmation]."

Choice A is incorrect. This is the opposite of what the text claims. Rather, the researchers found that "many users" reversed "their initial sense of disappointment." Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t reflect the text. What the expectations of smart home tech users are is not discussed. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t reflect the text. How often these topics have been studied is not mentioned.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID bcbcc43f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: bcbcc43f

The ancient Sumerian civilization formed around 4000 BCE between two large rivers in an area that is now Iraq and Syria. The extremely hot and sunny weather in that area helped crops grow very quickly, but it also made it hard to keep the crops from drying up and dying. So, the Sumerians used water from the rivers in their farming. That method worked so well that they often could harvest even more crops than they needed in a season. As a result, the Sumerians blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • harvested crops only on the hottest days of each season.

  • found ways to shield their crops from the sun.

  • did not begin farming until long after 4000 BCE.

  • were able to store extra crops for later use.

ID: bcbcc43f Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically completes the text’s discussion of Sumerian civilization and crop growth. The text mentions the hot, sunny weather in the area where the Sumerians lived, which made crops grow quickly but also made it difficult to keep them alive. The Sumerians solved this problem by using river water for their farming—as a result, they often harvested more crops than were needed in a season. It follows that the Sumerians must have needed to find something to do with the surplus crops—that is, they stored the extra crops for later use.

Choice A is incorrect because it doesn’t logically follow that a surplus in crops would lead the Sumerians to choose only certain days of the season to harvest. Nor is there any indication in the text that the Sumerians improved their farming methods with the goal of reducing the time spent farming. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the Sumerians tried to shield their crops from the sun: in fact, the text indicates that the sunny weather helped crops grow very quickly and that the Sumerians used river water to allow crops to be exposed to the sun without dying. Choice C is incorrect. Having a surplus of crops wouldn’t have caused the Sumerians to begin farming until long after 4000 BCE: in fact, since the text indicates that the Sumerian civilization formed around 4000 BCE and farming was a part of that civilization, the statement that Sumerians only began farming long after 4000 BCE isn’t supported by the text.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID d8b78a2b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: d8b78a2b

Red velvet cake has been a favorite dessert of many for years, but the recipe’s origins are unclear. A bakery in Dallas, Texas, argued that it created the first recipe for the cake when the bakery opened in the 1860s. The Adams Extract Co., which sells baking products, claims to have created the recipe in the 1930s to help market their red dye. A US hotel and a Canadian department store also publicly stated that the red velvet cake sold in each of their establishments in the 1930s was an original creation, each alleging that it was the recipe author. No clear evidence has emerged to favor one of these claims over the others, however. It thus seems that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • red velvet cake was first baked sometime before the 1860s.

  • we cannot say at present who actually baked the first red velvet cake.

  • none of the supposed inventors of red velvet cake are likely to have invented it.

  • the bakery in Dallas, Texas, probably invented red velvet cake.

ID: d8b78a2b Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically completes the text’s discussion of competing claims about the origins of red velvet cake. The text states that the origins of the recipe for red velvet cake "are unclear." The text then presents four different entities that claim to have created the first red velvet cake recipe: a Dallas bakery (1860s), the Adams Extract Co. (1930s), a US hotel (1930s), and a Canadian department store (1930s). Lastly, the text states that "no clear evidence has emerged to favor one of these claims over the others." Given this information, it most logically follows that it’s not possible to determine who baked the first red velvet cake, as there is insufficient evidence to determine which claim, if any, is correct.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t provide information indicating that red velvet cake existed before the 1860s. According to the text, the earliest claim for creating red velvet cake comes from a bakery in Dallas, Texas, that asserted it developed the first recipe for the cake at the time of the bakery’s opening in the 1860s. There’s no textual support for the conclusion that the cake existed before this earliest claimed date, since the text presents only competing claims starting from the 1860s and extending to the 1930s without evidence of earlier origins. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t support the conclusion that none of the supposed inventors of red velvet cake likely invented the cake. The text states that multiple entities claim to have invented the recipe and that "no clear evidence has emerged to favor one of these claims over the others." This lack of decisive evidence doesn’t logically lead to the conclusion that all the claims are false; it merely indicates that the cake’s true origins can’t be determined with the available evidence. The text leaves open the possibility that one of the claimants could indeed be the actual inventor. Choice D is incorrect because the text provides no basis for concluding that the Dallas bakery is "probably" the inventor of red velvet cake. While the text mentions that this bakery claims to have created the recipe in the 1860s (making it the earliest claim), the text explicitly states that there’s no definitive evidence supporting any of the claims about the cake’s origins over the others. The text presents all claims as equally lacking in definitive supporting evidence.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID cf3acc50

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: cf3acc50

Compiled in the late 1500s largely through the efforts of Indigenous scribes, Cantares Mexicanos is the most important collection of poetry in Classical Nahuatl, the principal language of the Aztec Empire. The poems portray Aztec society before the occupation of the empire by the army of Spain, and marginal notes in Cantares Mexicanos indicate that much of the collection’s content predates the initial invasion. Nonetheless, some of the poems contain inarguable references to beliefs and customs common in Spain during this era. Thus, some scholars have concluded that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • while its content largely predates the invasion, Cantares Mexicanos also contains additions made after the invasion.

  • although those who compiled Cantares Mexicanos were fluent in Nahuatl, they had limited knowledge of the Spanish language.

  • before the invasion by Spain, the poets of the Aztec Empire borrowed from the literary traditions of other societies.

  • the references to beliefs and customs in Spain should be attributed to a coincidental resemblance between the societies of Spain and the Aztec Empire.

ID: cf3acc50 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text. The text explains that the Cantares Mexicanos contains poems about the Aztec Empire from before the Spanish invasion. Furthermore, it indicates that notes in the collection attest that some of these poems predate the Spanish invasion, while some customs depicted are likely Spanish in origin. The implication is that some poems were composed before the invasion but the references to Spanish customs could have come about only after the invasion, and thus that the collection includes content that predates the invasion and also content from after the invasion.

Choice B is incorrect because the text clearly indicates that the collection is in Nahuatl, not Spanish, so the compilers’ unfamiliarity with Spanish is irrelevant to whether the collection contains material composed after the Spanish invasion. Choice C is incorrect because the text mentions only the Aztec Empire and Spain: there is no information about the relationship of Aztec literature to any traditions other than its own or Spain’s. Choice D is incorrect because the text states that some of the poems make “inarguable references” to common Spanish customs, which conflicts with the idea that these references can reasonably be attributed to mere coincidence.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 7254379e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 7254379e

Some residents in a neighborhood in Atlanta recently founded a community garden inside a local park. The residents agreed to volunteer to take care of the garden together. Students at a local high school surveyed some of the volunteers as part of a project to understand the impact of the new garden. The students concluded that the new garden benefited the community overall by fostering connections and relationships between the volunteers and other residents of the neighborhood who weren’t volunteering at the garden. 

Which quotation from a survey respondent would best illustrate the students’ conclusion?

  • “Our first challenge was deciding what plants would be most suitable to the climate and soil here in Atlanta. We needed plants that could survive the hot and humid summers.”

  • “We’re lucky to have a few expert gardeners living in the neighborhood. Some volunteers and I have gone to them a few times with questions, and they’ve been eager to help us and to learn more about the project.”

  • “I love getting the opportunity to be outside and around nature, especially on days when the weather is nice.”

  • “My favorite thing about the garden is the feeling of pride I get when I walk by each day. As I see the plants growing, I feel good knowing I had a small part in creating this beautiful space in the neighborhood.”

ID: 7254379e Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. This choice shows how volunteers have been interacting with nonvolunteer neighbors and benefiting from their gardening expertise: proof of the connections enabled by the garden.

Choice A is incorrect. This volunteer describes the challenges of developing the garden, which isn’t connected to the conclusion about the garden fostering connections between volunteers and neighbors. Choice C is incorrect. While the volunteer expresses enthusiasm for the garden, they don’t mention any interactions with other people, which is what the students need to show for their conclusion. Choice D is incorrect. The respondent enjoys and takes pride in the garden, but they don’t mention interacting with neighbors or other volunteers.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 4802f6a5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 4802f6a5

Aptamers—synthetic DNA or RNA molecules that bind to target molecules—can be used to test for foodborne bacterial pathogens, though their specificity (the probability of returning a negative result in the absence of the focal pathogen) in real-world foods has been unclear. Sandeep Somvanshi et al. fabricated test paper incorporating aptamers targeting strain O157:H7 of the bacteria Escherichia coli; the paper shifts from pink to purple as the aptamers bind to target molecules. Somvanshi et al. tested the paper in store-bought pear juice they treated with E. coli O157:H7, other strains of E. coli, or other bacteria species. Following exposure, the paper from the O157:H7 test was purple while papers from the other tests were pink, suggesting that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • aptamer-based tests in real-world foods are more likely to show a high degree of specificity if the focal pathogen is E. coli O157:H7 than if the focal pathogen is another strain of E. coli or another species.

  • uncertainty about the specificity of aptamer-based tests for pathogens in real-world foods may be due to the similarity between E. coli O157:H7 and other E. coli strains.

  • the specificity of the tests in a real-world food was unaffected by the aptamers’ tendency to bind to different strains of E. coli. 

  • the aptamers successfully bound to E. coli O157:H7 and the tests displayed a high degree of specificity in a real-world food. 

ID: 4802f6a5 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of aptamers’ capacity to test for pathogens in food. The text explains that although synthetic aptamer molecules can be used to test for foodborne bacterial pathogens because they bind to target molecules, it hasn’t been clear how likely it is that they will indicate a negative result when a target pathogen is absent in real-world foods. The text then indicates that Somvanshi et al. created test paper that changes from pink to purple when aptamers in it bind to a particular strain of E. coli bacteria, O157:H7, and tested it with store-bought pear juice (that is, a real-world food); the paper changed to purple when exposed to juice to which the target pathogen E. coli O157:H7 had been added, but it remained pink when exposed to juice treated with other E. coli strains or other bacteria species. Based on this result, it seems the aptamers in the paper successfully bound to the target (O157:H7) and the tests had a high degree of specificity (providing negative results for samples where the target was absent even though other bacteria were present) when applied to a real-world food.

Choice A is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that E. coli O157:H7 differs from other pathogens in a way that makes it more suitable for aptamer-based testing of any kind and that specificity is likely to be lower when aptamer-based tests target other bacteria; the text simply indicates that Somvanshi et al. used O157:H7 as the target for aptamer-based test paper in their study and suggests that the paper had a high degree of specificity. Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that the specificity of aptamer-based tests in real-world foods is uncertain for pathogens broadly, not just for E. coli, and similarity between strains (of E. coli or of other pathogens) isn’t mentioned. Moreover, the results presented in the text suggest that aptamers are actually capable of distinguishing between strains of E. coli, since Somvanshi et al.’s paper turned purple when exposed to E. coli O157:H7 and remained pink when exposed to other strains. Choice C is incorrect because the text suggests that the aptamers in the test papers didn’t bind to different strains of E. coli. The text explains that the test papers turn purple when the aptamers bind to the targeted pathogen and that in the pear juice tests, the test papers turned purple when exposed to samples with the targeted strain of E. coli (O157:H7) but remained pink when exposed to samples with other strains of E. coli. In other words, the aptamers bound only to the targeted strain, not to the other strains. Further, specificity would be affected if the aptamers had bound to multiple strains and not just the targeted one; that result would cause the specificity to be low.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 23e2421a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 23e2421a

600 550 500 450 400 350 300 250 200 150 100 50 0Number of suggestions additive neither additive nor subtractive subtractive invalidSuggestions for Improving a University suggestion type

Gabrielle Adams and colleagues reviewed suggestions for improving a university that had been submitted to the university’s president. They coded each suggestion as additive (the idea suggested adding something new to the university), subtractive (the idea suggested removing something from the university), neither additive nor subtractive, or invalid (the idea was not comprehensible). The data illustrated people’s tendency to overlook the possibility of removing things to achieve improvements: blank

Which choice most effectively uses data in the graph to complete the statement?

  • around 175 suggestions were coded as neither additive nor subtractive, whereas around 575 suggestions were coded as additive. 

  • more than 350 suggestions were coded as invalid, whereas fewer than 100 suggestions were coded as subtractive. 

  • fewer than 100 suggestions were coded as subtractive, whereas more than 550 suggestions were coded as additive. 

  • around 575 suggestions were coded as additive, whereas around 175 suggestions were coded as subtractive. 

ID: 23e2421a Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. This choice shows that people suggested removing things to achieve improvements a lot less often than they suggested adding things, which supports the claim that people tend not to think of removing things as a likely way to improve the university.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the claim. We are looking to prove that people suggested subtractive means of achieving improvements less often than other means, but this choice doesn’t address how often people made subtractive suggestions. Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the claim. Invalid responses were incomprehensible, so we can’t compare what they were suggesting to what was being suggested in subtractive responses. Choice D is incorrect. This choice misreads the graph. Fewer than 100 suggestions were coded as subtractive. 175 is the approximate number of suggestions coded as “neither additive or subtractive.”

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID d047abca

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: d047abca

Narwhals are shy whales that live in the remote Arctic Ocean. Some of them have a long tusk, like a unicorn horn, with sensitive nerves. Narwhals are known for this tusk, but many actually don’t have one and its purpose is unknown. One group of scientists came up with a possible purpose in 2014. The scientists suggested that the tusk may help narwhals determine when water around them is likely to start freezing and become dangerous for them. Marine biologist Kristin Laidre disagrees with that idea, though. She reasons that if the narwhal’s tusk serves such an important purpose, then it’s most likely that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • some narwhals would seek a new habitat.

  • fewer marine animals would also have tusks.

  • more narwhals would have a tusk.

  • narwhals would become less shy over time.

ID: d047abca Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Kristin Laidre’s reasoning about the purpose of the tusk that many, but not all, narwhals have. The text explains that one group of scientists thinks the tusk may help narwhals detect the threat of freezing water and that Laidre disagrees with that idea, given the importance of avoiding a dangerous situation. It’s logical to suggest that if the tusk serves such an important purpose for narwhals, the trait would be more common among them—specifically, that more narwhals would have a tusk.

Choice A is incorrect because there’s no reason to think Laidre would say that if the tusk has the important function of helping narwhals detect when the water around them is about to freeze (meaning that it isn’t always freezing), some narwhals would choose a different habitat altogether. Indeed, if it’s true that the tusk helps narwhals avoid areas with dangerous conditions when they occur in their Arctic Ocean habitat, the tusk would likely enable the narwhals to continue living in that habitat rather than drive them elsewhere entirely. Choice B is incorrect because the text focuses only on narwhals and makes no mention of other marine animals or how having a tusk might affect them. And if anything, it would be more logical to expect a very important trait to be more widespread, not less common, among other similar types of animals. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text describes narwhals as shy, it doesn’t indicate that the scientists’ conclusion has anything to do with shyness. And because shyness and detection of the threat of freezing water aren’t logically connected, there’s no reason to think that Laidre would expect narwhals to become less shy over time if the tusk serves that important purpose.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID df8caadd

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: df8caadd

Partial List of Candidate Species for De-extinction

Common name Scientific name Became extinct
Huia Heteralocha acutirostris 1907
Caribbean monk seal Monachus tropicalis 1952
Passenger pigeon Ectopistes migratorius 1914
Saber-toothed cat Smilodon 11,000 years before present
Woolly mammoth Mammuthus primigenius 6,400 years before present

The passage of time is among the many obstacles faced by scientists who are pursuing de-extinction efforts—that is, efforts to use breeding or a mixture of cloning and genetic engineering to bring back extinct species. Specifically, researchers are concerned that the longer a species has been extinct, the less likely it is that a suitable habitat still exists for that species. Among candidate species for de-extinction, this problem would be especially concerning for the blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • passenger pigeon (Ectopistes migratorius), which became extinct only a few years after the huia (Heteralocha acutirostris).

  • saber-toothed cat (Smilodon), which became extinct 11,000 years ago.

  • woolly mammoth (Mammuthus primigenius), which became extinct several thousand years before the saber-toothed cat (Smilodon).

  • Caribbean monk seal (Monachus tropicalis), which became extinct in 1952.

ID: df8caadd Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it uses data from the table to complete the statement regarding a species for which the problem of finding a suitable habitat would be especially concerning. For each candidate species, the table lists its common name, scientific name, and when the species became extinct. The text explains that scientists pursuing de-extinction for the candidate species also consider the length of time that has passed since the species’ extinction, noting that the longer the animal has been extinct, the less likely it is that a suitable habitat would exist for the species today. The possibility of not having a suitable habitat would be especially concerning for the candidate species for which the most time has passed since its extinction. According to the table this species would be the saber-toothed cat, which became extinct 11,000 years before present.

Choice A is incorrect because it compares the time since the extinction of the passenger pigeon to the time since the extinction of the huia instead of citing the species listed in the table that has been extinct the longest (the saber-toothed cat). The text indicates that the longer a species has been extinct, the lower the chances are that a suitable habitat exists for it today. Neither the table nor the text supports the claim that the passenger pigeon is especially vulnerable to this problem. Choice C is incorrect because the text states that the longer a species has been extinct, the less likely it is that there would be a suitable habitat available for the species today. So, the problem would be especially concerning for the saber-toothed cat, which became extinct several thousand years before the woolly mammoth did—not the other way around. Choice D is incorrect because the text states that the longer a species has been extinct, the lower the chances are that a suitable habitat would be available for that species today. According to the table, the Caribbean monk seal became extinct in 1952, which is the most recent extinction listed for a candidate species in the table.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 9abc3ba5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 9abc3ba5

“Gestures” in painting are typically thought of as bold, expressive brushstrokes. In the 1970s, American painter Jack Whitten built a 12-foot (3.7-meter) tool he named the “developer” to apply paint to an entire canvas in one motion, resulting in his series of “slab” paintings from that decade.  Whitten described this process as making an entire painting in “one gesture,” signaling a clear departure from the prevalence of gestures in his work from the 1960s. Some art historians claim this shift represents “removing gesture” from the process. Therefore, regardless of whether using the developer constitutes a gesture, both Whitten and these art historians likely agree that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • any tool that a painter uses to create an artwork is capable of creating gestures.

  • Whitten’s work from the 1960s exhibits many more gestures than his work from the 1970s does.

  • Whitten became less interested in exploring the role of gesture in his work as his career progressed.

  • Whitten’s work from the 1960s is much more realistic than his work from the 1970s is.

ID: 9abc3ba5 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. ​​Whitten thinks the tool made “one gesture” paintings, while historians think the tool “removed gesture” from the process completely. But putting that debate aside, both Whitten and the historians would agree that the paintings he made with the tool in the ’70s have way fewer gestures than his paintings from the ’60s, in which gestures are “prevalent,” meaning widely and extensively present.

Choice A is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text only discusses the “developer”—it never mentions other tools. Choice C is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. If anything, the text suggests the opposite: that Whitten became more interested in exploring the role of gesture in his work as his career progressed, as his earlier paintings had many gestures, and his ’70s paintings only had “one gesture.” Choice D is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never discusses the “realism” of Whitten’s art.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 94c726fb

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 94c726fb

Millions of Metric Tons of Copper Mined in 1995 and 2020

Country 1995 2020
Canada 0.73 0.59
Indonesia 0.44 0.51
Kazakhstan 0.26 0.55
Chile 2.49 5.73

While doing research for a paper about copper mining, a student finds a table with information about four different countries. The student notes that the country that mined 0.55 million metric tons of copper in 2020 had mined blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • 0.59 million metric tons of copper in 1995.

  • 0.44 million metric tons of copper in 1995.

  • 0.26 million metric tons of copper in 1995.

  • 2.49 million metric tons of copper in 1995.

ID: 94c726fb Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement about copper mining. The table shows the amount of copper mined in each of four countries in 1995 and 2020. According to the text, a student who consults the table notes that the country that mined 0.55 million metric tons of copper in 2020 had mined a different amount in 1995. The table indicates that Kazakhstan is the country that mined 0.55 million metric tons of copper in 2020 and 0.26 million metric tons of copper in 1995.

Choice A is incorrect because it doesn’t provide the amount of copper mined in 1995 by Kazakhstan, the country that mined 0.55 million metric tons of copper in 2020. According to the table, Canada mined 0.73 million metric tons of copper in 1995 and 0.59 million metric tons in 2020. It didn’t mine 0.55 million metric tons in either year. Choice B is incorrect because it doesn’t provide the amount of copper mined in 1995 by Kazakhstan, the country that mined 0.55 million metric tons of copper in 2020. According to the table, Indonesia mined 0.44 million metric tons of copper in 1995 and 0.51 million metric tons in 2020. It didn’t mine 0.55 million metric tons in either year. Choice D is incorrect because it doesn’t provide the amount of copper mined in 1995 by Kazakhstan, the country that mined 0.55 million metric tons of copper in 2020. According to the table, Chile mined 2.49 million metric tons of copper in 1995 and 5.73 million metric tons in 2020. It didn’t mine 0.55 million metric tons in either year.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 98fd50f2

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 98fd50f2

Among the most visited art museums in the world, the Galleria dell’Accademia in Florence had approximately 1.7 million visitors in 2019. The Galleria dell’Accademia also offers virtual tours that art lovers can view online for free. Although there were initial concerns that people who viewed the virtual tours would then consider an in-person visit unnecessary, museum administrators claim that their surveys of in-person visitors show that those concerns were unjustified.

Which statement, if true, would most directly support the administrators’ claim?

  • Many surveyed visitors to the Galleria dell’Accademia indicated that the virtual tours convinced them to plan an in-person visit. 

  • Most surveyed visitors to the Galleria dell’Accademia indicated that they were unaware of the virtual tours before their first in-person visit.

  • Most surveyed visitors to the Galleria dell’Accademia indicated that they lived somewhere other than Florence.

  • Many surveyed visitors to the Galleria dell’Accademia indicated that they would likely view the virtual tours in order to reminisce about their in-person visit.

ID: 98fd50f2 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly support the museum administrators’ claim that concerns about virtual tours replacing in-person visits were unjustified. The text explains that after the Galleria dell’Accademia began offering online tours, there were concerns that if people viewed these virtual tours, they would consider an in-person visit to be unnecessary. The finding that many visitors who were surveyed indicated that the virtual tours actually convinced them to plan an in-person visit directly contradicts these concerns. Rather than deterring in-person visits, virtual tours actively encouraged them, providing strong support for the administrators’ claim that the initial concerns were unfounded.

Choice B is incorrect. The finding that most surveyed visitors were unaware of the virtual tours before their first in-person visit wouldn’t directly address whether virtual tours affect decisions about in-person visits. This finding would only indicate that these particular visitors didn’t have the opportunity to be influenced by virtual tours when making their decision to visit. Choice C is incorrect because the geographic location of visitors wouldn’t address the impact of virtual tours on people’s decisions to visit the museum in person. Whether visitors live in Florence or elsewhere would suggest nothing about whether virtual tours influenced their choice. This information is irrelevant to the administrators’ claim about the relationship between virtual tours and in-person visits. Choice D is incorrect because visitors’ intentions to view virtual tours after their in-person visit wouldn’t address the initial concerns that virtual tours might make in-person visits seem unnecessary. This finding indicates that some visitors plan to use virtual tours as a way to remember their visit, but it provides no information about whether virtual tours influenced their decision to visit in person in the first place, which is what the administrators’ claim addresses.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID fc57d569

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: fc57d569

In dialects of English spoken in Scotland, the “r” sound is strongly emphasized when it appears at the end of syllables (as in “car”) or before other consonant sounds (as in “bird”). English dialects of the Upland South, a region stretching from Oklahoma to western Virginia, place similar emphasis on “r” at the ends of syllables and before other consonant sounds. Historical records show that the Upland South was colonized largely by people whose ancestors came from Scotland. Thus, linguists have concluded that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • the English dialects spoken in the Upland South acquired their emphasis on the “r” sound from dialects spoken in Scotland.

  • emphasis on the “r” sound will eventually spread from English dialects spoken in the Upland South to dialects spoken elsewhere.

  • the English dialects spoken in Scotland were influenced by dialects spoken in the Upland South.

  • people from Scotland abandoned their emphasis on the “r” sound after relocating to the Upland South.

ID: fc57d569 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of English dialects spoken in Scotland and the Upland South. The text indicates that these dialects share a feature: putting emphasis on the "r" sound when it appears in certain positions in words. The text goes on to state that records indicate the Upland South was colonized largely by people of Scottish ancestry. It is reasonable to assume that the English dialects spoken by these colonizers were influenced by the English dialects spoken by their ancestors in Scotland. It follows, then, that the emphasis on the "r" sound in the dialects in Scotland carried over into the Upland South dialects as they developed—that is, that the Upland South dialects likely acquired it from dialects spoken in Scotland.

Choice B is incorrect because the text suggests that Scottish ancestry explains the origin of the emphasis on the "r" sound in English dialects spoken in the Upland South, since that linguistic feature is also found in dialects spoken in Scotland; the text doesn’t address any other dialects or suggest that the feature will spread elsewhere. Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates that many Upland South colonizers were the descendants of Scottish people, suggesting that the English dialects spoken by these colonizers had been influenced by the English dialects spoken by the colonizers’ ancestors in Scotland and had acquired their emphasis on the "r" sound from those ancestors’ dialects—not the other way around. Choice D is incorrect because the text indicates that the emphasis on the "r" sound is part of English dialects spoken in the Upland South today, which almost certainly wouldn’t be the case if people from Scotland, who were the main colonizers of the Upland South, had eliminated that linguistic feature from their dialects.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 5ff1ba73

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 5ff1ba73

Guilds in French Cities in the Late Eighteenth Century

City Date Inhabitants Number of guilds Inhabitants per guild
Paris 1766 600,000 133 4,511
Bordeaux 1762 80,000 49 1,633
Rouen 1775 74,000 112 661
Lyon 1789 143,000 72 1,986

Guilds—local associations of artisans and merchants in the same industry—were widespread in France from the medieval period until the late eighteenth century. But guilds were much more numerous relative to the population in some cities than in others: for example, blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • there were 49 guilds in Bordeaux but 72 guilds in Lyon despite the two cities having nearly equal numbers of inhabitants.

  • Lyon had far fewer inhabitants than Paris did but had many more guilds. 

  • there was one guild for every 661 inhabitants in Rouen but one guild for every 4,511 inhabitants in Paris. 

  • Paris had 133 guilds and 600,000 inhabitants, or one guild for every 4,511 inhabitants. 

ID: 5ff1ba73 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The claim we’re trying to prove is that guilds were much more numerous relative to population in some cities than others. This choice describes the guilds per number of inhabitants in two cities (Rouen and Paris), showing significant differences between guilds relative to population in these cities.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice misreads the table. Bordeaux had 80,000 inhabitants, according to the table, while Lyon had 143,000, so it isn’t correct to say that they had "nearly equal numbers of inhabitants." Lyon had almost twice as many inhabitants. Choice B is incorrect. This choice misreads the table. Although Lyon did have fewer inhabitants than Paris, it didn’t have more guilds—Paris had 133 guilds versus Lyon’s 72. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t support the claim. To show that guilds were more numerous relative to population in some cities than others, we would need to compare at least two cities, and this choice only mentions one.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 94978129

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 94978129

Approximate Rates of Speech and Information Conveyed for Five Languages

Language Rate of speech (syllables per second) Rate of information conveyed (bits per second)
Serbian 7.2 39.1
Spanish 7.7 42.0
Vietnamese 5.3 42.5
Thai 4.7 33.8
Hungarian 5.9 34.6

A group of researchers working in Europe, Asia, and Oceania conducted a study to determine how quickly different Eurasian languages are typically spoken (in syllables per second) and how much information they can effectively convey (in bits per second). They found that, although languages vary widely in the speed at which they are spoken, the amount of information languages can effectively convey tends to vary much less. Thus, they claim that two languages with very different spoken rates can nonetheless convey the same amount of information in a given amount of time. 

Which choice best describes data from the table that support the researchers’ claim?

  • Among the five languages in the table, Thai and Hungarian have the lowest rates of speech and the lowest rates of information conveyed.

  • Vietnamese conveys information at approximately the same rate as Spanish despite being spoken at a slower rate.

  • Among the five languages in the table, the language that is spoken the fastest is also the language that conveys information the fastest.

  • Serbian and Spanish are spoken at approximately the same rate, but Serbian conveys information faster than Spanish does.

ID: 94978129 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it provides the most direct support from the table for the claim that two languages can convey similar amounts of information even if they’re spoken at different rates. The table shows the approximate rates at which five languages are spoken and the rates at which those five languages convey information. Vietnamese is spoken at around 5.3 syllables per second, whereas Spanish is spoken at around 7.7 syllables per second, but the two languages convey information at very similar rates: Vietnamese at a rate of around 42.5 bits per second and Spanish at a rate of around 42.0 bits per second. Thus, the description of Vietnamese conveying information at around the same rate that Spanish does despite being spoken more slowly supports the claim in the text that languages can convey the same amount of information even if spoken at different rates. 

Choice A is incorrect because it isn’t true that Thai and Hungarian have the lowest rates of speech of the five languages shown. According to the table, Hungarian is spoken at around 5.9 syllables per second, which is faster than Vietnamese (5.3 syllables per second). Additionally, even if this statement were true, the assertion that two languages are spoken the slowest and convey information the slowest wouldn’t support the claim that languages can convey the same amount of information even if they’re spoken at different rates. Choice C is incorrect because it isn’t true that the fastest-spoken language (Spanish, at 7.7 syllables per second) also conveys information the fastest: Spanish conveys information at 42.0 bits per second, which is slower than the 42.5 bits-per-second rate at which Vietnamese conveys information. Additionally, even if this statement were true, the assertion that the language spoken the fastest also conveys information the fastest has no bearing on the claim that languages can convey the same amount of information even if they’re spoken at different rates. Choice D is incorrect because it isn’t true that Serbian conveys information faster than Spanish does. According to the table, Serbian conveys information at a rate of around 39.1 bits per second, which is slower than the 42.0 bits-per-second rate at which Spanish conveys information. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID abbea24d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: abbea24d

“The Mountain” is a 1914 poem by Robert Frost. In the poem, the speaker visits a town next to a mountain. The speaker claims to feel protected by the mountain, saying blank

Which quotation from “The Mountain” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “A dry ravine emerged under boughs / Into the pasture.”

  • “The mountain stood there to be pointed at.”

  • “I felt it like a wall / Behind which I was sheltered from a wind.”

  • “I crossed the river and swung round the mountain.”

ID: abbea24d Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses a quotation from "The Mountain" to illustrate the claim that the speaker feels protected by the mountain. In the quotation, the speaker recounts that the mountain felt like a wall that offers shelter from the wind. That the speaker felt sheltered by the mountain suggests that it offered the speaker a sense of being protected.

Choice A is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t express the speaker’s feeling of being protected by the mountain. Instead, it notes that the speaker has seen a dry ravine and a pasture. Choice B is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t express the speaker’s feeling of being protected by the mountain. Instead, it simply states that there is a mountain, which is meant to be viewed. Choice D is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t express the speaker’s feeling of being protected by the mountain. Instead, it indicates that the speaker has gone around the mountain.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 0014477f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 0014477f

Total Areas of Five Pueblo Nations in New Mexico

Tribal nation Area (square miles)
Pueblo de San Ildefonso 47.3
Santa Clara Pueblo 77.1
Taos Pueblo 156.2
Nambé Pueblo 32.4
Pueblo of Acoma 595.7

There are nineteen Pueblo tribal nations in New Mexico. A student in a geography class is a citizen of Taos Pueblo in the northern part of the state. The student wants to compare the total area covered by Taos Pueblo with the total areas of various other Pueblo nations in the state. Looking at the table, the student finds that the total area of Taos Pueblo is 156.2 square miles, while the total area of Nambé Pueblo is blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the comparison?

  • 47.3 square miles.

  • 77.1 square miles.

  • 32.4 square miles.

  • 595.7 square miles.

ID: 0014477f Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the comparison between Pueblo tribal nations. The student identifies that the total area of Taos Pueblo is 156.2 square miles and needs to complete the comparison with the total area of Nambé Pueblo. According to the table, Nambé Pueblo has a total area of 32.4 square miles.

Choice A is incorrect because according to the table, 47.3 square miles is the area of Pueblo de San Ildefonso, not of Nambé Pueblo. Choice B is incorrect because according to the table, 77.1 square miles is the area of Santa Clara Pueblo, not of Nambé Pueblo. Choice D is incorrect because according to the table, 595.7 square miles is the area of Pueblo of Acoma, not of Nambé Pueblo.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 5c73f0cc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 5c73f0cc
80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0Lithium recovered (%) Type A Type BTest Results for Two New Battery Recycling ProcessesLithium-ion battery type recycling process 1 recycling process 2
  • For each data category, the following bars are shown:
    • recycling process 1
    • recycling process 2
  • All values are approximate.
  • The Lithium recovered data for the 2 categories are as follows:
    • Type A:
      • recycling process 1: 30%
      • recycling process 2: about halfway between 50% and 60%
    • Type B:
      • recycling process 1: about halfway between 30% and 40%
      • recycling process 2: about halfway between 70% and 80%

A team of scientists wants to improve the recycling of two of the most common types of lithium-ion batteries used in electronic devices. The team tested two new processes that involve grinding battery materials and aluminum foil together. The highest percentage of lithium recovered in the tests was closest to blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the statement?

  • 75%.

  • 10%.

  • 45%.

  • 20%.

ID: 5c73f0cc Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the statement. The graph shows test results for two new battery recycling processes used with two types of lithium-ion batteries, type A and type B. According to the graph, recycling process 2 recovered the highest percentage of lithium in the tests: recovering about 75% from lithium-ion battery type B.

Choice B is incorrect because, according to the graph, the highest percentage of lithium recovered in the tests was 75%, not 10%. In fact, none of the tests recovered exactly 10% of lithium from a recycling process. Choice C is incorrect because, according to the graph, the highest percentage of lithium recovered in the tests was 75%, not 45%. In fact, none of the tests recovered exactly 45% of lithium from a recycling process. Choice D is incorrect because, according to the graph, the highest percentage of lithium recovered in the tests was 75%, not 20%. In fact, none of the tests recovered exactly 20% of lithium from a recycling process.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID b4cda84d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: b4cda84d

In 1967 the US Congress created the Corporation for Public Broadcasting, which in turn created National Public Radio (NPR). NPR began producing and distributing high-quality news and cultural programming to affiliate stations across the United States in 1971. In a research paper, a student claims that the Corporation for Public Broadcasting and NPR were inspired by the British Broadcasting System (BBC), which had been established in the 1920s.

Which quotation from a work by a historian would be the most effective evidence for the student to include in support of this claim?

  • “Although the BBC had begun as a private corporation, politicians successfully argued to make it a public company because they believed a public broadcaster could help build national unity in the aftermath of World War I.”

  • “For many decades, the BBC had no competition since it held Britain’s only broadcasting license, whereas in the United States, the Corporation for Public Broadcasting launched NPR in a broadcasting market already filled with competitors.”

  • “Congress’s embrace of publicly funded broadcasting reflected a common belief among US politicians that the role of government was not only to ensure people’s safety and liberty but also to enrich people’s lives in other ways.”

  • “The goal of the BBC was to support British democracy by promoting an informed citizenry, and US legislators believed that ensuring access to high-quality programming could do the same for democracy in the United States.”

ID: b4cda84d Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because this quotation would be the most effective evidence to include in support of the claim that the Corporation for Public Broadcasting and NPR were inspired by the British Broadcasting System (BBC). The quotation states that the goal of the BBC was to support British democracy and that US legislators believed high-quality programming could accomplish the same goal for democracy in the United States. In other words, US legislators looked to the BBC as a model, taking direct inspiration from it when they created the Corporation for Public Broadcasting, which in turn created NPR.

Choice A is incorrect because this quotation provides historical information about the BBC, not information about the inspiration for the creation of the Corporation for Public Broadcasting and NPR. This quotation, therefore, is irrelevant to the student’s claim that the BBC inspired the creation of the Corporation for Public Broadcasting, which in turn created NPR. Choice B is incorrect because this quotation contrasts the lack of competition faced by the BBC with the substantial competition faced by NPR, which has no bearing on the student’s claim that the Corporation for Public Broadcasting and NPR were inspired by the BBC. Choice C is incorrect because this quotation focuses on a common belief among US politicians that inspired Congress’s embrace of publicly funded broadcasting. The quotation doesn’t say anything about the BBC and therefore doesn’t support the claim that the BBC inspired Congress to create the Corporation for Public Broadcasting, which in turn created NPR.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 5b4829d2

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 5b4829d2

Researchers wanted to study how consumers’ reactions to an ad may be affected by other ads. The researchers began by showing study participants an ad for a product, with some seeing a less detailed ad and others seeing a more detailed one. Then, all participants viewed the same second ad for a store and shared their opinion of the store based on this second ad. Participants who had first seen an ad less detailed than the second ad had a higher opinion of the store than the participants who had first seen a more detailed ad. The researchers concluded that reactions to an ad may be affected by blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • the number of people who viewed the ad.

  • the length of time viewing previous ads. 

  • the amount of detail viewed in previous ads.

  • the time of day that the ad is viewed.

ID: 5b4829d2 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The passage tells us that participants who had seen a less detailed ad for a product beforehand had a higher opinion of the store than those who had seen a more detailed ad. This suggests that reactions to an ad may be affected by the amount of detail viewed in previous ads.

Choice A is incorrect. The passage doesn’t mention the number of people who viewed the ad, so there’s no basis for this inference. Choice B is incorrect. The passage doesn’t mention the length of time viewing previous ads, so there’s no basis for this inference. Choice D is incorrect. The passage doesn’t mention the time of day that the ad is viewed, so there’s no basis for this inference.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 7ffae38a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 7ffae38a

The following text is adapted from Jack London’s 1903 novel The Call of the Wild. Buck is a sled dog living with John Thornton in Yukon, Canada.

Thornton alone held [Buck]. The rest of mankind was as nothing. Chance travellers might praise or pet him; but he was cold under it all, and from a too demonstrative man he would get up and walk away. When Thornton’s partners, Hans and Pete, arrived on the long-expected raft, Buck refused to notice them till he learned they were close to Thornton; after that he tolerated them in a passive sort of way, accepting favors from them as though he favored them by accepting.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Buck has become less social since he began living with Thornton.

  • Buck mistrusts humans and does his best to avoid them.

  • Buck has been especially well liked by most of Thornton’s friends.

  • Buck holds Thornton in higher regard than any other person.

ID: 7ffae38a Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. After establishing that Buck views most people “as nothing,” the text explains that Buck won’t acknowledge people other than Thornton unless they appear friendly toward Thornton, and even then he’s only reluctantly accepting. Thus, the text focuses on the idea that Thornton has a special status in Buck’s mind, with Buck holding him in higher regard than other people.

Choice A is incorrect because the text conveys that Buck isn’t social with people other than Thornton but doesn’t address Buck’s life or temperament before he lived with Thornton. Choice B is incorrect because the text conveys that Buck doesn’t really care about people other than Thornton and is aloof toward them. However, there’s no indication that Buck mistrusts and avoids people generally; indeed, he accepts Thornton, who is a human. Choice C is incorrect because the text refers to random travelers praising and petting Buck and Thornton’s partners giving Buck favors, but there’s no indication that any of these people are Thornton’s friends or that they have a particular fondness for Buck.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 706046f7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 706046f7

In the 1960s, Gloria Richardson led a movement to promote racial equality. Her involvement in this effort was inspired by her daughter, Donna Richardson. In 1961, Donna joined protests organized by the Student Nonviolent Coordinating Committee in Cambridge, Maryland. Following her daughter, Gloria joined these protests too. Gloria soon became the cochair of the Cambridge Nonviolent Action Committee. She was also the leader of what became known as the Cambridge movement. 

According to the text, what did Gloria Richardson lead?

  • The Cambridge movement

  • Her daughter Donna’s high school

  • Protests to support environmental protections

  • A new business in Cambridge, Maryland

ID: 706046f7 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents information about Gloria Richardson that is supported by the text. The text provides a number of details about Gloria’s involvement in efforts to promote racial equality, including that she was the leader of what became known as the Cambridge movement.

Choice B is incorrect because the text never indicates that Gloria Richardson led her daughter Donna’s high school. The text says only that Gloria was inspired by her daughter to become involved in efforts to promote racial equality. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention protests related to environmental protections. Rather, the text discusses Gloria Richardson’s involvement in efforts to promote racial equality. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that Gloria Richardson led a new business in Cambridge, Maryland. Rather, the text states that she led what became known as the Cambridge movement.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 409058ee

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 409058ee

To protect themselves when being attacked, hagfish—jawless marine animals that resemble eels—will release large quantities of slimy, mucus-like threads. Because these threads are unusually strong and elastic, scientist Atsuko Negishi and her colleagues have been trying to recreate them in a lab as an eco-friendly alternative to petroleum-based fibers that are often used in fabrics. The researchers want to reproduce the threads in the lab because farming hagfish for their slime would be expensive and potentially harmful to the hagfish.

Which choice best states the text’s main idea?

  • The slimy threads that hagfish release might help researchers create a new kind of fabric.

  • Hagfish have inspired researchers to develop a new petroleum-based fabric.

  • Hagfish are not well suited to being raised in captivity.

  • The ability of hagfish to slime their attackers compensates for their being jawless.

ID: 409058ee Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The text first describes hagfish slime and its properties, then it transitions to talking about the possibilities of using lab-made equivalents to use in eco-friendly fabrics.

Choice B is incorrect. The text says the opposite of this choice. The researchers are developing an alternative to petroleum-based fabric. Choice C is incorrect. This choice is too narrow to be the main point of the text. Only one line describes how farming would be “potentially harmful” to the hagfish. Choice D is incorrect. This choice isn’t supported by the text. We don’t know from the text whether being jawless makes the hagfish more vulnerable.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 7c9a65bb

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 7c9a65bb

Optical tweezers are specialized scientific tools—particularly useful in biology and medicine—that use high-powered beams of light to trap and manipulate minuscule particles for study. Use of the tool has led to several scientific and medical breakthroughs over the last few decades, but the particles are often under prolonged exposure to the intense heat of the light beams. To overcome the risk of overheating, and thereby damage, researchers sometimes attach nano-sized glass beads to particles, allowing the light to focus on the beads instead of the particles.

Based on the text, what is one advantage of attaching glass beads to particles when using optical tweezers?

  • It decreases the time it takes for the optical tweezers to locate and capture the particles.

  • It facilitates the maneuvering of particles without directly heating the particles themselves.

  • It allows researchers to use weaker light beams to manipulate particles.

  • It adds a material to which particles can transfer any heat absorbed from the optical tweezers’ light beam.

ID: 7c9a65bb Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The text says that the glass beads get the "focus" of the light beams so that the particles don’t overheat. From this, we can infer that the beads allow the particles to be manipulated without being directly heated by the light beams.

Choice A is incorrect. The text never says that attaching the glass beads saves time in any way. Choice C is incorrect. The text never says that attaching the glass beads allows researchers to use weaker light beams. Choice D is incorrect. The text doesn’t say that the particles can transfer heat to the glass beads—rather, it says the heat from the light focuses on the glass beads instead of the particles.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 5c7e0d62

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 5c7e0d62

Arthurian legends (tales related to the character of King Arthur) derive from many sources, such as Vita Sancti Cadoci, composed in the 11th century, and Culhwch and Olwen from the second half of the 12th century. One of the most significant sources, Geoffrey of Monmouth’s History of the Kings of Britain, was written in the 1130s; some material from it was later adapted by the Norman poet Wace into the Roman de Brut in 1155. But Wace didn’t merely adapt History, he added to it as well, introducing the famous Round Table at which Arthur’s knights assembled, which suggests that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • Roman de Brut is more historically accurate than History, because Culhwch and Olwen had not been written when Geoffrey of Monmouth was writing his work.

  • Geoffrey of Monmouth was unaware of stories of the Round Table when composing his History, though historians know that works containing such stories were available to him.

  • Geoffrey of Monmouth’s accounts of Arthurian legends in his History are more similar overall in content to the accounts in Culhwch and Olwen than they are to the accounts in Roman de Brut.

  • the Arthurian legends that the author of Vita Sancti Cadoci drew on would not have featured the Round Table.

ID: 5c7e0d62 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the discussion about the genealogy of Arthurian legends. The text establishes a chronology of Arthurian sources, with Vita Sancti Cadoci composed in the 11th century (the 1000s), Geoffrey of Monmouth’s History written in the 1130s, Wace’s Roman de Brut in 1155, and Culhwch and Olwen in the second half of the 12th century (1150–1200). Importantly, the text indicates that along with adapting Geoffrey’s History, Wace added "the famous Round Table" to it. If Wace introduced the idea of the Round Table in 1155, it logically follows that this element was not present in earlier works. This suggests that the Arthurian legends that informed Vita Sancti Cadoci, which was written before both Geoffrey’s and Wace’s works, would not have featured the Round Table.

Choice A is incorrect because the text discusses several works that include legends about a character, King Arthur, but doesn’t address the historical accuracy of the stories in those works or suggest that the creation of Culhwch and Olwen was relevant to any other works’ accuracy. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that works containing stories of the Round Table were available to Geoffrey of Monmouth when he composed his History in the 1130s, whether he was aware of them or not; it instead suggests that the idea of the Round Table wasn’t introduced until more than a decade later, when Wace added it to Geoffrey’s History. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text indicates that the Arthurian legends in Geoffrey of Monmouth’s History differ from those in Wace’s Roman de Brut in that Wace added the idea of the Round Table, the text doesn’t compare the overall content of the Arthurian legends in the two works and doesn’t indicate anything about the overall content of the legends in Culhwch and Olwen.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 299c5303

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 299c5303

As the name suggests, dramaturges originated in theater, where they continue to serve a variety of functions: conducting historical research for directors, compiling character biographies for actors, and perhaps most importantly, helping writers of plays and musicals to hone the works’ stories and characters. Performance scholar Susan Manning observes that many choreographers, like playwrights and musical theater writers, are concerned with storytelling and characterization. In fact, some choreographers describe the dances they create as expressions of narrative through movement; it is therefore unsurprising that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • dramaturges can have a profound impact on the artistic direction of plays and musicals.

  • choreographers developing dances with narrative elements frequently engage dramaturges to assist in refining those elements.

  • dances by choreographers who incorporate narrative elements are more accessible to audiences than dances by choreographers who do not.

  • some directors and actors rely too heavily on dramaturges to complete certain research tasks.

ID: 299c5303 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. Dramaturges help playwrights with storytelling and characterization. Choreographers often tell stories through dance, so they are also concerned with storytelling and characterization. This suggests that the fact that choreographers seek the help of dramaturges with the storytelling aspects of their dances should be “unsurprising.”

Choice A is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The beginning of the text does imply that this is true, but the end is leading to a conclusion about how choreographers use dramaturges. Choice C is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never mentions dances by choreographers who don’t incorporate narrative elements. Choice D is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text mentions in passing that directors use dramaturges to conduct research, but it never suggests that directors and actors are too reliant on them. Also, the text is leading to a conclusion about how choreographers use dramaturges.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 378c66d5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 378c66d5

A member of the Otomi, an Indigenous people in Central Mexico, Octavio Medellín immigrated to the United States as a child, and his sculpture bears the impress of traditions on both sides of the border: US-based modernist sculpture, Mexican modernist painting, Otomi art, and the ancient sculpture of other Mexican Indigenous peoples, including the Maya. In his 1950 masterpiece History of Mexico, Medellín fuses these influences into a style so idiosyncratic that it resists efforts to view his work through the lens of nationality or cultural identity. Artists, he insisted, should strive for individual expression, even as they draw inspiration from their heritage and the communities where they live and work.

Which quotation from an art critic most directly challenges the underlined claim in the text?

  • “Although a number of ancient Indigenous artistic traditions pictured human forms in profile, the forms populating the surface of A History of Mexico suggest a specifically Maya influence.”

  • “In A History of Mexico, the synthesis of ancient and modernist traditions functions as a stylistic parallel to the work’s subject matter: a survey of centuries of Mexican history.”

  • “Many critics focus on Indigenous influences in A History of Mexico and other key works by Medellín to the exclusion of influences from non-Indigenous art.”

  • “While A History of Mexico features modernist motifs, it relies primarily on angular human forms in profile—a staple of Maya sculpture—and thus invites classification as Indigenous art.”

ID: 378c66d5 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. This critic challenges the claim by arguing that A History of Mexico is not so idiosyncratic (unique) as to resist classification because its use of Maya-style human profiles actually “invites classification as Indigenous art.” Therefore, according to this critic, the work can be viewed, at least partially, through a lens of national or cultural identity.

Choice A is incorrect. While it describes the Maya influence on a particular aspect of A History of Mexico, this quotation doesn’t push back on Medellín’s “idiosyncratic” (unique) style, nor does it try to categorize the entire work into a single cultural tradition. Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t directly challenge the underlined claim, but rather supports it. It suggests that the work effectively blends a variety of artistic products to create a single work that can’t be defined by any one tradition. Instead, the work recalls many centuries of history and culture all at once. Choice C is incorrect. This choice supports rather than challenges the underlined claim. The quotation argues that other critics focus too much on Indigenous influences on the artwork instead of viewing all of the influences equally—that they should instead be viewing the work as an idiosyncratic whole instead of through one or two narrow cultural lenses.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 6762772f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 6762772f

Artificial leaves are a developing renewable energy technology that mimics the process of photosynthesis in plants. These devices are silicon-based solar cells coated in chemical catalysts that activate reactions that split water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen gas. The technology, while generating lots of interest, is not yet commercially viable as a large-scale energy source. To meet this challenge, scientists from many fields are researching ways to store, transport, and distribute the energy the devices produce while other scientists are working to improve the cost and efficiency of the devices.  

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Continued research and development in artificial-leaf technology is needed before the devices can be widely used as an energy source. 

  • The recent increase in the commercial use of artificial leaves as an energy source has encouraged many scientists to research ways to improve the technology. 

  • Artificial leaves split water molecules into oxygen and hydrogen gas using catalysts more efficiently than plants do using the process of photosynthesis.

  • Artificial leaves were developed to mimic the natural process of photosynthesis in plants in order to store energy for long-term commercial use.

ID: 6762772f Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. According to the text, artificial leaves are a renewable energy technology that’s in development and generating interest. The text goes on to state that artificial-leaf technology "is not yet commercially viable as a large-scale energy source" and that scientists from several fields are doing additional research to refine the technology. Thus, the main idea is that continued research and development in artificial-leaf technology is needed before the devices can be widely used as an energy source.

Choice B is incorrect. While the text does state that scientists from many fields are researching artificial leaves, they’re doing so to address the fact that the leaves are not yet commercially viable, rather than in response to an increase in commercial use. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text does explain that artificial leaves help split water molecules into oxygen and hydrogen gas using catalysts, it doesn’t argue that this process is more efficient than photosynthesis. This is merely a detail of the text and not the main idea, which is about the additional research needed to improve the cost and efficiency of these artificial leaves. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text indicates that artificial leaves mimic photosynthesis in plants, this is an incidental detail in support of the main idea that additional research is needed to make artificial leaves commercially viable.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID b62cb782

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: b62cb782

Culinary anthropologist Vertamae Smart-Grosvenor may be known for her decades of work in national public television and radio, but her book Vibration Cooking: or, the Travel Notes of a Geechee Girl is likely her most influential project. The 1970 book, whose title refers to Smart-Grosvenor’s roots in the Low Country of South Carolina, was unusual for its time. It combined memoir, recipes, travel writing, and social commentary and challenged notions about conventions of food and cooking. Long admired by many, the book and its author have shaped contemporary approaches to writing about cuisine.

Which choice best describes the main idea of the text?

  • Smart-Grosvenor’s unconventional book Vibration Cooking: or, the Travel Notes of a Geechee Girl is an important contribution to food writing.

  • Smart-Grosvenor held many different positions over her life, including reporter and food writer.

  • Smart-Grosvenor’s groundbreaking book Vibration Cooking: or, the Travel Notes of a Geechee Girl didn’t receive the praise it deserved when it was first published in 1970.

  • Smart-Grosvenor was a talented chef whose work inspired many people to start cooking for themselves.

ID: b62cb782 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text describes the book Vibration Cooking: or, the Travel Notes of a Geechee Girl as Smart-Grosvenor’s “most influential project” and as “unusual for its time.” The text also notes that the book and author have influenced contemporary approaches to writing about food and cooking. Therefore, the text mainly conveys that Vibration Cooking: or, the Travel Notes of a Geechee Girl is an unconventional and important contribution to food writing.

Choice B is incorrect. Although the text mentions that Smart-Grosvenor worked in national public television and radio and was a food writer, these details aren’t the main focus. Rather than focusing on Smart-Grosvenor’s various jobs, the text focuses specifically on one specific book she wrote. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text suggests that Vibration Cooking: or, the Travel Notes of a Geechee Girl was groundbreaking, it doesn’t suggest that the book didn’t receive praise when it was published. In fact, the text states that the book is “long admired.” Choice D is incorrect because the text states that Smart-Grosvenor was a culinary anthropologist and that her book influenced later approaches to food writing but doesn’t indicate that Smart-Grosvenor or her book influenced people to begin cooking for themselves.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID dc5edbf6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: dc5edbf6

Microplastics are pieces of plastic that are smaller than a grain of rice. These small plastics can be found in large quantities in ocean waters. Ecologist Jessica Reichert and her team are studying the role reef-building corals have in capturing microplastics from ocean waters. Through research, her team has found that these corals may be storing up to 20 million kilograms of microplastics each year in their skeletons and tissues.  

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Ecologists are interested in learning more about how certain corals build large reefs.

  • Questions remain around the impact certain corals have on ocean ecosystems.   

  • Microplastics are small pieces of plastic that can be found in ocean waters.

  • Ecologists predict that corals store large amounts of microplastics from ocean waters.

ID: dc5edbf6 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The text describes a study about how reef-building corals capture microplastics from ocean waters, which found that these corals are storing 20 million kilograms of microplastics in their skeletons and tissues.

Choice A is incorrect. While the researchers are studying “reef-building corals,” the focus of their study isn’t how the corals build the reefs. Rather, they’re studying how corals may be storing microplastics from ocean waters. Choice B is incorrect. The text doesn’t mention any unanswered questions about the impact of corals on ocean ecosystems—rather, the study assesses one interaction between corals and microplastics. Choice C is incorrect. The text does say this, but it’s a detail—not the main idea. The main idea of the text is about the study that found that corals may be storing microplastics from ocean waters in their skeletons and tissues.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 800771e5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 800771e5
350 300 250 200 150 100 50 0Number of submissions 2016 2017 2018 2019Total Science Research Submissions by Topic, 2016–2019Year cellular and molecular biology physics and space science medicine and health animal science
  • The following 4 lines are shown:
    • cellular and molecular biology
    • physics and space science
    • medicine and health
    • animal science
  • The cellular and molecular biology line:
    • Begins at 2016, 200 submissions
    • Rises sharply to 2017, 301 submissions
    • Falls gradually to 2018, 280 submissions
    • Remains level to 2019, 280 submissions
  • The physics and space science line: 
    • Begins at 2016, 96 submissions
    • Falls gradually to 2017, 90 submissions
    • Falls gradually to 2018, 87 submissions
    • Rises gradually to 2019, 99 submissions
  • The medicine and health line:
    • Begins at 2016, 221 submissions
    • Falls gradually to 2017, 220 submissions
    • Rises gradually to 2018, 224 submissions
    • Rises sharply to 2019, 286 submissions
  • The animal science line:
    • Begins at 2016, 50 submissions
    • Remains level to 2017, 50 submissions
    • Remains level to 2018, 50 submissions
    • Rises gradually to 2019, 88 submissions

A student is researching the trends in the topics submitted to a national science fair for high school students. The graph shows the number of submissions by topic that were made each year. Based on the data in the graph, the student claims that there were more medicine and health research topics submitted in 2019 than in any other year.

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to support the underlined claim?

  • In 2016, the number of cellular and molecular biology topic submissions was the same as the number of animal science topic submissions.

  • In 2019, there were more physics and space science topic submissions than there were medicine and health topic submissions.

  • The lowest number of animal science topic submissions in a year was approximately 95 in 2016. 

  • The highest number of medicine and health topic submissions during the period shown is approximately 285 in 2019. 

ID: 800771e5 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it effectively uses data from the graph to support the underlined claim that more medicine and health topics were submitted to a national science fair in 2019 than in any of the other years shown. This choice indicates that the approximately 285 medicine and health topics submitted in 2019 are more than the number of medicine and health submissions in any other year shown—a description that is supported by information in the graph, which shows that medicine and health topic submissions were below 250 in 2016, 2017, and 2018, but above 250 (approximately 285 submissions) in 2019.

Choice A is incorrect because it doesn’t support the underlined claim or accurately reflect the information in the graph. This choice refers to 2016 and discusses cellular and molecular biology and animal science, whereas the underlined claim refers to 2019 and discusses medicine and health. Moreover, the claim that in 2016 there were equal numbers of submissions in the cellular and molecular biology category and in the animal science category is contradicted by the graph, which shows approximately 200 submissions and 50 submissions, respectively, for those categories in 2016. Choice B is incorrect because it doesn’t accurately reflect the information in the graph. This choice claims that in 2019 there were more physics and space submissions than there were medicine and health submissions, but the graph shows that there were approximately 100 space and science submissions that year and approximately 285 medicine and health submissions. Choice C is incorrect because it doesn’t accurately reflect the information in the graph or support the underlined claim about medicine and health research topics. This choice claims that there were approximately 95 submissions for the animal science category in 2016, but the graph shows that the number was closer to 50 in 2016.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 5105ca38

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 5105ca38

Several artworks found among the ruins of the ancient Roman city of Pompeii depict a female figure fishing with a cupid nearby. Some scholars have asserted that the figure is the goddess Venus, since she is known to have been linked with cupids in Roman culture, but University of Leicester archaeologist Carla Brain suggests that cupids may have also been associated with fishing generally. The fact that a cupid is shown near the female figure, therefore, blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • is not conclusive evidence that the figure is Venus.

  • suggests that Venus was often depicted fishing.

  • eliminates the possibility that the figure is Venus. 

  • would be difficult to account for if the figure is not Venus. 

ID: 5105ca38 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically completes the text’s discussion about the significance of the cupid found at Pompeii. The text indicates that the cupid is near a statue of a female figure who is fishing, and it goes on to indicate that because Venus is associated with cupids, some scholars believe the female figure to be the goddess Venus. But the text then says that, according to archaeologist Carla Brain, cupids may have also been associated with the activity of fishing, which, if true, would suggest that the mere appearance of a cupid near a female figure engaged in fishing does not indicate with certainty that the figure is Venus (that is, the cupid might be associated with fishing, and the figure might be anyone at all).

Choice B is incorrect because the text says nothing about how often Venus was depicted fishing in Roman art: it only implies that in certain instances a female figure may or may not be Venus. Choice C is incorrect because Carla Brain’s proposed explanation for the presence of the cupids makes no reference to the female figure, and so the possibility that the figure in the artworks is in fact Venus cannot be definitively eliminated. Choice D is incorrect because there is nothing in the text to suggest that the only reasonable way to interpret the figure is as Venus.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID d8758c3b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: d8758c3b

Psychologists wanted to test how young children think about rewards and fairness. In an experiment, two teachers handed out rewards while children (ages four to six) watched. The teachers gave out the same number of rewards, but one of them counted the rewards out loud. The children were then asked who was fairer. 73% chose the teacher who counted. The psychologists think that counting showed the children that the teacher wanted to be fair. The children may have believed that the teacher who did not count did not care about fairness.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Psychologists think children cannot understand the concept of fairness until they are six years old. 

  • An experiment found that counting out loud is the best way to teach mathematical concepts to children. 

  • Psychologists think young children expect to be rewarded when the children show that they care about fairness. 

  • An experiment showed that the way rewards are given out may affect whether young children think the situation is fair.

ID: d8758c3b Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The text describes a study assessing how children think of rewards and fairness and its results. It concludes that the children in the study may have thought that a teacher who counted out loud when giving rewards cared more about fairness than a teacher who did not count out loud.

Choice A is incorrect. The children in the study are described as being “four to six,” and the text doesn’t mention any differences among the different ages. Choice B is incorrect. The experiment wasn’t about teaching math—rather, it was about how counting out loud affected the children’s perception of fairness. Choice C is incorrect. The experiment doesn’t focus on whether the children care about fairness, and the text never mentions the children’s expectations of being rewarded.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 72c7dafd

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 72c7dafd

Happy House is a 1920 novel by Jane Abbott. The narrator presents a young woman as being unimpressed with the house she is visiting: blank

Which quotation from Happy House most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “Her first feeling was of disappointment; in the square lines of the house there was little claim to beauty.”

  • “Someone had opened one of the blinds so here there was more light.”

  • “The door, built squarely in the middle of the house, opened almost directly upon a stone-flagged path that led in a straight line to the road.”

  • “She tip-toed through the hall and opened the door on the right.”

ID: 72c7dafd Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses a quotation from Happy House to illustrate the claim that the young woman is unimpressed with the house she is visiting. In the quotation, it says the young woman’s "first feeling was of disappointment" and that "there was little claim to beauty" when referring to the house. This disappointment and the overall lack of beauty in the house suggest that the young woman isn’t impressed by the house she is visiting.

Choice B is incorrect because the quotation doesn’t describe what the young woman thinks about the house. Instead, it indicates that there is more light because window blinds have been opened. Choice C is incorrect because the quotation describes a door and a path outside of the house but doesn’t include anything to indicate the young woman’s feelings about the house. Choice D is incorrect because the quotation states what the young woman did in the house ("tip-toed through the hall" and "opened the door"), but it doesn’t show what she thinks about it.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 22b3da87

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 22b3da87

During the Bourbon Restoration in France (1814–1830), the right to vote required in part that a person paid at least 300 francs in direct taxes to the government. The four most common taxes (the quatre vieilles) were levied on real estate (both land and buildings); the doors and windows in taxpayer homes; the rental values of homes; and the businesses of artisans and merchants. (Foreign investments were either exempt from taxation or taxed lightly.) Although relatively few people paid the tax on real estate, it was the main means of voter qualification and accounted for over two-thirds of government receipts during this period, suggesting that during the Bourbon Restoration blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • those people who had the right to vote most likely had substantial holdings of French real estate.

  • the voting habits of French artisans and merchants were effective in reducing tax burdens on businesses.

  • the number of doors and windows in French residences was kept to a minimum but increased after 1830.

  • French people with significant foreign investments were unlikely to have the right to vote.

ID: 22b3da87 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. We’re told that people needed to pay “at least 300 francs in direct taxes” to be able to vote. We’re also told that, while “relatively few people paid the tax on real estate,” real estate taxes were both the main way people qualified to vote and the main source of revenue for the government. Based on this, we can infer that those who did qualify to vote likely had significant French real estate holdings.

Choice B is incorrect. The passage doesn’t mention the voting habits of artisans and merchants nor any reduction in tax burdens on businesses, so there’s no basis for this inference. Choice C is incorrect. Although we know that doors and windows were taxed during the Bourbon Restoration, we don’t have enough information to infer if doors and windows increased after this time. Choice D is incorrect. Although we know that foreign investments were only minimally taxed, we don’t have enough information to determine if those with significant foreign investments were unlikely to have voting rights. For example, it’s possible that those with significant foreign investments were likely to also be people with significant domestic investments which they did pay taxes on, so we don’t have the information necessary to make this inference.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 303537cf

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 303537cf

The following text is adapted from Lewis Carroll’s 1889 satirical novel Sylvie and Bruno. A crowd has gathered outside a room belonging to the Warden, an official who reports to the Lord Chancellor.

One man, who was more excited than the rest, flung his hat high into the air, and shouted (as well as I could make out) “Who roar for the Sub-Warden?” Everybody roared, but whether it was for the Sub-Warden, or not, did not clearly appear: some were shouting “Bread!” and some “Taxes!”, but no one seemed to know what it was they really wanted.

All this I saw from the open window of the Warden’s breakfast-saloon, looking across the shoulder of the Lord Chancellor.

“What can it all mean?” he kept repeating to himself. “I never heard such shouting before—and at this time of the morning, too! And with such unanimity!”

Based on the text, how does the Lord Chancellor respond to the crowd?

  • He asks about the meaning of the crowd’s shouting, even though he claims to know what the crowd wants.

  • He indicates a desire to speak to the crowd, even though the crowd has asked to speak to the Sub-Warden.

  • He expresses sympathy for the crowd’s demands, even though the crowd’s shouting annoys him.

  • He describes the crowd as being united, even though the crowd clearly appears otherwise.

ID: 303537cf Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a statement about how the Lord Chancellor responds to the crowd that is supported by the text. The text indicates that the people in the crowd are roaring and shouting “Bread!” or “Taxes!” and presents them as not knowing what they really want. The Lord Chancellor’s response is to ask what their shouting means but also to observe that they’re shouting with “unanimity,” or total agreement. Clearly, this isn’t the case, which supports the statement that the Lord Chancellor describes the crowd as being united even though it’s not. 

Choice A is incorrect because it isn’t supported by the text. Although the text indicates that the Lord Chancellor asks about the meaning of the crowd’s shouting, it doesn’t suggest that he knows what the crowd really wants. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the Lord Chancellor wants to speak to the crowd. Furthermore, the text doesn’t indicate that the crowd wants to hear from the Sub-Warden. Although the crowd roars when asked “Who roar for the Sub-Warden?” it’s unclear what the roaring means. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the Lord Chancellor knows of or sympathizes with the crowd’s demands. In addition, the text doesn’t indicate that the crowd’s shouting annoys the Lord Chancellor, just that it causes him to keep repeating “What can it all mean?”  

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID bcf2f169

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: bcf2f169

Ana Castillo’s 1986 novel The Mixquiahuala Letters is a story told entirely through expressive letters from the narrator to her friend—letters that Castillo suggests could be read in several different orders. As they began reading it in class, some students remarked that they found the novel’s letter format daunting and its treatment of gender relations old-fashioned. The professor, however, pointed out that the novel is written in modern-sounding language and addresses issues that still matter today, suggesting that The Mixquiahuala Letters blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • has more to say about gender relations than other novels from the same period.

  • is more relevant to contemporary audiences than it may seem at first.

  • is easier to read than many contemporary novels that focus on friendship.

  • is best understood after multiple readings in different orders.

ID: bcf2f169 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Ana Castillo’s 1986 novel The Mixquiahuala Letters. The text states that the novel consists entirely of letters from the narrator to her friend—a format that some students reading the novel in a class found intimidating. According to the text, those students also found the novel’s treatment of gender to be old-fashioned. In response to the students’ concerns, their professor emphasized the novel’s relevance: it’s written in modern-sounding language and addresses issues that still matter. This, in turn, suggests that The Mixquiahuala Letters is more relevant to contemporary audiences than it may initially seem.

Choice A is incorrect because the professor’s response to the students only mentions The Mixquiahuala Letters: it doesn’t compare the novel to others from the same period. Choice C is incorrect because nothing in the professor’s response to the students compares The Mixquiahuala Letters to contemporary novels about friendship. Choice D is incorrect because the professor’s response to the students doesn’t address the idea of reading the novel’s letters multiple times and in different orders.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 35ec767c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 35ec767c

Corn-Related Vocabulary in Various Southeastern Languages

Language family Word (language) English translation Proposed origin in vocabulary of the Totozoquean language family
Muskogean tanchi’ (Chickasaw); tanchi (Choctaw); vce (Muscogee, pronounced “uh-chi”) corn no
Iroquoian se-lu (Cherokee) corn no
Caddoan -k’as- (Caddo) dried corn yes
Chitimacha k’asma (Chitimacha) corn yes

In Caddo, a language from what is now the US Southeast, vocabulary pertaining to corn cultivation resembles equivalent vocabulary in the Totozoquean language family in Mexico. This resemblance is perhaps attributable to cultural contact: such words could have entered Caddo through the intermediary of the neighboring but unrelated Chitimacha language, concurrent with the dissemination of corn itself from Mexico into the Southeast after 700 CE. That the vocabulary pertaining to domestic crops accompanies them as they diffuse into new regions is an established phenomenon globally. Crops may also be decoupled from vocabulary altogether: corn cultivation became ubiquitous among the Southeastern tribes, yet blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • the origins of vocabulary pertaining to the crop vary across languages in the region, with the words for corn in Cherokee and the Muskogean languages showing no demonstrable relationship to Totozoquean vocabulary.

  • the region is linguistically diverse, being home not only to Chitimacha and Caddo, but also to the Muskogean language family (including Chickasaw, Choctaw, and Muscogee) and to one Iroquoian language (Cherokee).

  • corn-related vocabulary underwent changes when entering other, unrelated languages, as can be seen by the divergence of the Caddo word from the Chitimacha word it originated in.

  • words for corn in the languages of the Muskogean family evolved from a common root, with the Muscogee word having lost certain consonant sounds still present in the Chickasaw and Choctaw words.

ID: 35ec767c Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The table provides evidence that the words for corn in the Cherokee and Muskogean languages appear unrelated to those in Caddo language, which is described as closely related to the Totozoquean language family. This supports the claim that corn cultivation spread across the Southeast without necessarily spreading Totozoquean vocabulary along with it.

Choice B is incorrect. This choice emphasizes the diversity of Southeastern languages in general, but we’re specifically looking for information about words associated with corn. Choice C is incorrect. This choice shows how words for corn can change and evolve, but we’re looking for an example that shows how some words for corn can be completely unrelated. Choice D is incorrect. This choice shows words for corn that share a common root, but we’re looking for an example that shows how some words for corn can be unrelated.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 0e3b4967

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 0e3b4967

Scrapbooks of saved fabric pieces were commonly kept by women in the nineteenth-century United States, but few are as meticulously detailed as Hannah Ditzler Alspaugh’s work. Alongside each piece of fabric, Alspaugh recorded intimate memories, such as dressmaking with her sister. Additionally, she listed the prices and how she used the fabric. Historians note that by representing fifty years of changing textures, patterns, and dress styles, the scrapbook is a record of nineteenth-century textiles and dressmaking as well as Alspaugh’s life.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Alspaugh inspired other women to save pieces of fabric in scrapbooks and provide historical records of nineteenth-century fashions in the United States.

  • Historians rely on fabric scrapbooks to understand how fashions changed throughout the nineteenth-century United States.

  • Fabric scrapbooks were a popular hobby for many women in the nineteenth-century United States.

  • Alspaugh’s scrapbook provides a detailed account of her life and historical record of fashion trends in the nineteenth-century United States.

ID: 0e3b4967 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is correct. The text describes how Alspaugh’s scrapbook is both a record of her life and a historical record of nineteenth-century textiles and dressmaking.

Choice A is incorrect. The text says that it was common for American women to keep scrapbooks of fabric pieces in the nineteenth century, and it says that Alspaugh was one of these women. However, it never says that other women were inspired by Alspaugh. Choice B is incorrect. This is too general and too strong. The text says that Alspaugh’s scrapbook is a historical record of nineteenth-century textiles and dressmaking, but it never says that historians rely on such scrapbooks in general to understand how fashions changed throughout that time period. This choice also fails to even mention Alspaugh, who is the real focus of the text. Choice C is incorrect. The text does say this, but it’s a detail—not the main idea. The text is mainly about one woman’s scrapbook (Alspaugh’s), and this choice doesn’t even mention her.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID b4da6aaf

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: b4da6aaf

The musical Hadestown was produced off-Broadway in New York in 2016. A revised version of the musical premiered on Broadway in 2019, in a larger production. In a review of the Broadway production, theater critic Jesse Green enthusiastically praised the musical’s storytelling. However, Green also explained that he had seen the earlier version of Hadestown in 2016 and had found the storytelling to be very confusing. This suggests that in Green’s view, blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • the 2016 version of Hadestown had fewer storytelling problems than the 2019 version did.

  • Hadestown should have had a larger production in 2019 than it actually did.

  • the 2019 version of Hadestown was less enjoyable than the 2016 version.

  • Hadestown improved greatly between 2016 and its premiere on Broadway.

ID: b4da6aaf Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of critic Jesse Green’s review of the 2016 and 2019 productions of Hadestown. The text states that Green found the storytelling in the 2016 off-Broadway version to be "very confusing" but that he "enthusiastically praised" the storytelling in the revised 2019 Broadway version. This stark contrast in Green’s opinions suggests that he believed the musical had significantly improved between 2016 and its 2019 Broadway premiere.

Choice A is incorrect because it contradicts the information in the text. The text indicates that Green found the storytelling in the 2016 version to be "very confusing," while he "enthusiastically praised" the storytelling in the 2019 version. This suggests that the 2019 version had fewer, not more, storytelling problems. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t provide any information about Green’s opinion on the size of the 2019 Broadway production. While it mentions that the 2019 production was larger than the 2016 production, there’s no indication in the text that Green thought the 2019 production should have been even larger than it was. Choice C is incorrect because it contradicts the information in the text. The text’s description of Green’s enthusiastic praise for the 2019 production suggests that he found this version more enjoyable, not less enjoyable, than the 2016 version, which he described as "very confusing."

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 24c1b7e4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 24c1b7e4

Percentage Point Changes in US Federal Outlays Relative to GDP by Congressional Status

Period Congressional status Change in total outlays Change in nondefense outlays Change in defense outlays
1981–1988 divided −0.4 −1.3 0.9
1975–1976 divided 2.7 3.0 −0.3
1977–1980 undivided 0.3 0.6 −0.3
1964–1968 undivided 1.9 1.4 0.5
1969–1974 divided −1.8 2.1 −3.9

Economist Steve H. Hanke has shown that divided US Congresses—which occur when one party holds the majority in the House of Representatives and another holds the majority in the Senate—tend to accompany reductions in total federal outlays (spending) relative to gross domestic product (GDP), which Hanke interprets to reflect decreases in government size. Hanke calculated the percentage point change in total outlays (encompassing nondefense and defense outlays) for consecutive US Congresses. Hanke has pointed to his calculations as evidence that a divided Congress may be a “necessary but not sufficient condition” for a decrease in government size to occur.

Which choice best describes data from the table that support the underlined claim?

  • The periods of undivided Congresses were associated with increases in nondefense outlays, whereas all the periods of divided Congresses except one were associated with reductions in defense outlays.

  • All the periods of divided Congresses were associated with reductions in total outlays, although two periods were also associated with increases in nondefense outlays.

  • The periods of undivided Congresses were associated with increases in total outlays, whereas all the periods of divided Congresses were associated with reductions in either nondefense outlays or defense outlays.

  • All the periods of divided Congresses except one were associated with reductions in total outlays, whereas the periods of undivided Congresses were associated with increases in total outlays.

ID: 24c1b7e4 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The claim is that divided Congresses are necessary but insufficient—that is, we need divide Congresses, but they are not enough—to decrease government size, as measured by total federal outlays. This choice accurately expresses the supporting data from the “change in total outlays” part of the graph. Within the data set, divided Congresses sometimes decreased total outlays, but undivided ones never did.

Choice A is incorrect. The claim is only about government size, as measured by total federal outlays—defense and nondefense outlays aren’t relevant. Choice B is incorrect. The claim is only about government size as measured by total federal outlays—nondefense outlays aren’t relevant. Choice C is incorrect. The claim is only about government size as measured by total federal outlays—specific information about defense or nondefense outlays isn’t relevant.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID c188a397

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: c188a397

Recently, scientists looked at data collected by NASA’s InSight lander to learn more about seismic activity on Mars, known as marsquakes. The data show that the marsquakes all started from the same location on the planet. This discovery was surprising to scientists, as they expected that the marsquakes would originate from all over the planet because of the cooling of the planet’s surface. Now, scientists believe that there could be areas of active magma flows deep beneath the planet’s surface that trigger the marsquakes.  

According to the text, what was surprising to scientists studying the seismic activity data from NASA’s InSight lander?

  • The surface temperature of Mars has been rising. 

  • There were different types of seismic waves causing marsquakes.

  • NASA’s InSight lander collected less data than scientists had expected. 

  • All the marsquakes started from the same location on the planet.

ID: c188a397 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a statement about what surprised the scientists that is supported by the text. The text states that the marsquakes described in the data from NASA’s InSight lander originated from the same location on Mars. The text goes on to say that because they had expected the opposite (that marsquakes would originate from all over the planet) this discovery surprised the scientists.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t say that the data from NASA’s InSight lander revealed any surprising information about the planet’s surface temperature. Instead, the text mentions the cooling of Mars’s surface as a reason the scientists expected that marsquakes had multiple origins. In addition, cooling would indicate that the temperature has been falling rather than rising. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text indicates that by studying seismic activity scientists found a possible explanation for what causes marsquakes, the text doesn’t say that they discovered that marsquakes are caused by different types of seismic waves. Rather, the text states that based on the data from NASA’s InSight lander, scientists now believe that this seismic activity happens because of areas of active magma that flow below the planet’s surface. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss the amount of data NASA’s InSight lander collected or whether scientists who studied the data found the amount to be as expected. Instead, the text focuses on what the data revealed about where on Mars the marsquakes originated.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID ee41d7e0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: ee41d7e0

Arthropods—brine shrimp, hawk moths, and many other invertebrate animals—have a nervous system made up of a brain, nerve cord, and other nerves. Researchers have gained insights about this system in ancient arthropods from traces found in various fossils. For example, in a study of two fossils of the extinct arthropod species Mollisonia symmetrica, Javier Ortega-Hernández, James Weaver, and team observed clear signs of a nerve cord. They also saw possible indications of a synganglion, a brain-like mass of nerves. Researchers hope to identify more features of the nervous systems of prehistoric arthropods as additional fossils are found.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • There are several similarities between the brains of hawk moths and the brains of brine shrimp.

  • Fossil evidence can contribute to the understanding of the nervous system in ancient arthropods.

  • Newly discovered fossils suggest that ancient hawk moths and ancient brine shrimp had spines.

  • Researchers need to focus on finding more fossils of ancient arthropods.

ID: ee41d7e0 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text states that researchers have used fossils to learn about the nervous systems of ancient arthropods. It then provides a specific example of researchers studying fossils of Mollisonia symmetrica and finding evidence of a nerve cord and possibly a synganglion (a brain-like mass of nerves). The text concludes by noting that researchers hope to discover more features of prehistoric arthropods’ nervous systems "as additional fossils are found." Thus, the main idea of the text is that fossil evidence can contribute to the understanding of the nervous system in ancient arthropods.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t compare the brains of hawk moths and brine shrimp. These animals are merely mentioned as examples of arthropods in the opening sentence, and the text doesn’t go on to discuss any similarities between their brains. Choice C is incorrect because the text discusses nervous systems, not spines, in ancient arthropods, and it doesn’t specifically mention findings about ancient hawk moths or brine shrimp. Choice D is incorrect. While the text concludes by noting that researchers aim to discover additional characteristics of prehistoric arthropods’ nervous systems as more fossils are uncovered, this statement doesn’t suggest that researchers need to focus on finding more fossils. Rather, it simply indicates that researchers expect to learn more about this topic as additional fossils are discovered. Moreover, the statement is just a detail that supports the main idea; it’s not the main idea itself.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID fbb84fb0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: fbb84fb0

Hedda Gabler is an 1890 play by Henrik Ibsen. As a woman in the Victorian era, Hedda, the play’s central character, is unable to freely determine her own future. Instead, she seeks to influence another person’s fate, as is evident when she says to another character, blank

Which quotation from a translation of Hedda Gabler most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “Then what in heaven’s name would you have me do with myself?”

  • “I want for once in my life to have power to mould a human destiny.”

  • “Then I, poor creature, have no sort of power over you?”

  • “Faithful to your principles, now and for ever! Ah, that is how a man should be!”

ID: fbb84fb0 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most effectively illustrates the claim in the text that Hedda seeks to influence another character’s fate. In the quotation, Hedda says that she wants “to have power to mould a human destiny,” or shape a person’s fate, just as the text indicates. Additionally, the phrase “for once in my life” suggests that Hedda feels that she has never been able to shape anyone’s life, including her own, supporting the text’s assertion that she “is unable to freely determine her own future.”

Choice A is incorrect because this quotation shows Hedda being uncertain about what to do with her own life, not wanting to influence another person’s fate. Choice C is incorrect because while this quotation shows Hedda’s interest in finding out whether she has any power over another character, it doesn’t clearly show that she wants to influence that person’s fate. In this quotation, Hedda seems to have inferred or concluded (“then”) that she doesn’t have any influence over the person to whom she’s speaking, and she’s asking that person to confirm her lack of influence. Choice D is incorrect because this quotation expresses Hedda’s belief that a man should be true to his principles, not her desire to influence another person’s fate. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 11c00ab9

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 11c00ab9

Estimated Impacts of Invasive Predator Species on Threatened Birds, Mammals, and Reptiles

Invasive predator species Estimated impact on threatened birds Estimated impact on threatened mammals Estimated impact on threatened reptiles
Mongooses 0.66 0.75 0.44
Dogs 0.67 0.57 0.44
Cats 0.74 0.61 0.52

 

How harmful are invasive predators to threatened species? To find out, researchers assigned values from 0.25 to 1.00 to various harms caused by invasive predators. The researchers then used these values to estimate the extent to which several invasive predator species have harmfully impacted threatened birds, mammals, and reptiles. In the table, higher numbers represent greater impacts. The estimated impact of invasive mongooses on threatened mammals is blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the example?

  • 0.35.

  • 0.61.

  • 0.75.

  • 0.52.

ID: 11c00ab9 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it effectively uses data from the table to complete the example of the estimated impact of invasive mongooses on threatened mammals. The table shows the values for the estimated harmful impact of three invasive predator species (mongooses, dogs, and cats) on threatened birds, mammals, and reptiles. The text states that the values are on a scale from 0.25 (less impact) to 1.00 (greater impact). The table shows that the value for the estimated impact of invasive mongooses on threatened mammals is 0.75.

Choice A is incorrect because the table shows that the value for the estimated impact of mongooses on threatened mammals is 0.75, not 0.35. The value 0.35 is not assigned to any of the categories in the table. Choice B is incorrect because the table shows that 0.61 is the value for the estimated impact of cats, not mongooses, on threatened mammals. Choice D is incorrect because the table shows that 0.52 is the value for the estimated impact of cats on threatened reptiles, not of mongooses on threatened mammals.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 73d457b6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 73d457b6

In the 1970s, a roughly 60,000-year-old piece of hyena bone marked with nine notches was discovered at a site in western France once inhabited by Neanderthals. Although many believe that only modern humans developed systems for notating numbers, one archaeologist asserts that this artifact may be a sign that Neanderthals also recorded numerical information. The notches on the bone are unevenly spaced but approximately parallel, and microscopic analysis reveals that they were made with a single stone tool; according to the archaeologist, this suggests that the notches were all made at one time by one individual as a means of counting something.

Which finding, if true, would most directly weaken the underlined claim?

  • Parallel lines are a common feature in modern humans’ early systems for recording numerical information.

  • More than nine approximately parallel notches made with a different stone tool are present on another artifact found at a site in western France.

  • It would have taken careful effort to make evenly spaced lines on bone with the stone tools typically used by Neanderthals.

  • Decorative art discovered at another Neanderthal site in western France primarily features patterns of unevenly spaced parallel lines.

ID: 73d457b6 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The archeologist bases their claim on the fact that the hyena bone features unevenly spaced parallel notches. But if unevenly spaced parallel lines were found on "decorative art" at another Neanderthal site, it would suggest that the hyena bone is probably decorative art as well—not a counting tool.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t weaken the underlined claim. If anything, it might actually strengthen the claim: assuming we can make an inference about Neanderthals using a fact about early humans, it provides more support for the idea that the person who made the notches was counting something. Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t weaken the underlined claim. The fact that another artifact had parallel notches made with a different stone tool doesn’t tell us anything about the use of either artifact. For all we know, they could both have been used for counting. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t weaken the underlined claim. The fact that it took effort to make the lines doesn’t tell us anything about what the lines were for.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 41d5c33e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 41d5c33e

The following text is from Beatrice Harraden’s 1894 novel Ships that Pass in the Night.

In an old second-hand bookshop in London, an old man sat reading Gibbon’s History of Rome. He did not put down his book when the postman brought him a letter. He just glanced indifferently at the letter, and impatiently at the postman. Zerviah Holme did not like to be interrupted when he was reading Gibbon; and as he was always reading Gibbon, an interruption was always regarded by him as an insult.

Based on the text, how did Zerviah Holme most likely feel when the letter was delivered?

  • He felt relieved because he had been expecting an important letter. 

  • He felt excited because the letter was from a good friend.

  • He felt sad because the postman did not stop to talk with him before leaving. 

  • He felt annoyed because he was interrupted while reading his favorite author.

ID: 41d5c33e Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a description of how Zerviah Holme felt that is directly supported by the text. The text states that Holme "did not like to be interrupted" while reading Gibbon and that he considered interruptions to be "an insult." Furthermore, the text suggests that Gibbon is Holme’s favorite author because, as the text states, "he was always reading Gibbon." Thus, Holme would have felt annoyed at having been interrupted when the letter was delivered.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that Holme is relieved to receive the letter. Instead, the text states that Holme "just glanced indifferently at the letter," suggesting that the letter wasn’t important to him. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that Holme is excited to receive the letter. Instead, the text states that Holme didn’t put down his book to receive the letter and that he looked at the letter "indifferently" and at the postman "impatiently." This suggests that Holme isn’t excited. Also, there is no mention that Holme knows who sent the letter. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that Holme is sad or that he wants to speak with the postman. Instead, the text describes Holme as looking "impatiently at the postman," which suggests that he wants the postman to leave.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 56f477fb

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 56f477fb

Distribution of Ecosystem Services Affected by Invasive Species by Service Type

Region (Overall) Provisioning (75%) Regulating (21%) Cultural (4%)
West 73% 27% 0%
North 88% 12% 0%
South 79% 14% 7%
East 83% 6% 11%
Central 33% 67% 0%

To assess the impact of invasive species on ecosystems in Africa, Benis N. Egoh and colleagues reviewed government reports from those nations about how invasive species are undermining ecosystem services (aspects of the ecosystem on which residents depend). The services were sorted into three categories: provisioning (material resources from the ecosystem), regulating (natural processes such as cleaning the air or water), and cultural (nonmaterial benefits of ecosystems). Egoh and her team assert that countries in each region reported effects on provisioning services and that provisioning services represent the majority of the reported services.

Which choice best describes data from the table that support Egoh and colleagues’ assertion?

  • Provisioning services represent 73% of the services reported for the West region and 33% of those for the Central region, but they represent 75% of the services reported overall.

  • None of the percentages shown for provisioning services are lower than 33%, and the overall percentage shown for provisioning services is 75%.

  • Provisioning services are shown for each region, while no cultural services are shown for some regions.

  • The greatest percentage shown for provisioning services is 88% for the North region, and the least shown for provisioning services is 33% for the Central region.

ID: 56f477fb Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The finding that all the regions reported at least some effects on provisioning services supports the first part of the assertion. And the fact that provisioning services comprise 75% of the reported services overall supports the second part of the assertion.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t fully support the assertion. It doesn’t include the finding that all the regions (not just Central and West) reported at least some effects on provisioning services. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t fully support the assertion. It doesn’t demonstrate that provisioning services represent the majority of the reported services overall. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t fully support the assertion. It doesn’t demonstrate that provisioning services represent the majority of the reported services overall.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID cac82f9b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: cac82f9b

Biologist Natacha Bodenhausen and colleagues analyzed the naturally occurring bacterial communities associated with leaves and roots of wild Arabidopsis thaliana, a small flowering plant. The researchers found many of the same bacterial genera in both the plants’ leaves and roots. To explain this, the researchers pointed to the general proximity of A. thaliana leaves to the ground and noted that rain splashing off soil could bring soil-based bacteria into contact with the leaves. Alternatively, the researchers noted that wind, which may be a source of bacteria in the aboveground portion of plants, could also bring bacteria to the soil and roots. Either explanation suggests that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • bacteria carried by wind are typically less beneficial to A. thaliana than soil-based bacteria are.

  • some bacteria in A. thaliana leaves and roots may share a common source.

  • many bacteria in A. thaliana leaves may have been deposited by means other than rain.

  • A. thaliana leaves and roots are especially vulnerable to harmful bacteria.

ID: cac82f9b Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. Both explanations suggest that the bacteria come from the same place: either they come from the ground and make their way to the leaves, or they come from above the ground and make their way to the roots.

Choice A is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text never discusses any benefits of any kind of bacteria. Choice C is incorrect. This conflicts with the text. One of the theories is that the bacteria in the leaves were deposited by rain splashing off soil. Choice D is incorrect. This inference isn’t supported. The text only discusses “naturally occurring” bacteria. It never mentions either the harms or benefits of these bacteria.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 7afdcca2

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 7afdcca2

Over 600 languages are spoken in New York City in addition to English—one can find Amharic spoken in the neighborhood of Norwood, or Ilocano in Woodside. Most speakers of Chinese languages reside in the neighborhood of Flushing (part of New York City’s borough of Queens) and in Chinatown, in the borough of Manhattan. New immigrants from north China, where Mandarin is the primary first language, tend to settle in Queens, while new immigrants from south China, where many people speak Cantonese or Fuzhounese as a first language, tend to settle in Manhattan. It can therefore be inferred that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • languages tend to change more rapidly in areas where many languages are spoken than in areas where few languages are spoken.

  • languages spoken by immigrant peoples can differ significantly in vocabulary and pronunciation from those same languages in their country of origin.

  • there is a positive correlation between the physical size of a country and the number of languages spoken in that country.

  • correlations in a country between languages and regions where they are spoken can replicate themselves in a new country to which the original country’s citizens emigrate.

ID: 7afdcca2 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it logically completes the text’s discussion of patterns of linguistic distribution in New York City. The text explains how Chinese immigrants in New York City tend to settle in different boroughs based on their region of origin in China: those from north China (Mandarin speakers) typically settle in Queens, while those from south China (Cantonese or Fuzhounese speakers) typically settle in Manhattan. This pattern demonstrates that the regional language distribution in China (north versus south) has reproduced itself in New York City (Queens versus Manhattan). Therefore, it can be reasonably inferred that correlations between languages and regions in one country can replicate themselves when citizens of that country emigrate to a new country.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss rates of language change. The text indicates that many languages are spoken in New York City, but it doesn’t provide any information about how quickly these languages might be changing, either in relation to each other or compared to areas where fewer languages are spoken. Choice B is incorrect because the text provides no information about changes in vocabulary or pronunciation of immigrant languages compared to their original forms. The text only discusses where different groups of language speakers tend to settle, not how their languages might have evolved after immigration. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t provide any information about a relationship between a country’s physical size and the number of languages spoken there. While the text mentions that over 600 languages are spoken in New York City, it doesn’t relate this to the physical size of New York or the United States, nor does it suggest that large countries like China have more languages than geographically smaller countries.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 783d1388

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 783d1388

The Souls of Black Folk is a 1903 book by W.E.B. Du Bois. In the book, Du Bois suggests that upon hearing Black folk songs, he felt an intuitive and sometimes unexpected sense of cultural recognition: blank

Which quotation from The Souls of Black Folk most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “[Black folk music] still remains as the singular spiritual heritage of the nation and the greatest gift of the Negro people.”

  • “Ever since I was a child these songs have stirred me strangely. They came out of the South unknown to me, one by one, and yet at once I knew them as of me and of mine.”

  • “Caricature has sought again to spoil the quaint beauty of the music, and has filled the air with many debased melodies which vulgar ears scarce know from the real. But the true Negro folk-song still lives in the hearts of those who have heard them truly sung and in the hearts of the Negro people.”

  • “The songs are indeed the siftings of centuries; the music is far more ancient than the words, and in it we can trace here and there signs of development.”

ID: 783d1388 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because the quotation from The Souls of Black Folk illustrates the claim that Du Bois felt a sense of cultural recognition when he heard Black folk songs. In the quotation, Du Bois explains that for his entire life, Black folk songs “stirred [him] strangely.” Even though they originated in the South, a region he wasn’t familiar with, he knew the songs “as of me and of mine.” That is, he identified strongly with them and associated them with his community. Therefore, Du Bois felt an intuitive sense of cultural recognition when he heard Black folk songs. 

Choice A is incorrect. Although the quotation considers the cultural and spiritual value of Black folk music, it doesn’t establish that this music inspired in Du Bois a sense of cultural recognition. Choice C is incorrect because this quotation addresses the cultural survival of Black folk songs despite attempts to caricature, or parody, them, not Du Bois’s sense of cultural connection to them. Choice D is incorrect because the quotation indicates that the Black folk songs and music are old, “the siftings of centuries,” instead of addressing how Du Bois felt when he heard the songs.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID af125459

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: af125459

Number and Origin of Clamshell Tools Found at Different Depths below the Surface in Neanderthal Cave

Depth of tools found below surface in cave (meters) Clamshells that Neanderthals collected from the beach Clamshells that Neanderthals harvested from the seafloor
2–3 7 0
3–4 99 33
4–5 2 0
5–6 18 7
6–7 1 0

Two kinds of clamshell tools used by Neanderthals were dug up in a cave on the western coast of Italy. Archaeologist Paola Villa and her colleagues studied the tools and determined that Neanderthals either collected clams that had washed onto the beach or harvested clams from the seafloor and then sharpened the shells to make tools. The highest number of tools made from clamshells that were collected from the beach was found at a depth of blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the text?

  • 5–6 meters below the surface.

  • 4–5 meters below the surface. 

  • 3–4 meters below the surface.

  • 6–7 meters below the surface.

ID: af125459 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement about the depth at which the highest number of tools made from clamshells that Neanderthals collected from the beach was found. The table presents the depths at which Neanderthal clamshell tools were found, and, for each depth, the number of those tools made from clamshells that washed up on the beach and the number made from clamshells harvested from the seafloor. The table indicates that the highest number made from clamshells collected from the beach was 99 and that these tools were found at a depth of 3–4 meters.

Choice A is incorrect because the table indicates that 18 tools made from clamshells collected from the beach were found at a depth of 5–6 meters, which is fewer than the 99 tools found at a depth of 3–4 meters. Choice B is incorrect because the table indicates that 2 tools made from clamshells collected from the beach were found at a depth of 4–5 meters, which is fewer than the 99 tools found at a depth of 3–4 meters. Choice D is incorrect because the table indicates that 1 tool made from clamshells collected from the beach was found at a depth of 6–7 meters, which is fewer than the 99 tools found at a depth of 3–4 meters.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID b69d821d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: b69d821d

The following text is Vita Sackville-West’s circa 1920 poem “Evening.” Spars are ships’ masts, moorings are ropes that hold docked ships in place, and a riding-light is a light that a ship shines when it is anchored.

When little lights in little ports come out,

Quivering down through water with the stars,

And all the fishing fleet of slender spars

Range at their moorings, veer with tide about;

 

When race of wind is stilled and sails are furled,

And underneath our single riding-light

The curve of black-ribbed deck gleams palely white,

And slumbrous waters pool a slumbrous world;

 

—Then, and then only, have I thought how sweet

Old age might sink upon a windy youth,

Quiet beneath the riding-light of truth,

Weathered through storms, and gracious in retreat.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • The tranquility of a port in the evening can incline a person to appreciate the stillness of old age.

  • The difficulty of bringing a ship into port is apt training for dealing with the types of struggles encountered in old age.

  • A person who leads a long life that is varied and active may find it difficult to stay in a calm place.

  • The contrast between the peacefulness of a port at night and its activity during the day reflects the contrast between the calm of old age and the vibrancy of youth.

ID: b69d821d Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it best states the main idea of the text. The speaker describes an evening scene observed from a boat: "little lights in little ports come out" and are reflected in the water’s surface "with the stars," fishing boats are moored, "sails are furled" (rolled up), and the riding-light is shining. The speaker emphasizes the calmness of the scene, noting that the "race of wind is stilled" and the atmosphere is sleepy ("slumbrous waters pool a slumbrous world"), and then indicates that the calmness prompts thoughts of how old age might be "sweet" and "quiet" and "gracious in retreat" after "a windy youth" with "storms." Thus, the main idea is that the tranquility of a port in the evening can lead a person to appreciate the potential stillness of old age.

Choice B is incorrect because the speaker isn’t discussing the difficulty of bringing a ship into port but describing the calmness of the port at night. And rather than suggesting that old age involves struggles, the speaker suggests that after "a windy youth" with "storms" to be weathered, old age will be "sweet," "quiet," and "gracious"—that is, old age will be tranquil like a port at night. Choice C is incorrect because the speaker isn’t suggesting that a person who has lived a varied and active life might find it difficult to stay in a calm place in old age. On the contrary, the speaker suggests that after a "windy youth" with "storms," old age can be welcomed as something "sweet," "quiet," and "gracious," just like a calm port at night. Choice D is incorrect. Although the speaker does touch on the idea of a "windy youth" followed by "sweet old age," the speaker doesn’t tie that idea to a contrast between daytime activity and nighttime peacefulness at a port. The speaker doesn’t address any activity during the day at a port, only briefly mentioning that the "race of wind is stilled" at the end of the day, and instead focuses on the tranquility of the port at night and how it prompts thoughts of "quiet" and "gracious" old age.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID cbdd5287

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: cbdd5287
110 100 90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0Survival rate (% alive) 0 2 6 10 14Average Survival of Fruit Flies following InfectionDays after infection type A flies type AB flies type B flies
  • The following 3 lines are shown:
    • type A flies
    • type AB flies
    • type B flies
  • The type A flies line:
    • Begins at 0 days, 100%
    • Remains level to 2 days after infection, 100%
    • Falls gradually to 6 days after infection, 96%
    • Falls gradually to 10 days after infection, 92%
    • Falls gradually to 14 days after infection, 90%
  • The type AB flies line: 
    • Begins at 0 days after infection, 100%
    • Falls gradually to 2 days after infection, 98%
    • Falls sharply to 6 days after infection, 46%
    • Falls sharply to 10 days after infection, 12%
    • Falls sharply to 14 days after infection, 0%
  • The type B flies line: 
    • Begins at 0 days after infection, 100%
    • Falls gradually to 2 days after infection, 96%
    • Falls sharply to 6 days after infection, 41%
    • Falls sharply to 10 days after infection, 4%
    • Falls gradually to 14 days after infection, 0%

In a study of the evolution of DptA and DptB—Diptericin genes encoding antimicrobial peptides that combat pathogens and foster beneficial microbes in fruit flies (Drosophila)—researchers assessed Drosophila melanogaster resistance to pathogenic infections by Providencia rettgeri and Acetobacter sicerae, bacteria common in the flies’ environments. Subjects included flies identified by mutations silencing DptA, DptB, or both DptA and DptB (termed types A, B, and AB, respectively). In conjunction with the observation that resistance to P. rettgeri correlates with DptA activity but is not significantly affected by DptB activity, data in the graph of survival rates post–A. sicerae infection suggest that blank

Which completion of the text is best supported by data in the graph?

  • DptA confers defense against A. sicerae regardless of the presence of DptB.

  • DptB protects against only one bacteria species, whereas DptA protects against multiple species.

  • DptB may have developed as a specific defense against A. sicerae.

  • defense against A. sicerae is strongest when both DptA and DptB are present.

ID: cbdd5287 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text based on supporting data in the graph. The text indicates that in the fly D. melanogaster, DptA and DptB are genes that encode peptides that both fight pathogens and promote beneficial microbes. Researchers tested D. melanogaster’s resistance to P. rettgeri and A. sicerae bacteria based on which variation of the peptide-encoding gene the flies exhibit: DptA silenced (referred to as type A), DptB silenced (type B), or both silenced (type AB). The text also indicates that resistance to P. rettgeri correlates with DptA activity but not with DptB activity (which would manifest as type B flies surviving at a higher rate than other fly types when exposed to P. rettgeri). The graph shows the post–A. sicerae infection results, which indicate that DptB activity was most strongly associated with survival, whereas DptA activity was not (manifesting in the graph as the type A flies having greater survival rates than the other fly types). In other words, when DptA activity was silenced, the flies showed relatively high survival rates, but when DptB activity was silenced, whether on its own or in conjunction with DptA activity being silenced, survival rates were low, suggesting that DptB may have developed as a specific defense against A. sicerae.

Choice A is incorrect. The graph suggests that DptA activity is associated with a low rate of survival, not a high one. Furthermore, the graph shows results for flies where DptA alone was silenced, DptB alone was silenced, and both were silenced and thus does not show any flies with activity in both DptA and DptB, which would be necessary to determine whether DptA conferred defense against A. sicerae in the presence of DptB. Choice B is incorrect. Only two bacteria species were considered in the text: P. rettgeri and A. sicerae. The text and graph taken together suggest that activity in DptA is associated with resistance to P. rettgeri while DptB activity is not, and that DptB activity is associated with resistance to A. sicerae while DptA is not. There is no further information to suggest one genetic type confers resistance to a greater number of pathogens than the other. Choice D is incorrect. The graph does not address flies with activity in both DptA and DptB. All flies represented in the graph had one or both of DptA and DptB silenced, or inactive.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 0045c234

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 0045c234

Given that stars and planets initially form from the same gas and dust in space, some astronomers have posited that host stars (such as the Sun) and their planets (such as those in our solar system) are composed of the same materials, with the planets containing equal or smaller quantities of the materials that make up the host star. This idea is also supported by evidence that rocky planets in our solar system are composed of some of the same materials as the Sun.

Which finding, if true, would most directly weaken the astronomers’ claim?

  • Most stars are made of hydrogen and helium, but when cooled they are revealed to contain small amounts of iron and silicate.

  • A nearby host star is observed to contain the same proportion of hydrogen and helium as that of the Sun.

  • Evidence emerges that the amount of iron in some rocky planets is considerably higher than the amount in their host star.

  • The method for determining the composition of rocky planets is discovered to be less effective when used to analyze other kinds of planets.

ID: 0045c234 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would weaken the astronomers’ claim about the makeup of host stars and their planets. The text explains that because stars and planets begin forming from the same gas and dust, astronomers believe planets should be composed of the same materials as their host stars, but in equal or smaller quantities. The finding that the amount of iron in some rocky planets is much higher than the amount in their host star would weaken the astronomers’ claim because it would show that some planets contain the same material as their host star, but in higher quantities.

Choice A is incorrect because a finding only about the makeup of stars, whether they’ve cooled or not, would provide no information about the makeup of planets. Thus, it wouldn’t have any bearing on the claim that planets and their host stars are composed of the same materials in differing quantities. Choice B is incorrect because a finding about two host stars having similar proportions of certain materials wouldn’t provide any information about the makeup of planets. Thus, it wouldn’t be relevant to the claim that planets and their host stars are composed of the same materials in differing quantities. Choice D is incorrect because the text indicates that the astronomers’ claim is based on a fact—that stars and planets begin forming from the same gas and dust in space—which would remain true regardless of the effectiveness of a method for analysis of compositions. The text does cite analysis of rocky planets in our solar system and the Sun, but only as a single piece of evidence that is consistent with the claim and not as the source of the claim; the finding that the method used for that analysis is less effective in other scenarios wouldn’t weaken a claim that’s based on knowledge of how stars and planets initially form.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 923ebfe3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 923ebfe3

Businesses selling clothing and other fashion items face obstacles in trying to forecast how much product to order: tastes and styles change quickly, while manufacturing clothing takes a significant amount of time. Researchers Youran Fu and Marshall Fisher have found that combining sellers’ own data with information gathered from social media can dramatically improve the accuracy of such forecasts—by 24 to 57 percent in the cases they directly studied. Better predictions mean demand is easier to meet without retailers becoming overstocked.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Using multiple data sources can enhance the ability of sellers in the fashion industry to anticipate demand.

  • Social media is revolutionizing how both sellers and researchers view the fashion industry.

  • Becoming overstocked is the main preoccupation of sellers trying to forecast demand for fashion items.

  • Retailers can use their own data to accurately predict how tastes and styles are evolving.

ID: 923ebfe3 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text explains that fashion retailers face challenges in forecasting product demand due to rapidly changing tastes and lengthy manufacturing times. It then presents research by Fu and Fisher showing that combining retailers’ own data with social media information significantly improves forecast accuracy. The text concludes by noting that better predictions help retailers meet demand without becoming overstocked. Thus, the main idea is that using multiple data sources (retailers’ own data combined with social media information) can enhance fashion retailers’ ability to anticipate demand.

Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t claim that social media is revolutionizing, or fundamentally changing, how sellers and researchers view the fashion industry. The text never addresses the way the fashion industry is viewed; rather, it discusses a practical approach sellers in the industry can take to better match production with demand. Choice C is incorrect. Although avoiding overstocking is mentioned as a benefit of an approach that can help fashion sellers better predict demand, the text doesn’t focus on overstocking or characterize it as the main concern of sellers. Rather, the text is focused on discussing the approach itself. Choice D is incorrect because the text suggests that fashion sellers encounter obstacles when using their own data to try to forecast demand as tastes and styles change; the text focuses on the idea that instead of using their own data alone, retailers should combine their own data with social media information to more accurately forecast demand.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 09775cbf

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 09775cbf

In a series of experiments, Julio Sevilla and Claudia Townsend showed that manipulating the space between products in store displays can influence consumers’ views of those products. Participants in several of the experiments regarded the same products in the same (generic) retail settings as significantly more valuable when the product-to-space ratio was low than when it was high. But in one of the experiments, Sevilla and Townsend arranged the same jewelry with different levels of intervening space at an upscale retailer (Tiffany & Co.) and a relatively inexpensive retailer (Forever 21). The result of this experiment suggests that a store context associated with inexpensive products may moderate the effect Sevilla and Townsend observed in their other experiments.

Which finding from the experiment with Tiffany & Co. and Forever 21, if true, would most directly support the conclusion presented in the text?

  • At Tiffany & Co., participants judged jewelry spaced far apart to be substantially more valuable than jewelry spaced close together, but at Forever 21, participants judged jewelry spaced far apart to be only slightly more valuable than jewelry spaced close together. 

  • At both Tiffany & Co. and Forever 21, participants judged jewelry spaced far apart to be less valuable than jewelry spaced close together, but the difference in perceived value was significantly greater at Tiffany & Co. than at Forever 21.

  • Participants judged jewelry spaced far apart at Tiffany & Co. to be similar in value to jewelry spaced far apart at Forever 21, but participants judged jewelry spaced close together at Tiffany & Co. to be more valuable than jewelry spaced close together at Forever 21.

  • When jewelry was spaced far apart, participants judged the jewelry at Tiffany & Co. to be more valuable than the jewelry at Forever 21, but when jewelry was spaced close together, participants judged the jewelry at Tiffany & Co. to be less valuable than the jewelry at Forever 21. 

ID: 09775cbf Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support the text’s conclusion about the results of the experiment with Tiffany & Co. and Forever 21. According to the text, Sevilla and Townsend found in several experiments that when products in a generic retail setting are displayed with a low product-to-space ratio (that is, with lots of space between them), consumers view those products as significantly more valuable than when the same products are displayed with a higher product-to-space ratio (less space between them). The text then states that the results of an experiment specifically using the contexts of an inexpensive store (Forever 21) and an upscale one (Tiffany & Co.) suggest that an inexpensive store context may moderate, or lessen, that effect. If Sevilla and Townsend found that participants in the experiment with Tiffany & Co. and Forever 21 judged the same jewelry items as substantially more valuable when there was lots of space between them than when there was little space between them in the upscale store (Tiffany & Co.) but judged the same jewelry items as only slightly more valuable when there was lots of space between them than when there was little space between them in the inexpensive store (Forever 21), that finding would demonstrate that increased space between products was associated with less of an increase in those products’ perceived value at the inexpensive store than at the upscale store. Thus, the finding would support the text’s conclusion that a store context associated with inexpensive goods moderates the effect Sevilla and Townsend observed in their earlier experiments.

Choice B is incorrect because if Sevilla and Townsend found that at both upscale and inexpensive stores, participants judged jewelry spaced far apart to be less valuable than jewelry spaced close together, that would show the opposite of the effect the researchers observed in their earlier experiments, not show that an inexpensive store context merely moderates, or lessens, that effect. Choice C is incorrect because this finding wouldn’t show that the effect Sevilla and Townsend observed in their initial experiments (that products spaced far apart were perceived as more valuable than the same products spaced close together) is present but lessened in inexpensive retail contexts, as the text suggests. The conclusion in the text rests on determining the difference in jewelry items’ perceived value between two spacing conditions within each store and then comparing the difference for the inexpensive store (Forever 21) to the difference for the upscale store (Tiffany & Co.); a finding that compares perceptions of the jewelry items’ value between the two stores but for only one type of spacing condition at a time wouldn’t provide information about the degree of difference between spacing conditions within each type of store context. Choice D is incorrect because this finding wouldn’t show that the effect Sevilla and Townsend observed in their initial experiments (that products spaced far apart were perceived as more valuable than the same products spaced close together) is present but lessened in inexpensive retail contexts, as the text suggests. The conclusion in the text rests on determining the difference in jewelry items’ perceived value between two spacing conditions within each store and then comparing the difference for the inexpensive store (Forever 21) to the difference for the upscale store (Tiffany & Co.); a finding that compares perceptions of the relative value of jewelry items between the two stores and for only one type of spacing condition at a time wouldn’t provide information about the degree of difference between spacing conditions within each type of store context.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID f64ff4fb

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: f64ff4fb

In her 1998 book Blues Legacies and Black Feminism, Angela Y. Davis bases her analysis in part on recordings of songs sung in the 1920s by Gertrude “Ma” Rainey and Bessie Smith. Davis focuses on how Rainey and Smith improvised the lyrics—replacing the original lines with mischievous jokes and wordplay. Davis’s work was particularly labor intensive because in order to transcribe, or write down, the lyrics as Rainey and Smith sang them, Davis had to listen repeatedly to the vinyl recordings, which weren’t very clear. 

What does the text most strongly suggest about the songs sung by Rainey and Smith?

  • The songs have grown in popularity since Rainey and Smith first sang them. 

  • There were more recordings made of Rainey’s songs than there were of Smith’s.

  • There were few, if any, reliable transcriptions of Smith’s and Rainey’s improvised lyrics when Davis began her research.

  • According to Davis, the songs sung by Rainey were more musically innovative than those sung by Smith typically were.

ID: f64ff4fb Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it describes the songs sung by Gertrude "Ma" Rainey and Bessie Smith in a way the text implies is accurate. The text describes Angela Y. Davis’s research on Rainey and Smith for her book Blues Legacies and Black Feminism, focusing on her efforts to transcribe the improvised lyrics in Rainey’s and Smith’s songs. The text calls Davis’s transcription process "labor intensive" since the lack of clarity in the recordings required her to listen to each repeatedly to verify the accuracy of her transcripts. The fact that Davis undertook a painstaking transcription process using only fairly low-fidelity recordings suggests that reliable transcriptions were otherwise unavailable to her.

Choice A is incorrect. The text doesn’t discuss the popularity of Rainey’s and Smith’s songs either in the 1920s or after. Although it is plausible that the music of Rainey and Smith is more widely enjoyed than it was in the 1920s, this isn’t supported by the text. Choice B is incorrect. The text doesn’t discuss which of Rainey and Smith was the more prolific recording artist and so provides no support for such a claim. Choice D is incorrect. The text discusses the creativity of both Rainey and Smith, but it does so only to note similarities between them in terms of improvisation and wit, not to emphasize differences between them or Davis’s relative views of the artists’ inventiveness.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID e503ae04

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: e503ae04

With the ongoing expansion of e-commerce, consumers are expecting faster and faster delivery of goods, but delivery companies continue to struggle with last-mile logistics (the final step in delivery to consumers) due to challenges such as complex and inefficient delivery routes. Innovations to mitigate these challenges have been emerging—the use of aerial drones, for example—but these innovations tend to engender their own complications (e.g., regulations on the use of drones in residential airspace), leading researchers to conclude that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • consumers’ expectations for reduced delivery times may be outstripping what is viable for delivery companies to provide.

  • a better understanding of consumers’ expectations for delivery is needed so that companies can better plan for fluctuations in delivery volume.

  • rapid delivery is a leading factor in consumer satisfaction, and therefore delivery companies would benefit from investing resources in reducing delivery times.

  • there may not be sufficient incentive for delivery companies to attempt to solve the problems associated with last-mile logistics.

ID: e503ae04 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of consumer expectations and the struggles delivery companies face. The text states that while consumers expect ever-faster delivery of goods, delivery companies "continue to struggle with last-mile logistics." The text further explains that innovations aimed at addressing this challenge have a tendency to cause complications of their own. Because escalating consumer demands for speed are paired with persistent, complex delivery obstacles and new problems arising from attempted solutions, it logically follows that consumer expectations for delivery times may be exceeding what companies can feasibly provide.

Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t address the idea of delivery volumes at all and makes it clear that companies are already aware of and trying to address consumers’ expectations for delivery. Further, the challenge presented at the end of the text relates to new problems that tend to arise with solutions for logistical problems, not to a lack of understanding of what consumers want or how delivery volumes fluctuate. Choice C is incorrect. The text does suggest that rapid delivery is important for customer satisfaction and thus is a beneficial investment for companies, but that idea is already presented in the beginning of the text and doesn’t logically follow as a conclusion from the information about innovations companies are exploring to solve last-mile logistics problems; the idea that the potential solutions tend to introduce new issues points to the feasibility of meeting consumer expectations, not to the general fact that it would be beneficial to reduce delivery times. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that there may be insufficient incentive for delivery companies to try to solve last-mile logistics problems—on the contrary, the text directly indicates that delivery companies are already actively pursuing innovations to try to address those problems, citing the example of the use of aerial drones, even though the innovations can introduce new complications.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID a3fb5e77

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Hard
ID: a3fb5e77

Some animal-behavior studies involve observing wild animals in their natural habitat, and some involve capturing wild animals and observing them in a laboratory. Each approach has advantages over the other. In wild studies, researchers can more easily presume that the animals are behaving normally, and in lab studies, researchers can more easily control factors that might affect the results. But if, for example, the results from a wild study and a lab study of Western scrub-jays (Aphelocoma californica) contradict each other, one or both of the studies must have failed to account for some factor that was relevant to the birds’ behavior.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • When the results of a natural-habitat study and those from a lab study of a wild animal such as the Western scrub-jay conflict, the study in the natural habitat is more likely than the lab study to have accurate results.

  • Studying wild animals such as the Western scrub-jay in both their natural habitat and lab settings is likely to yield conflicting results that researchers cannot fully resolve.

  • Wild animals such as the Western scrub-jay can be effectively studied in their natural habitat and in the lab, but each approach has drawbacks that could affect the accuracy of the findings.

  • Differing results between natural-habitat and lab studies of wild animals such as the Western scrub-jay are a strong indication that both of the studies had design flaws that affected the accuracy of their results.

ID: a3fb5e77 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text begins by explaining that wild animals can be studied in their natural habitat or in a laboratory setting, with each setting offering unique advantages to researchers. The text then highlights an instance in which Western scrub-jays were studied in both settings but with conflicting results, indicating that one or both studies may have failed to account for the disadvantages of its research setting. Thus, the main idea of the text is that while wild animals can be effectively studied in natural or lab settings, there are drawbacks to each that need to be considered to ensure accurate results.

Choice A is incorrect because the text does not position one study setting (natural or lab) as superior to the other; rather, the text states that each one has advantages over the other. Choice B is incorrect. The text provides a hypothetical example of two studies in different environments with conflicting results, but this single example cannot be extrapolated to a general claim about the likelihood that results of studies in different environments will conflict. Additionally, the text does not assert anything about how researchers can or cannot resolve conflicting study results. Choice D is incorrect because the text does not state that discrepancies between natural-habitat and lab-based animal behavior studies are due to both of the designs being flawed. Rather, the text states that the conflict in results can be the consequence of one or both of the studies having failed to account for some factor. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 3f7f35ea

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 3f7f35ea

“The Bet” is an 1889 short story by Anton Chekhov. In the story, a banker is described as being very upset about something: blank

Which quotation from “The Bet” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “Then the banker cautiously broke the seals off the door and put the key in the keyhole.”

  • “It struck three o’clock, the banker listened; everyone was asleep in the house and nothing could be heard outside but the rustling of the chilled trees.”

  • “The banker, spoilt and frivolous, with millions beyond his reckoning, was delighted at the bet.”

  • “When [the banker] got home he lay on his bed, but his tears and emotion kept him for hours from sleeping.”

ID: 3f7f35ea Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most effectively uses a quotation from "The Bet" to illustrate the claim that the banker was very upset about something. The quotation indicates that the banker shed tears, which suggests that he was likely unhappy about something, and that his emotions were so strong that they kept him from sleeping for hours. These details suggest that the banker was very upset.

Choice A is incorrect because this quotation mainly describes the banker cautiously unlocking a door; it doesn’t suggest that he was particularly upset about anything. Choice B is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t mention whether the banker was experiencing any particularly strong negative feelings; instead, the quotation focuses on the quietness of the setting. Choice C is incorrect because this quotation states that the banker was feeling "delighted," not that he was upset.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 87023f34

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 87023f34

“Ghosts of the Old Year” is an early 1900s poem by James Weldon Johnson. In the poem, the speaker describes experiencing an ongoing cycle of anticipation followed by regretful reflection: blank

Which quotation from “Ghosts of the Old Year” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • “What does this brazen tongue declare, / That falling on the midnight air / Brings to my heart a sense of care / Akin to fright?”

  • “The snow has ceased its fluttering flight, / The wind sunk to a whisper light, / An ominous stillness fills the night, / A pause—a hush.”

  • “It tells of many a squandered day, / Of slighted gems and treasured clay, / Of precious stores not laid away, / Of fields unreaped.”

  • “And so the years go swiftly by, / Each, coming, brings ambitions high, / And each, departing, leaves a sigh / Linked to the past.”

ID: 87023f34 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents the quotation that most effectively illustrates the claim that the speaker of the poem describes experiencing an ongoing cycle of anticipation followed by regretful reflection. In this quotation, the speaker notes that as years go by, “Each, coming”—that is, each new year as it comes—“brings ambitions high.” In other words, the speaker begins each new year with large goals. But the speaker goes on to say that as each year ends (“each, departing”), it “leaves a sigh / Linked to the past.” A sigh is an expression of longing or regret, so in the context of the whole quotation, this portion suggests that at the end of each year, the speaker regretfully reflects on not having achieved the ambitions formed at the beginning of the year. The phrases “the years go swiftly by,” “Each, coming,” and “each, departing” indicate that this experience happens over and over again: the speaker experiences a cycle of anticipation followed by regretful reflection. 

Choice A is incorrect because this quotation does not describe an ongoing cycle of anticipation followed by regretful reflection. Instead, the speaker describes experiencing a sensation similar to fright as a result of something that has occurred at midnight. Specifically, the speaker has heard a “brazen tongue,” a figurative way of saying that the speaker has heard the clang of a bronze bell being rung. Choice B is incorrect because although this quotation does convey a sense of anticipation through its reference to “ominous stillness,” there is no suggestion of regretful reflection or any indication that the speaker is describing an ongoing cycle of anticipation followed by such reflection. Instead, the speaker is describing a particular moment when a winter storm appears to have momentarily calmed. Choice C is incorrect because although this quotation does convey a sense of regret (“many a squandered day”), nothing in the quotation suggests an ongoing cycle of anticipation followed by regret. Instead, the speaker is simply lamenting wasted time and opportunities. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 4fc9a13a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 4fc9a13a

The novelist Toni Morrison was the first Black woman to work as an editor at the publishing company Random House, from 1967 to 1983. A scholar asserts that one of Morrison’s likely aims during her time as an editor was to strengthen the presence of Black writers on the list of Random House’s published authors.

Which finding, if true, would most strongly support the scholar’s claim?

  • The percentage of authors published by Random House who were Black rose in the early 1970s and stabilized throughout the decade.

  • Black authors who were interviewed in the 1980s and 1990s were highly likely to cite Toni Morrison’s novels as a principal influence on their work.

  • The novels written by Toni Morrison that were published after 1983 sold significantly more copies and received wider critical acclaim than the novels she wrote that were published before 1983.

  • Works that were edited by Toni Morrison during her time at Random House displayed stylistic characteristics that distinguished them from works that were not edited by Morrison.

ID: 4fc9a13a Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support the scholar’s claim about Toni Morrison’s likely goal of strengthening the presence of Black writers on Random House’s list of published authors. The text explains that Morrison was the first Black woman to be an editor for Random House and that she was an editor there from 1967 to 1983. If it were true that Random House published a higher percentage of works by Black authors throughout the 1970s—during most of Morrison’s time working there—than it had previously published, that would suggest that Morrison may have made a deliberate effort to strengthen the presence of Black authors on the list of Random House’s published authors, thus supporting the scholar’s claim.

Choice B is incorrect because the scholar’s claim is about Morrison’s work as an editor at a publishing company and her likely effort to strengthen the presence of Black writers on that company’s list of published authors. It might be true that Black authors interviewed in the 1980s and 1990s often cited Morrison’s novels as an influence on their work, but that finding would simply suggest something about how those authors approached their work; it wouldn’t show that Morrison intended to increase the number of Black writers among the published authors specifically at Random House. Choice C is incorrect because the scholar’s claim is about Morrison’s work as an editor at a publishing company, not about her work as a novelist. Therefore, a finding that Morrison’s novels published after 1983 sold more copies and were more widely acclaimed than her earlier novels would have no bearing on the claim that as an editor Morrison made an effort to ensure that more Black writers were present on Random House’s list of published authors. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text discusses Morrison’s work as an editor at Random House, the scholar’s claim focuses on Morrison’s likely effort in that role to increase the number of Black writers present on Random House’s list of published authors, not on the influence she may have had on the content of the works she edited. Without knowing whether Morrison’s stylistic influence led to more publications or if Morrison applied her influence specifically to works by Black writers, the finding that works edited by Morrison could be identified by stylistic characteristics would have no bearing on the claim that Morrison intended to strengthen the presence of Black writers among the published authors at Random House.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 5d20f560

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 5d20f560

Conventional theories of rhetoric hold that presenting information as coming from credentialed experts increases that information’s credibility. When communications researcher Sungkyoung Lee and her colleagues tested messages seeking volunteers for clinical trials, however, they found that participants in their study judged recruitment messages from former trial volunteers as significantly more credible than messages from doctors (i.e., credentialed experts). One reason for this may be that the doctors’ status as credentialed experts wasn’t ignored but rather was outweighed by participants’ views of the experiential relevance of the two types of messengers; that is, participants may have reacted the way they did because blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • messages from former trial volunteers depicted clinical trials as being more positive experiences than did messages from doctors. 

  • participants did not have enough experience to evaluate the credibility of the doctors’ messages but did have enough experience to evaluate the credibility of former trial volunteers’ messages. 

  • the fact that former trial volunteers went through the same experience that participants were contemplating while doctors did not was more important to participants than the doctors’ status as credentialed experts was. 

  • participants regarded the experiences of both the doctors and former trial volunteers as relevant to the subject of clinical trials but were skeptical of the doctors’ status as credentialed experts. 

ID: 5d20f560 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of how participants considered messages from former trial volunteers and doctors. The text first establishes that information coming from credentialed experts typically increases the credibility of that information. However, the text goes on to describe a situation that goes against this expectation: the messages from previous trial volunteers were judged as more credible than the messages from licensed doctors when recruiting clinic trial participants. The text then goes on to speculate as to why this may have been the case, stating that participants likely considered the messages from the former trial volunteers to be more convincing than the messages from the doctors because the former trial volunteers were perceived as having undergone the same experience that the participants were considering. It is reasonable to infer, then, that participants regarded the former trial volunteers’ direct experience as more important to their decision-making than the doctors’ status as credentialed experts.

Choice A is incorrect because the text does not provide any indication as to the content or the tone of the messages provided by either the doctors or the former trial volunteers regarding the clinical trials. Choice B is incorrect. Since the study participants had not themselves participated in the clinical trial, they could not rely on their experience to evaluate the credibility of either the former trial volunteers or the doctors. Choice D is incorrect. While the text does establish that the participants likely considered the messages from both the doctors and the former trial volunteers, it does not suggest that the participants doubted the doctors’ credentials. Rather, the text speculates that participants may have given the experiences of the former trial volunteers more importance than the doctors’ credentials when considering the recruitment messages.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID cae97f58

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: cae97f58

Mosses can struggle in harsh desert conditions because these plants require enough sunlight for photosynthesis but not so much that they risk drying out. Researchers Jenna Ekwealor and Kirsten M. Fisher found several species of Syntrichia caninervis, a type of desert moss, growing under quartz crystals in California’s Mojave Desert. To evaluate whether these semitransparent rocks benefited the moss, the researchers compared the shoot tissue, a measure of plant growth, of S. caninervis when growing on the soil surface versus when the moss was growing under the quartz rocks. They found that the shoot tissue was 62% longer for moss growing under the quartz as compared to moss on the soil surface, suggesting that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • S. caninervis is one of the few types of moss that can survive under semitransparent rocks.

  • quartz crystals do not transmit the necessary sunlight for photosynthesis in S. caninervis.

  • S. caninervis growing under quartz crystals experience lower light intensity and are thus able to retain more moisture.

  • quartz crystals are capable of supporting S. caninervis growth if the crystals are not too thin.

ID: cae97f58 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because  it most logically completes the text. The text explains that while desert moss species need sufficient sunlight for photosynthesis, exposure to sunlight can also affect the plants negatively by drying them out. Ekwealor and Fisher’s team found specimens of S. caninervis moss growing under quartz crystals that were semitransparent, allowing some but not all sunlight to pass through them, and the shoot tissue of these specimens was longer than that of S. caninervis specimens found growing on the surface that were unprotected by such crystals. Since, as the text explains, the length of shoot tissue is an indicator of plant growth, and since greater exposure to sunlight results in greater loss of moisture, it can be inferred that S. caninervis growing under quartz crystals experience lower light intensity and are thus able to retain more moisture.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention another moss species besides S. caninervis or discuss whether other such species are able to grow under transparent crystals, as S. caninervis is. Choice B is incorrect because, as the text explains, specimens of S. caninervis were found growing under quartz crystals and exhibited more plant growth than specimens growing on the soil surface. This wouldn’t have been the case if the crystals transmitted insufficient light for the moss’s photosynthesis. Choice D is incorrect. The text contrasts the growth of S. caninervis specimens found beneath semitransparent quartz crystals with that of specimens found on the soil surface absent such crystals, but it doesn’t make a comparison among specimens growing beneath crystals of different degrees of thickness or consider how the relative thickness of the crystals affects the growth of the moss.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 748995b3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 748995b3

In the 1700s and 1800s, European composers experimented with volume in their musical works. They did so by increasing the number of musicians playing in the orchestra. For example, in some of his operas, German composer Richard Wagner added more horns, trombones, and tubas to the orchestra. With more instruments playing at the same time, the orchestra could play extremely loudly at key moments in his operas. 

According to the text, how did Richard Wagner achieve moments of extremely high volume in his operas?

  • By moving the performances of his operas from outdoor stages to indoor ones 

  • By increasing the number of musicians playing horns, trombones, and tubas in the orchestra

  • By building a concert hall whose shape would cause sounds to echo

  • By insisting that the singers undergo special training to sing for extended periods of time

ID: 748995b3 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a statement about how Richard Wagner achieved moments of extremely high volume in his operas that is supported by the text. The text states that European composers experimented with volume in their works by increasing the number of musicians in the orchestra and provides the example of Wagner, who "added more horns, trombones, and tubas to the orchestra." The text explains that by having more of these instruments playing at the same time, the overall volume of the orchestra could be dramatically increased at key moments in Wagner’s operas.

Choice A is incorrect because the text never indicates that Wagner moved his operas indoors to achieve moments of extremely high volume, nor does it indicate that his operas were previously performed outdoors. The only technique discussed in the text for achieving extremely high volume is Wagner’s addition of more instruments to create a bigger, louder orchestra. Choice C is incorrect because the text never says that Wagner built or used a specially designed concert hall to increase volume through echoes. The only technique discussed in the text is Wagner’s addition of more instruments to create a bigger, louder orchestra. Choice D is incorrect because the text never mentions any special training for singers related to volume or singing for extended periods. The text’s focus is entirely on the orchestra and how Wagner and other European composers used instruments to experiment with volume in their musical works.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 8391a002

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 8391a002

Black beans (Phaseolus vulgaris) are a nutritionally dense food, but they are difficult to digest in part because of their high levels of soluble fiber and compounds like raffinose. They also contain antinutrients like tannins and trypsin inhibitors, which interfere with the body’s ability to extract nutrients from foods. In a research article, Marisela Granito and Glenda Álvarez from Simón Bolívar University in Venezuela claim that inducing fermentation of black beans using lactic acid bacteria improves the digestibility of the beans and makes them more nutritious.

Which finding from Granito and Álvarez’s research, if true, would most directly support their claim?

  • When cooked, fermented beans contained significantly more trypsin inhibitors and tannins but significantly less soluble fiber and raffinose than nonfermented beans. 

  • Fermented beans contained significantly less soluble fiber and raffinose than nonfermented beans, and when cooked, the fermented beans also displayed a significant reduction in trypsin inhibitors and tannins.

  • When the fermented beans were analyzed, they were found to contain two microorganisms, Lactobacillus casei and Lactobacillus plantarum, that are theorized to increase the amount of nitrogen absorbed by the gut after eating beans. 

  • Both fermented and nonfermented black beans contained significantly fewer trypsin inhibitors and tannins after being cooked at high pressure. 

ID: 8391a002 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a finding that would best support Granito and Álvarez’s claim that fermenting black beans makes them easier to digest and more nutritious. The text indicates that high levels of soluble fiber and raffinose in black beans make the beans hard to digest and that tannins and trypsin inhibitors make it harder for the body to extract nutrients from the beans. If it were found that fermenting the beans significantly reduces their levels of soluble fiber, raffinose, trypsin inhibitors, and tannins when cooked, this would directly support the claim that fermentation improves the digestibility of the beans and makes them more nutritious.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that trypsin inhibitors and tannins interfere with the body’s ability to extract nutrients from black beans; if fermentation and cooking were found to increase these antinutrients, fermented beans would likely be less nutritious than unfermented ones, not more nutritious (as Granito and Álvarez claim). Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t address the idea that greater nitrogen absorption in the gut has an effect on a food’s digestibility or level of nutrition, so the discovery of the presence of microorganisms that may increase nitrogen absorption wouldn’t provide relevant support for the claim that fermentation makes black beans easier to digest and more nutritious. Choice D is incorrect because Granito and Álvarez’s claim focuses on the effect of fermenting black beans, but the finding that nonfermented black beans also have fewer trypsin inhibitors and tannins when cooked at high pressure would suggest that the role of the cooking method could be significant when it comes to nutrition; further, the finding wouldn’t address the beans’ digestibility.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 65502c46

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 65502c46

In a 2017 article, historian Jasmine Kilburn-Toppin explains that in early modern London, members of the city’s guilds (trade and artisanal associations) were participants in a civic culture in which gift giving both signaled and conferred social status. Research on this phenomenon has tended to focus on philanthropic gifting by London’s largest guilds; for her part, Kilburn-Toppin focuses on the gifting of handmade objects and fixtures (such as decorative paneling or plasterwork) within the craft guilds, which were “composed of highly discerning producers and consumers of material cultures.” Given this characterization, it can reasonably be inferred that the gifting of such objects may have blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • ensured that knowledge of the materials and techniques used by members of the craft guilds stayed within the craft guilds.

  • emphasized ostentatious offerings in the case of the largest guilds and prosaic objects in the case of the craft guilds.

  • functioned as a way for craft guild members to maintain and enhance their professional reputations among their peers.

  • conferred greater social status when the recipient belonged to one of London’s largest guilds than when the recipient belonged to a craft guild.

ID: 65502c46 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it logically completes the text’s discussion of the role of gift giving among members of guilds in early modern London. According to the text, members of these guilds participated in a culture where giving gifts "both signaled and conferred social status"—that is, it indicated people’s social standing and also gave them social standing—and occurred in the forms of both philanthropic gifting (donations for humanitarian purposes) by large guilds, which much research has focused on, and the gifting of handmade items between craft guild members, which Kilburn-Toppin focuses on. The text indicates that Kilburn-Toppin characterizes craft guild members as people who made and consumed items and were "highly discerning," or were careful judges of quality. Because gift giving benefited one’s status and if craft guild members were particularly attentive to quality, it follows that gifting handmade items within the guilds—between people who had high standards for items they made and for items they received—may have been a way for members to maintain and enhance their professional reputations, or their professional statuses, among their peers.

Choice A is incorrect because the text emphasizes the idea that members of guilds participated in gift giving both to display and receive social status, suggesting that the gifting of handmade items between the "highly discerning" members of craft guilds had to do with the members’ interest in quality and status; nothing in the text suggests that the practice of gifting those items within the craft guilds was intended to limit knowledge of materials and techniques to the members of those guilds. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t distinguish between "ostentatious," or very showy, and "prosaic," or ordinary, gifts and because the characterization at the end of the text pertains specifically to the gifting of handmade items indicative of great taste, not prosaic items, between members of craft guilds. And while the text indicates that London’s largest guilds gave philanthropic gifts (donations for humanitarian purposes), it doesn’t indicate whether these gifts would have been considered ostentatious. Choice D is incorrect because the characterization presented at the end of the text pertains specifically to the "highly discerning" members of craft guilds giving their handmade items as gifts to one another within the craft guilds; the text doesn’t suggest anything about gifting those items to members of London’s largest guilds or how that might affect status differently from giving them to other craft guild members.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 6317295c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 6317295c

Properties of Select Rotating Radio Transients

Name Right ascension (hours) Period (seconds) Frequency (hertz)
J0545-03 5:45 1.074 0.931
J1654-2335 16:54:03 0.545 1.834
J0103+54 1:03:37 0.354 2.822
J0121+53 1:21 2.725 0.367
J0614-03 6:15 0.136 7.353

A student is researching rotating radio transients (RRATs), a subclass of pulsar stars characterized by short pulses of radio waves. The time between consecutive pulses of an RRAT is referred to as a period. Looking at the table, the student determines that blank

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?

  • J0614-03 has the shortest amount of time between consecutive pulses of all the RRATs in the table.

  • J0545-03 and J0121+53 have the same amount of time between consecutive pulses.

  • J1654-2335 has the longest amount of time between consecutive pulses of all the RRATs in the table.

  • J0103+54 and J0121+53 both have more than one second of time between consecutive pulses.

ID: 6317295c Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately uses data from the table to complete the statement about certain rotating radio transients (RRATs). The table contains information about the right ascensions, periods, and frequencies of various pulsar stars called RRATs. According to the text, the period of an RRAT is defined as the time between consecutive pulses. The table shows that the period of RRAT J0614-03 is 0.136 seconds, which is the lowest number of all the periods of the RRATs listed in the table. If the period is the time between consecutive pulses, and J0614-03 has the shortest period, then J0614-03 has the shortest amount of time between consecutive pulses of all the RRATs in the table.

Choice B is incorrect because according to the table, J0545-03 has a period of 1.074 seconds and J0121+53 has a period of 2.725 seconds. According to the text, the period of an RRAT is the time between consecutive pulses. Therefore, since J0545-03 and J0121+53 have different periods, they do not have the same amount of time between consecutive pulses. Choice C is incorrect because according to the table, J1654-2335 has a period of 0.545 seconds, which is not the longest period of all the RRATs listed in the table. According to the text, the period of an RRAT is the time between consecutive pulses, and both J0545-03 and J0121+53 have longer periods than J1654-2335, so J1654-2335 does not have the longest time between consecutive pulses of all the RRATs in the table. Choice D is incorrect because according to the table, J0103+54 has a period of 0.354 seconds, and J0121+53 has a period of 2.725 seconds. According to the text, the period of an RRAT is the time between consecutive pulses, and only J0121+53 has more than one second of time between consecutive pulses, not J0103+54.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID ab94d40a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: ab94d40a

Time Participants Spent Reading about Five London Museums

Museum Name Ranking Percentage of total time spent reading about museum by participants provided with ranking Percentage of total time spent reading about museum by participants not provided with ranking
British Museum 1 36 18
National Gallery 2 21 20
Tate Modern 4 16 17
Victoria and Albert Museum 5 14 23
Natural History Museum 3 13 22

Researchers recently conducted an experiment to understand how we use rankings to make decisions. They created a fictitious travel website describing five museums in London. Then, they invited two groups of participants, who had never visited the museums, to review the site and select the museum they would be most likely to visit. Meanwhile, the researchers tracked the amount of time each participant spent reading about each museum. For one group, the website ranked each museum, titling the page “The Top 5 Museums in London.” For the other group, the museums and their descriptions were not ranked. The researchers concluded that when reviewing ranked lists, we tend to focus on the top-ranked option. 

Which choice best describes data in the table that support the researchers’ conclusion?

  • Participants who were not provided with a ranking of the museums spent roughly equal amounts of time reading about each museum.

  • Participants who were provided with a ranking of the museums spent disproportionately more time reading about the British museum.

  • Participants who were provided with a ranking of the museums spent the least amount of time reading about the Natural History Museum.

  • Participants who were not provided with a ranking of the museums spent the most time reading about the Victoria and Albert Museum.

ID: ab94d40a Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. By looking at the top-ranked option, we can see that people provided with ranked lists spent more time reading about the British Museum than reading about other museums (36% of the time versus 21% for the second-ranked option).

Choice A is incorrect. The claim is about people with ranked lists, and these data are about those with unranked lists. Choice C is incorrect. The claim is about people with ranked lists looking at the top-ranked option, and these data are about the third-ranked option. Choice D is incorrect. The claim is about people with ranked lists, and these data are about those with unranked lists.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 4987f743

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 4987f743

ALSOL is a microcredit program in Mexico that makes small loans to female entrepreneurs who lack the collateral and credit history to secure financing from conventional banks. Borrowers use their business proceeds to repay loans in equal weekly installments and incur no penalty for missed payments other than lack of access to larger loans. Economists Gustavo Barboza and Sandra Trejos analyzed ALSOL data and found that rural borrowers, who mostly make and sell handicrafts, miss payments more often than urban borrowers do, partly because they sell their goods less frequently than they could. Barboza and Trejos claim that this behavior reflects strategic decisions that enable rural women to increase their profits per unit sold.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support Barboza and Trejos’s claim?

  • Many marketplaces require entrepreneurs to pay marketplace operators a fixed percentage of each day’s proceeds in exchange for permission to sell goods there.

  • Rural entrepreneurs can typically sell their goods for higher prices in cities than in their home areas, but the number of people selling competing goods tends to be higher in cities.

  • Due to the lower costs they incur, rural entrepreneurs tend to require smaller initial loans than urban entrepreneurs do. 

  • The cost to rural entrepreneurs to bring their goods to towns with marketplaces is high but largely independent of the number of goods they bring. 

ID: 4987f743 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly support Barboza and Trejos’s claim that rural female entrepreneurs who have received small loans from ALSOL are strategic in selling their goods less frequently than they could, even if it means missing payments. The text explains that borrowers in the ALSOL program use proceeds from their businesses to repay loans in equal weekly payments, with almost no penalty for missed payments. According to the text, Barboza and Trejos found that rural borrowers miss weekly payments in part because they don’t sell their goods as often as they could, a move the researchers claim allows the entrepreneurs to help increase profits for the goods they sell. Finding that the cost of bringing goods to towns with marketplaces is high for rural entrepreneurs but is largely independent of how many goods are brought would support the researchers’ claim: traveling to marketplaces less frequently would mean that a rural entrepreneur spends less on travel overall, and taking a large load of goods to a marketplace for essentially the same cost as taking a small load would allow the entrepreneur to more substantially offset the cost of travel with greater overall sales at the marketplace, resulting in more profit per good sold—even if those profits are earned less frequently and don’t support weekly loan payments.

Choice A is incorrect because the finding that many marketplaces require entrepreneurs to pay the operators of the marketplace a fixed percentage of proceeds to be able to sell goods there wouldn’t explain why rural entrepreneurs strategically choose to sell their goods less frequently than they could in order to increase their profits per unit sold. With a fixed percentage of proceeds due to operators, the amount entrepreneurs have to pay operators would also be fixed regardless of frequency of selling. Choice B is incorrect because the finding that rural entrepreneurs can usually sell their goods for higher prices in cities than in their local areas but also face higher competition to sell goods in cities wouldn’t explain why rural entrepreneurs strategically choose to sell their goods less frequently than they could in order to increase their profits per unit sold. This is because both the higher prices and higher competition in cities would be stable factors—meaning there would be no clear reason for the rural entrepreneurs not to take every available chance to sell their goods in cities and to instead sell their goods in cities only sometimes. Choice C is incorrect because the finding that rural entrepreneurs have lower costs and thus tend to require smaller initial loans than urban entrepreneurs do has no bearing on rural borrowers strategically choosing to sell their goods less frequently than they could specifically to increase their profits per unit sold. The cost of producing goods doesn’t depend on the frequency with which an entrepreneur sells those goods, so lower frequency alone wouldn’t affect profits, and the initial loan amount is set and has nothing to do with how much profit is earned from each sale.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 835545cd

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 835545cd

The following text is adapted from Charles W. Chesnutt’s 1901 novel The Marrow of Tradition.

Mrs. Ochiltree was a woman of strong individuality, whose comments upon her acquaintance[s], present or absent, were marked by a frankness at times no less than startling. This characteristic caused her to be more or less avoided. Mrs. Ochiltree was aware of this sentiment on the part of her acquaintance[s], and rather exulted in it.

Based on the text, what is true about Mrs. Ochiltree’s acquaintances?

  • They try to refrain from discussing topics that would upset Mrs. Ochiltree. 

  • They are unable to spend as much time with Mrs. Ochiltree as she would like.

  • They are too preoccupied with their own concerns to speak with Mrs. Ochiltree.

  • They are likely offended by what Mrs. Ochiltree has said about them.

ID: 835545cd Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a statement about Mrs. Ochiltree’s acquaintances that is supported by the text. The text indicates that Mrs. Ochiltree makes comments about her acquaintances that are frank, or direct and blunt, and sometimes startling. It also states that because of this behavior, the acquaintances tend to avoid Mrs. Ochiltree. Together, these details suggest that the acquaintances choose not to be around Mrs. Ochiltree because they are offended by the things she has said about them.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that Mrs. Ochiltree’s acquaintances avoid discussing topics that would upset Mrs. Ochiltree; instead, it states that they avoid being around Mrs. Ochiltree at all. Choice B is incorrect because the text makes it clear that Mrs. Ochiltree knows her acquaintances often avoid her and is pleased about it (she “rather exulted in it”), not that she wants to spend more time with them. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that Mrs. Ochiltree’s acquaintances don’t speak with Mrs. Ochiltree because they are too focused on their own concerns, but rather because they don’t like the frank comments she makes. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID a842db60

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: a842db60

To make her art more widely available, graphic artist Elizabeth Catlett turned to linocuts. In linocut printing, an artist carves an image into a sheet of linoleum to create a stamp that is used to mass-produce prints. In the linocut series The Black Woman (1946–1947), Catlett depicts the everyday experiences of Black women alongside the achievements of well-known Black women. This pairing invites the viewer to draw connections among the women. The linocut process enabled Catlett’s work to reach a wide audience and supported her aim to unite Black women through her art.

According to the text, what is significant about Catlett’s use of linocut printing?

  • Linocut printing involved using materials that were readily available to Catlett. 

  • Linocut printing helped Catlett use art to connect people, especially Black women.

  • Catlett became commercially successful once she started using linocut printing. 

  • Catlett was one of the first Black artists to use linocut printing.

ID: a842db60 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The last sentence states that the linocut process “supported her [Catlett’s] aim to unite Black women through her art.”

Choice A is incorrect. The text briefly describes the linocut printing process but doesn’t discuss the availability of the materials used in the process. Choice C is incorrect. The text says that the linocut process “enabled Catlett’s work to reach a wide audience,” but that doesn’t mean that linocuts made her “commercially successful.” In other words, we don’t know how much money she made off her linocuts—we only know that more people were able to see her work. Choice D is incorrect. The text says that Catlett depicted Black women in her linocuts, but not that she was one of the first Black artists to use linocut printing.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID c384987b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Easy
ID: c384987b

Scientists have long believed that giraffes are mostly silent and communicate only visually with one another. But biologist Angela Stöger and her team analyzed hundreds of hours of recordings of giraffes in three European zoos and found that giraffes make a very low-pitched humming sound. The researchers claim that the giraffes use these sounds to communicate when it’s not possible for them to signal one another visually.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support Stöger and her team’s claim? 

  • Giraffes have an excellent sense of vision and can see in color. 

  • The giraffes only produced the humming sounds at night when they couldn’t see one another.

  • Wild giraffes have never been recorded making humming sounds.  

  • Researchers observed other animals in European zoos humming. 

ID: c384987b Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support Stöger and her team’s claim that giraffes use humming to communicate when they cannot signal to one another visually. The text indicates that scientists have long thought that giraffes produce little sound and exclusively rely on visual signals to communicate with one another. The text goes on to say, however, that Stöger and her team have recorded giraffes in three European zoos making a low-pitched humming sound, which the team claims the giraffes use to communicate when they cannot see each other. If the giraffes produced these sounds when visual communication was impossible and never produced them otherwise, that would support Stöger and her team’s claim about the circumstance in which giraffes make the sound. 

Choice A is incorrect because finding that giraffes have excellent vision and can see in color would have no bearing on Stöger and her team’s claim that giraffes produce a low-pitched humming noise to communicate when they cannot communicate visually. As presented in the text, Stöger and her team’s claim is restricted to circumstances in which giraffes cannot signal one another visually; if the giraffes are unable to signal visually, their sense of vision is irrelevant to their communication. Choice C is incorrect because finding that wild giraffes have never been recorded making humming noises would not support Stöger and her team’s claim about the function of the humming noise that the researchers recorded from the giraffes in European zoos. The text provides no information about whether researchers have even attempted to record low-pitched humming in wild giraffes, so nothing can be concluded about the implications of the lack of such recordings. Choice D is incorrect because finding that other animals in European zoos had been observed humming would not support Stöger and her team’s claim, since it would not indicate anything about why giraffes produce humming sounds. Different species could produce similar sounds for different purposes, so scientists could not conclude anything about the function of giraffe humming from a finding that some other animals in zoos also hum. 

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 9869c261

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 9869c261

Data collected by the Mars rover Curiosity at the Gale Crater’s Murray Formation are suggestive of hydrological deposition of sediment in the distant past. To characterize the nature of the depositional environment, Frances Rivera-Hernández et al. analyzed the grain size of Murray Formation sediment, finding that although there are intervals of coarse grains, most of the sediment consists of fine grains that show signs of cracking due to episodic desiccation. Rivera-Hernández et al. concluded that the coarse grains are sandstone, which tends to be deposited by flowing water, whereas the fine grains are mudstone, which is slowly deposited by settling out of suspension in low-flow water, leading the researchers to posit that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • although the area of the Murray Formation experienced a prolonged period of dryness that prevented a lake from forming, water flowing from a distant source was present. 

  • a lake existed at the Murray Formation for a prolonged period, though the lake occasionally experienced drying and there were periods in which one or more streams were present. 

  • one or more streams existed at the Murray Formation for an extended period until being replaced by a lake that persisted for only a brief period before permanently drying.

  • a stream-fed lake was present at the Murray Formation for an extended period, and although the streams experienced occasional drying, the lake did not. 

ID: 9869c261 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the sediments found at the Gale Crater’s Murray Formation on Mars. The text states that data gathered by the Curiosity rover suggest that bodies of water deposited sediment on Mars’s surface long ago. The text goes on to say that studying the sediment, Rivera-Hernández et al. found some coarse grains they believe are sandstone, which tends to be left by flowing water, and many more fine grains they believe are mudstone, which tends to slowly sink in low-flow water. The text further indicates that the researchers noted cracks in the fine grains that suggest there were cycles of desiccation, or drying, at the site. Taken together, this information suggests that a lake (a body of low-flow water) existed at the site for a prolonged period but occasionally experienced drying and that there were periods in which one or more streams (flowing water) were present, since the extended existence of a lake would account for the abundance of fine grains, periods of drying would account for the cracks in the fine grains, and periods with streams would account for the sections of coarse grains.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that an abundance of fine grains of sediment was found at the Murray Formation site, which suggests that a low-flow water source (such as a lake) was present. Further, the text makes no mention of where the water at the site may have originated from. Choice C is incorrect because the evidence described in the text doesn’t support the idea that there were streams at the Murray Formation for an extended period and a lake for just a short time. The abundance of fine grains suggests that a lake (a body of low-flow water) was present for an extended time, not just a short time, and the sections of coarse grains suggest that one or more streams (bodies of flowing water) were intermittently present while the lake existed, not at a separate time. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text suggests that both a low-flow body of water (such as a lake) and flowing water (such as streams) existed at the Murray Formation site, meaning that there could have been a stream-fed lake, the text explains that the fine grains that signify the presence of a lake exhibit cracking that indicates periods of desiccation, or drying, which suggests that a lake was present but did occasionally dry out.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID a66f9b8d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Medium
ID: a66f9b8d

Cats can judge unseen people’s positions in space by the sound of their voices and thus react with surprise when the same person calls to them from two different locations in a short span of time. Saho Takagi and colleagues reached this conclusion by measuring cats’ levels of surprise based on their ear and head movements while the cats heard recordings of their owners’ voices from two speakers spaced far apart. Cats exhibited a low level of surprise when owners’ voices were played twice from the same speaker, but they showed a high level of surprise when the voice was played once each from the two different speakers.

According to the text, how did the researchers determine the level of surprise displayed by the cats in the study?

  • They watched how each cat moved its ears and head.

  • They examined how each cat reacted to the voice of a stranger.

  • They studied how each cat physically interacted with its owner.

  • They tracked how each cat moved around the room.

ID: a66f9b8d Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it explains how the researchers determined the level of surprise displayed by the cats in the study. The text states that Saho Takagi and colleagues played recordings of the voice of each cat’s owner and measured how surprised the cat was by the recording based on how it moved its ears and head.

Choice B is incorrect because, as the text explains, the recordings played for each cat in the study were of the voice of the cat’s owner, not a stranger’s voice. Choice C is incorrect because the text explains that during the study, the cats didn’t interact directly with their owners; instead, the cats listened to recordings of their owners’ voices. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that the researchers monitored the cats’ movement around the room in which the study was conducted.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 1e85caa9

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Central Ideas and Details
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 1e85caa9

The following text is from Edith Nesbit’s 1902 novel Five Children and It. Five young siblings have just moved with their parents from London to a house in the countryside that they call the White House.

It was not really a pretty house at all; it was quite ordinary, and mother thought it was rather inconvenient, and was quite annoyed at there being no shelves, to speak of, and hardly a cupboard in the place. Father used to say that the ironwork on the roof and coping was like an architect’s nightmare. But the house was deep in the country, with no other house in sight, and the children had been in London for two years, without so much as once going to the seaside even for a day by an excursion train, and so the White House seemed to them a sort of Fairy Palace set down in an Earthly Paradise.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • Although their parents believe the house has several drawbacks, the children are enchanted by it.

  • The children don’t like the house nearly as much as their parents do.

  • Each member of the family admires a different characteristic of the house.

  • The house is beautiful and well built, but the children miss their old home in London.

ID: 1e85caa9 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The text lists complaints about the house made by the mother and father, but then it says that the children thought the house was a "Fairy Palace" and "Earthly Paradise."

Choice B is incorrect. The text states the opposite of this. It describes how the mother and father dislike the house and says the children think the house seems like paradise. Choice C is incorrect. This isn’t what the text says. Only the children are said to admire the house; mother and father both complain about the house. Choice D is incorrect. The text states the opposite of this. It tells us the house was ugly and poorly built ("an architect’s nightmare") and suggests the children were tired of London.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 124fdcd7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Command of Evidence
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 124fdcd7

Many archaeologists will tell you that categorizing excavated fragments of pottery by style, period, and what objects they belong to relies not only on standard criteria, but also on instinct developed over years of practice. In a recent study, however, researchers trained a deep-learning computer model on thousands of images of pottery fragments and found that it could categorize them as accurately as a team of expert archaeologists. Some archaeologists have expressed concern that they might be replaced by such computer models, but the researchers claim that outcome is highly unlikely.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ claim?

  • In the researchers’ study, the model was able to categorize the pottery fragments much more quickly than the archaeologists could. 

  • In the researchers’ study, neither the model nor the archeologists were able to accurately categorize all the pottery fragments that were presented.

  • A survey of archaeologists showed that categorizing pottery fragments limits the amount of time they can dedicate to other important tasks that only human experts can do.

  • A survey of archaeologists showed that few of them received dedicated training in how to properly categorize pottery fragments.

ID: 124fdcd7 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support the researchers’ claim that archaeologists are unlikely to be replaced by certain computer models. The text explains that although archaeologists hold that categorizing pottery fragments relies on both objective criteria and instinct developed through direct experience, researchers have found that a computer model can categorize the fragments with the same degree of accuracy as the humans can—a finding that has caused some archaeologists to worry that their own work won’t be needed any longer. If survey results indicate that categorizing pottery fragments limits the amount of time archaeologists can dedicate to other important tasks that only human experts can do, that would mean that computer models aren’t able to do all of the important things archaeologists do, thus supporting the researchers’ claim that computer models are unlikely to replace human archaeologists.

Choice A is incorrect because if it were true that the computer model could categorize the pottery fragments much more quickly than the archaeologists could, that would weaken the researchers’ claim that archaeologists are unlikely to be replaced by certain computer models, since it would demonstrate that the models could conduct the archaeologists’ work not only with equal accuracy but also at a faster pace. Choice B is incorrect because the inability of both the computer model and the archaeologists to accurately categorize all of the pottery fragments presented wouldn’t support the researchers’ claim that archaeologists are unlikely to be replaced by certain computer models. The text indicates that some archaeologists are worried because the computer model’s accuracy is equal to their own, and that could be the case whether both were perfectly accurate or were unable to achieve complete accuracy. Choice D is incorrect because survey results showing that few archaeologists received special training in properly categorizing pottery fragments wouldn’t support the researchers’ claim that archaeologists are unlikely to be replaced by certain computer models. The amount of special training in categorizing pottery fragments that archaeologists have received has no direct bearing on whether computer models’ success at categorizing fragments will lead to the models replacing the archaeologists. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 93cad661

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 93cad661

A main goal of the Association for the Advancement of Creative Musicians (AACM), an arts organization founded in 1965, is to advance new works by Black musicians. The AACM achieves this goal in part by focusing on young artists. By having established musicians and composers serve as mentors, the AACM gives young artists the benefits of expert technical training and creative guidance. Numerous organizations offer similar kinds of support to new generations of painters, writers, and other artists, suggesting that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • artists of all ages benefit more from technical training than from creative guidance.

  • many arts organizations recognize the importance of providing opportunities for young artists to learn from experienced mentors.

  • most established artists could become even better artists by serving as mentors.

  • finding a mentor is more important for musicians than it is for painters, writers, and other types of artists.

ID: 93cad661 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of the relationship between the AACM’s use of mentors to support young Black musicians and similar support that other organizations offer their young artists. According to the text, in service of AACM’s goal to support new works by Black musicians, AACM mentors provide beneficial training and guidance to young artists. The text goes on to say that many other art organizations support new artists in similar ways, suggesting that these organizations recognize the importance of providing opportunities for young artists to learn from mentors who are established in their field.

Choice A is incorrect because the text gives no indication that technical training is more beneficial than creative guidance. The text states that AACM mentors offer both technical training and creative guidance to young artists and that other arts organizations offer similar kinds of support; however, nothing in the text suggests that young artists, or artists of any age, benefit more from technical training. Choice C is incorrect because the text is mainly concerned with the fact that established artists are mentoring young artists through AACM and other arts organizations. The text states that young musicians benefit from AACM mentors but does not address what mentors gain from the relationship, so there is no reason to conclude that most established artists could improve as artists by serving as mentors. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text indicates that mentors are beneficial to young musicians and that young people pursuing other kinds of art (including painting and writing) can also find mentors through arts organizations, the text gives no indication that mentors are more important for musicians than for other types of artists.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 03701ef3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 03701ef3

To better understand the burrowing habits of Alpheus bellulus (the tiger pistol shrimp), some studies have used resin casting to obtain precise measurements of the shrimps’ burrows. Resin casting involves completely filling an empty burrow with a liquid plastic that hardens to create a three-dimensional model; however, recovering the model inevitably requires destroying the burrow. In their 2022 study, Miyu Umehara and colleagues discovered that an x-ray computed tomography (CT) scanner can accurately record a burrow’s measurements both at a moment in time and throughout the entire burrow-building process, something that’s impossible with resin casting because blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • it can only be used on burrows below a certain size.

  • it does not allow for multiple castings of the same burrow over time.

  • the casting process takes more time than A. bellulus takes to construct a burrow.

  • the process of recovering the model distorts the resin’s shape.

ID: 03701ef3 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. Since resin casting “inevitably requires destroying the burrow,” it would be impossible to make multiple castings of the same burrow over time.

Choice A is incorrect. The passage doesn’t discuss size requirements for completing resin casting, so there’s no basis for this inference. Choice C is incorrect. The passage never mentions how long the casting process takes nor how long A. bellulus takes to construct a borrow, so there’s no basis for this inference. Choice D is incorrect. The passage never states that recovering the model distorts the resin’s shape, only that it destroys the burrow. Therefore, there’s no basis for this inference.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID b1fab3e1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Information and Ideas
Skill
Inferences
Difficulty
Medium
ID: b1fab3e1

Violins made by Antonio Stradivari and other craftspeople in the sixteenth to eighteenth centuries in Cremona, Italy, produce a sound that is considered superior to that of modern stringed instruments. Some experts have claimed that the type of wood used to create Cremonese violins is responsible for their prized sound, but modern and Cremonese violins are made of the same kinds of wood: maple and spruce. New analysis, however, has revealed unique indications that the wood in the older violins was chemically treated by the makers, leading researchers to suggest that blank

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • Cremonese violins probably were not considered superior to other instruments at the time they were made. 

  • the sound quality of Cremonese violins results in part from a method the craftspeople used to alter the wood.

  • if modern violins were made of a wood other than maple or spruce, they likely would sound as good as Cremonese violins.

  • the current process of making violins is the same process that was used centuries ago by Cremonese craftspeople.

ID: b1fab3e1 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the sound quality of Cremonese and modern violins. The text states that violins made in Cremona in the sixteenth to eighteenth centuries sound superior to modern violins. It then indicates that some experts attribute the difference to different woods being used to make these violins, but both Cremonese and modern violins are made of the same woods (maple and spruce); thus this cannot account for the difference. The text then says that recent analysis suggests the wood in Cremonese violins was chemically treated by the craftspeople who made them, thereby providing an alternate explanation for the sound differences: the chemical alteration that is present in the Cremonese violins but absent from the modern ones.

Choice A is incorrect because the text does not discuss how the sound quality of Cremonese violins compares with the sound quality of other instruments made during the sixteenth to eighteenth centuries. Instead it focuses on how the sound of the Cremonese violins compares with that of modern violins. Choice C is incorrect. The text states that there are differences in sound quality between the Cremonese and modern violins, and that both types of violin are made with maple or spruce. Thus the type of wood alone does not determine a violin’s sound quality. Furthermore, even if the type of wood alone could account for differences in sound quality, the text makes no mention of other woods, so there is no basis to judge how modern violins would sound if they were made using woods besides maple and spruce. Choice D is incorrect because the text states that there is evidence that Cremonese craftspeople chemically treated the wood used in Cremonese violins. This evidence is attributed to “new analysis,” which strongly suggests that this process was unknown to modern violin makers before that analysis. If the chemical treatment was unknown until recently, the manufacturing process for modern violins must differ with respect to the previously unknown practice of chemically treating the wood.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 84b5125b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 84b5125b

Artist Marilyn Dingle’s intricate, coiled baskets are blank sweetgrass and palmetto palm. Following a Gullah technique that originated in West Africa, Dingle skillfully winds a thin palm frond around a bunch of sweetgrass with the help of a “sewing bone” to create the basket’s signature look that no factory can reproduce.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • indicated by

  • handmade from

  • represented by

  • collected with

ID: 84b5125b Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Marilyn Dingle’s baskets. In this context, to say that Dingle’s baskets are “handmade from” particular plants means that Dingle creates baskets herself using those plants but without using machines. The text says that Dingle “skillfully winds” parts of palmetto palm plants around sweetgrass plants to make baskets with an appearance that “no factory can reproduce.” This context suggests that Dingle’s baskets are handmade from sweetgrass and palmetto palm. 

Choice A is incorrect because the text describes how Dingle uses sweetgrass and palmetto palm to create her baskets, not how her baskets are “indicated by,” or signified by, sweetgrass and palmetto palm. Choice C is incorrect. Although Dingle’s baskets are described as being made using sweetgrass and palm, there’s nothing in the text to suggest that the baskets are “represented by,” or exemplified or portrayed by, sweetgrass and palmetto palm. Instead, the focus of the text is on Dingle’s use of sweetgrass and palmetto palm and the impossibility of replicating the appearance of her baskets using machines. Choice D is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that Dingle’s baskets are “collected with,” or brought together in a group with, sweetgrass and palmetto palm. Instead, the text describes how Dingle uses those plants to make her baskets.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID fa014d2d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: fa014d2d

The invention in 1958 of the integrated circuit (or microchip) radically altered the semiconductor industry. In fact, some historians argue that it fundamentally blank the industry by enabling it to take advantage of mass production methods for the first time.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • overwhelmed

  • bypassed

  • obstructed

  • transformed

ID: fa014d2d Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the invention of the integrated circuit. As used in this context, "transformed" means substantially changed in some way. The text states that the invention radically altered the semiconductor industry, with some historians claiming that it had a fundamental effect on the industry by allowing for mass production for the first time. This context conveys that the invention of the integrated circuit transformed the semiconductor industry.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text indicates that the invention of the integrated circuit significantly affected ("radically altered") the semiconductor industry, it doesn’t indicate that the invention "overwhelmed" the industry, which in this context would mean that it overcame the industry such that the industry struggled or was defeated. Instead, the text conveys that the invention’s effect was positive, since it allowed the semiconductor industry to begin making use of mass production methods. Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context to say that the invention of the integrated circuit "bypassed" the semiconductor industry, which would mean it intentionally avoided the industry. The text indicates that the invention directly affected the semiconductor industry, since it made it possible for the industry to begin engaging in mass production methods. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that the invention of the integrated circuit "obstructed" the semiconductor industry, which would mean that it blocked or hindered the industry in some way. Instead, the text indicates that the invention’s effect was positive, since it made it possible for the semiconductor industry to begin engaging in mass production methods.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 5fe53347

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 5fe53347

Botanist Al Kovaleski has pointed out that maple trees already thrive in a wide variety of climates and thus may blank changes in climate better than some other tree species do. The alterations maples may undergo in response to a changing climate are likely to be relatively small and easily achieved. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • relocate from

  • refer to

  • originate from

  • adapt to

ID: 5fe53347 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of how maple trees may respond to changes in climate. As used in this context, "adapt to" means to adjust to new conditions. The text first notes that maple trees already thrive in a wide variety of climates and then goes on to say that alterations maples may undergo are likely to be relatively small and easily achieved. This context supports the idea that maple trees will more easily adjust or adapt to a changing climate.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text discusses how maple trees adjust to change, the trees do not "relocate from," or physically move from one place to another. Choice B is incorrect because "refer to" means to mention or allude to something, and the trees are not doing either of these actions. Choice C is incorrect because the text is discussing how maple trees may respond to changes in climate, not where they "originate from," or came from originally.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 359902ae

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 359902ae

The following text is adapted from Nathaniel Hawthorne’s 1837 story “Dr. Heidegger’s Experiment.” The main character, a physician, is experimenting with rehydrating a dried flower.

At first [the rose] lay lightly on the surface of the fluid, appearing to imbibe none of its moisture. Soon, however, a singular change began to be visible. The crushed and dried petals stirred and assumed a deepening tinge of crimson, as if the flower were reviving from a deathlike slumber.

As used in the text, what does the phrase “a singular” most nearly mean?

  • A lonely

  • A disagreeable

  • An acceptable

  • An extraordinary

ID: 359902ae Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because as used in the text, “singular” most nearly means extraordinary. The text portrays an experiment in which a character rehydrates a dried rose by infusing it with moisture. After prolonged contact with the liquid, the rose begins to absorb it, undergoing an exceptional transformation: its color deepens, its previously “crushed and dried” petals shift, and the entire flower revives “from a deathlike slumber.” In other words, an extraordinary change is visible in the flower.

Choice A is incorrect. Although in some contexts “singular” can mean of or relating to an individual or to a single instance of something, this usage doesn’t imply loneliness or an otherwise unsatisfactory condition of isolation. Moreover, the text doesn’t attribute such a condition to the rose. Choice B is incorrect. Although “singular” has several related meanings, none of them relate to being disagreeable or unpleasant. Moreover, the text doesn’t portray the change undergone by the rose as necessarily disagreeable. Choice C is incorrect because “singular” means extraordinary, not acceptable. The change is portrayed as striking, not barely satisfactory.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 22a41819

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 22a41819

Rejecting the premise that the literary magazine Ebony and Topaz (1927) should present a unified vision of Black American identity, editor Charles S. Johnson fostered his contributors’ diverse perspectives by promoting their authorial autonomy. Johnson’s self-effacement diverged from the editorial stances of W.E.B. Du Bois and Alain Locke, whose decisions for their publications were more blank.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • proficient

  • dogmatic

  • ambiguous

  • unpretentious

ID: 22a41819 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. A person who is "dogmatic" believes strongly that their principles and opinions are true. Because Du Bois and Locke are implied to have one "unified vision" of Black American identity that they prioritize over the "diverse perspectives" of different writers, they can be described as dogmatic.

Choice A is incorrect. "Proficient" means "skilled." Du Bois and Locke are contrasted with Johnson, but nothing in the text suggests that Johnson was not skilled at making editorial decisions. Based on the text, the three editors just have different styles; they’re not necessarily more or less skilled. Choice C is incorrect. "Ambiguous" means "unclear" or "open to multiple interpretations." However, it’s actually Johnson who encouraged multiple interpretations ("diverse perspectives"). Since Du Bois and Locke are said to "diverge" from Johnson, we can assume that the views they published were not ambiguous, but instead clear and firm (a "unified vision"). Choice D is incorrect. "Unpretentious" means "not trying to impress others with greater skill or importance than is actually possessed." Du Bois and Locke are contrasted with Johnson, but nothing in the text suggests that Johnson is pretentious (trying to impress others).

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID ca50de52

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: ca50de52

“How lifelike are they?” Many computer animators prioritize this question as they strive to create ever more realistic environments and lighting. Generally, while characters in computer-animated films appear highly exaggerated, environments and lighting are carefully engineered to mimic reality. But some animators, such as Pixar’s Sanjay Patel, are focused on a different question. Rather than asking first whether the environments and lighting they’re creating are convincingly lifelike, Patel and others are asking whether these elements reflect their films’ unique stories.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined question in the text as a whole?

  • It reflects a primary goal that many computer animators have for certain components of the animations they produce.

  • It represents a concern of computer animators who are more interested in creating unique backgrounds and lighting effects than realistic ones.

  • It conveys the uncertainty among many computer animators about how to create realistic animations using current technology.

  • It illustrates a reaction that audiences typically have to the appearance of characters created by computer animators.

ID: ca50de52 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes the function of the underlined question in the text as a whole. The text begins with the underlined question, “How lifelike are they?” The text then explains that many computer animators pose this question about the environments and lighting that they create for animated films, striving for realistic animation of those components even if the characters themselves aren’t portrayed in realistic terms. The focus of the text then shifts to describe how some animators strive to create environments and lighting that reflect the film’s unique stories rather than making them appear realistic. Therefore, the function of the underlined question is to reflect a primary goal that many computer animators have for certain components of the animations they produce.

Choice B is incorrect because, as the text makes clear, the underlined question is one posed by computer animators who wish to create realistic backgrounds and lighting effects, not by those who, instead, wish to create effects that reflect films’ unique stories and aren’t necessarily realistic; this latter group of animators is discussed later in the text. Choice C is incorrect. As the text explains, many computer animators strive for realistic environments and lighting, while others do not; this difference of approach relates to whether these components should be realistic, not to how realism can be achieved using current technology, and the text never suggests that animators are uncertain how to achieve it. Choice D is incorrect because the underlined question pertains to the perspective of computer animators, not the audience, and the text never considers audience’s reactions to characters in animated films.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 82cb7dda

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 82cb7dda

The field of study called affective neuroscience seeks instinctive, physiological causes for feelings such as pleasure or displeasure. Because these sensations are linked to a chemical component (for example, the release of the neurotransmitter dopamine in the brain when one receives or expects a reward), they can be said to have a partly physiological basis. These processes have been described in mammals, but Jingnan Huang and his colleagues have recently observed that some behaviors of honeybees (such as foraging) are also motivated by a dopamine-based signaling process.

What choice best describes the main purpose of the text?

  • It describes an experimental method of measuring the strength of physiological responses in humans.

  • It illustrates processes by which certain insects can express how they are feeling.

  • It summarizes a finding suggesting that some mechanisms in the brains of certain insects resemble mechanisms in mammalian brains.

  • It presents research showing that certain insects and mammals behave similarly when there is a possibility of a reward for their actions.

ID: 82cb7dda Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text, which is to summarize a finding suggesting that some mechanisms in the brains of certain insects resemble mechanisms in mammalian brains. The text begins by explaining that feelings such as pleasure and displeasure are linked to chemical processes in the brain, such as the release of dopamine when one receives a reward. The text then indicates that such processes have been seen in mammals but that researchers have recently observed similar processes involving dopamine in honeybees. Taken together, this information serves to sum up the discovery that some mechanisms in the brains of certain insects may resemble mechanisms linked to feelings such as pleasure and displeasure in mammals.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t describe any experiments or experimental methods. Instead, the text describes a phenomenon that has been observed in mammals and then presents the recent observations of Huang and colleagues that this phenomenon is also seen in honeybees. Choice B is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that certain insects can express how they’re feeling through particular processes. The text does indicate that certain honeybee behaviors such as foraging are linked to dopamine, but it doesn’t suggest that these behaviors enable honeybees to communicate feelings or sensations. Choice D is incorrect because the text presents research showing that certain honeybee behaviors such as foraging are linked to dopamine and therefore may be motivated by similar mechanisms to those in mammalian brains, not that honeybees and mammals behave similarly when there is the possibility of reward for their actions.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID f0be91b2

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: f0be91b2

Drivers who strongly believe that the toll they must pay to use the Lewis and Clark Bridge, which spans the Ohio River to connect Indiana and Kentucky, is currently too high are unlikely to be blank a proposal to increase the toll. Advocates for a higher toll are likely to have more success if they instead direct their arguments toward a more persuadable segment of the population. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • receptive to

  • apprised of

  • incensed by

  • cited in

ID: f0be91b2 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of driver attitudes toward a toll increase. In this context, "receptive to" would mean open to or willing to consider something. The text focuses on drivers who think the current toll for the Lewis and Clark Bridge is too high, suggesting that advocates for increasing that toll would have better success presenting their arguments to "a more persuadable segment of the population" rather than to those drivers. This context suggests that the drivers who strongly believe the toll is already too high are not persuadable—that is, that they are unlikely to be willing to consider the toll-increase proposal.

Choice B is incorrect because "apprised of" means informed about or made aware of something, and nothing in the text suggests that the drivers who think a toll is already too high wouldn’t be informed of a proposal for an even higher toll; in fact, the text implies that advocates of the proposal would "direct their arguments" in favor of the increase to those drivers, even though they would likely be more successful focusing on people who are more open to hearing their arguments. Choice C is incorrect. In this context, "incensed by" would mean angered or outraged by something. The text focuses on drivers who feel that a current toll is too high, and it wouldn’t make sense to suggest that those drivers would be unlikely to be angered by a proposal for the toll to be increased; indeed, drivers who think the toll is already too high likely would be angered by a move to raise it even higher. Choice D is incorrect. In this context, "cited in" would mean referred to or mentioned in something. Although it’s reasonable to suggest that a proposal to raise a toll might not make any mention of drivers who think the toll is already too high, the text focuses on how those drivers and other people are likely to react to arguments in favor of the proposal, not on whether those drivers would be cited in the proposal itself.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID c977cfcf

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: c977cfcf

According to a team of neuroeconomists from the University of Zurich, ease of decision making may be linked to communication between two brain regions, the prefrontal cortex and the parietal cortex. Individuals tend to be more decisive if the information flow between the regions is intensified, whereas they make choices more slowly when information flow is blank.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • reduced

  • evaluated

  • determined

  • acquired

ID: c977cfcf Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of how the flow of information between two regions of the brain may affect the ease of people’s decision making. In this context, "reduced" means decreased. The text presents the finding from a team of neuroeconomists that decision making may be connected to communication between the prefrontal cortex and the parietal cortex. In presenting this finding, the text suggests a contrast between people who tend to be more decisive and people who make decisions more slowly. According to the text, people tend to be more decisive when the flow of information between the two brain regions is intensified, or strengthened. On the other hand, this context suggests that people make choices more slowly when the flow of information between the two brain regions is decreased.

Choice B is incorrect because "evaluated" means assessed, which wouldn’t make sense in context. According to the text, people tend to be more decisive when the flow of information between two brain regions is intensified, or strengthened. This suggests that people’s ease of decision making varies based on the rate of information traveling between the regions, not based on an effort to assess the information. Choice C is incorrect because "determined" means judged or influenced, neither of which would make sense in context. According to the text, people tend to be more decisive when the flow of information between two brain regions is intensified, or strengthened. This suggests that people’s ease of decision making varies based on the rate of information traveling between the regions, not based on an effort to judge or influence the information. Choice D is incorrect because "acquired" means developed or attained, neither of which would make sense in context. According to the text, people tend to be more decisive when the flow of information between two brain regions is intensified, or strengthened. This suggests that people’s ease of decision making varies based on the rate of information traveling between the regions, not based on the development or attainment of the information.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID e35d481c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: e35d481c

Some economic historians blank that late nineteenth- and early twentieth-century households in the United States experienced an economy of scale when it came to food purchases—they assumed that large households spent less on food per person than did small households. Economist Trevon Logan showed, however, that a close look at the available data disproves this supposition.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • surmised

  • contrived

  • questioned

  • regretted

ID: e35d481c Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of late nineteenth- and early twentieth-century household food purchases. In this context, “surmised” means formed an idea or assumption with little evidence. The text explains that certain economic historians “assumed” that large and small households spent different amounts on food per person, but that another economist found this supposition to be false based on evidence from available data. This context suggests that the economic historians made an incorrect assumption without enough consideration of evidence.

Choice B is incorrect. In this context, “contrived” would mean brought about or created through trickery. Nothing in the text suggests that the economic historians were deliberately trying to trick people with a claim about food purchasing behaviors in late nineteenth- and early twentieth-century households; the text simply suggests that they made an assumption about those behaviors that another historian believes isn’t supported by the available data. Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates that it’s Logan and not the economic historians who “questioned,” or doubted, the assumption that large and small households in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries spent different amounts on food per person; the economic historians are the ones who made that assumption to begin with. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that some economic historians “regretted,” or felt sad or remorseful about, the food purchasing behaviors of late nineteenth- and early twentieth-century households. The text focuses on the idea that the economic historians made an assumption about those behaviors that may not be supported by available data, not on the historians’ emotional response to what households did in the past.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 45a109a3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 45a109a3

The following text is from Bram Stoker’s 1897 novel Dracula. The narrator is being driven in a carriage through a remote region at night.

The baying of the wolves sounded nearer and nearer, as though they were closing round on us from every side. I grew dreadfully afraid, and the horses shared my fear. The driver, however, was not in the least disturbed; he kept turning his head to left and right, but I could not see anything through the darkness.

As used in the text, what does the word “disturbed” most nearly mean?

  • Disorganized

  • Alarmed

  • Offended

  • Interrupted

ID: 45a109a3 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because as used in the text, “disturbed” most nearly means alarmed. The text portrays the narrator traveling in a carriage as wolves howl in the surrounding darkness. The text contrasts the reaction of both the narrator and the horses pulling the carriage with that of the driver of the carriage: the narrator and horses are “dreadfully afraid,” but the driver is “not in the least disturbed.” In other words, the driver is not alarmed by the wolves nearby.

Choice A is incorrect. Although in some contexts, “disturbed” can mean disorganized, the text doesn’t portray a character acting in a disorganized manner; instead, the driver continues to drive the carriage, even though the horses pulling it are alarmed. Choice C is incorrect. Although in some contexts, “disturbed” can mean offended, the text doesn’t portray one character feeling offended, or upset, by another’s actions; instead, it contrasts the fear felt by the narrator with another character’s lack of fear. Choice D is incorrect. Although in some contexts, “disturbed” can mean interrupted, the text doesn’t portray an action being interrupted; indeed, the travel depicted in the scene continues despite the threat of the wolves outside the carriage.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 5e57efec

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 5e57efec

Economist Marco Castillo and colleagues showed that nuisance costs—the time and effort people must spend to make donations—reduce charitable giving. Charities can mitigate this effect by compensating donors for nuisance costs, but those costs, though variable, are largely blank donation size, so charities that compensate donors will likely favor attracting a few large donors over many small donors.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • supplemental to

  • predictive of

  • independent of

  • subsumed in

ID: 5e57efec Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. We’re told that charities that pay donors back for nuisance costs will attract a few large donors instead of many small donors. This suggests that nuisance costs are not linked to donation size.

Choice A is incorrect. This doesn’t fit the logic of the text. If nuisance costs are supplemental to (meaning in addition to) donation size, that wouldn’t result in charities that compensate donors for those costs attracting a few large donors over many small donors. Choice B is incorrect. This doesn’t fit the logic of the text. If nuisance costs can predict donation size, that wouldn’t necessarily result in charities that compensate donors for those costs attracting a few large donors over many small donors. Choice D is incorrect. This doesn’t fit the logic of the text. If nuisance costs are subsumed in (meaning included in) donation size, that wouldn’t result in charities that compensate donors for those costs attracting a few large donors over many small donors.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 1c7fe9be

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 1c7fe9be

At the turn of the twentieth century, Black residents of Richmond, Virginia, had few formal options for banking and other financial services. To blank this situation, Maggie Lena Walker chartered the St. Luke Penny Savings Bank in 1903. The bank went on to provide home loans and savings opportunities to thousands of Black families over the following decades. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • prolong

  • rectify

  • retain

  • highlight

ID: 1c7fe9be Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of how Maggie Lena Walker addressed the lack of financial services available to Black residents in Richmond, Virginia, at the turn of the twentieth century. In this context, "rectify" means to correct or remedy something undesirable. The text indicates that by chartering the St. Luke Penny Savings Bank in 1903, Walker took action to provide local Black residents with greater access to financial services like home loans and savings opportunities. This context supports the idea that she aimed to rectify the undesirable situation affecting these residents.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, "prolong" would mean to lengthen something in time. The text indicates that at the turn of the twentieth century, Black residents in Richmond, Virginia, were faced with a lack of formal banking options. The text then states that Walker founded a new bank that provided these residents with financial services. Therefore, instead of prolonging the situation, she took steps to rectify, or correct, it. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, "retain" would mean to continue to have or to keep something. According to the text, at the turn of the twentieth century, Black residents in Richmond, Virginia, had few formal banking options, and Walker chartered a new institution to provide these residents with expanded financial services; therefore, she took steps to rectify, not retain, the situation. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, "highlight" would mean to emphasize or call attention to something, but the text indicates that Walker took concrete steps beyond merely drawing attention to the situation Black residents were facing in Richmond, Virginia, at the turn of the twentieth century. According to the text, Walker worked to rectify, or correct, the lack of formal banking options that were available to these residents by establishing a bank that provided them with home loans and savings opportunities.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID c966ad55

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: c966ad55

The following text is from Srimati Svarna Kumari Devi’s 1894 novel The Fatal Garland (translated by A. Christina Albers in 1910). Shakti is walking near a riverbank that she visited frequently during her childhood.

She crossed the woods she knew so well. The trees seemed to extend their branches like welcoming arms. They greeted her as an old friend. Soon she reached the river-side.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole? 

  • It suggests that Shakti feels uncomfortable near the river.

  • It indicates that Shakti has lost her sense of direction in the woods.

  • It emphasizes Shakti’s sense of belonging in the landscape.

  • It conveys Shakti’s appreciation for her long-term friendships. 

ID: c966ad55 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence of the text states that Shakti knows the woods she is walking in well. The next sentence, which is underlined, emphasizes Shakti’s familiarity with, and sense of security within, the woods by describing how the tree branches are friendly and “welcoming,” as they are depicted as extending open arms to her. The remainder of the text also shows that Shakti is comfortable and content in the woods by describing her as “an old friend” of the trees. Thus, the function of the underlined portion is to emphasize Shakti’s sense of belonging in the wooded landscape that she visits.

Choice A is incorrect because the text and underlined portion suggest that Shakti is comfortable, not uncomfortable, in her surroundings: the trees around her are described as welcoming and reassuring. Moreover, the underlined portion discusses Shakti’s feelings in the forest, not the river, since she hasn’t reached the river yet. Choice B is incorrect because the text and underlined portion emphasize Shakti’s familiarity with the woods. The trees are inviting, and she feels like “an old friend” to the woods, so she isn’t lost or confused there. Choice D is incorrect because the third sentence uses the phrase “as an old friend” figuratively in reference to Shakti’s sense of familiarity with the landscape, not in reference to her long-standing friendships with other people, and the text and underlined portion never discuss her feelings about such friendships.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 757077f9

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 757077f9

During a 2014 archaeological dig in Spain, Vicente Lull and his team uncovered the skeleton of a woman from El Algar, an Early Bronze Age society, buried with valuable objects signaling a high position of power. This finding may persuade researchers who have argued that Bronze Age societies were ruled by men to blank that women may have also held leadership roles.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • waive

  • concede

  • refute

  • require

ID: 757077f9 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the significance of the 2014 archaeological finding at El Algar. In this context, “concede” means to admit something is true after first resisting that admission. The text indicates that some researchers believe “Bronze Age societies were ruled by men.” But the Bronze Age burial of a woman at El Algar included “valuable objects signaling a high position of power,” which would raise the possibility that “women may have also held leadership roles.” Thus, the text is calling into question the notion that only men were leaders in these societies and speculating that people holding this view may reconsider their opinion.

Choice A is incorrect because “waive” means to refrain from insisting that something, such as a right or a requirement, be observed; the word isn’t used, however, in contexts where someone acknowledges that an opinion they hold may be invalid, as is the case in the text. Choice C is incorrect. According to the text, the finding from the El Algar burial site undermines the view that Bronze Age societies were exclusively ruled by men. However, “refute” means to demonstrate that something is false and would not make sense in context. Lull and team’s finding supports the view that women may have also held leadership roles, not that they did not participate in such roles. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, “require” means to demand or specify as mandatory. However, it would not make sense for contemporary researchers to demand that Bronze Age “women may have also held leadership roles.”

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID eb89dcc8

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Easy
ID: eb89dcc8

Text 1

Imagine you and your friend are trying to decide where to eat lunch. When people try to make joint decisions like this, they often don’t reveal their true preferences. Instead, they say they would be happy with all options because they think this response will help them appear more easygoing and likable to the other person.

 

Text 2

Research shows that people who don’t state their preferences when making a decision with others aren’t more likable in the eyes of others. In fact, stating that you have no preference actually makes the decision more difficult for other people. It can also cause them to feel less happy with their ultimate decision and with you.

Based on the texts, what response would the author of Text 2 most likely suggest for someone in the situation described in the underlined sentence in Text 1?

  • Cancel the plan to have lunch together.

  • Ask where the friend typically likes to eat.

  • State a preference about where to eat.

  • Change the subject to talk about something else.

ID: eb89dcc8 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it directly applies the research findings described in Text 2 to the situation underlined in Text 1. The underlined sentence in Text 1 describes a common scenario in which two friends are deciding on a lunch location. Text 1 goes on to explain that people often don’t reveal their true preferences in such situations, instead claiming they’re fine with any option so that they can appear more easygoing and likable. Text 2 presents research that advises against this approach, stating that people who don’t express their preferences aren’t viewed as more likable and that this behavior actually makes decisions more difficult for others. Since Text 2 specifically argues against the strategy of concealing preferences and indicates negative outcomes from doing so, the author of Text 2 would most likely recommend stating a preference about where to eat.

Choice A is incorrect because nothing in Text 2 suggests that canceling plans is a good solution. The author of Text 2 is addressing how to make joint decisions effectively (through stating your own preference), not advocating for avoiding such decisions entirely. Choice B is incorrect because asking where the friend typically likes to eat still avoids stating one’s own preference. While this approach might seem considerate, it continues the pattern of not revealing true preferences that Text 2 identifies as problematic. Choice D is incorrect because changing the subject would avoid making any decision altogether, which contradicts the implied advice in Text 2. The author of Text 2 presents research suggesting that directly engaging with the decision by stating preferences helps others make decisions and makes you appear more likable.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 2af2016f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 2af2016f

A study by Dr. Paul Hanel and colleagues concluded that people are more likely to behave politely when listening to ideas they disagree with if they think about values before they engage in a discussion. Study participants were assigned to one of two groups. The experimental group spent a few minutes writing about one of their personal values before they had a group discussion on a controversial topic. And the control group spent a few minutes writing about a drink (tea, milk, etc.) before their group discussion on that topic. Hanel and colleagues found that the experimental group’s discussion was more civil than the control group’s discussion was. 

Which choice best describes the main purpose of the text?

  • To describe a widely held belief and how a study’s results support that belief

  • To argue that researchers were surprised by the results of a certain study

  • To suggest ways to improve a certain study’s experimental design

  • To explain a study’s conclusion and how a research team arrived at that conclusion

ID: 2af2016f Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text, which is to explain a study’s conclusion and how researchers involved in the study arrived at that conclusion. The text begins by summarizing the main conclusion of the study conducted by Paul Hanel and colleagues: when confronted with ideas they disagree with in discussions about controversial topics, people are more likely to respond politely if they think about their personal values before engaging in such discussions. The text then goes on to describe the design of Hanel and colleagues’ experiment. By comparing interactions between members of an experimental group (who had been prompted to write about their personal values beforehand) to those between members of a control group (who had been prompted to write about a beverage), the team found that people in the experimental group behaved more civilly, or politely, than people in the control group did during discussions about a controversial topic. This finding led to the conclusion described at the beginning of the text.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text discusses the results of a study, it doesn’t provide any indication that the conclusion the study supported—that when facing disagreement, people behave more politely when they have thought about their values—is a belief that is widely held. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that the researchers found the results of their study to be surprising, or contrary to what they expected. In fact, there’s no indication provided in the text about how the researchers felt about the study’s results or that the results should be considered surprising. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text discusses the experimental design of a study, it doesn’t suggest any improvements to that design; instead, it focuses on how the design enabled the researchers to draw a particular conclusion.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID b13378c8

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: b13378c8

Early in the Great Migration of 1910–1970, which involved the mass migration of Black people from the southern to the northern United States, political activist and Chicago Defender writer Fannie Barrier Williams was instrumental in helping other Black women establish themselves in the North. Many women hoped for better employment opportunities in the North because, in the South, they faced much competition for domestic employment and men tended to get agricultural work. To aid with this transition, Barrier Williams helped secure job placement in the North for many women before they even began their journey.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To introduce and illustrate Barrier Williams’s integral role in supporting other Black women as their circumstances changed during part of the Great Migration

  • To establish that Barrier Williams used her professional connections to arrange employment for other Black women, including jobs with the Chicago Defender

  • To demonstrate that the factors that motivated the start of the Great Migration were different for Black women than they were for Black men

  • To provide an overview of the employment challenges faced by Black women in the agricultural and domestic spheres in the southern United States

ID: b13378c8 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes the text’s purpose, which is to discuss the important role Barrier Williams played in supporting many other Black women as they relocated to the northern United States during the early years of the Great Migration. After introducing Barrier Williams, the text describes how she helped find jobs for other Black women, who in many cases relocated in search of better employment prospects than the South could offer at the time. The text indicates that by doing so, she eased these women’s transition as their circumstances changed.

Choice B is incorrect. Although the text mentions Barrier Williams’s work as a political activist and writer for the Chicago Defender, it doesn’t discuss any professional connections she made in these roles or indicate that she used any such connections in her work to secure employment for other Black women. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text discusses a factor that caused many women to relocate during the Great Migration, their difficulty finding employment in the South, the text doesn’t indicate that this factor motivated the start of the Great Migration. Moreover, the text doesn’t discuss the factors that motivated Black men to migrate. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text mentions the difficult employment prospects for Black women in the domestic and agricultural sectors in the South during the Great Migration, the text’s main purpose isn’t to provide an overview of the employment challenges Black women faced in these sectors. Rather, it provides this information to show that Barrier Williams played a crucial role in supporting many Black women who relocated to the North by helping them achieve one of their main goals, securing a job.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 97e5bf55

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 97e5bf55

Text 1

In 1916, H. Dugdale Sykes disputed claims that The Two Noble Kinsmen was coauthored by William Shakespeare and John Fletcher. Sykes felt Fletcher’s contributions to the play were obvious—Fletcher had a distinct style in his other plays, so much so that lines with that style were considered sufficient evidence of Fletcher’s authorship. But for the lines not deemed to be by Fletcher, Sykes felt that their depiction of women indicated that their author was not Shakespeare but Philip Massinger.

Text 2

Scholars have accepted The Two Noble Kinsmen as coauthored by Shakespeare since the 1970s: it appears in all major one-volume editions of Shakespeare’s complete works. Though scholars disagree about who wrote what exactly, it is generally held that on the basis of style, Shakespeare wrote all of the first act and most of the last, while John Fletcher authored most of the three middle acts.

Based on the texts, both Sykes in Text 1 and the scholars in Text 2 would most likely agree with which statement?

  • John Fletcher’s writing has a unique, readily identifiable style.

  • The women characters in John Fletcher’s plays are similar to the women characters in Philip Massinger’s plays.

  • The Two Noble Kinsmen belongs in one-volume compilations of Shakespeare’s complete plays.

  • Philip Massinger’s style in the first and last acts of The Two Noble Kinsmen is an homage to Shakespeare’s style.

ID: 97e5bf55 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. Text 1 states that Sykes felt Fletcher’s contributions to the play were obvious because he had a distinct style in his other plays. Text 2 states that scholars generally agree “on the basis of style” that Fletcher wrote most of the three middle acts. Both texts imply that Fletcher’s writing has a unique, readily identifiable style that can be used to distinguish his work from others.

Choice B is incorrect. While Text 1 refers to the women in Massinger plays, neither text compares the women of Fletcher’s plays to the women of Massinger’s plays. Text 2 doesn’t mention Massinger at all. Choice C is incorrect. Text 1 states that Sykes disputed that Shakespeare coauthored the play, and implied that it was coauthored by Fletcher and Massinger instead. Sykes, therefore, would disagree that The Two Noble Kinsmen belongs in a Shakespeare compilation. Choice D is incorrect. Text 1 doesn’t suggest that Massinger was inspired by Shakespeare, and Text 2 doesn’t mention Massinger at all.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID d4a8f7cb

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: d4a8f7cb

Dance choreographer Jawole Willa Jo Zollar aims to give people the opportunity to be blank her creative process. For example, live performances of her dance HairStories, which debuted in 2001, featured videos of people across the United States talking about their hair and audience members sharing pictures of their interesting hairstyles.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • nervous about

  • completed by

  • delayed by

  • involved in

ID: d4a8f7cb Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. “Involved in” means “playing an active role in.” This fits the context clues describing how Zollar includes the audience in her shows by incorporating their stories and pictures.

Choice A is incorrect. “Nervous” means “worried or anxious about.” Nothing in the text suggests that people would be nervous about Zollar’s creative process. Choice B is incorrect. “Completed by” means “made whole by.” It doesn’t make sense to say that Zollar’s shows would make her audience complete. Choice C is incorrect. “Delayed by” means “made late by.” Nothing in the text suggests that people would be delayed by Zollar’s creative process.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 84ece3f6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 84ece3f6

The following text is adapted from Nathaniel Hawthorne’s 1844 short story “Drowne’s Wooden Image.” Drowne, a young man, is carving a wooden figure to decorate the front of a ship.

Day by day, the work assumed greater precision, and settled its irregular and misty outline into distincter grace and beauty. The general design was now obvious to the common eye.

As used in the text, what does the word “assumed” most nearly mean?

  • Acquired

  • Acknowledged

  • Imitated

  • Speculated

ID: 84ece3f6 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because as used in the text, “assumed” most nearly means acquired, or came to possess. The text portrays a character named Drowne carving a figure out of wood. At first “irregular and misty,” or haphazard and indistinct, the figure’s outline gradually showed “distincter grace and beauty” until the general design of the carved object “was now obvious to the common eye,” or plainly recognizable to anyone. In other words, as Drowne continued to carve, the wooden object came to possess, or acquired, greater precision, changing from an indistinct outline or shape into a graceful, beautiful, and clearly recognizable form.

Choice B is incorrect. Although in some contexts “assumed” can mean acknowledged, or recognized, it doesn’t have that meaning in this context because an inanimate object like the wooden figure can’t acknowledge its own precision. Choice C is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that the wooden figure merely imitated, or mimicked, precision. Rather, the text suggests that as Drowne carved his wooden figure, it gradually became more precise. Choice D is incorrect. Although in some contexts “assumed” can mean speculated, or supposed based on incomplete information, it doesn’t have that meaning in this context because an inanimate object like the wooden figure can’t speculate about its own precision.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 95f037ad

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 95f037ad

The works of Chicana artist Ester Hernandez are now blank in museums both in the United States and abroad, but the murals she contributed to as a member of Las Mujeres Muralistas early in her artistic career were displayed in outdoor public spaces across San Francisco.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • invented

  • adjusted

  • featured

  • recommended

ID: 95f037ad Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Ester Hernandez’s art. In this context, "featured" means shown prominently. The text focuses on where Hernandez’s works have been and continue to be displayed, explaining that her early works, which consisted of murals, could be viewed in outdoor spaces in San Francisco. The central contrast developed in the text is between where her early works could be viewed and where her works can be viewed now, which is in museums across the United States and around the world. The context therefore supports the idea that Hernandez’s works are now shown, or featured, in museums globally.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context "invented" would mean created something for the first time, which isn’t supported since the text doesn’t discuss where Hernandez creates her works or whether they’re original or innovative. Choice B is incorrect because "adjusted" in this context would mean adapted. Although the text mentions that many of Hernandez’s early works were outdoor murals and thus it may be reasonable to infer that Hernandez altered her approach to creating art so that her works could be displayed in indoor venues instead, the text makes no mention of how Hernandez’s works might have been adapted for such venues. The text focuses on where Hernandez’s works have been and continue to be displayed, not on how she or anyone else may have adapted, or adjusted, her works. Choice D is incorrect because "recommended" in this context would mean endorsed or put forth as a suggestion for something that is worth seeing. Although it may be reasonable to say that in choosing to display certain works, museum curators believe such works are worth seeing, the text doesn’t discuss the reasons why museums display Hernandez’s works. Instead, the text mainly develops a contrast between where Hernandez’s early works could once be viewed and where her work can be viewed now.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID d4732483

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: d4732483

Studying late nineteenth- and early twentieth-century artifacts from an agricultural and domestic site in Texas, archaeologist Ayana O. Flewellen found that Black women employed as farm workers utilized hook-and-eye closures to fasten their clothes at the waist, giving themselves a silhouette similar to the one that was popular in contemporary fashion and typically achieved through more restrictive garments such as corsets. Flewellen argues that this sartorial practice shows that these women balanced hegemonic ideals of femininity with the requirements of their physically demanding occupation.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To describe an unexpected discovery that altered a researcher’s view of how rapidly fashions among Black female farmworkers in late nineteenth- and early twentieth-century Texas changed during the period

  • To discuss research that investigated the ways in which Black female farmworkers in late nineteenth- and early twentieth-century Texas used fashion practices to resist traditional gender ideals

  • To evaluate a scholarly work that offers explanations for the impact of urban fashion ideals on Black female farmworkers in late nineteenth- and early twentieth-century Texas

  • To summarize the findings of a study that explored factors influencing a fashion practice among Black female farmworkers in late nineteenth- and early twentieth-century Texas

ID: d4732483 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The text provides an overview of a scholarly work discussing the fashion practices of Black female farmworkers in late 19th- and early 20th-century Texas, and how these practices were influenced by both the fashion ideals of the time and the demands of farmwork.

Choice A is incorrect. The text never discusses the rate of fashion change among Black female farmworkers. The text also never categorizes Flewellen’s findings as "unexpected." Choice B is incorrect. The text actually explains that Black female farmworkers were trying to achieve traditional feminine ideals, not resist them. Choice C is incorrect. The text doesn’t evaluate a scholarly work but rather simply describes it. Furthermore, the text is focused on "agricultural and domestic" fashion, not urban fashion as this choice suggests.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID d9915c15

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: d9915c15

In 2020, rap artist and professor A.D. Carson published the first peer-reviewed rap album about his experiences with Black masculinity called “i used to love to dream.” Typically in peer review, experts evaluate scholarly articles prior to publication. For Carson’s album, dubbed a “mixtap/e/ssay,” peer review involved both scholars and rap artists. In combining elements of a mixtape album with scholarly essays that connect Carson’s lyrics to historical and contemporary contexts for listeners both inside and outside academia, Carson’s album helped redefine how scholarship is created and shared.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To compare the relative public impact of scholarly articles and albums

  • To capture one scholar’s opinion of a new rap album

  • To explain why a certain rap album is particularly innovative

  • To describe how each step of the peer review process unfolds

ID: d9915c15 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it best describes the main purpose of the text, which is to explain why a certain rap album is particularly innovative. The text mentions rap artist and professor A.D. Carson, who published "the first peer-reviewed rap album." The text also describes the unusual process of having the work evaluated by both scholars and rap artists before its release, and details how the album combines elements of a mixtape album with elements of scholarly essays. All of these characteristics of the album and the way in which it was developed help to demonstrate the album’s novelty.

Choice A is incorrect because though the text mentions an album that combines elements of scholarly essays and mixtapes, it does not compare the relative public impact of scholarly articles and albums. Choice B is incorrect because the text does not present the opinion of a scholar regarding the rap album. Choice D is incorrect because though the text mentions that the album was peer reviewed, it does not detail the steps of the review.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID e386a11d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: e386a11d

Cat and Plum Blossoms is an important work of Nihonga, or classical Japanese painting. Unlike Kuroda Seiki, who adopted traditional European methods such as painting with oil on canvas, Hishida Shunsō blank traditional Japanese approaches. For instance, Hishida produced Cat and Plum Blossoms by applying color pigments to a silk scroll.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • distrusted

  • embraced

  • released

  • overlooked

ID: e386a11d Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Hishida Shunsō’s painting Cat and Plum Blossoms. In this context, "embraced" means accepted or adopted readily. The text begins by identifying Cat and Plum Blossoms as an example of Nihonga, or classical (that is, traditional) Japanese painting. The text continues by drawing a contrast between Hishida’s work and Kuroda Seiki’s work, which differs from that of Hishida in its use of the traditional European method of using oil paints on canvas rather than using traditional Japanese approaches. The text then concludes with an example of one such traditional Japanese painting technique exemplified by Hishida’s Cat and Plum Blossoms—applications of color pigments to a silk scroll—to further develop the contrast between the two artists’ approaches. This context supports the idea that Hishida adopted, or embraced, traditional Japanese approaches.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context "distrusted" would mean that Hishida was skeptical of or lacked confidence in traditional Japanese approaches to painting. The text begins by stating that Hishida’s painting Cat and Plum Blossoms is an example of Nihonga, or traditional Japanese painting, and then cites Hishida’s application of color pigments to a silk scroll as an instance of a traditional Japanese painting technique. It therefore wouldn’t make sense to say that Hishida’s use of traditional Japanese painting techniques indicates his distrust, or skepticism, of them. Rather, it suggests that he embraced those techniques. Choice C is incorrect because saying that Hishida "released" traditional Japanese approaches to painting in this context would mean that he freed them from any restrictions. In using Hishida’s application of color pigments to a silk scroll in Cat and Plum Blossoms as an example of a traditional Japanese approach to painting found in Nihonga, the text strongly implies that Hishida followed these approaches, not that he removed them from any restrictions. Choice D is incorrect because in this context "overlooked" would mean ignored or failed to notice. The text establishes that Hishida’s painting Cat and Plum Blossoms is a notable work of Nihonga, or classical Japanese painting, that features the traditional technique of applying color pigments to a silk scroll. It wouldn’t make sense to say that Hishida’s use of a traditional Japanese approach to painting indicates that Hishida failed to notice those approaches.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID e818241b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: e818241b

Astronomers are confident that the star Betelgeuse will eventually consume all the helium in its core and explode in a supernova. They are much less confident, however, about when this will happen, since that depends on internal characteristics of Betelgeuse that are largely unknown. Astrophysicist Sarafina El-Badry Nance and colleagues recently investigated whether acoustic waves in the star could be used to determine internal stellar states but concluded that this method could not sufficiently reveal Betelgeuse’s internal characteristics to allow its evolutionary state to be firmly fixed.

Which choice best describes the function of the second sentence in the overall structure of the text?

  • It describes a serious limitation of the method used by Nance and colleagues. 

  • It presents the central finding reported by Nance and colleagues. 

  • It identifies the problem that Nance and colleagues attempted to solve but did not.

  • It explains how the work of Nance and colleagues was received by others in the field. 

ID: e818241b Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it best describes how the second sentence functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence establishes something astronomers believe with some certainty: that Betelgeuse will explode in a supernova. The second sentence then introduces a problem: astronomers aren’t certain when Betelgeuse will explode because they don’t have enough information about the star’s internal characteristics. Finally, the third sentence indicates that researcher Sarafina El-Badry Nance and colleagues investigated a possible method of obtaining the necessary information about Betelgeuse’s internal characteristics, though they found that the method wouldn’t be sufficient. Thus, the function of the second sentence is to identify the problem that Nance and colleagues attempted to solve but didn’t.

Choice A is incorrect because the second sentence introduces the general problem Nance and colleagues hoped to solve, not a serious limitation of how Nance and colleagues tried to solve it. It is the third sentence that introduces Nance and colleagues, but no serious limitation of their approach to studying a method of determining internal stellar states is described. Choice B is incorrect because the second sentence introduces the general problem Nance and colleagues hoped to solve, not the central finding they ultimately reported. It is the third sentence that presents Nance and colleagues’ conclusion that a potential method for determining internal stellar states would be insufficient. Choice D is incorrect because the second sentence doesn’t indicate how other astronomers or astrophysicists responded to the work done by Nance and colleagues; the text doesn’t address this information at all.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID a1139ff8

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: a1139ff8

In the 1990s, conservationists began planting more than 500,000 native trees in the habitat of the Azores bullfinch to boost the bird’s numbers. This approach was apparently blank: the Azores bullfinch’s population size increased from as few as 100 birds at the end of the 1980s to around 1,300 in 2023. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • amusing

  • costly

  • successful

  • disastrous

ID: a1139ff8 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the conservationists’ efforts to increase Azores bullfinch’s numbers. In this context, "successful" means accomplishing a goal or purpose. According to the text, conservationists planted more than 500,000 native trees in an Azores bullfinch habitat in order to boost the bird’s population size. The text then indicates that the population size did indeed grow as a result of the planted trees. Thus, in this context, the conservationists’ approach of planting native trees was successful because it achieved the goal of increasing the bird’s population size.

Choice A is incorrect because the text gives no indication that the conservationists’ approach of planting native trees to increase Azores bullfinch’s numbers was "amusing," or comical or entertaining. Instead, the approach was seriously undertaken and ultimately accomplished. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t address how much it cost to achieve the goal of planting native trees to increase Azores bullfinch’s numbers. The text indicates that the approach was beneficial and successful rather than "costly," or expensive or harmful. Choice D is incorrect. According to the text, the conservationists’ approach of planting native trees to increase Azores bullfinch’s numbers was beneficial and successful rather than "disastrous," or damaging or unsuccessful.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID d5ad34f0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: d5ad34f0

The results of randomized clinical trials testing the efficacy of common medical interventions sometimes fail to blank conclusions that practitioners reach based on their real-world observations of patients. While there are several possible reasons for this, one is that practitioners may overlook confounding variables that account for the results they attribute to the interventions in question.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • circumvent

  • corroborate

  • disseminate

  • implement

ID: d5ad34f0 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of a relationship between the results of randomized clinical tests of how effective common medical interventions are and the conclusions practitioners reach about such interventions in real-world settings. In this context, "corroborate" means confirm or support with evidence. The text indicates that one possible explanation for the relationship being discussed is that practitioners may overlook confounding variables—that is, additional factors other than the medical interventions being investigated that affect the observed outcomes. This means that practitioners may assume that an outcome is the direct result of a medical intervention when it is actually the result of a combination of factors. Clinical trials take steps to rule out factors other than the one being studied, so if those extra factors are actually having an effect on real-world outcomes, the trials are likely to produce conclusions different from those practitioners reach in their real-world observations. In other words, clinical trials may fail to corroborate practitioners’ conclusions.

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that the results of clinical trials could "circumvent," or find a way around or bypass, conclusions practitioners reach in real-world scenarios with patients; it’s possible that researchers conducting the trials might avoid engaging with practitioners’ conclusions, but findings from a study can’t choose to get around something. Choice C is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that the results of clinical trials could "disseminate," or spread widely, conclusions practitioners reach in real-world scenarios with patients; the researchers conducting the trials might choose to draw attention to practitioners’ conclusions, but findings from a study can’t spread anything. Choice D is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that the results of clinical trials could "implement," or put into effect, conclusions practitioners reach in real-world scenarios with patients; the researchers conducting the trials might consider practitioners’ conclusions, but findings from a study can’t put anything into effect.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 6c086e70

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 6c086e70

Businesses typically try to promote themselves, but research by Michael Luca, Abhishek Nagaraj, and Gauri Subramani suggests that some do not blank their marketing. The researchers studied restaurants in Texas and found that those listed on a popular review website (which can be done at no cost) had revenue increases of 5 percent on average, but 33 percent of restaurants studied never listed on the site.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • adorn

  • optimize

  • endorse

  • counteract

ID: 6c086e70 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of business marketing practices. In this context, "optimize" means make the most effective possible use of available opportunities. The text indicates that though businesses typically try to promote themselves, they don’t always make use of effective tools for doing so, pointing to research showing that 33 percent of restaurants failed to use a free listing service that increased revenue by 5 percent on average for restaurants that did use the service. The text therefore suggests that by foregoing a free and effective marketing tool, some businesses aren’t making the best use of, or optimizing, marketing opportunities.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, "adorn" would mean decorate or enhance the appearance of, and there’s nothing in the text to suggest that by failing to use a free and effective promotional tool, some businesses aren’t enhancing the appearance of their own marketing. The example in the text illustrates that some businesses aren’t utilizing an effective marketing opportunity, not that they aren’t improving the appearance of their marketing. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, "endorse" would mean openly approve or recommend, and the text’s discussion of the fact that some businesses have overlooked an effective marketing tool doesn’t support the idea that those businesses therefore don’t approve of their own marketing. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, saying that businesses don’t "counteract" their marketing would suggest that they don’t actively undermine it or make it ineffective. The text begins by stating that businesses typically try to promote themselves but then continues to imply that some businesses fail to take advantage of good opportunities to do so, citing the example of businesses that failed to use a free and effective marketing tool. Though it’s possible that those businesses that did use the site therefore didn’t unintentionally counteract their own marketing, the first sentence conveys that the text’s focus is on things that some businesses do and that some businesses don’t do when trying to promote themselves, and it wouldn’t make sense to say that any businesses would actively try to undermine their own marketing in pursuit of that goal.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 236fee8e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 236fee8e

Archeological excavation of Market Street Chinatown, a nineteenth-century Chinese American community in San Jose, California, provided the first evidence that Asian food products were imported to the United States in the 1800s: bones from a freshwater fish species native to Southeast Asia. Jinshanzhuang—Hong Kong–based import/export firms—likely coordinated the fish’s transport from Chinese-operated fisheries in Vietnam and Malaysia to North American markets. This route reveals the (often overlooked) multinational dimensions of the trade networks linking Chinese diaspora communities.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • It explains why efforts to determine the country of origin of the items mentioned in the previous sentence remain inconclusive.

  • It provides information that helps support a claim about a discovery’s significance that is presented in the following sentence.

  • It traces the steps that were taken to locate and recover the objects that are described in the previous sentence.

  • It outlines a hypothesis that additional evidence discussed in the following sentence casts some doubt on.

ID: 236fee8e Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The underlined sentence provides information about import/export firms, showing how Chinese communities across the world were connected by trade routes.

Choice A is incorrect. The underlined sentence never suggests that the countries of origin of the fish are in question—in fact, it tells us exactly where they came from. Choice C is incorrect. The passage never describes the steps taken to discover the fish bones described in the previous sentence. Choice D is incorrect. The underlined sentence doesn’t outline a hypothesis but instead provides evidence. And the following sentence agrees with the underlined sentence, so we could eliminate this choice just for saying that the following sentence "casts some doubt on" the underlined one—partly wrong is all wrong.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 97ab5669

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 97ab5669

Former astronaut Ellen Ochoa says that although she doesn’t have a definite idea of when it might happen, she blank that humans will someday need to be able to live in other environments than those found on Earth. This conjecture informs her interest in future research missions to the moon.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • demands

  • speculates

  • doubts

  • establishes

ID: 97ab5669 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Ochoa’s prediction that humans will one day need to live in places other than Earth. As used in this context, “speculates” would mean puts forward an idea without firm evidence. The text states that Ochoa “doesn’t have a definite idea” about when humans might need to live in other environments and characterizes Ochoa’s prediction as a “conjecture,” or a conclusion presented without convincing evidence. This context indicates that Ochoa speculates when she makes this prediction. 

Choice A is incorrect because saying that Ochoa “demands,” or insists or requires, that humans will one day need to live in other environments than Earth’s would not make sense in context. The text indicates that she’s unsure about the timing but hypothesizes that it will someday happen. Choice C is incorrect because  saying that Ochoa “doubts,” or questions or disbelieves, that humans will one day need to live in other environments than Earth’s would not make sense in context. The text indicates that although Ochoa is unsure about the timing, she hypothesizes that humans will need to live in places other than Earth and encourages research into future travel to the moon. Choice D is incorrect because  saying that Ochoa “establishes,” or proves, that humans will one day need to live in other environments than Earth’s would not make sense in context. Rather than stating that Ochoa discusses her idea with certainty and supports it with evidence, the text indicates that Ochoa is unsure about when humans might need to live in other environments.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID be612a26

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: be612a26

Recent measurements of the mass of the W boson (a subatomic particle) were notable not only for the mere fact that the particle’s mass differed from expectations but for the blank of that difference: the measured mass of the W boson was seven standard deviations higher than predicted by the standard model of particle physics.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • cause

  • existence

  • implication

  • scale

ID: be612a26 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the W boson. In this context, "scale" means size or extent. The text indicates that recent measurements of the W boson were remarkable because they revealed the subatomic particle’s mass to be much greater ("seven standard deviations higher") than had been expected based on a standard model. This context conveys not only that the measurements differed from predictions but also that the extent of the difference was very large.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text indicates that there was a very large difference between the predicted mass and the actual measured mass of the subatomic particle, it doesn’t explain the cause of, or reason behind, that difference. Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that the measurements of the subatomic particle were notable because they differed from expectations and also because a difference existed between the measurements and what had been predicted; the text would be repeating the idea that there was a difference instead of adding to that idea. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t convey any implications of, or consequences of or conclusions drawn from, the fact that the mass of the subatomic particle differed from expectations; the context indicates only that the actual measured mass was much higher than the predicted mass.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID a0777403

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: a0777403

The following text is from Anita Desai’s 2011 novella Translator Translated. While working on her translation of a novel written in Odia (a language of India) into English, the narrator looks out her window at night to clear her mind.

I tried to distract myself with these sights of the ordinary world, but in my mind it was the lines I had been translating and the lines that I had been writing that remained in the forefront. I longed for sleep to obliterate them but it eluded me. Perhaps everything would be normal again once I had sent off the manuscript, I thought, and looked forward to completing the work.

©2011 by Anita Desai

As used in the text, what does the word “completing” most nearly mean?

  • Destroying

  • Finishing

  • Advertising

  • Rejecting

ID: a0777403 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because as used in the text, "completing" most nearly means finishing. In the text, the narrator conveys that the task of translating a novel has been an all-consuming one and that she hopes things will "be normal again" once she has "sent off the manuscript." In other words, the narrator is looking forward to finishing her work on the manuscript and returning to other things.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, "completing" doesn’t mean destroying, or ruining. The narrator addresses her desire to send off the manuscript she’s focused on and her hope that things will be "normal again" once she does, conveying that she is looking forward to finishing the work, not to ruining it. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, "completing" doesn’t mean advertising, or publicly promoting. The narrator addresses her complete focus on the translation and her hope that things will be "normal again" once she has "sent off the manuscript," conveying that she is looking forward to finishing the task, not to promoting the resulting manuscript. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, "completing" doesn’t mean rejecting, or refusing or repelling. The narrator makes it clear that she is absorbed in working on the translation and plans to send off the manuscript, suggesting that instead of refusing to do the work, she is continuing to do it (even if she looks forward to things being "normal again" when she’s done).

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 02fd3da7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 02fd3da7

Text 1

Public policy researcher Anthony Fowler studied the history of elections in Australia, a country that requires citizens to vote. Fowler argues that requiring citizens to vote leads to a significant increase in voters who would otherwise not have the time or motivation to vote. Thus, election results in countries that require citizens to vote better reflect the preferences of the country as a whole. 

 

Text 2

Governments in democratic countries function better when more people vote. However, forcing people to vote may have negative consequences. Shane P. Singh and Jason Roy studied what happens when a country requires its citizens to vote. They found that when people feel forced to vote, they tend to spend less time looking for information about their choices when voting. As a result, votes from these voters may not reflect their actual preferences.

Based on the texts, how would Singh and Roy (Text 2) most likely respond to the research discussed in Text 1?

  • Only countries of a certain population size should implement mandatory voting.

  • People who are forced to vote are likely to become politically engaged in other ways, such as volunteering or running for office.

  • Requiring people to vote does not necessarily lead to election outcomes that better represent the preferences of the country as a whole.

  • Countries that require voting must also make the process of voting easier for their citizens.

ID: 02fd3da7 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. Text 1 claims that mandatory voting results in elections that "better reflect the preferences of the country." Singh and Roy disagree. They claim that more voters doesn’t equal more quality votes—instead, they argue that forced voting may lead to less-informed votes that "may not reflect [voters’] actual preferences."

Choice A is incorrect. Neither text mentions the population size of countries that require voting, or how that might affect election outcomes. Choice B is incorrect. Neither text discusses the effects of mandatory voting on other forms of political engagement. Choice D is incorrect. Neither text discusses the ease or difficulty of the voting process in countries that require voting.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 6c9f1727

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 6c9f1727

One popular theory of the origin of the Moon, the “big whack,” posits that a protoplanet called Theia collided with Earth, flinging debris into orbit that eventually coalesced into the Moon. Until recently, Theia was blank, but researcher Qian Yuan and colleagues now claim to have identified pieces of the protoplanet in the lowermost section of Earth’s mantle.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • desultory

  • spurious

  • veritable

  • notional

ID: 6c9f1727 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Theia and the origin of the Moon. In this context, "notional" means theoretical or only an idea. The text indicates that although something was once true of Theia, the protoplanet one theory holds collided with Earth and created debris that became the Moon, researchers now claim to have identified pieces of it deep in Earth’s mantle. In other words, having direct evidence of Theia is a new development. This context suggests that before evidence was found, Theia was only theoretical—that is, that it was notional.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that Theia, a protoplanet, was "desultory," which in this context would mean moving away from the matter at hand; indeed, the text focuses on the "big whack" theory of the origin of the Moon and indicates that Theia is a central part of that theory. Choice B is incorrect because the text makes the point that something was true of Theia until recently and suggests that this has changed now that researchers believe they have found pieces of the protoplanet deep in Earth’s mantle. It wouldn’t make sense to say that Theia was actually "spurious," or false, until researchers found direct evidence of the protoplanet. (Although Theia’s existence might not have been certain, it would not have been false simply because there was no evidence of it.) Choice C is incorrect because the text makes the point that something was true of Theia until recently and suggests that this has changed now that researchers believe they have found pieces of the protoplanet deep in Earth’s mantle. It wouldn’t make sense to say that Theia was "veritable," or real, before researchers found direct evidence of its existence: the evidence would instead confirm that Theia was real.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 06b96bfc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 06b96bfc

A musician and member of the Quechua of Peru, Renata Flores Rivera was eager to promote the Quechua language in her music, but she was blank speaking it. She met this challenge by asking her grandmother, a native speaker of Quechua, to help her pronounce words in her song lyrics and also by taking classes in the language.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • prepared for

  • inexperienced with

  • skilled in

  • excited about

ID: 06b96bfc Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Renata Flores Rivera’s use of Quechua in her music. In this context, “inexperienced with” means not accustomed to. The text indicates that Flores Rivera wanted to promote the Quechua language in her music and overcame a challenge by seeking help with pronunciation from her grandmother and by taking language classes. This context conveys the idea that Flores Rivera was not sufficiently familiar with Quechua to use it in her music without help. Thus, she was inexperienced with speaking the language, which she addressed by seeking help.

Choice A is incorrect because describing Flores Rivera as “prepared for”—or ready for—speaking Quechua wouldn’t make sense in context. The text indicates that speaking Quechua presented a challenge, but if she were ready to speak the language, then there would be no challenge. Choice C is incorrect because describing Flores Rivera as “skilled in”—meaning good at or capable of—speaking Quechua wouldn’t make sense in context. The text indicates that speaking Quechua presented a challenge, but if she were capable of speaking the language, then there would be no challenge. Choice D is incorrect. Flores Rivera was likely “excited about”—or thrilled or delighted with—speaking Quechua, but this wouldn’t make sense in context. The text indicates that speaking Quechua presented a challenge, but if she were delighted with speaking the language, then there would be no challenge.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 3f37eb3b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 3f37eb3b

People sometimes dismiss a claim if it comes from a source they regard as self-interested, but from a strictly logical perspective, the source of a claim is blank: it has no direct bearing on whether the claim is true.  

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • indistinct

  • irrelevant

  • indisputable

  • implicit

ID: 3f37eb3b Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion about people’s tendency to dismiss claims from sources perceived as self-interested, or acting for their own advantage. In this context, "irrelevant" means not applicable to the matter at hand. The text explains that as a matter of logical reasoning, the source of a claim has nothing to do with the claim’s truthfulness—a claim is either true or false in actuality, regardless of where it originates. This context suggests that even though people may distrust a claim based on its source, the source of the claim is actually irrelevant.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, "indistinct" would mean uncertain or not clearly recognizable. Instead of suggesting that the source of a claim can’t be determined with certainty, the text suggests that recognizing a source and having an opinion of it simply doesn’t matter because as a matter of logic, a claim is true or false in actuality, regardless of where it originates. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, "indisputable" would mean impossible to question or deny. Although the text suggests that it isn’t logical to assume a claim is false just because its source appears to be self-interested, it doesn’t go so far as to suggest that the source of a claim can’t be questioned—the text instead makes the point that from a logical standpoint, the source of a claim doesn’t matter because the claim is either true or false in and of itself. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, "implicit" would mean suggested or understood without being directly expressed. Nothing in the text suggests that logically, the source of a claim is only suggested; instead of addressing whether sources can be directly identified, the text focuses on the idea that sources don’t matter because a claim is true or false in actuality, regardless of where it originates.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 93665100

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 93665100

Seminole/Muscogee director Sterlin Harjo blank television’s tendency to situate Native characters in the distant past: this rejection is evident in his series Reservation Dogs, which revolves around teenagers who dress in contemporary styles and whose dialogue is laced with current slang.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • repudiates

  • proclaims

  • foretells

  • recants

ID: 93665100 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Sterlin Harjo’s approach to representing Native characters on television. As used in this context, “repudiates” means rejects or refuses to have anything to do with. The text indicates that television shows tend to depict Native characters as living long ago, but that Harjo’s series Reservation Dogs focuses on Native teenagers in the present day, representing a “rejection” of the typical approach to depicting Native characters. This context thus indicates that Harjo repudiates television’s general tendency regarding Native characters. 

Choice B is incorrect because the text describes Harjo’s “rejection” of the typical approach to representing Native characters on television, so it wouldn’t make sense to say that Harjo “proclaims,” or declares or affirms, television’s general tendency regarding Native characters. Harjo is described as refusing to follow the pattern of depicting Native characters in the distant past, not as proclaiming that pattern. Choice C is incorrect because the text describes television’s tendency to represent Native characters in the distant past as something that is already occurring, not as something that Harjo “foretells,” or predicts will happen in the future. The text is focused on Harjo’s “rejection” of this pattern, not on any predictions he may have about it. Choice D is incorrect because saying that Harjo “recants” something would mean that he withdraws a previously held belief, and it wouldn’t make sense to say that Harjo recants television’s tendency to represent Native characters as living in the past. No beliefs previously held by Harjo are mentioned. Additionally, a tendency isn’t a belief and thus isn’t something that can be recanted.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 0f040c50

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 0f040c50

The following text is from Yann Martel’s 2001 novel Life of Pi. The narrator’s family owned a zoo when he was a child. 

It was a huge zoo, spread over numberless acres, big enough to require a train to explore it, though it seemed to get smaller as I grew older, train included. 

©2001 by Yann Martel

As used in the text, what does the word “spread” most nearly mean?

  • Hidden

  • Discussed

  • Extended

  • Coated

ID: 0f040c50 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because as used in the text, “spread” most nearly means extended. The text states that the zoo is “huge,” that it covers “numberless acres,” and that it is large enough that a train is needed to explore it. Thus, the text’s emphasis on the zoo’s size suggests that the zoo extended, or stretched, over a large area of land.

Choice A is incorrect because if the zoo covers “numberless acres,” then it could not reasonably be described as hidden, or concealed from view. Choice B is incorrect because there is nothing in the text to suggest that the zoo was discussed, or talked about. Rather, the text focuses on the zoo’s large size. Choice D is incorrect. Although in some contexts “spread” can mean coated, it doesn’t have that meaning in this context because to coat something means to apply a thin layer of a liquid substance, such as oil or paint, to a surface. Therefore, it would not be accurate to say that the zoo coated the acres on which it sits.  

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID e1d5d5df

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: e1d5d5df

According to botanists, a viburnum plant experiencing insect damage may develop erineum—a discolored, felty growth—on its leaf blades. A blank viburnum plant, on the other hand, will have leaves with smooth surfaces and uniformly green coloration.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • struggling

  • beneficial

  • simple

  • healthy

ID: e1d5d5df Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of damage to viburnum plants. In this context, “healthy” would mean not distressed or diseased. The text states that insect damage may cause viburnum plants to be discolored and have abnormal growths. In the next sentence, the phrase “on the other hand” indicates a contrast with the description of plants suffering from damage. Thus, the context contrasts the appearance of healthy, undamaged plants with the appearance of damaged plants.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, “struggling” would mean working against difficulties. The text first describes viburnum plants experiencing damage by insects, and the phrase “on the other hand” then establishes a contrast with that description. It wouldn’t make sense to contrast struggling viburnum plants with those being damaged by insects, because in both cases the plants would be experiencing difficulties. Choice B is incorrect because in this context, “beneficial” would mean producing good or helpful effects. The text doesn’t discuss how viburnum plants affect other things or suggest that the plants are helpful in some way; rather, it focuses on how viburnum plants are affected by certain conditions. Choice C is incorrect because in this context “simple” would mean plain or uncomplicated. The text doesn’t discuss whether certain viburnum plants are complicated or uncomplicated; rather, it focuses on how viburnum plants are affected by certain conditions.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID cef79fb9

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: cef79fb9

The Bayeux Tapestry, from eleventh-century France, depicts 75 scenes over 250 feet of fabric. It was likely produced by workers embroidering in sections and then joining the resulting panels together. It’s plausible that the workshop that produced the tapestry had never produced one so large, and some researchers claim that a close examination of the joins—the places where the panels are stitched together—suggests that the workers developed and refined their joining process over the course of production. For example, the first join the workers completed exhibits a clear misalignment of the borders of the two panels, whereas the later joins are virtually invisible.  

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • It identifies the people and events depicted in the Bayeux Tapestry.

  • It supports an argument about the workers who produced the Bayeux Tapestry.

  • It compares the Bayeux Tapestry with other tapestries from eleventh-century France.

  • It describes how researchers determined where the Bayeux Tapestry was produced.

ID: cef79fb9 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole. The text discusses the Bayeux Tapestry, making the point that the workers who produced the huge tapestry in the eleventh century might not have ever produced a tapestry so large before. The text goes on to suggest that because of this lack of previous experience, the workers developed and refined the process of joining the tapestry’s panels over time as they worked. The last sentence of the text then provides an example of an observation that suggests the workers’ process changed: clear misalignment of the borders of the two panels the workers joined first and virtually invisible joins completed later. Thus, the underlined sentence serves to support an argument about the workers who produced the tapestry.

Choice A is incorrect because the example given in the last sentence of the text has to do with how the panels of the Bayeux Tapestry were joined by the workers, not with what is depicted in those panels; the text never identifies any people or places depicted in the tapestry. Choice C is incorrect because the last sentence compares how early panels in the Bayeux Tapestry were joined with how later panels in the same tapestry were joined; it doesn’t make any comparison between the Bayeux Tapestry and other tapestries from the same time in France. Choice D is incorrect because the last sentence doesn’t address the location where the Bayeux Tapestry was created; the first sentence of the text presents it as a given that the tapestry was created in France, but nothing in the text indicates how that origin was determined.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 9e501aaf

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 9e501aaf

Research conducted by planetary scientist Katarina Miljkovic suggests that the Moon’s surface may not accurately blank early impact events. When the Moon was still forming, its surface was softer, and asteroid or meteoroid impacts would have left less of an impression; thus, evidence of early impacts may no longer be present.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • reflect

  • receive

  • evaluate

  • mimic

ID: 9e501aaf Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the Moon’s surface. In this context, “reflect” means show or make apparent. The text states that because the surface of the Moon was softer when the Moon was still forming than it is now, early asteroid and meteoroid impacts “would have left less of an impression” and, as a result, evidence of them may no longer exist. This context supports the idea that the surface of the Moon may not accurately show signs of early impact events.

Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that the surface of the Moon may not accurately “receive,” or acquire or experience, early impacts from asteroids or meteoroids. The text indicates that the impacts have already occurred, and it isn’t clear how the Moon’s surface could be accurate or inaccurate in experiencing them. Choice C is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that the surface of the Moon may not accurately “evaluate,” or determine the significance or condition of, early impacts from asteroids or meteoroids, since that would suggest that it’s possible for the Moon’s surface to make a decision of any kind. Choice D is incorrect. In this context, “mimic” would mean to deliberately simulate or closely imitate something. It wouldn’t make sense to say that the surface of the Moon may not accurately mimic early asteroid and meteoroid impacts, since that would suggest that it’s possible for the Moon to deliberately imitate something. 

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 9cdcd902

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 9cdcd902

Charles “Teenie” Harris was a photographer for the Pittsburgh Courier from 1936 to 1975. During his career he took over 70,000 photographs documenting everyday life in Pittsburgh’s Black communities. The Carnegie Museum of Art maintains thousands of his photographs, carefully blank them so that audiences can continue to view them well into the future. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • replacing

  • inventing

  • preserving

  • counting

ID: 9cdcd902 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. "Preserving" means "maintaining" or "keeping in good condition," so preserving the photographs means that audiences should be able to view them for a long time.

Choice A is incorrect. "Replacing" means "putting something new in place of" the photographs. Replacing the photos will make it so that audiences can’t view them at all. Choice B is incorrect. "Inventing" means "creating a new idea, process, or thing." The museum can’t invent photographs that already exist. Choice D is incorrect. Counting the photographs will not help audiences view them well into the future.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID e459076b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: e459076b

The following text is adapted from George Eliot’s 1871–72 novel Middlemarch.

[Mr. Brooke] had travelled in his younger years, and was held in this part of the country to have contracted a too rambling habit of mind. Mr. Brooke’s conclusions were as difficult to predict as the weather.

As used in the text, what does the word “contracted” most nearly mean?

  • Restricted

  • Described

  • Developed

  • Settled

ID: e459076b Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because as used in the text, “contracted” most nearly means developed. The text explains that Mr. Brooke has a “too rambling habit of mind,” which the text likens to a disease, saying he is thought to have contracted it. To contract a disease means to acquire or develop a disease. In other words, the text indicates that Mr. Brooke is believed to have acquired, or developed, the habit of mind described in the text.

Choice A is incorrect. Although “contracted” can mean limited or restricted in some contexts, here Mr. Brooke is said to draw unpredictable conclusions, suggesting that he exhibits this “too rambling habit of mind,” not that it has been somehow limited or restricted. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text describes Mr. Brooke’s habit of mind, nothing suggests that those are his descriptions or, indeed, that he described his habit of mind at all. Choice D is incorrect because settled means calmed or mitigated, but here Mr. Brooke is said to draw unpredictable conclusions, suggesting that he exhibits this “too rambling habit of mind,” not that it has been somehow calmed or mitigated.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 0462dac3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 0462dac3

Barring major archaeological discoveries, we are unlikely to ever have blank account of ancient Egypt under the female pharaoh Hatshepsut, as much of the evidence of her reign was deliberately destroyed by her successors. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • an imaginative

  • a superficial

  • an exhaustive

  • a questionable

ID: 0462dac3 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of historical evidence about ancient Egypt under the reign of the pharaoh Hatshepsut. In this context, "an exhaustive" account would be a thorough one. The text states that much of the evidence from her reign was purposely destroyed—in other words, there is a lack of surviving records. This context conveys that unless there are major new archaeological discoveries, an exhaustive account of Hatshepsut’s reign is unlikely.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, "an imaginative" account would be an account based on imagination, or ideas and speculation, rather than facts. The text indicates that much of the evidence of Hatshepsut’s reign was deliberately destroyed, and a lack of evidence actually makes it more likely that accounts will be imaginative to some degree and not strictly factual. Choice B is incorrect because in this context, "a superficial" account would be one that is lacking in depth or concerned only with what is obvious. The text indicates that most evidence of Hatshepsut’s reign was purposely destroyed, which suggests that accounts of that time are likely already somewhat superficial, since there is little information available to support deeper knowledge. Further, it would be illogical to suggest that discovering major new evidence would make it more likely that accounts would be superficial. Choice D is incorrect because "a questionable" account would be one likely to be challenged or doubted, and since the text suggests that little evidence of Hatshepsut’s reign has survived, accounts of that time probably involve some speculation and thus may already be open to doubt. Further, it would be illogical to suggest that discovering major new evidence would make it more likely that accounts would be questionable.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID eaea6f8f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: eaea6f8f

Ordinary soap bubbles usually exist for a minute or less before popping due to either a rupture forced by gravity-induced drainage or the evaporation of the liquid from which the bubble is composed. But physicist Aymeric Roux and colleagues discovered ways to mitigate these factors, resulting in bubbles that can last for a year or more. For example, glycerol tends to adhere to water molecules, so a bubble with a shell that contains both water and glycerol is able to draw additional water molecules from the surrounding air and thereby compensate for evaporation.

Which choice best states the purpose of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?

  • It describes the effects of a process devised by researchers that increases the longevity of an object discussed in the text.

  • It details the circumstances that prompted the research discussed in the text.

  • It presents a reason why the phenomenon discussed in the text that the researchers wanted to avoid will inevitably occur.

  • It mentions a method discussed in the text that researchers intend to test in future experiments.

ID: eaea6f8f Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it describes how the underlined portion of the sentence functions in the text as a whole. The text begins by discussing ordinary soap bubbles, objects that usually exist for less than a minute before popping due to either evaporation or gravity-induced drainage. The text then goes on to mention work by researchers Aymeric Roux and colleagues, who have discovered how to increase the longevity of bubbles by altering their chemical composition. Finally, the underlined portion of the text describes how this process works: since the bubble contains both water and glycerol, it can draw water molecules from the surrounding air to replace those lost to evaporation. Therefore, the underlined portion of the sentence describes the effects of a process devised by researchers that increases the longevity of an object described in the text.

Choice B is incorrect because the circumstance that prompted the research is discussed in the first sentence of the text, not the underlined portion. Choice C is incorrect because the underlined portion of the text does not address why soap bubbles must eventually rupture. Rather, it explains how the longevity of soap bubbles can be extended. Choice D is incorrect because the underlined portion of the text does not mention any future experiments.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 4974b053

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 4974b053

Although science fiction was dominated mostly by white male authors when Octavia Butler, a Black woman, began writing, she did not view the genre as blank: Butler broke into the field with the publication of several short stories and her 1976 novel Patternmaster, and she later became the first science fiction writer to win a prestigious MacArthur Fellowship.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • legitimate

  • impenetrable

  • compelling

  • indecipherable

ID: 4974b053 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the discussion of Octavia Butler’s career. In this context, “impenetrable” means impossible to enter. The text indicates that the field of science fiction was dominated by white males when Butler, a Black woman, started writing, but she published several science fiction short stories and a novel and later won a prestigious award; that is, Butler pursued science fiction writing and had success. This context suggests that Butler didn’t view the genre as impossible to enter.

Choice A is incorrect. In this context, “legitimate” would mean genuinely good or valid. Nothing in the text suggests that Butler didn’t think the science fiction genre was good or valid; in fact, it indicates that she pursued and made a successful career of publishing work in that field. Choice C is incorrect. In this context, “compelling” would mean attracting or demanding attention. The text indicates that Butler chose to write science fiction, so it wouldn’t make sense to say that she didn’t see the field as drawing her attention. Choice D is incorrect. To say that Butler didn’t consider science fiction “indecipherable,” or impossible to understand, would suggest that Butler did understand it. However, the text doesn’t address Butler’s ability to interpret works in the genre; rather, it focuses on Butler’s successful pursuit of writing science fiction.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 3ec184af

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 3ec184af

Many ancient sculptures of people’s heads are missing their noses. This is because the nose is the most blank part of a sculpture of a person’s head. It is delicate and sticks out from the rest of the sculpture, making it especially easy to break.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • recognizable

  • fragile

  • common

  • sophisticated

ID: 3ec184af Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of noses on ancient sculptures. In this context, "fragile" means weak or delicate. This matches the text’s description of noses on ancient sculptures, which are often missing from sculptures’ heads because they are "especially easy to break." Therefore, this context indicates that noses on ancient sculptures are the most fragile part of the sculptures’ heads.

Choice A is incorrect. In this context, "recognizable" would mean identifiable, and since the text indicates that noses are often missing from ancient statues, they therefore cannot be the most recognizable part of the statue. Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates that many ancient statues are missing noses, so noses wouldn’t be "common," or frequent, aspects of ancient statues; they would conversely be uncommon. Choice D is incorrect because the text only indicates that noses on ancient statues often stick out and end up missing from the heads, which doesn’t relate to the noses being "sophisticated," or knowledgeable or refined.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 105ea6de

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 105ea6de

Text 1

Growth in the use of novel nanohybrids—materials created from the conjugation of multiple distinct nanomaterials, such as iron oxide and gold nanomaterials conjugated for use in magnetic imaging—has outpaced studies of nanohybrids’ environmental risks. Unfortunately, risk evaluations based on nanohybrids’ constituents are not reliable: conjugation may alter constituents’ physiochemical properties such that innocuous nanomaterials form a nanohybrid that is anything but.

Text 2

The potential for enhanced toxicity of nanohybrids relative to the toxicity of constituent nanomaterials has drawn deserved attention, but the effects of nanomaterial conjugation vary by case. For instance, it was recently shown that a nanohybrid of silicon dioxide and zinc oxide preserved the desired optical transparency of zinc oxide nanoparticles while mitigating the nanoparticles’ potential to damage DNA.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely respond to the assertion in the underlined portion of Text 1?

  • By concurring that the risk described in Text 1 should be evaluated but emphasizing that the risk is more than offset by the potential benefits of nanomaterial conjugation

  • By arguing that the situation described in Text 1 may not be representative but conceding that the effects of nanomaterial conjugation are harder to predict than researchers had expected

  • By denying that the circumstance described in Text 1 is likely to occur but acknowledging that many aspects of nanomaterial conjugation are still poorly understood

  • By agreeing that the possibility described in Text 1 is a cause for concern but pointing out that nanomaterial conjugation does not inevitably produce that result

ID: 105ea6de Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The author of Text 2 acknowledges that nanohybrids may be more toxic than their constituent parts, but also provides an example of a nanohybrid that has reduced toxicity compared to its components: silicon dioxide and zinc oxide together have all the benefits of zinc oxide nanoparticles without any of the DNA harm zinc oxide has on its own.

Choice A is incorrect. While the author of Text 2 gives an example of a nanohybrid that isn’t as toxic as its constituent parts, they don’t argue that the benefit outweighs the risk. They merely argue that “the effects of nanomaterial conjugation vary by case.” Choice B is incorrect. The author of Text 2 states that the effects of nanomaterial conjugation “vary by case,” and that the attention that their potential toxicity has drawn is warranted. If the situation in Text 1 weren’t representative, then there would be less attention to the potential danger of these materials. Furthermore, neither passage suggests that researchers had expected that they could predict the effects of nanomaterial conjugation. Choice C is incorrect. The author of Text 2 agrees that the potential toxicity of nanohybrids “has drawn deserved attention,” so they aren’t denying the problem.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 5f56fdec

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 5f56fdec

The following text is from George Marion McClellan’s 1895 poem “Eternity.”

My spirit swoons, and all my senses cry

For Ocean’s breast and covering of the sky.

Rock me to sleep, ye waves, and outward bound,

Just let me drift far out from toil and care,

Where lapping of the waves shall be the sound,

Which mingled with the winds that gently bear

Me on between a peaceful sea and sky,

To make my soothing slumberous lullaby.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To illustrate the increasing intensity of the speaker’s desire to escape ongoing hardship by gliding on the ocean

  • To contrast the demands of the speaker’s everyday life with the serenity of being rocked to sleep by the ocean 

  • To convey the speaker’s longing for the ocean to impart a sense of inner tranquility

  • To justify the speaker’s qualms about being transported by the ocean to a quiet destination

ID: 5f56fdec Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately states the main purpose of the text, which is to convey the speaker’s longing for the ocean to impart a sense of inner tranquility, or peace. The text begins by expressing the speaker’s strong desire to be on the ocean, appealing directly to the waves to rock the speaker to sleep. The poem then describes the "slumberous lullaby" formed by the sound of the waves and the winds on which the speaker wishes to be carried "gently...between a peaceful sea and sky." All these details serve to emphasize the speaker’s desire for the ocean to give them a sense of inner tranquility.

Choice A is incorrect. Given the poem’s expression of a longing to achieve tranquility by drifting on the ocean, it can be inferred that the speaker desires to escape something unpleasant in daily life. However, the poem doesn’t refer directly to any such hardship—ongoing or otherwise. And since the poem doesn’t establish that the speaker is experiencing a desire to escape ongoing hardship, it can’t be said that such a desire increases in intensity. Choice B is incorrect. The speaker does express a desire for the serenity of being rocked to sleep by the ocean, and it can be inferred that this desire is a response to demands that make the speaker’s daily life stressful. However, the poem doesn’t refer directly to such demands or contrast them with the tranquility of drifting on the ocean. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest the speaker has any qualms, or reservations, about being transported by the ocean. On the contrary, the speaker actively desires to "drift far out" and be carried by the waves and wind. Moreover, the poem doesn’t suggest that this drifting would have any particular destination.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 7d8224f9

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 7d8224f9

In 1154, Muhammad al-Idrisi completed a collection of maps of the lands known to medieval Arabic and European scholars. This collection was titled Al-Kitāb al-Rujārī (The Book of Roger), after the Norman king Roger II who hired him to create it. To create the collection, al-Idrisi consulted Arabic and Greek maps and interviewed travelers about the lands they visited. He included these travelers’ stories alongside the map illustrations. 

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To discuss the benefits of studying mapmaking 

  • To explain how travelers created maps 

  • To describe a collection of medieval maps and how it was created

  • To compare medieval Arabic and Greek mapmaking techniques

ID: 7d8224f9 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately states the main purpose of the text, which is to describe a collection of medieval maps and how it was created. The text begins by mentioning Muhammad al-Idrisi’s collection of maps of lands known to medieval Arabic and European scholars. It then states that the Norman king Roger II hired al-Idrisi to create the collection and details al-Idrisi’s methods of creation: consulting Arabic and Greek maps and interviewing travelers. In short, the text presents a collection of medieval maps and then goes on to describe how that collection came to be.

Choice A is incorrect because the text describes a collection of maps and the process of creating that collection but does not discuss the benefits of studying mapmaking in general. Choice B is incorrect because though the text mentions that al-Idrisi interviewed travelers, the text does not describe how those travelers created maps. Choice D is incorrect because though the text mentions that al-Idrisi consulted Arabic and Greek maps, the text does not offer a comparison of Arabic and Greek mapmaking techniques.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 2903a041

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 2903a041

Using NASA’s powerful James Webb Space Telescope (JWST), Mercedes López-Morales and colleagues measured the wavelengths of light traveling through the atmosphere of WASP-39b, an exoplanet, or planet outside our solar system. Different molecules absorb different wavelengths of light, and the wavelength measurements showed the presence of carbon dioxide (CO₂) in WASP-39b’s atmosphere. This finding not only offers the first decisive evidence of CO₂ in the atmosphere of an exoplanet but also illustrates the potential for future scientific breakthroughs held by the JWST.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • It discusses a method used by some researchers, then states why an alternative method is superior to it.

  • It describes how researchers made a scientific discovery, then explains the importance of that discovery.

  • It outlines the steps taken in a scientific study, then presents a hypothesis based on that study.

  • It examines how a group of scientists reached a conclusion, then shows how other scientists have challenged that conclusion.

ID: 2903a041 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The text begins by describing how the researchers used the JWST to detect CO₂ in WASP-39b’s atmosphere. Then the text discusses the significance of this finding, both as the first evidence of CO₂ in an exoplanet’s atmosphere and as an illustration of the JWST’s potential for making new discoveries in general.

Choice A is incorrect. The text doesn’t compare two different methods, but rather focuses on one study that used the JWST. Choice C is incorrect. The text doesn’t present a hypothesis, but rather reports on the findings of a study. Choice D is incorrect. The text doesn’t mention any scientists challenging the conclusion reached by López-Morales and colleagues.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 066a3295

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 066a3295

Researchers have found a nearly 164,000-year-old molar from a member of the archaic human species known as Denisovans in a cave in Laos, suggesting that Denisovans lived in a wider range of environments than indicated by earlier evidence. Before the discovery, Denisovans were thought to have lived only at high altitudes in relatively cold climates in what are now Russia and China, but the discovery of the tooth in Laos suggests that they may have lived at low altitudes in relatively warm climates in Southeast Asia as well.

Which choice best states the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?

  • It dismisses as untrue the research presented in the previous sentence.

  • It defines a term used in the description that follows in the rest of the sentence.

  • It emphasizes the main goal of the research introduced in the previous sentence.

  • It provides context that clarifies the significance of the information that follows in the rest of the sentence.

ID: 066a3295 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The text describes how a new discovery expands our understanding of Denisovans. The underlined portion describes what we used to believe about Denisovans, which helps the reader understand the significance of the discovery of the molar: it suggests that they lived in more places than we’d previously thought.

Choice A is incorrect. The underlined portion doesn’t do this. Instead, it explains what we used to believe about Denisovans before the discovery—it doesn’t dismiss the new discovery as false. Choice B is incorrect. The underlined portion doesn’t do this. No term is defined here. Choice C is incorrect. The underlined portion doesn’t do this. The text never tells us what the “goal” of the research was, just what its discovery was.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID ac9a3a26

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: ac9a3a26

According to historian Vicki L. Ruiz, Mexican American women made crucial contributions to the labor movement during World War II. At the time, food processing companies entered into contracts to supply United States armed forces with canned goods. Increased production quotas conferred greater bargaining power on the companies’ employees, many of whom were Mexican American women: employees insisted on more favorable benefits, and employers, who were anxious to fulfill the contracts, complied. Thus, labor activism became a platform for Mexican American women to assert their agency.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?

  • It elaborates on a claim about labor relations in a particular industry made earlier in the text.

  • It offers an example of a trend in the World War II–era economy discussed earlier in the text.

  • It notes a possible exception to the historical narrative of labor activism sketched earlier in the text.

  • It provides further details about the identities of the workers discussed earlier in the text.

ID: ac9a3a26 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it best describes how the underlined portion functions in the text as a whole. The text says that the increased production quotas of food processing companies during World War II enabled employees to make better bargains in exchange for their labor. The underlined portion presents an example of this increased bargaining power: employees requested more favorable benefits, and employers complied because they were under pressure to fulfill the demanding terms of their contracts. Thus, the underlined portion of the text elaborates on a claim about labor relations in a particular industry (food processing) made earlier in the text.

Choice B is incorrect because there is no indication in the text that the economic factors that influenced food processing also influenced other parts of the economy; thus, the bargaining described in the underlined portion of the text cannot be called an example of a trend. Choice C is incorrect because the underlined portion supports the historical narrative of labor activism in food processing that is sketched in the text, instead of noting an exception to that narrative. Choice D is incorrect because while the underlined portion does discuss the demands that workers made in exchange for their labor, it does not discuss the identities of the workers.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 03c9f327

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 03c9f327

The following text is from Charlotte Brontë’s 1847 novel Jane Eyre. Jane, the narrator, works as a governess at Thornfield Hall.

I went on with my day’s business tranquilly; but ever and anon vague suggestions kept wandering across my brain of reasons why I should quit Thornfield; and I kept involuntarily framing advertisements and pondering conjectures about new situations: these thoughts I did not think to check; they might germinate and bear fruit if they could.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To convey a contrast between Jane’s outward calmness and internal restlessness

  • To emphasize Jane’s loyalty to the people she works for at Thornfield Hall

  • To demonstrate that Jane finds her situation both challenging and deeply fulfilling

  • To describe Jane’s determination to secure employment outside of Thornfield Hall

ID: 03c9f327 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text, which is to show that while Jane calmly goes about her daily tasks, she is experiencing internal agitation about possibly seeking a new job. At the start of the text, Jane says, “I went on with my day’s business tranquilly,” indicating that she is outwardly calm. This outward calmness is then contrasted with her intense internal restlessness, as Jane says that thoughts of leaving her job keep running through her mind, that she is “involuntarily framing advertisements” (meaning that she can’t stop herself from thinking up potential listings for jobs), and that she often wonders what new “situations” (or jobs) would be like. 

Choice B is incorrect because the text gives no indication of Jane’s feelings, either positive or negative, about the people she works for at Thornfield Hall. And rather than emphasizing that Jane feels particularly loyal to her employers, the text focuses on her constant consideration of leaving her job. Choice C is incorrect because the text gives no indication that Jane finds her current situation fulfilling, or satisfying. Given that much of the text is focused on Jane’s thoughts about possibly leaving her job for a new one, it might be the case that she finds her situation challenging, but there is no evidence in the text that Jane also finds that situation satisfying—she says nothing positive about her current job at all, in fact. Choice D is incorrect because the text describes Jane as wondering about getting a new job, not as determined to definitely do so. Jane keeps thinking about reasons why she “should” quit her current job (indicating that she hasn’t yet decided to) and imagining possible new situations she could find, but she says at the end of the text that these thoughts “might germinate and bear fruit if they could,” meaning that the thoughts haven’t yet led to a decision—that Jane isn’t yet determined to get a new job somewhere else.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID e3f05561

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: e3f05561

In the 1970s, video cameras became increasingly affordable for ordinary consumers and gave Ulysses Jenkins and other artists capabilities that were previously unavailable except to television broadcasters. Jenkins recognized and took full advantage of this blank access to powerful technology to create groundbreaking works of video art, such as Mass of Images (1978).

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • newfound

  • delicate

  • inevitable

  • habitual

ID: e3f05561 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Ulysses Jenkins’s video art. As used in this context, “newfound” means recently discovered or established. The text indicates that in the 1970s, video cameras became cheaper and therefore more widely available than they had been in the past. The text goes on to say that this development provided Jenkins and other artists with capabilities that they previously didn’t have. As a result, Jenkins began producing groundbreaking works of video art. This context supports the idea that Jenkins took advantage of newfound access to video cameras.

Choice B is incorrect because “delicate” means fine in texture or structure or easily broken, neither of which would make sense in this context. The text doesn’t focus on describing what video art looks like or whether it’s breakable. Choice C is incorrect because “inevitable” means impossible to avoid, which wouldn’t make sense in this context. The text doesn’t discuss the likelihood of artists, or anyone else, gaining access to video cameras. Choice D is incorrect because “habitual” means doing something regularly or repeatedly. Although the text does suggest that Jenkins created multiple pieces of video art, its focus is on the fact that video cameras had only just become widely available to artists in the 1970s. Jenkins’s ability to take advantage of video cameras to make art was therefore newfound, not habitual, at the time.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 662ebff2

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 662ebff2

In response to concerns that some recent financial crises were exacerbated by consumers misunderstanding risks associated with credit cards, loans, and other financial products, policymakers in many countries have instituted risk-disclosure requirements on sellers of those products. Enrique Seira et al. investigated a variety of risk-disclosure messages sent to thousands of credit card customers and found that the messages had only small and short-lived effects on behavior. Seira et al. asserted that such effects may nevertheless be worth pursuing, given the negligible cost of messaging.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?

  • It notes a factor that led Seira et al. to not dismiss risk-disclosure messaging altogether despite their evidence of its limited utility.

  • It acknowledges a type of risk-disclosure messaging that Seira et al. may not have fully accounted for in their study. 

  • It describes a consideration that explains why Seira et al. recommended risk-disclosure messaging even though its effects may be small relative to its costs.

  • It points out a circumstance that Seira et al. conceded may make risk-disclosure messaging more effective than their study suggests.

ID: 662ebff2 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole. The text establishes that many countries have adopted risk-disclosure requirements for financial products due to concerns that consumers don’t understand the risks associated with the products. According to the text, Seira et al. found that the effects of such messaging on consumer behavior were small and temporary. The text then adds that the researchers assert that because the cost of the messaging is negligible, the approach may be worth doing even if the effects are limited. Thus, the underlined portion notes a factor—very low cost—that led the researchers to not completely dismiss risk-disclosure messaging despite their evidence of its limited utility.

Choice B is incorrect because the underlined portion doesn’t refer to a particular type of risk-disclosure messaging, whether Seira et al. considered it or not; the underlined portion simply indicates that the cost of the messaging (broadly) is very low, which makes the approach worth pursuing even if its effects are limited. Choice C is incorrect. Although the underlined portion does describe a consideration that led the researchers to recommend risk-disclosure messaging despite the messaging’s small effects on consumer behavior, it directly states that the cost of such messaging is negligible, or very low—meaning that both the effects and the costs are small, not that the effects are small only relative to the costs. Choice D is incorrect because there’s no indication that Seira et al. suggest that risk-disclosure messaging could be more effective if it had lower costs; rather, the underlined portion indicates that Seira et al. believe the already negligible cost of messaging makes the approach worth pursuing even if its effects are limited.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID c4737d6a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: c4737d6a

Text 1

Africa’s Sahara region—once a lush ecosystem—began to dry out about 8,000 years ago. A change in Earth’s orbit that affected climate has been posited as a cause of desertification, but archaeologist David Wright also attributes the shift to Neolithic peoples. He cites their adoption of pastoralism as a factor in the region drying out: the pastoralists’ livestock depleted vegetation, prompting the events that created the Sahara Desert.

Text 2

Research by Chris Brierley et al. challenges the idea that Neolithic peoples contributed to the Sahara’s desertification. Using a climate-vegetation model, the team concluded that the end of the region’s humid period occurred 500 years earlier than previously assumed. The timing suggests that Neolithic peoples didn’t exacerbate aridity in the region but, in fact, may have helped delay environmental changes with practices (e.g., selective grazing) that preserved vegetation.

Based on the texts, how would Chris Brierley (Text 2) most likely respond to the discussion in Text 1?

  • By pointing out that given the revised timeline for the end of the Sahara’s humid period, the Neolithic peoples’ mode of subsistence likely didn’t cause the region’s desertification

  • By claiming that pastoralism was only one of many behaviors the Neolithic peoples took part in that may have contributed to the Sahara’s changing climate

  • By insisting that pastoralism can have both beneficial and deleterious effects on a region’s vegetation and climate

  • By asserting that more research needs to be conducted into factors that likely contributed to the desertification of the Sahara region

ID: c4737d6a Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. Brierley et al.’s research directly challenges Wright’s claim that pastoralism turned the Sahara into a desert, suggesting that, in a Sahara that turned arid 500 years earlier than previously thought, pastoral practices may have actually “preserved vegetation” rather than depleting it.

Choice B is incorrect. Brierley et al.’s research actually disputes the idea that any Neolithic peoples’ behaviors, including pastoralism, could have contributed to the Sahara’s changing climate. In fact, their research implies that the Neolithic peoples’ practices did not “exacerbate aridity” (i.e., make things worse), but may have slowed environmental changes. Choice C is incorrect. Brierley et al.’s research does not acknowledge that pastoralism can have deleterious (i.e., negative) effects on a region’s vegetation and climate. It only describes one possible beneficial effect: preserving vegetation through practices like selective grazing. Choice D is incorrect. Brierley et al.’s research does not call for more research into factors that likely contributed to the desertification of the Sahara region.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 47598085

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 47598085

Yawn contagion occurs when one individual yawns in response to another’s yawn. Studies of this behavior in primates have focused on populations in captivity, but biologist Elisabetta Palagi and her colleagues have shown that it can occur in wild primate populations as well. In their study, which focused on a wild population of gelada monkeys (Theropithecus gelada) in Ethiopia, the researchers further reported that yawn contagion most commonly occurred in males and across different social groups instead of within a single social group.

Which choice best describes the function of the first sentence in the text as a whole?

  • It defines a phenomenon that is discussed in the text.

  • It introduces a problem that is examined in the text.

  • It makes a claim that is challenged in the text.

  • It presents a hypothesis that is evaluated in the text.

ID: 47598085 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the first sentence functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence introduces what yawn contagion is, explaining that it occurs when an individual yawns in response to the yawn of another individual. The text goes on to describe Elisabetta Palagi and her colleagues’ study of this phenomenon in a wild population of gelada monkeys. According to the text, the study showed that wild primate populations experience yawn contagion and that the behavior occurs most commonly in male monkeys and across social groups. Thus, the function of the first sentence is to define the phenomenon of yawn contagion that is discussed in the text.

Choice B is incorrect. Although the first sentence introduces the text’s discussion of yawn contagion, it doesn’t present this behavior, or anything else, as a problem. Choice C is incorrect because the first sentence doesn’t present a claim but instead explains what yawn contagion is. Moreover, the text doesn’t challenge anything; it’s an informative text that describes the findings of a research study about yawning in wild primate populations. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text describes a scientific study, and most scientific studies are guided by a hypothesis, the text doesn’t say what Palagi and her colleagues’ hypothesis was; the text discusses their findings instead.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 710799ae

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 710799ae

Cuttlefish appear to be surprisingly blank at exercising self-control: in a 2021 study conducted by behavioral ecologist Alexandra Schnell, these cephalopods routinely demonstrated restraint by delaying gratification, waiting for a favorite treat instead of instantly devouring a readily available meal. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • awkward

  • imaginative

  • manageable

  • competent

ID: 710799ae Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of self-control in cuttlefish. In this context, "competent" means capable. The text describes a study in which cuttlefish demonstrated an ability to exercise restraint by waiting for a favorite treat instead of eating a meal that was already available to them. That is, by delaying gratification, the cuttlefish in the study demonstrated that they were capable of, or competent at, exercising self-control.

Choice A is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that in demonstrating self-control, cuttlefish are "awkward," or lacking skill or grace. If anything, the text indicates that cuttlefish appear to be surprisingly skilled at exercising self-control. Choice B is incorrect because in this context, "imaginative" would mean creative, and there’s nothing in the text to suggest that cuttlefish demonstrate creativity. Instead, the text focuses on the fact that cuttlefish seem to be capable of exercising restraint and self-control. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, "manageable" would mean capable of being controlled. Although the text indicates that the cuttlefish in the study demonstrated restraint by waiting for a favorite treat instead of devouring a readily available meal (which suggests their ability to control themselves), it doesn’t suggest that cuttlefish are thus also able to be managed or controlled by others.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 5a97d9cd

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 5a97d9cd

In a study of residential mobility in Washington, DC, LaTanya Brown-Robertson et al. found that increases in household spending power (via tax credits) had mixed effects on mobility decisions, possibly because residential location choices are not fully reducible to economic factors but are also blank noneconomic factors such as access to strong local social networks.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • transposed with

  • mediated by

  • decoupled from

  • antecedent to

ID: 5a97d9cd Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of residential mobility decisions. In this context, "mediated by" means influenced or affected by something. The text establishes that increasing household spending power (an economic factor) produced "mixed effects" on mobility decisions. The text then explains that residential choices are "not fully reducible to economic factors," which means that these decisions don’t simply rely on how much money is available to spend on a residential move but on other factors as well. According to the text, noneconomic considerations, such as access to social networks, also play a significant role. Thus, "mediated by" accurately captures this relationship where noneconomic factors influence what might otherwise be purely economic decisions.

Choice A is incorrect because "transposed with" would suggest that economic and noneconomic factors are being switched or interchanged when making residential mobility decisions, which wouldn’t make logical sense in this context. The text indicates that these factors coexist and jointly influence such decisions. Choice C is incorrect. The phrase "decoupled from" means separated or disconnected from, which would suggest that economic factors are completely separate from noneconomic factors. This would contradict the text’s main point that residential mobility decisions involve multiple factors being considered simultaneously rather than in isolation. Choice D is incorrect because "antecedent to," which means something prior or earlier, would indicate that noneconomic factors come before economic ones in time or sequence. The text doesn’t establish this chronological relationship. Instead, the text indicates that economic factors (household spending power) and noneconomic factors (access to social networks) simultaneously influence residential mobility decisions.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID a87c3925

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: a87c3925

Text 1

Soy sauce, made from fermented soybeans, is noted for its umami flavor. Umami—one of the five basic tastes along with sweet, bitter, salty, and sour—was formally classified when its taste receptors were discovered in the 2000s. In 2007, to define the pure umami flavor scientists Rie Ishii and Michael O’Mahony used broths made from shiitake mushrooms and kombu seaweed, and two panels of Japanese and US judges closely agreed on a description of the taste.

 

Text 2

A 2022 experiment by Manon Jünger et al. led to a greater understanding of soy sauce’s flavor profile. The team initially presented a mixture of compounds with low molecular weights to taste testers who found it was not as salty or bitter as real soy sauce. Further analysis of soy sauce identified proteins, including dipeptides, that enhanced umami flavor and also contributed to saltiness. The team then made a mix of 50 chemical compounds that re-created soy sauce’s flavor.

Based on the texts, if Ishii and O’Mahony (Text 1) and Jünger et al. (Text 2) were aware of the findings of both experiments, they would most likely agree with which statement?

  • On average, the diets of people in the United States tend to have fewer foods that contain certain dipeptides than the diets of people in Japan have.

  • Chemical compounds that activate both the umami and salty taste receptors tend to have a higher molecular weight than those that only activate umami taste receptors.

  • Fermentation introduces proteins responsible for the increase of umami flavor in soy sauce, and those proteins also increase the perception of saltiness.

  • The broths in the 2007 experiment most likely did not have a substantial amount of the dipeptides that played a key part in the 2022 experiment.

ID: a87c3925 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. Ishii and O’Mahony were trying to isolate the pure umami flavor, while Jünger was trying to recreate soy sauce, which has a mix of flavors that includes umami. Accordingly, the broths from Text 1 are not described as having any soy sauce in them—just “shiitake mushrooms and kombu seaweed.” So they probably don’t have as much of the dipeptides described in Text 2, which were found to be a key part of soy sauce’s umami-ness and its saltiness.

Choice A is incorrect. Neither text supports this. Neither text gets into the diets of people in the United States, nor the diets of people in Japan. Choice B is incorrect. Neither text supports this. Text 2 does talk about the molecular weights of chemical compounds, but there isn’t enough information provided about molecular weights in Text 1 to make an inference about what the scientists in Text 1 would say. Choice C is incorrect. Neither text supports this. Text 1 briefly mentions that soy sauce is “made from fermented soybeans,” but it never claims that fermentation is responsible for its flavor in any way. And Text 2 never mentions fermentation at all.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 4a2b2535

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 4a2b2535

A brief book review cannot fully convey the blank of Olga Tokarczuk’s novel The Books of Jacob, with its enormous cast of characters, its complicated, wandering plot, and its page numbers that count backward (beginning at 965 and ending at 1).

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • accuracy

  • inactivity

  • complexity

  • restraint

ID: 4a2b2535 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Olga Tokarczuk’s novel The Books of Jacob. As used in this context, “complexity” means having many complicated parts that when taken as a whole are difficult to follow or explain. The text indicates that The Books of Jacob has a large cast of characters, a complicated and wandering plot (that is, a plot that is difficult to follow), and reverse page numbering. Together, these features make up a novel that’s challenging to read and summarize. This context supports the idea that a brief book review can’t do justice to the novel’s complexity.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the word “accuracy,” or being free from error or falsehood, can sometimes be used to describe a novel, the text doesn’t discuss whether Tokarczuk’s novel has this quality. Instead, the text describes the novel as having a large cast of characters, a difficult-to-follow plot, and reverse page numbering. These features suggest complexity, not accuracy. Choice B is incorrect because “inactivity” means being in a state of idleness or doing nothing, neither of which would make sense in this context. The text describes Tokarczuk’s novel, and although it’s possible the novel could portray its characters as inactive, it wouldn’t make sense to describe the novel itself as such. Choice D is incorrect because in this context “restraint” would mean holding back or showing self-control, and the text doesn’t indicate that Tokarczuk’s novel has either of these qualities. In fact, the features of the novel that the text describes, such as a large cast of characters, a complicated and wandering plot, and reverse page numbering, suggest excess and complexity, not restraint.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID b0f7541b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: b0f7541b

The following text is adapted from Herman Melville’s 1857 novel The Confidence-Man. Humphry Davy was a prominent British chemist and inventor.

Years ago, a grave American savant, being in London, observed at an evening party there, a certain coxcombical fellow, as he thought, an absurd ribbon in his lapel, and full of smart [banter], whisking about to the admiration of as many as were disposed to admire. Great was the savant’s disdain; but, chancing ere long to find himself in a corner with the jackanapes, got into conversation with him, when he was somewhat ill-prepared for the good sense of the jackanapes, but was altogether thrown aback, upon subsequently being [informed that he was] no less a personage than Sir Humphry Davy.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • It portrays the thoughts of a character who is embarrassed about his own behavior.

  • It presents an account of a misunderstanding.

  • It offers a short history of how a person came to be famous.

  • It explains why one character dislikes another.

ID: b0f7541b Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The text tells a story of a first impression that turned out to be wrong: a serious American savant was dismissive of a goofy-looking, wisecracking guest at a British party, and then was shocked to learn that the guest was actually a prominent British chemist and inventor.

Choice A is incorrect. This is too strong and too narrow. Only at the very end is the savant "thrown aback" by the fact that the man was Sir Humphry Davy—he’s not "embarrassed about his own behavior." Choice C is incorrect. This isn’t the main purpose. The text never provides the history of how Sir Humphry Davy came to be famous. Nor does it provide any history for the American savant. Choice D is incorrect. This is too narrow. It doesn’t include the second half of the text, where the savant gets into a conversation with the man and then finds out that the man is Sir Humphry Davy.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 8d802289

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 8d802289

Text 1

Dance choreographer Alvin Ailey’s deep admiration for jazz music can most clearly be felt in the rhythms and beats his works were set to. Ailey collaborated with some of the greatest jazz legends, like Charles Mingus, Charlie Parker, and perhaps his favorite, Duke Ellington. With his choice of music, Ailey helped bring jazz to life for his audiences.

 

Text 2

Jazz is present throughout Ailey’s work, but it’s most visible in Ailey’s approach to choreography. Ailey often incorporated improvisation, a signature characteristic of jazz music, in his work. When managing his dance company, Ailey rarely forced his dancers to an exact set of specific moves. Instead, he encouraged his dancers to let their own skills and experiences shape their performances, as jazz musicians do.

Based on the texts, both authors would most likely agree with which statement?

  • Dancers who worked with Ailey greatly appreciated his supportive approach as a choreographer.

  • Ailey’s work was strongly influenced by jazz.

  • Audiences were mostly unfamiliar with the jazz music in Ailey’s works.

  • Ailey blended multiple genres of music together when choreographing dance pieces.

ID: 8d802289 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. Author 1 states that Ailey had a “deep admiration for jazz music” and that he “helped bring jazz to life for his audiences.” Author 2 states that “Jazz is present throughout Ailey’s work.” While the authors name different aspects of Ailey’s work as the most influenced by jazz, they agree that jazz was a strong influence. 

Choice A is incorrect. This isn’t something that either text claims. Neither text mentions how Ailey’s dancers felt about his approach as a choreographer, so we have no evidence that either author would agree with this. Choice C is incorrect. This isn’t something that either text claims. Neither text mentions how familiar audiences were with any aspect of Ailey’s works, so we have no evidence that either author would agree with this. Choice D is incorrect. This isn’t something that either text claims. Neither text mentions any genre of music other than jazz, so we have no evidence that either author would agree with this.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 7bf79a90

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 7bf79a90

Text 1

Microbes are tiny organisms in the soil, water, and air all around us. They thrive even in very harsh conditions. That’s why Noah Fierer and colleagues were surprised when soil samples they collected from an extremely cold, dry area in Antarctica didn’t seem to contain any life. The finding doesn’t prove that there are no microbes in that area, but the team says it does suggest that the environment severely restricts microbes’ survival.

 

Text 2

Microbes are found in virtually every environment on Earth. So it’s unlikely they would be completely absent from Fierer’s team’s study site, no matter how extreme the environment is. There were probably so few organisms in the samples that current technology couldn’t detect them. But since a spoonful of typical soil elsewhere might contain billions of microbes, the presence of so few in the Antarctic soil samples would show how challenging the conditions are.

Based on the texts, Fierer’s team and the author of Text 2 would most likely agree with which statement about microbes?

  • Most microbes are better able to survive in environments with extremely dry conditions than in environments with harsh temperatures.

  • A much higher number of microbes would probably be found if another sample of soil were taken from the Antarctic study site.

  • Microbes are likely difficult to detect in the soil at the Antarctic study site because they tend to be smaller than microbes found in typical soil elsewhere.

  • Most microbes are probably unable to withstand the soil conditions at the Antarctic study site.

ID: 7bf79a90 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a statement about microbes with which Fierer’s team (Text 1) and the author of Text 2 would most likely agree. Text 1 states that microbes usually thrive in very harsh conditions, and so Fierer’s team was surprised when samples collected from an extremely cold and dry area of Antarctica didn’t appear to contain any life. Fierer’s team says that though this doesn’t conclusively prove there are no microbes in the area, it suggests that microbes would have a notably difficult time surviving in the environment. The author of Text 2 says it’s unlikely that there would be no microbes at all in the Antarctic study site from which Fierer’s team retrieved soil samples and that there may have been hard-to-detect microbes in the samples. However, the presence of only a few microbes in the Antarctic samples rather than the billions found in a typical soil sample (which would presumably be much easier to detect) would illustrate conditions in the Antarctic soil that make it difficult for microbes to thrive. Since Fierer’s team says that the seeming absence of microbes in the Antarctic samples suggests an unusually harsh environment and the author of Text 2 says that even if there are a few undetectable microbes in the samples, the relatively tiny number of microbes would also suggest an unusually harsh environment, then Fierer’s team and the author of Text 2 would most likely agree that most microbes are unable to withstand the soil conditions at the Antarctic study site.

Choice A is incorrect. The samples taken by Fierer’s team were from an area of Antarctica that is described in part as extremely dry, and these samples didn’t appear to have any life. Therefore, even though these samples also came from an extremely cold area, Fierer’s team wouldn’t argue based on the evidence available that microbes were better able to survive in dry conditions than in areas with harsh temperatures. Moreover, the author of Text 2 says that microbes are found in virtually every environment on Earth but doesn’t compare dry environments and harsh environments. Choice B is incorrect. Nothing in Text 1 indicates that another collection of samples from the Antarctic study site might yield different results from the samples already taken by Fierer’s team. The author of Text 2 does state that microbes are found in virtually every environment on Earth and suggests that new technology may be better able to detect so few microbes in a soil sample, but the author of Text 2 concludes that the unusual absence of microbes in the Antarctic samples is evidence of the harsh Antarctic environment. Therefore, there is no reason to believe that the author of Text 2 thinks that another sample drawn from that same harsh environment would yield a much higher number of microbes. Choice C is incorrect. The author of Text 2 does speculate that there may have been so few microbes in the Antarctic samples that current technology couldn’t detect them, but the author doesn’t speculate that this is due to the size of the microbes. Moreover, nothing that Fierer’s team says suggests that they are speculating that their samples might have microbes that are smaller than microbes in typical soil samples.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 9ccf463e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 9ccf463e

The following text is from Nella Larsen’s 1928 novel Quicksand.

The trees in their spring beauty sent through her restive mind a sharp thrill of pleasure. Seductive, charming, and beckoning as cities were, they had not this easy unhuman loveliness.

As used in the text, what does the word “beckoning” most nearly mean?

  • Demanding

  • Signaling

  • Inviting

  • Shifting

ID: 9ccf463e Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because as used in the text, “beckoning” most nearly means “inviting,” or attractive. The text portrays a woman who is looking at “trees in their spring beauty.” She compares them to cities, which have their own pleasures even if they do not have the “easy unhuman loveliness” of trees: she thinks of cities as “seductive” and “charming,” both adjectives that signify something that is enticing, or attractive. Therefore, cities that are seductive and charming would also be described as inviting people closer to them.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication in this context that cities are “demanding,” or requiring effort. Choice B is incorrect. Though “signaling,” or communicating something, might be considered a key feature of the act of “beckoning,” in the context here, “beckoning” suggests that cities have attractive qualities that naturally draw people to them. Such attractive qualities are not described by the word “signaling” alone. Therefore, “signaling” is an incorrect answer because it is insufficiently precise. Choice D is incorrect because there is no reason to think in this context that the cities are “shifting,” or changing shape.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 835d1ae6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 835d1ae6

Text 1

Historians studying pre-Inca Peru have looked to ceramic vessels to understand daily life among the Moche people. These mold-made sculptures present plants, animals, and human faces in precise ways—vessels representing human faces are so detailed that scholars have interpreted facial markings to represent scars and other skin irregularities. Some historians have even used these objects to identify potential skin diseases that may have afflicted people at the time.

 

Text 2

Art historian and archaeologist Lisa Trever has argued that the interpretation of Moche “portrait” vessels as hyper-realistic portrayals of identifiable people may inadvertently disregard the creativity of the objects’ creators. Moche ceramic vessels, Trever argues, are artworks in which sculptors could free their imagination, using realistic objects and people around them as inspiration to explore more abstract concepts.

Based on the texts, what would Lisa Trever (Text 2) most likely say about the interpretation presented in the underlined portion of Text 1?

  • Depictions of human faces are significantly more realistic than depictions of plants and other animals are.

  • It is likely that some depictions of human faces with extensive markings are intended to portray the same historical individual.

  • Some vessels may have been damaged during their excavation and thus provide little insight into Moche culture.

  • Markings on depictions of human faces are not necessarily intended to portray particular details about the physical appearance of individuals.

ID: 835d1ae6 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. Trever thinks that the “hyper-realistic portrayal of identifiable people” interpretation ignores the sculptors’ imagination and creativity. We can infer that Trevor thinks the facial markings on the sculptures may not have represented real skin blemishes on real people.

Choice A is incorrect. The text gives us no reason to think that Trever would respond to the underlined interpretation in this way. Neither text compares the depictions of human faces to the depictions of plants or animals, so we have no basis to draw this conclusion. Choice B is incorrect. The text gives us no reason to think that Trever would respond to the underlined interpretation in this way. There’s nothing in either text about multiple depictions representing the same person, so we have no basis to draw this conclusion. Choice C is incorrect. The text gives us no reason to think that Trever would respond to the underlined interpretation in this way. Neither text mentions the state of the vessels (damaged or intact), so we have no basis to draw this conclusion.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID af4300b0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: af4300b0

The creation of Lotte Reiniger’s 1926 animated film The Adventures of Prince Achmed was blank process. Over the course of three years, Reiniger and her collaborators painstakingly made more than 250,000 individual images of hand-cut paper silhouettes and repeatedly had to invent entirely new methods and tools to create the special effects Reiniger envisioned.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • a haphazard

  • a contentious

  • an ineffectual

  • an arduous

ID: af4300b0 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the creation of The Adventures of Prince Achmed. In this context, "arduous" means that the process is marked by great labor or effort. According to the text, the creation of the 1926 animated film The Adventures of Prince Achmed took three years and was a painstaking process. Since the process was so long and required great efforts by Lotte Reiniger and her team, the creation of the film was therefore an arduous process.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that the creation of Reiniger’s film was "a haphazard," or disorganized, process. In fact, the text suggests that the creation process was quite meticulous and the team worked hard together to produce the envisioned effects. Choice B is incorrect. While the text does suggest that the creation of Reiniger’s film was a long and difficult process, it doesn’t suggest that the process was "a contentious" one, or one causing controversy or argument. The text suggests that the team worked together to produce the envisioned effects. Choice C is incorrect because rather than describing the process of creating the film as "ineffectual," or not having the effect it was intended to have, the text describes the process as ultimately successful despite the difficulty it involved.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID ca47273b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: ca47273b

Biologist Jane Edgeloe and colleagues have located what is believed to be the largest individual plant in the world in the Shark Bay area of Australia. The plant is a type of seagrass called Posidonia australis, and it blank approximately 200 square kilometers.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • acknowledges

  • produces

  • spans

  • advances

ID: ca47273b Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. “Spans” means “extends over a distance of” or “encompasses.” Since we’re talking about the world’s largest plant, it makes sense to say that it “spans” about 200 square kilometers.

Choice A is incorrect. “Acknowledges” means “recognizes” or “admits the truth of.” Either way, it doesn’t make sense here: a plant can’t “acknowledge” a distance. Choice B is incorrect. “Produces” can mean “makes,” “causes,” or “presents.” But none of those definitions make sense here: a plant can’t make, cause, or present a distance. Choice D is incorrect. This doesn’t fit the logic of the text. “Advances” means “moves forward” or “progresses.” But the plant isn’t necessarily moving forward. Rather, the text suggests that it already covers a distance of 200 square kilometers.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 4c4db685

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 4c4db685

On painter William H. Johnson’s return to the United States in 1938 after a decade in Europe, his style underwent an abrupt transformation. Turning away from landscapes painted in an expressionist style—a style that often involves using fluid, distorted shapes and thick, textured brushstrokes to express the artist’s subjective experience of reality—Johnson began painting portraits of Black Americans in a bold new way. Evocative of African sculpture and American and Scandinavian folk art, these portraits feature flat, deliberately oversimplified figures in a vibrant but limited color palette.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • It elaborates on the previous sentence’s statement about a transitional moment in Johnson’s artistic career. 

  • It provides information about Johnson’s travels in support of a claim about his artistic influences, which is advanced in the following sentence. 

  • It recounts a moment in Johnson’s personal life that enabled the success of his subsequent career, which is summarized in the following sentence.

  • It presents evidence that calls into question the previous sentence’s characterization of Johnson’s artistic development. 

ID: 4c4db685 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole. The first sentence of the text indicates that Johnson returned to the US in 1938 at which time his painting style suddenly changed. The second sentence is underlined and gives more detail about this stylistic change, noting that his earlier work consisted largely of landscapes in an expressionist style and his new works were highly stylized portraits of Black Americans. In other words, the function of the underlined sentence is to elaborate on a transitional moment in Johnson’s painting career.

Choice B is incorrect. Although the text does mention that Johnson spent a decade in Europe, it does not discuss what other travel Johnson might have done. Furthermore, although the text mentions African, American, and Scandinavian artistic elements in Johnson’s work, it does not indicate that he traveled to different locations to learn about these practices. Choice C is incorrect because the text does not focus on Johnson’s personal life nor does it address how successful his career was in general. Choice D is incorrect because, rather than call it into question, the underlined sentence continues the discussion of Johnson’s career by adding further relevant detail of Johnson’s artistic transformation.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID cf46f239

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: cf46f239

The following text is adapted from Herman Melville’s 1855 novel Israel Potter. Israel is a young man wandering through New England during the late eighteenth century.

He hired himself out for three months; at the end of that time to receive for his wages two hundred acres of land lying in New Hampshire. [...] His employer proving false to the contract in the matter of the land, and there being no law in the country to force him to fulfil it, Israel—who, however brave-hearted, and even much of a dare-devil upon a pinch, seems nevertheless to have evinced, throughout many parts of his career, a singular patience and mildness—was obliged to look round for other means of livelihood than clearing out a farm for himself in the wilderness.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?

  • It implies that Israel treasures a particular characteristic of his personality when that characteristic should usually be regarded as a flaw.

  • It suggests that if not for a certain aspect of his character, Israel might not have been as easily thwarted in his ambition to establish a farm.

  • It shows why Israel would not have been able to undertake the enormous amount of labor necessary to run a farm even if he had owned the necessary property.

  • It explains why, when the situation requires it, Israel is able to undertake courageous acts that others would generally avoid.

ID: cf46f239 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole. The text describes the failed attempt of Israel Potter to establish a farm in New England during the late eighteenth century: according to his contract, he was to receive two hundred acres in exchange for three months’ work, but his employer then refused to fulfill the bargain and Israel had no recourse to law to obtain the land he was owed. Israel was therefore forced to find another means of supporting himself. To explain why Israel was particularly susceptible to his employer’s dishonesty, the underlined portion states that though Israel was "brave-hearted, and even much of a dare-devil upon a pinch," he also possessed "a singular patience and mildness." In other words, Israel could be courageous in certain circumstances, but he was usually meek and disinclined to argument, from which it is reasonable to infer that Israel was often taken advantage of. Thus, the underlined portion suggests that if not for a certain aspect of his character, Israel might not have been as easily thwarted in his ambition to establish a farm.

Choice A is incorrect because although the underlined portion describes aspects of Israel’s personality, it does not address how he feels about his own personality. Choice C is incorrect because the underlined portion addresses Israel’s occasional courage and frequent meekness but does not address whether he would have the skills and resolve necessary to operate a farm if he owned sufficient property. Choice D is incorrect. Though the underlined portion does indicate that Israel could be courageous in certain circumstances, it does not say that he undertook acts of courage that others avoided, but rather that he was habitually meek. Even if the underlined portion did say that Israel was more courageous than most, this would not explain why he found himself under the circumstances described in the text—that is, as a consequence of his meek nature, cheated of the property to which he had a right.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 69a6d050

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 69a6d050

In the early 1800s, the Cherokee scholar Sequoyah created the first script, or writing system, for an Indigenous language in the United States. Because it represented the sounds of spoken Cherokee so accurately, his script was easy to learn and thus quickly achieved blank use: by 1830, over 90 percent of the Cherokee people could read and write it.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • widespread

  • careful

  • unintended

  • infrequent

ID: 69a6d050 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the writing system created by Sequoyah. In this context, “widespread” means widely accepted or practiced. The text indicates that because Sequoyah’s script accurately represented the spoken sounds of the Cherokee language and was easy to learn, nearly all Cherokee people were able to read and write it soon after it was created. This context demonstrates that the script was widely used by the Cherokee people.

Choice B is incorrect. In this context, “careful” would mean exercised with care and attentive concern. Although the work of creating a writing system likely involved great care, the text indicates that the system was “easy to learn,” which conflicts with the idea that using this system requires a noteworthy amount of care. Choice C is incorrect because in this context “unintended” means not deliberate. The idea that using Sequoyah’s script was unintentional conflicts directly with the claim that it was easy to learn and used by “over 90% of the Cherokee people” by 1830. In fact, because one had to learn this system, it’s not clear how one could use it unintentionally. Choice D is incorrect because in this context “infrequent” means rare or not occurring often, which conflicts directly with the claim that “over 90% of the Cherokee people” were using Sequoyah’s script by 1830.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 805e361d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 805e361d

Companies are providing consumers with more opportunities to purchase customized products than ever before. Whether buying customized sneakers, jewelry, or clothing, consumers can participate in the design of products to meet their specific needs and tastes. In turn, companies profit too: studies have shown that consumers are willing to pay more and wait longer for a customized product. Still, it can be difficult for companies to offer customization while keeping costs low, as the standard methods of mass production may not be able to accommodate making a unique product each time.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • It discusses several recent innovations in product manufacturing and then suggests some potential applications of those innovations.

  • It describes a company’s recent success with new products and then explains multiple factors that may have contributed to that success.

  • It introduces a trend in consumer products and then explains how the trend both benefits and poses a challenge to companies.

  • It presents two contrasting product-marketing techniques and then provides examples of one of those techniques.

ID: 805e361d Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents the best description of the overall structure of the text. The text begins by stating that companies are increasingly giving consumers opportunities to customize products, allowing them to make design choices when buying certain sneakers, jewelry, and clothing. The text then indicates that although this trend benefits companies because they can successfully charge buyers more for customized products and don’t have to rush production, it also poses a challenge because producing unique items may require different and more expensive methods than the ones typically used for mass production, raising the companies’ costs. Thus, the text first introduces a trend in consumer products and then explains how the trend both benefits and poses a challenge to companies.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t present the customization of various products as a recent innovation—the fact that there are "more opportunities" now indicates that there were opportunities before—and no other innovations, in product manufacturing or otherwise, are discussed. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss any particular company or example and instead speaks broadly about the trend of companies providing customizable products. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text discusses companies offering something that consumers like and are willing to pay more for—the ability to customize products—it doesn’t characterize this as a product-marketing technique and doesn’t compare it to any other kind of offering or technique.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 81da17d3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 81da17d3

Text 1

Italian painters in the 1500s rarely depicted themselves in their work. Even more rare were self-portrait paintings that portrayed the artist as a painter. At the time, painting was not yet respected as a profession, so painters mostly chose to emphasize other qualities in their self-portraits, like their intellect or social status. In the city of Bologna, the first artist to depict themself painting was a man named Annibale Carracci. A painting of his from around 1585 shows Carracci in front of an easel holding a palette. 

 

Text 2

In their self-portraits, Bolognese artists typically avoided referring to the act of painting until the mid-1600s. However, Lavinia Fontana’s 1577 painting, Self-Portrait at the Keyboard, stands out as the earliest example of such a work by an artist from Bologna. Although the artist is depicted playing music, in the background, one can spot a painting easel by a window.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely respond to the underlined claim in Text 1?

  • Carracci and Fontana were among the most well-respected painters in Bologna at the time.

  • The depiction of Fontana in Self-Portrait at the Keyboard was intended to underscore the artist’s creativity.

  • Fontana likely inspired the reference to an easel and palette in Carracci’s painting.

  • Self-Portrait at the Keyboard was painted earlier than Carracci’s painting and also refers to the artist’s craft.

ID: 81da17d3 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The author of Text 2 states that Fontana’s painting, which depicts a painting easel in the background, was made in 1577, eight years before Carracci’s painting. Therefore, they might argue that Caracci was not “the first artist” to depict themself as a painter.

Choice A is incorrect. The texts don’t support this choice. Neither text mentions the reputation or status of either Carracci or Fontana. Choice B is incorrect. The author of Text 2 does not comment on the intention or meaning of Fontana’s self-depiction in Self-Portrait at the Keyboard. This choice also holds little connection to the underlined claim. Choice C is incorrect. The texts don’t support this choice. The author of Text 2 does not suggest any inspirational relationship between Fontana and Carracci. The author of Text 2 is concerned with showing that Fontana’s painting is the earliest example of an artist referring to painting in their self-portrait, but makes no mention of her influence on others.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 617a8a10

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 617a8a10

Very little is known about the role nocturnal insects, such as moths, play in flower pollination because it is difficult to monitor insects at night. To address this problem, a team of scientists used time-lapse cameras to record pollinator visits to red clover all day and night. The recordings showed that while most pollinator visits were by bumblebees, one-third of visits were by moths. Additionally, flowers that were visited by both moths and bees produced more seeds than flowers that were only visited by bees.

Which choice best states the function of the underlined sentence? 

  • To describe an approach a team of scientists used to study pollinators 

  • To question a claim scientists make about pollinators 

  • To explain why moths prefer red clover to other flowers

  • To announce an unexpected research finding about red clover 

ID: 617a8a10 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes the function of the underlined sentence. The sentence indicates that scientists used time-lapse photography during both day and night to detect pollinators visiting red clover. Therefore, the underlined sentence has the function of describing an approach scientists used in the pollinator study discussed in the text.

Choice B is incorrect because the underlined sentence discusses equipment the scientists used to conduct their study, and the text provides nothing to suggest these elements of their experimental design could, by themselves, question claims resulting from the study. Choice C is incorrect because nothing in either the underlined sentence or the rest of the text addresses whether moths have a preference for red clover or any other flowers. Choice D is incorrect. Although the sentences that follow the underlined sentence discuss research findings, nothing in the text suggests that these findings were unexpected. Moreover, the underlined sentence describes part of the scientists’ experimental design (day and night time-lapse photography), not a finding of the scientists’ study.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID e41dfaab

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: e41dfaab

In 1929 the Atlantic Monthly published several articles based on newly discovered letters allegedly exchanged between President Abraham Lincoln and a woman named Ann Rutledge. Historians were unable to blank the authenticity of the letters, however, and quickly dismissed them as a hoax.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • validate

  • interpret

  • relate

  • accommodate

ID: e41dfaab Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of letters allegedly exchanged between President Lincoln and Rutledge. In this context, “validate” means to confirm that something is real or correct. According to the text, it was alleged, or claimed, that the newly discovered letters had been written by Lincoln and Rutledge. The text also indicates that historians ultimately decided the letters were a hoax, or fraudulent. This context suggests that the historians couldn’t confirm that the letters were authentic.

Choice B is incorrect. The text focuses on the authenticity of the letters, which were claimed to have been written by Lincoln and Rutledge and were then quickly dismissed as fraudulent by historians. Rather than conveying that the historians simply weren’t able to “interpret,” or explain in an understandable way, the letters’ authenticity, the text suggests that the historians decided the letters lacked authenticity altogether. Choice C is incorrect. The text states that the historians quickly dismissed the letters claimed to have been written by Lincoln and Rutledge as fraudulent; this suggests that rather than being unable to “relate,” or tell others about, the letters’ authenticity, the historians were able to share what they’d decided about the letters. Choice D is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to suggest that the historians couldn’t “accommodate,” or give consideration to, the authenticity of the letters claimed to have been written by Lincoln and Rutledge; the text states that the historians decided that the letters were fraudulent, which indicates that they did consider whether the letters were authentic.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID e13171c4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: e13171c4

Historians Tiya Miles and Roy E. Finkenbine have both documented the assistance Indigenous peoples gave to Black freedom seekers leaving the South before the US Civil War. Much of the historical evidence of this help comes from Indigenous oral traditions and from autobiographies written by the freedom seekers. One such narrative is Jermain Loguen’s autobiography, which tells about how Neshnabé (Potawatomi) villagers offered him food, lodging, and directions during his 1835 journey from Tennessee to Canada.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence?

  • It provides an example of an autobiography that describes help given by an Indigenous people to a Black freedom seeker.

  • It shows why Loguen decided to write in great detail about his experiences traveling from Tennessee to Canada in his autobiography.

  • It argues that autobiographies are particularly important sources of information about geography in the United States before the Civil War.

  • It suggests that most historians believe that Neshnabé villagers were more successful in assisting freedom seekers than other people were.

ID: e13171c4 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The previous sentence broadly mentions "autobiographies written by the freedom seekers." This sentence identifies Loguen’s autobiography as a specific example.

Choice B is incorrect. The sentence never explains why Loguen chose to write about his experiences. Choice C is incorrect. The previous sentence identifies autobiographies as useful sources of historical information about a specific topic, but not for "information about geography." The underlined sentence provides details of one autobiography as an example of a source of information about that specific topic (interactions between Indigenous people and Black freedom seekers). Choice D is incorrect. The text never discusses other specific people who helped freedom seekers, and therefore can’t make a comparison between the Neshnabé and anyone else.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 190857f0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 190857f0

Why do sand cats purr but lions roar? Researchers hypothesize that this difference between the two feline species may be partly due to a U-shaped bone in their throats called the hyoid. Sand cats, which are much smaller than lions, have a rigid hyoid that rumbles when the cat’s larynx vibrates, resulting in a purr. By contrast, lions have a somewhat flexible hyoid, and the bone is attached to the skull with a stretchy ligament that sand cats lack. These traits allow lions and most other species of big cats to produce powerful roars. The same traits may also prevent most big cats from purring.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • The text presents a theory about two species, then discusses facts that weaken it.

  • The text compares the habitats of two species, then explains how those habitats are changing.

  • The text describes a behavior shared by two species, then discusses other behaviors shared by them.

  • The text poses a question about two species, then presents a possible answer.

ID: 190857f0 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it best describes the overall structure of the text. The text begins by posing a question about two different cat species: "Why do sand cats purr but lions roar?" The remainder of the text then presents a possible answer to this question by explaining a hypothesis about differences in these cats’ hyoid bone structure. The text details how sand cats have rigid hyoids that produce purring sounds when their larynx vibrates, while lions have more flexible hyoids attached to the skull with a stretchy ligament that enables roaring but may prevent purring.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t present facts that weaken the theory about two cat species; rather, it asks a question about two species and then discusses a potential answer. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss the habitats of sand cats and lions at all, nor does it mention any changes to their habitats. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t describe a behavior shared by the two cat species mentioned. On the contrary, it specifically focuses on the different vocalization behaviors of each species (purring versus roaring) and why those differences may exist.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 4d1a9c0d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 4d1a9c0d

Following the principles of community-based participatory research, tribal nations and research institutions are equal partners in health studies conducted on reservations. A collaboration between the Crow Tribe and Montana State University ­­­­blank this model: tribal citizens worked alongside scientists to design the methodology and continue to assist in data collection.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • circumvents

  • eclipses

  • fabricates

  • exemplifies

ID: 4d1a9c0d Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the collaboration between the Crow Tribe and Montana State University. As used in this context, “exemplifies” means demonstrates. The text conveys how the Crow Tribe–Montana State University collaboration serves to illustrate the model of community-based participatory research introduced earlier in the text and expanded on later in the text. 

Choice A is incorrect because referring to “circumvents,” or avoids, wouldn’t make sense in context. The text suggests that the Crow Tribe–Montana State University collaboration serves as an example of the principles of community-based participatory research, not that the collaboration evades this model. Choice B is incorrect because referring to “eclipses,” or overshadows, wouldn’t make sense in context. The text describes the Crow Tribe–Montana State University collaboration as an equal partnership, which indicates that it’s an example of the community-based participatory research model, not that it overshadows the model. Choice C is incorrect because saying that the collaboration “fabricates,” or creates, the model wouldn’t make sense in context. The text indicates that the Crow Tribe–Montana State University collaboration serves as an example of the model, not that it created the model. 

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID b5898291

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: b5898291

The equipment from the Apollo Moon landings (1969–1972), such as radiation detectors and temperature probes, remains there to this day, but the data from these missions were mostly inaccessible until a recent data-transfer project made them blank. This project has allowed researcher Seiichi Nagihara to make use of the information in investigating temperature changes on the Moon.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • predictable

  • complicated

  • representative

  • available

ID: b5898291 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of how a data-transfer project affected data from equipment from the Apollo Moon landings. In this context, "available" means accessible or able to be used. The text explains that the Apollo equipment is still on the Moon, but the data it collected "were mostly inaccessible" until a data-transfer project was undertaken. The text then states that this project allowed a researcher to use the information that has been collected. This context makes it clear that the project made previously inaccessible data available, or accessible.

Choice A is incorrect because saying that a project made data from the Apollo equipment on the Moon "predictable" would mean that the data could be known or declared in advance, and it’s not clear how that would be achieved, particularly with data that had been "mostly inaccessible" before the project. Rather than suggesting that the data-transfer project made the data predictable, the text conveys that it made the data available to be used as sources of information. Choice B is incorrect because the sentence indicates that data from the Apollo equipment on the Moon were "mostly inaccessible" until a recent data-transfer project did something to them, after which a researcher was able to make use of the data. This context conveys that the project made the data accessible and usable, not that it made them "complicated," or complex or difficult to understand. Choice C is incorrect. In this context, "representative" would mean either standing as a symbol of something or serving as a typical example from a group, and the text gives no indication that data retrieved from the Apollo equipment on the Moon was merely an example or symbolic. Rather, the text focuses on the availability and usefulness of the data, indicating that a data-transfer project enabled a researcher to use data that had previously been "mostly inaccessible."

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 5effa190

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 5effa190

The process of mechanically recycling plastics is often considered blank because of the environmental impact and the loss of material quality that often occurs. But chemist Takunda Chazovachii has helped develop a cleaner process of chemical recycling that converts superabsorbent polymers from diapers into a desirable reusable adhesive.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • resilient

  • inadequate

  • dynamic

  • satisfactory

ID: 5effa190 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion about recycling plastics. In this context, “inadequate” means not satisfactory. The text indicates that the mechanical plastic-recycling process affects the environment and causes “the loss of material quality.” The text contrasts that with Chazovachii’s chemical plastic-recycling process, which is cleaner and produces a desirable product. The text’s emphasis on the negative aspects of mechanical recycling suggests that it is inadequate in terms of environmental impact and the quality of the material the process yields.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context “resilient” would mean able to withstand difficulty and the text does not characterize the plastic-recycling process as having this quality or describe any difficulties that these processes might need to overcome. Choice C is incorrect because in this context “dynamic” would mean constantly changing. Although the text suggests that there have been changes in the field of recycling, as is the case with the advent of Chazovachii’s chemical recycling process, there is nothing to suggest that the mechanical process itself has changed or is prone to change. Choice D is incorrect because in this context “satisfactory” would mean acceptable but not perfect. The text mentions only shortcomings of the mechanical process (environmental effects and lower material quality), so the text more strongly supports a negative view of this process and provides no evidence that it would be considered satisfactory.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID a49500cc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: a49500cc

Predatory animals differ widely in how they blank food for their young. Some leave dead prey nearby for their young to consume, some bring live prey to their young, and some feed their young directly from their own mouths. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • avoid

  • guess

  • provide

  • describe

ID: a49500cc Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of how predators feed their young. As used in this context, "provide" means supply or make something that’s needed available. The text indicates that some predators supply prey for their young by either leaving dead prey nearby or by bringing live prey to them. Other predators, the text states, feed their young directly from their own mouths. This context supports the idea that predatory animals have various ways to provide food for their young.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, "avoid" would mean keep away from or refrain from, neither of which would make sense in context. Nothing in the text suggests that predators refrain from food for their young. Choice B is incorrect because in this context, "guess" would mean speculate or suppose, and it’s unclear what it would mean for predators to speculate food for their young. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, "describe" would mean explain, and it’s unclear what it would mean for predators to explain food for their young.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID f3fac04f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: f3fac04f

Bioluminescent beetles called fireflies may seem to create flashes of light randomly, but each species of firefly actually has its own special series of repeated flashes and pauses. These unique blank allow fireflies of the same species to find each other.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • quantities 

  • decorations

  • patterns

  • agreements

ID: f3fac04f Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the flashes created by fireflies. In this context, “patterns” means distinct and predictable sequences. The text indicates that although the flashes that fireflies produce appear to occur randomly—that is, without any particular sequence or rhythm—each species actually produces its own special series of flashes and pauses. Indeed, these series of flashes are so unique that fireflies can use them to find other members of their species. Therefore, this context supports the idea that fireflies produce flashes in distinct and recognizable patterns.

Choice A is incorrect because “quantities” means certain amounts or numbers of something. Although the text discusses how different firefly species produce flashes and pauses in unique sequences that help other members of their species to find them, it doesn’t mention the number of flashes that are used in these sequences. Choice B is incorrect because in this context, “decorations” would mean things that make an object more beautiful. Although it may be reasonable to say that firefly flashes are beautiful, the text focuses on the fact that fireflies use these unique sequences of flashes to find other members of their own species, not that the flashes make fireflies more beautiful. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, “agreements” would refer to deals that individuals have discussed and come to a consensus about. Since fireflies aren’t capable of making such agreements, it wouldn’t make sense to use this word to refer to the signals they send each other with their flashes.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID d6c77ae5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: d6c77ae5

 

Text 1

Astronomer Mark Holland and colleagues examined four white dwarfs—small, dense remnants of past stars—in order to determine the composition of exoplanets that used to orbit those stars. Studying wavelengths of light in the white dwarf atmospheres, the team reported that traces of elements such as lithium and sodium support the presence of exoplanets with continental crusts similar to Earth’s.

 

Text 2

Past studies of white dwarf atmospheres have concluded that certain exoplanets had continental crusts. Geologist Keith Putirka and astronomer Siyi Xu argue that those studies unduly emphasize atmospheric traces of lithium and other individual elements as signifiers of the types of rock found on Earth. The studies don’t adequately account for different minerals made up of various ratios of those elements, and the possibility of rock types not found on Earth that contain those minerals.

Based on the texts, how would Putirka and Xu (Text 2) most likely characterize the conclusion presented in Text 1?

  • As unexpected, because it was widely believed at the time that white dwarf exoplanets lack continental crusts

  • As premature, because researchers have only just begun trying to determine what kinds of crusts white dwarf exoplanets had

  • As questionable, because it rests on an incomplete consideration of potential sources of the elements detected in white dwarf atmospheres

  • As puzzling, because it’s unusual to successfully detect lithium and sodium when analyzing wavelengths of light in white dwarf atmospheres

ID: d6c77ae5 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it reflects how Putirka and Xu (Text 2) would likely characterize the conclusion presented in Text 1. Text 1 discusses a study by Mark Holland and colleagues in which they detected traces of lithium and sodium in the atmospheres of four white dwarf stars. The team claims that this supports the idea that exoplanets with continental crusts like Earth’s once orbited these stars. Text 2 introduces Putirka and Xu, who indicate that sodium and lithium are present in several different minerals and that some of those minerals might exist in types of rock that are not found on Earth. Therefore, Putirka and Xu would likely describe the conclusion in Text 1 as questionable because it does not consider that lithium and sodium are also found in rocks that are not like Earth’s continental crust.

Choice A is incorrect because the texts do not indicate how widely held any of the viewpoints described are. Choice B is incorrect because neither text discusses how new this area of study is. Choice D is incorrect because neither text discusses how likely lithium and sodium are to be detected by analyzing wavelengths of light. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 6d5ddea4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 6d5ddea4

According to Potawatomi ecologist Robin Wall Kimmerer, the Indigenous method of harvesting Hierochloe odorata, or sweetgrass, by snapping the plant off at the root actually blank wild populations: it may seem counterintuitive, she says, but this method of removal allows new sweetgrass plants to repopulate the space, with an overall increase in number and vigor.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • selects

  • originates

  • conditions

  • replenishes

ID: 6d5ddea4 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the Indigenous method of harvesting Hierochloe odorata. As used in this context, “replenishes” means helps increase the population or helps it recover. The text explains that although snapping off a wild plant at the root might seem detrimental to the wild population, it actually helps Hierochloe odorata, increasing both their “number and vigor.” This context conveys the idea that even though it seems counterintuitive, the Indigenous method of harvesting Hierochloe odorata actually replenishes the wild population.

Choice A is incorrect. Although a harvesting method could be used to select for certain traits in plants, it’s not clear what it would mean for a harvesting method to select “wild populations” of plants. Choice B is incorrect because as used in this context, “originates” means creates. The text doesn’t address the origin of Hierochloe odorata, but rather how the Indigenous harvesting method affects it. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, “conditions” means to influence someone or something to behave in a certain way, and the text doesn’t suggest the new plants that replace the harvested ones differ in any meaningful way, or in any way that could be the result of conditioning.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID df46a2ee

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: df46a2ee

The following text is from Joseph Conrad’s 1907 novel The Secret Agent: A Simple Tale. Mr. Verloc is navigating the London streets on his way to a meeting.

Before reaching Knightsbridge, Mr. Verloc took a turn to the left out of the busy main thoroughfare, uproarious with the traffic of swaying omnibuses and trotting vans, in the almost silent, swift flow of hansoms [horse-drawn carriages]. Under his hat, worn with a slight backward tilt, his hair had been carefully brushed into respectful sleekness; for his business was with an Embassy. And Mr. Verloc, steady like a rock—a soft kind of rock—marched now along a street which could with every propriety be described as private.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined phrase in the text as a whole?

  • It qualifies an earlier description of Mr. Verloc.

  • It emphasizes an internal struggle Mr. Verloc experiences. 

  • It contrasts Mr. Verloc with his surroundings.

  • It reveals a private opinion Mr. Verloc holds. 

ID: df46a2ee Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The underline phrase qualifies (meaning adds limits or conditions to) the description of Mr. Verloc as “steady like a rock,” adding that he is a “soft” rock.

Choice B is incorrect. In fact, the passage never mentions Mr. Verloc experiencing any internal struggles. Choice C is incorrect. The underlined phrase doesn’t contrast Mr. Verloc with his surroundings, but is instead modifying the description of him as a rock. Choice D is incorrect. The underlined phrase doesn’t reveal a private opinion Mr. Verloc holds: instead, it further describes his character for the reader.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 5a278f24

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 5a278f24

The work of molecular biophysicist Enrique M. De La Cruz is known for blank traditional boundaries between academic disciplines. The university laboratory that De La Cruz runs includes engineers, biologists, chemists, and physicists, and the research the lab produces makes use of insights and techniques from all those fields.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • epitomizing

  • transcending

  • anticipating

  • reinforcing

ID: 5a278f24 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. Based on the text, we’re looking for a word that means something similar to "mak[ing] use of insights and techniques from all those fields." "Transcending" means "going beyond," so "transcending traditional boundaries" would mean crossing into all those various fields of research, which is exactly the meaning we want.

Choice A is incorrect. This isn’t a logical word choice. Based on the text, we’re looking for a word that means something similar to "mak[ing] use of insights and techniques from all those fields." To "epitomize" means to "be a perfect example of," so "epitomizing traditional boundaries" would mean the opposite of what we want: keeping the fields of research separate. Choice C is incorrect. This isn’t a logical word choice. Based on the text, we’re looking for a word that means something similar to "mak[ing] use of insights and techniques from all those fields." "Anticipating" means "expecting" or "waiting for," and would result in a confusing sentence with an unclear meaning. Choice D is incorrect. This isn’t a logical word choice. Based on the text, we’re looking for a word that means something similar to "mak[ing] use of insights and techniques from all those fields." "Reinforcing traditional boundaries" would mean the opposite: keeping the fields of research separate.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 76e4c51d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 76e4c51d

The güiro, a musical instrument traditionally made from a dried and hollowed gourd, is thought to have originated with the Taíno people of Puerto Rico. Players use a wooden stick to scrape along ridges cut into the side of the gourd, creating sounds that are highly blank: the sounds produced by güiros can differ based on the distance between the ridges, the types of strokes the player uses, and the thickness of the gourd.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • overlooked

  • powerful

  • routine

  • variable

ID: 76e4c51d Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the sounds made by güiros. In this context, “variable” means able to change. The text begins by explaining that güiros are instruments made out of hollowed gourds with ridges cut into their sides and that players scrape the ridges with wooden sticks to produce sounds. The text goes on to say that güiros’ sounds can change depending on gourd thickness, the distance between ridges, and the types of strokes the player uses, thus supporting the idea that the sounds created by these instruments are variable.

Choice A is incorrect because “overlooked” means not being seen or noticed, and there is nothing in the text to suggest that the sounds produced by güiros are overlooked or not noticed. Choice B is incorrect because in this context, “powerful” would mean having a great ability to produce an effect. While it’s possible that the sounds produced by güiros have a strong effect on listeners, the text doesn’t discuss this aspect of their sounds. Choice C is incorrect because “routine” means usual and unvarying, and there is nothing in the text to suggest that the sounds produced by güiros are unvarying. In fact, the text describes how the sounds produced by güiros can differ based on several factors. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 4b8244ca

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 4b8244ca

One challenge of generating electricity from ocean waves is that wave power isn’t blank: it varies in unpredictable ways that pose technological and planning problems for electricity generation. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • accidental

  • confident

  • expensive

  • consistent

ID: 4b8244ca Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the challenge of generating electricity from ocean waves. In this context, "consistent" means steady or unchanging over time. The text introduces a challenge and then explains that wave power varies, or changes, unpredictably in ways that cause problems for electricity generation. This context conveys that the challenge being described is a lack of consistency.

Choice A is incorrect because the text introduces a challenge and then elaborates on it by emphasizing that the unpredictable nature of variations in ocean waves causes problems, which doesn’t indicate that wave power isn’t "accidental," or isn’t happening unintentionally. It wouldn’t make sense to describe waves—a natural occurrence—as happening intentionally. Choice B is incorrect because "confident" means having a feeling of self-assurance, and it wouldn’t make sense to describe wave power itself in terms of either having or lacking a sense of confidence. Choice C is incorrect because the text introduces a challenge and then elaborates on it by emphasizing that the unpredictable nature of variations in ocean waves causes problems, which doesn’t indicate that wave power isn’t "expensive," or isn’t costly. If anything, technological and planning problems might actually increase the expense of generating electricity from waves.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID a2835734

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: a2835734

Visual artist Gabriela Alemán states that the bold colors of comics, pop art, and Latinx culture have always fascinated her. This passion for the rich history and colors of her Latinx community translates into the blank artworks she produces.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • vivid

  • unknown

  • definite

  • reserved

ID: a2835734 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. "Vivid" can mean "colorful" or "bright-colored." This definition fits the context clues about Alemán’s fascination with and passion for bold colors.

Choice B is incorrect. This doesn’t fit the logic of the text. Nothing in the text indicates that Alemán’s artworks are "unknown." Choice C is incorrect. This doesn’t fit the logic of the text. "Definite" means "certain" or "decided." It wouldn’t make sense to describe artwork as "definite." Choice D is incorrect. This doesn’t fit the logic of the text. "Reserved" can either mean "slow to reveal emotions" or "booked." But the clues suggest that Alemán’s artworks are boldly colorful—almost the opposite of "reserved."

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID ff97fd53

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: ff97fd53

In 1973, poet Miguel Algarín started inviting other writers who, like him, were Nuyorican—a term for New Yorkers of Puerto Rican heritage—to gather in his apartment to present their work. The gatherings were so well attended that Algarín soon had to rent space in a cafe to accommodate them. Thus, the Nuyorican Poets Cafe was born. Moving to a permanent location in 1981, the Nuyorican Poets Cafe expanded its original scope beyond the written word, hosting art exhibitions and musical performances as well. Half a century since its inception, it continues to foster emerging Nuyorican talent.

Which choice best describes the overall purpose of the text?

  • To explain what motivated Algarín to found the Nuyorican Poets Cafe

  • To situate the Nuyorican Poets Cafe within the cultural life of New York as a whole

  • To discuss why the Nuyorican Poets Cafe expanded its scope to include art and music

  • To provide an overview of the founding and mission of the Nuyorican Poets Cafe

ID: ff97fd53 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The text presents a brief history of the Nuyorican Poets Cafe, from how it got started in the ’70s, to its expansion in the ’80s, to its ongoing mission today.

Choice A is incorrect. This isn’t the overall purpose. The text never mentions Algarín’s motivations. Choice B is incorrect. This isn’t the overall purpose. The text never discusses the cultural life of New York as a whole. Choice C is incorrect. This is too narrow. One sentence mentions that the Nuyorican Poets Cafe expanded its scope to include art and music, but this is only one point in the broader history of the Nuyorican Poets Cafe, which is the overall focus of the text.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID c61a7c4a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: c61a7c4a

Some studies have suggested that posture can influence cognition, but we should not overstate this phenomenon. A case in point: In a 2014 study, Megan O’Brien and Alaa Ahmed had subjects stand or sit while making risky simulated economic decisions. Standing is more physically unstable and cognitively demanding than sitting; accordingly, O’Brien and Ahmed hypothesized that standing subjects would display more risk aversion during the decision-making tasks than sitting subjects did, since they would want to avoid further feelings of discomfort and complicated risk evaluations. But O’Brien and Ahmed actually found no difference in the groups’ performance. 

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • It argues that research findings about the effects of posture on cognition are often misunderstood, as in the case of O’Brien and Ahmed’s study.

  • It presents the study by O’Brien and Ahmed to critique the methods and results reported in previous studies of the effects of posture on cognition. 

  • It explains a significant problem in the emerging understanding of posture’s effects on cognition and how O’Brien and Ahmed tried to solve that problem. 

  • It discusses the study by O’Brien and Ahmed to illustrate why caution is needed when making claims about the effects of posture on cognition. 

ID: c61a7c4a Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text. The text notes that although some studies have suggested that posture may have an effect on cognition, this phenomenon should not be overstated. In other words, the text begins by urging caution and restraint when discussing the effects of posture on cognition, implying that even though some studies have shown posture to affect cognition, we should not assume that posture always affects cognition or does so in a strong way. The text goes on to discuss O’Brien and Ahmed’s study as a "case in point" (that is, as an example of the point made previously). According to the text, O’Brien and Ahmed hypothesized that since standing is more cognitively demanding than sitting, standing subjects in their experiment would respond differently to decision-making tasks than sitting subjects would, which would show an effect of posture on cognition. What the researchers actually found, however, was that the standing and sitting subjects performed the same—posture did not affect cognition. By presenting a circumstance in which posture does not appear to affect cognition, the discussion of O’Brien and Ahmed’s study shows why it is important not to overstate the phenomenon. The purpose of the text, therefore, is to discuss O’Brien and Ahmed’s study to illustrate why caution is needed when making claims about posture’s effects on cognition.

Choice A is incorrect because the text discusses O’Brien and Ahmed’s study as an example of why caution is needed when discussing posture’s effects on cognition, not as an example of how research findings related to posture and cognition are often misunderstood. Although the text does warn against misunderstanding the scope of the relationship between posture and cognition that has been reported in some previous studies, O’Brien and Ahmed’s study is not one of those studies, and there is no suggestion that anyone has misunderstood O’Brien and Ahmed’s findings. Choice B is incorrect because the text makes no mention of the methods used in previous studies of the effects of posture on cognition. Although the text does urge caution when discussing posture’s effects on cognition, it does not critique the results of studies that suggested that posture can affect cognition. Instead, the text suggests that such results should not be exaggerated or taken too broadly. Choice C is incorrect because although the text implies that overstating posture’s effects on cognition would be a problem, nothing in the text suggests that O’Brien and Ahmed share that view or that they attempted to solve that problem. O’Brien and Ahmed are presented as hypothesizing that posture would affect cognition in their study, not as trying to resolve the problem the text describes.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 37219ba2

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 37219ba2

The following text is from John Muir’s 1913 autobiography The Story of My Boyhood and Youth. Muir describes being on a boat.

The water was so clear that it was almost invisible, and when we floated slowly out over the plants and fishes, we seemed to be miraculously sustained in the air while exploring a veritable fairyland.

As used in the text, what does the word “clear” most nearly mean?

  • Simple

  • Understandable

  • Obvious

  • Transparent

ID: 37219ba2 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because as used in the text, "clear" most nearly means transparent, or see-through. Muir states that the water beneath the boat "was so clear that it was almost invisible," suggesting that those on the boat were able to see through the water and easily observe plants and fish below the surface.

Choice A is incorrect. In some contexts "clear" can mean "simple," or uncomplicated, but Muir is describing the water, and water isn’t typically described as either simple or complicated. Muir emphasizes the water’s transparency, not its simplicity. Choice B is incorrect. In some contexts "clear" can mean "understandable," or reasonable or easily comprehended, but Muir is describing the water, and it doesn’t make much sense to describe water as understandable. Muir emphasizes the water’s transparency, not how easily the water can be understood. Choice C is incorrect. Although "clear" can mean "obvious," or easily seen or understood, in some contexts, Muir’s description emphasizes that the water "was almost invisible" and that the boat seemed to be "sustained in the air," suggesting that the water was almost impossible to see, not that it was obvious.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID a2f64e58

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: a2f64e58

Individual elephants and Arctic herbivores such as caribou tend to have fixed geographic ranges throughout their lifetimes, which had prompted some researchers to speculate that the Arctic woolly mammoth, an extinct elephantid, might have exhibited similar behavior. Mammoth tusks grew in sequential layers, incorporating ingested minerals and organics, and so each ivory stratum reflects the ratio of strontium isotopes (87Sr/86Sr) in the local environment; thus, the sequence of strata shows where the animal roamed during life. Recent analysis of the strontium ratios in the strata of one Arctic woolly mammoth tusk in relation to the geographic distribution of strontium ratios in the environment shows the animal’s range begin to expand as it reached sexual maturity, only to contract again in its final 1.5 years.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined statement in the text as a whole?

  • It discusses a characteristic shared by certain animals in order to explain why researchers raised a possibility that turned out not to be supported by data described later in the text.

  • It illustrates a pattern of behavior among certain animals in order to present a theory about exceptions to that pattern that is weakened by a finding described later in the text.

  • It describes a similarity in the behavior of certain animals in order to show why a method described later in the text did not reveal whether another animal also showed that behavior.

  • It introduces a trait shared by certain animals in order to contextualize a hypothesis about the origin of that trait that is advanced later in the text.

ID: a2f64e58 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined statement functions in the text as a whole. The underlined statement mentions a category of animals that have a feature in common: they tend to have fixed geographic ranges throughout their lifetimes. The text then presents the speculation of some researchers that the Arctic woolly mammoth might also share this characteristic. However, an examination of the content of strontium in the strata (or layers) of a woolly mammoth tusk indicated that contrary to the researchers’ hypothesis, the mammoth had an expanding range in its environment that contracted in its last 1.5 years of life. Thus, the underlined statement discusses a characteristic shared by certain animals in order to explain why researchers raised a possibility that turned out not to be supported by data described later in the text.

Choice B is incorrect. Though the underlined statement presents a pattern of behavior (the habit of certain animals of staying within a fixed geographic range), the rest of the text does not present a theory of exceptions to that pattern; rather, the researchers are merely concerned with whether one particular animal has behavior consistent with the pattern. Choice C is incorrect. Though the underlined statement does describe a similarity in the behavior of certain animals (their tendency to stay within a fixed geographic range), this is not done in order to show why a method described later in the text failed to show whether another animal showed that behavior; rather, the method of analysis of strata of a woolly mammoth tusk showed that the mammoth’s behavior was different from that of the animals mentioned in the underlined statement. Choice D is incorrect. Though the underlined statement mentions a trait shared by a number of animals (their fixed geographic range), the rest of the text does not present a hypothesis regarding the origin of that trait; rather, the researchers are concerned with whether another particular animal shares that trait.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID e26d23c4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: e26d23c4

Proposals to raise the age at which retirees begin receiving government transfers of funds are generally discussed in terms of the effects on transfer recipients, but Andria Smythe has argued that delaying such transfers could blank wealth creation among working adults by lengthening the period in which they are providing financial support to their nonworking parents.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • stymie

  • compound

  • disparage

  • outstrip

ID: e26d23c4 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the consequences of raising the age at which retirees begin receiving government funds. The text indicates that raising the age for these funds is usually discussed in terms of effects on fund recipients but that Andria Smythe is instead considering the effects on working family members who care for retirees. Smythe notes that raising the age for the funds would increase the length of time retirees are dependent on financial assistance from working family members. This is suggested to have an effect on wealth creation for those workers, and most logically, that effect would be disadvantageous. Thus, "stymie," which means to prevent or greatly hinder, is the most logical choice in context.

Choice B is incorrect because in this context, "compound" would most nearly mean multiply or greatly enhance. The text indicates that raising the age at which retirees are eligible for government funds will increase the amount of time retirees are dependent on working family members for financial support. This would likely have a negative rather than a positive effect on wealth creation. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, "disparage" would most nearly mean criticize or defame. Nothing in the text suggests that raising the age at which retirees are eligible for government funds would defame wealth creation among working adults. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, "outstrip" would most nearly mean to exceed, and nothing in the text indicates that the financial support provided to retirees would exceed the amount of wealth these workers can create. The text does suggest that workers providing funds to retirees works against those workers’ wealth accumulation, but not that the support to retirees exceeds the workers’ accumulated wealth.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID acb852e7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: acb852e7

The following text is from the 1923 poem “Black Finger” by Angelina Weld Grimké, a Black American writer. A cypress is a type of evergreen tree.

I have just seen a most beautiful thing,
Slim and still,
 Against a gold, gold sky,
 A straight black cypress,
Sensitive,
Exquisite,
A black finger
Pointing upwards.
Why, beautiful still finger, are you black?
And why are you pointing upwards?

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • The speaker assesses a natural phenomenon, then questions the accuracy of her assessment.

  • The speaker describes a distinctive sight in nature, then ponders what meaning to attribute to that sight.

  • The speaker presents an outdoor scene, then considers a human behavior occurring within that scene.

  • The speaker examines her surroundings, then speculates about their influence on her emotional state.

ID: acb852e7 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately describes the overall structure of the text. First, the speaker describes observing a “most beautiful” sight: a tree (“black cypress”) standing out from the golden sky behind it, looking like a person’s finger “pointing upwards” and appearing “sensitive” and “exquisite.” Then the speaker wonders about the image’s meaning, asking why the finger is black and why it’s pointing upward. Thus, the text moves from the speaker’s description of a distinctive sight in nature to her pondering about what meaning to attribute to that sight.

Choice A is incorrect because the speaker assesses a natural sight—a “black cypress” tree standing “against a gold, gold sky” like a pointed finger—but doesn’t question the accuracy of her own assessment. Although she wonders why the finger, which is really a tree, is black and why it’s pointing, the speaker doesn’t suggest that her belief that the tree resembles a finger is wrong. Choice C is incorrect. Although the speaker describes seeing a “black cypress” tree standing “against a gold, gold sky” like a pointed finger, she wonders about that natural image (asking why the finger, which is really a tree, is black and why it’s pointing) and doesn’t give any indication that any people are present in the scene. Choice D is incorrect. Although the speaker examines and wonders about one thing in her surroundings—a “black cypress” tree standing “against a gold, gold sky” like a pointed finger—she doesn’t address her own emotional state or consider how it’s affected by her surroundings.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 98364791

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 98364791

In studying the use of external stimuli to reduce the itching sensation caused by an allergic histamine response, Louise Ward and colleagues found that while harmless applications of vibration or warming can provide a temporary distraction, such blank stimuli actually offer less relief than a stimulus that seems less benign, like a mild electric shock.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • deceptive

  • innocuous

  • novel

  • impractical

ID: 98364791 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Ward and colleagues’ findings. As used in this context, “innocuous” means mild or unharmful. The text describes the vibration and warming that Ward and colleagues used to alleviate itching as “harmless applications” and goes on to contrast these applications with another stimulus that actually offers more relief even though it seems to be stronger and “less benign.” This context conveys the idea that vibration and warming were innocuous stimuli. 

Choice A is incorrect because the text focuses on a distinction between harmless stimuli and those that seem to be less benign. Nothing in the text suggests that any of the treatments are “deceptive,” or misleading; indeed, even the less effective ones are described as offering some relief. Choice C is incorrect because the text focuses on the amount of relief from itching offered by harmless stimuli and those that seem to be less benign. The text doesn’t suggest that any of these stimuli are “novel,” or original and new; heat, vibration, and electricity aren’t new inventions. Choice D is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to describe an application of vibration or warming as “impractical,” or not suitable for use. The text indicates that these harmless applications are useful in that they offer at least some temporary relief.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID adc8ea28

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: adc8ea28

The fossil remains of the individual known as Oase 1, discovered in Romania in 2002, can help paleoanthropologists not only blank steps in the evolution of hominids but also illuminate the Pleistocene epoch generally, revealing important details about the time in which Oase 1 lived.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • exploit

  • discern

  • prioritize

  • yield

ID: adc8ea28 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the utility of the Oase 1 fossil to paleoanthropologists. As used in this context, "discern" means to detect or recognize something, especially something hidden or obscure. The text indicates that the Oase 1 fossil can help paleoanthropologists recognize patterns in the evolutionary process and shed light on ("illuminate") the period in which Oase 1 lived. Thus, the fossil will enable researchers to gain insights into, or discern, facts that are still not well understood.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, "exploit" would suggest that the paleoanthropologists are using "steps in the evolution of hominids," which does not make logical sense. Rather, the text is about how the Oase 1 fossil could help paleoanthropologists learn about hominid evolution and the Pleistocene epoch more generally. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, "prioritize" would suggest that either the paleoanthropologists are placing more importance on "steps in the evolution of hominids" than they are on something else not identified in the text or that they are placing these steps in some sort of order. Rather, the text is about how the Oase 1 fossil could help paleoanthropologists learn about hominid evolution and the Pleistocene epoch more generally. Choice D is incorrect because to say that paleoanthropologists could "yield" or generate "steps in the evolution of hominids" doesn’t make sense. The researchers may develop new insights into those evolutionary steps, but they do not create those steps themselves. Rather, the context makes it clear that they are detecting or discovering patterns based on their study of the Oase 1 fossil.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 9107ad5c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 9107ad5c

Stars form in cloudlike swirls of gas and dust that cannot be touched‚ but astrophysicist Nia Imara believes these formations need not remain completely blank to researchers: she uses simulation data and sophisticated 3D printers to produce interactive models of these stellar nurseries.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • repeatable

  • explicable

  • regrettable

  • intangible

ID: 9107ad5c Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of how Nia Imara facilitates the study of star formations. As used in this context "intangible" means unable to be physically handled or touched. The text states that star formations cannot be touched, and then goes on to explain that Imara created a special model to research star formations. In other words, despite the fact that real star formations are intangible, thanks to Imara, researchers can handle models of star formations to better understand them.

Choice A is incorrect because "repeatable" means can be duplicated or done again, which wouldn’t make sense in context. The text indicates that the swirls of gas and dust in which stars form are untouchable, but that Nia Imara has produced interactive models of them. It would therefore be illogical to suggest that Imara believes that the formations need not be duplicated and then go on to say that she has copied them. Choice B is incorrect because "explicable" means explainable or understandable, which wouldn’t make sense in context. The text does not suggest that Nia Imara believes that star formations can be fully explained but rather that she produced interactive models to physically study them because researchers are unable to touch them directly. Choice C is incorrect because "regrettable" means distressing or unfortunate, which wouldn’t make sense in context. The text does not suggest that Imara believes the researchers regret the star formations or find them distressing, but rather that she uses interactive models to physically study them.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID aa5897b8

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: aa5897b8

In Jane Austen’s novel Mansfield Park, an almost imperceptible smile from potential suitor Henry Crawford causes the protagonist Fanny Price to blush; her embarrassment grows when she suspects that he is aware of it. This moment—in which Fanny not only infers Henry’s mental state through his gestures, but also infers that he is drawing inferences about her mental state—illustrates what literary scholar George Butte calls “deep intersubjectivity,” a technique for representing interactions between consciousnesses through which Austen’s novels derive much of their social and psychological drama.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • It states a claim about Austen’s skill at representing psychological complexity that is reinforced by an example presented in the following sentence. 

  • It advances an interpretation of an Austen protagonist who is contrasted with protagonists from other Austen novels cited in the following sentence. 

  • It describes a recurring theme in Austen’s novels that is the focus of a literary scholar’s analysis summarized in the following sentence. 

  • It provides a synopsis of an interaction in an Austen novel that illustrates a literary concept discussed in the following sentence. 

ID: aa5897b8 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The underlined sentence provides a concrete example to ground readers’ understanding of the “deep intersubjectivity” described in the next sentence as central to Austen’s work.

Choice A is incorrect. There is no evaluation made of Austen’s skill in this sentence, and no examples are given in the following sentence. This choice essentially flips the paragraph: it’s this first sentence that provides an example. Choice B is incorrect. There are no other Austen protagonists mentioned in this passage, so this couldn’t be the answer. Choice C is incorrect. The underlined sentence doesn’t identify any “recurring theme,” but instead simply describes one interaction from one book. This interaction exemplifies the literary technique of “deep intersubjectivity” that is introduced in the next sentence.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID a4ca92fd

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: a4ca92fd

Beginning in the 1950s, Navajo Nation legislator Annie Dodge Wauneka continuously worked to promote public health; this blank effort involved traveling throughout the vast Navajo homeland and writing a medical dictionary for speakers of Diné bizaad, the Navajo language.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • impartial

  • offhand

  • persistent

  • mandatory

ID: a4ca92fd Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Annie Dodge Wauneka’s work as a Navajo Nation legislator. As used in this context, “persistent” means existing continuously. The text states that Wauneka “continuously worked to promote public health,” traveling extensively and authoring a medical dictionary; this indicates that Wauneka’s effort was persistent.

Choice A is incorrect because describing Wauneka’s effort related to public health as “impartial,” or not partial or biased and treating all things equally, wouldn’t make sense in context. The text suggests that Wauneka’s continuous work was partial in one way, as she focused specifically on promoting public health throughout the Navajo homeland and to speakers of the Navajo language. Choice B is incorrect because the text emphasizes that Wauneka’s effort to promote public health as a Navajo Nation legislator was continuous and extensive, involving wide travels and the authoring of a medical dictionary. Because this work clearly involved care and dedication, it wouldn’t make sense to describe it as “offhand,” or casual and informal. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that Wauneka’s effort to promote public health was “mandatory,” or required by law or rule, even though Wauneka was a Navajo Nation legislator. Rather than suggesting that Wauneka’s effort was required for any reason, the text emphasizes the continuous and extensive nature of her work.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 8de51658

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 8de51658

Text 1

The idea that time moves in only one direction is instinctively understood, yet it puzzles physicists. According to the second law of thermodynamics, at a macroscopic level some processes of heat transfer are irreversible due to the production of entropy—after a transfer we cannot rewind time and place molecules back exactly where they were before, just as we cannot unbreak dropped eggs. But laws of physics at a microscopic or quantum level hold that those processes should be reversible.

 

Text 2

In 2015, physicists Tiago Batalhão et al. performed an experiment in which they confirmed the irreversibility of thermodynamic processes at a quantum level, producing entropy by applying a rapidly oscillating magnetic field to a system of carbon-13 atoms in liquid chloroform. But the experiment “does not pinpoint ... what causes [irreversibility] at the microscopic level,” coauthor Mauro Paternostro said.

Based on the texts, what would the author of Text 1 most likely say about the experiment described in Text 2?

  • It would suggest an interesting direction for future research were it not the case that two of the physicists who conducted the experiment disagree on the significance of its findings.

  • It provides empirical evidence that the current understanding of an aspect of physics at a microscopic level must be incomplete.

  • It is consistent with the current understanding of physics at a microscopic level but not at a macroscopic level.

  • It supports a claim about an isolated system of atoms in a laboratory, but that claim should not be extrapolated to a general claim about the universe.

ID: 8de51658 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. Author 1 describes the puzzle that physicists still can’t solve: at a microscopic level, the “laws of physics” suggest that we should be able to reverse processes that are not reversible at a macroscopic level (and, maybe, turn back time!). The experiment confirmed that those processes are not reversible even on the microscopic level, but it didn’t explain why. This supports Author 1’s point that physicists still don’t fully understand how things work at a microscopic level—maybe the laws need to be revised.

Choice A is incorrect. We can’t infer that the author of Text 1 would respond this way to the experiment. Text 2 does name two of the physicists involved in the experiment, but it never suggests that they disagree on anything. Choice C is incorrect. This is the opposite of what the experiment suggests. The experiment confirmed that the macroscopic-level law (“these things can’t be reversed—like time”) was still true on the microscopic level—meaning it supports the current understanding of physics at a macroscopic level. Choice D is incorrect. We can’t infer that the author of Text 1 would respond this way to the experiment. Neither text makes this distinction between laboratory findings and the way the universe works in general.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID e0656211

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: e0656211

In Nature Poem (2017), Kumeyaay poet Tommy Pico portrays his blank the natural world by honoring the centrality of nature within his tribe’s traditional beliefs while simultaneously expressing his distaste for being in wilderness settings himself.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • responsiveness to

  • ambivalence toward

  • renunciation of

  • mastery over

ID: e0656211 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s description of how Pico feels about the natural world. In this context, to say that Pico portrays his “ambivalence toward” nature would mean that he portrays his mixed feelings about nature. The text explains that Pico “honors the centrality of nature” and also makes it clear that he doesn’t enjoy being in nature. This context suggests that Pico feels ambivalence toward nature.

Choice A is incorrect because saying that Pico portrays his “responsiveness to” nature would mean that he portrays himself as quick to react to nature, which isn’t supported by the text. Instead, the text focuses on Pico’s mixed feelings toward nature, describing him as both honoring nature’s role in his tribe’s beliefs and expressing his personal dislike for being in nature. Choice C is incorrect because saying that Pico portrays his “renunciation of” nature would mean that he portrays himself as rejecting nature, which isn’t supported by the text. The text conveys that Pico demonstrates both positive and negative responses toward nature, not that he’s giving it up completely. Choice D is incorrect because saying that Pico portrays his “mastery over” nature would mean that he portrays himself as having control over nature, which isn’t supported by the text. The text focuses on Pico’s mixed feelings about nature; nothing in the text suggests that Pico feels mastery over nature.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID d91e5499

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: d91e5499

A team of paleontologists has found a rich fossil deposit near Gulgong, Australia. The fossils are so well preserved that the team has been able to blank detailed information about the life forms that left them behind, such as color patterns and how they interacted with other species. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • occupy

  • hoard

  • reserve

  • obtain

ID: d91e5499 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the fossil deposit. In this context, "obtain" means gain or acquire. According to the text, a team of paleontologists has found fossils that are very well preserved. For this reason, the text suggests, the paleontologists have been able to gain detailed information from the fossils, such as the color patterns of the life forms that left them behind.

Choice A is incorrect because "occupy" means engage or inhabit, neither of which would make sense in context. It’s unclear what it would mean for detailed information revealed by fossils to be engaged or inhabited. Choice B is incorrect because the text gives no indication that the paleontologists wanted to "hoard," or collect and hide, the detailed information revealed by the well-preserved fossils. Choice C is incorrect because the text gives no indication that the paleontologists wanted to "reserve," or withhold, the detailed information revealed by the well-preserved fossils.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 9421ed62

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 9421ed62

In 2007, computer scientist Luis von Ahn was working on converting printed books into a digital format. He found that some words were distorted enough that digital scanners couldn’t recognize them, but most humans could easily read them. Based on that finding, von Ahn invented a simple security test to keep automated “bots” out of websites. The first version of the reCAPTCHA test asked users to type one known word and one of the many words scanners couldn’t recognize. Correct answers proved the users were humans and added data to the book-digitizing project.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To discuss von Ahn’s invention of reCAPTCHA

  • To explain how digital scanners work

  • To call attention to von Ahn’s book-digitizing project

  • To indicate how popular reCAPTCHA is

ID: 9421ed62 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states the main purpose of the text. After providing a brief introduction to computer scientist Luis von Ahn, the text focuses on discussing how von Ahn’s digitization work led to the invention of a digital security test known as reCAPTCHA.

Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t address how digital scanners work. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text mentions von Ahn’s book-digitizing project, that information is provided as a detail, not as the main purpose of the text. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t provide any indication of reCAPTCHA’s popularity; instead, it describes reCAPTCHA’s origin.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 059f7201

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 059f7201

 

Text 1

Graphic novels are increasingly popular in bookstores and libraries, but they shouldn’t be classified as literature. By definition, literature tells a story or conveys meaning through language only; graphic novels tell stories through illustrations and use language only sparingly, in captions and dialogue. Graphic novels are experienced as series of images and not as language, making them more similar to film than to literature.

 

Text 2

Graphic novels present their stories through both language and images. Without captions and dialogue, readers would be unable to understand what is depicted in the illustrations: the story results from the interaction of text and image. Moreover, Alison Bechdel’s Fun Home and many other graphic novels feature text that is as beautifully written as the prose found in many standard novels. Therefore, graphic novels qualify as literary texts.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely respond to the overall argument presented in Text 1?

  • By asserting that language plays a more important role in graphic novels than the author of Text 1 recognizes

  • By acknowledging that the author of Text 1 has identified a flaw that is common to all graphic novels

  • By suggesting that the story lines of certain graphic novels are more difficult to understand than the author of Text 1 claims

  • By agreeing with the author of Text 1 that most graphic novels aren’t as well crafted as most literary works are

ID: 059f7201 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states how the author of Text 2 would most likely respond to the argument presented in Text 1. In arguing that graphic novels shouldn’t be classified as literature and are more comparable to film, Text 1 claims that language plays a relatively limited role in graphic novels: images, not language, are the primary means by which graphic novels tell their stories, and language is used "only sparingly"—that is, comparatively very little—in the form of captions and dialogue. However, the author of Text 2 asserts that language in graphic novels is as equally vital for conveying meaning as images are, since without captions and dialogue, readers wouldn’t be able to make sense of the narrative. Moreover, the author of Text 2 argues that there are many graphic novels that are "beautifully written" and whose use of language is as accomplished as any standard novel. Because Text 1 argues that language is subordinate to images in graphic novels, whereas Text 2 highlights how language is an essential component of a graphic novel’s storytelling, it can reasonably be inferred that the author of Text 2 would say that language plays a more important role in graphic novels than the author of Text 1 recognizes.

Choice B is incorrect. Although Text 1 indicates that graphic novels shouldn’t be classified as literature based on their limited use of language, there’s no indication that the author of Text 1 considers this limited use of language as a flaw, just that it doesn’t fit the particular definition of "literature" proposed in the text. Even if Text 1 had suggested that their use of language was a common flaw of graphic novels, the author of Text 2 emphasizes how many graphic novels are "beautifully written," and would therefore say that their use of language is exemplary, not that it is flawed. Choice C is incorrect because Text 1 doesn’t claim that the story lines of graphic novels are generally relatively easy to understand; in addition, Text 2 argues that given their dependence on the interaction of image and text, the stories of graphic novels would be incomprehensible if their captions and dialogue were removed, not that the story lines of some graphic novels are more difficult to understand than Text 1 acknowledges. Choice D is incorrect because the author of Text 1 doesn’t imply that graphic novels aren’t well crafted, only that they use language too sparingly to fit the definition of "literature," and that their use of images to convey stories makes them more comparable to film than to literature. Even if the author of Text 1 had implied that most graphic novels aren’t well crafted, Text 2 refers to the fact that many graphic novels are as beautifully written—that is, well crafted—as many standard novels; thus, it wouldn’t be accurate to say that the author of Text 2 would agree with the author of Text 1 that most graphic novels aren’t well crafted.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID c502943e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: c502943e

The following text is adapted from Cynthia Kadohata’s 2004 novel Kira-Kira.

[Uncle Katsuhisa] was as loud as my father was quiet. Even when he wasn’t talking, he made a lot of noise, clearing his throat and sniffing and tapping his fingers.

©2004 by Cynthia Kadohata

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence?

  • It lists the kinds of topics Uncle Katsuhisa enjoys discussing.

  • It suggests that Uncle Katsuhisa dislikes meeting new people.

  • It contrasts Uncle Katsuhisa with the narrator’s father.

  • It describes a conversation between the narrator and the narrator’s father. 

ID: c502943e Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. The underlined sentence establishes a difference between Uncle Katsuhisa and the narrator’s father by describing Uncle Katsuhisa as "loud" and the narrator’s father as "quiet." The text then elaborates on that contrast, describing some ways Uncle Katsuhisa is very noisy even when he isn’t speaking.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate what kinds of topics Uncle Katsuhisa enjoys discussing, only that he is loud even when he isn’t speaking. Choice B is incorrect because the text never indicates how Uncle Katsuhisa feels about meeting new people, only how loud he is. Choice D is incorrect because the text never describes a conversation occurring between any people; it refers to talking only when stating that Uncle Katsuhisa is loud even when he isn’t speaking.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 7d84fe2b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 7d84fe2b

Particle physicists like Ayana Holloway Arce and Aida El-Khadra spend much of their time blank what is invisible to the naked eye: using sophisticated technology, they closely examine the behavior of subatomic particles, the smallest detectable parts of matter.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • selecting

  • inspecting

  • creating

  • deciding

ID: 7d84fe2b Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the work of particle physicists. In this context, “inspecting” means viewing closely in order to examine. The text indicates that as particle physicists, Arce and El-Khadra’s work involves using advanced technology to “closely examine” subatomic particles. In other words, they use technology to inspect small parts of matter that can’t be seen by the naked eye.

Choice A is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that Arce and El-Khadra spend time “selecting,” or choosing, subatomic particles for some purpose; the text simply states that the particle physicists use advanced technology to see and study the behavior of those tiny parts of matter. Choice C is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that Arce and El-Khadra spend time “creating” subatomic particles, or bringing them into existence; the text simply states that the particle physicists use advanced technology to see and study the behavior of those tiny parts of matter. Choice D is incorrect. In this context, “deciding” would mean making a final choice or judgment about something. It wouldn’t make sense to say that particle physicists get to choose what is and isn’t visible to the naked eye, especially when the text presents it as fact that subatomic particles are “the smallest detectable parts of matter” and would therefore be invisible. The text focuses on Arce and El-Khadra’s close observation of those particles, not on any decisions they might make. 

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID d2eb1df1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: d2eb1df1

In recommending Bao Phi’s collection Sông I Sing, a librarian noted that pieces by the spoken-word poet don’t lose their blank nature when printed: the language has the same pleasant musical quality on the page as it does when performed by Phi.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • scholarly

  • melodic

  • jarring

  • personal

ID: d2eb1df1 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. Based on the text, we’re looking for a word that means something similar to “pleasant musical quality.” That’s exactly what “melodic” means.

Choice A is incorrect. This isn’t a logical word choice. Based on the text, we’re looking for a word that means something similar to “pleasant musical quality.” “Scholarly” would suggest something that is academic or well-researched, which doesn’t match the meaning we’re looking for. Choice C is incorrect. This isn’t a logical word choice. Based on the text, we’re looking for a word that means something similar to “pleasant musical quality.” “Jarring” would suggest the opposite: something unpleasant or discordant. Choice D is incorrect. This isn’t a logical word choice. Based on the text, we’re looking for a word that means something similar to “pleasant musical quality.” “Personal” would suggest something that is expressive or intimate, which doesn’t match the meaning we’re looking for.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID be94c9fc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: be94c9fc

The following text is adapted from James Baldwin’s 1956 novel Giovanni’s Room. The narrator is riding in a taxi down a street lined with food vendors and shoppers in Paris, France.

The multitude of Paris seems to be dressed in blue every day but Sunday, when, for the most part, they put on an unbelievably festive black. Here they were now, in blue, disputing, every inch, our passage, with their wagons, handtrucks, their bursting baskets carried at an angle steeply self-confident on the back.

©1956 by James Baldwin

As used in the text, what does the word “disputing” most nearly mean?

  • Arguing about

  • Disapproving of

  • Asserting possession of

  • Providing resistance to

ID: be94c9fc Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because as used in the text, "disputing" most nearly means providing resistance to. The narrator is in a taxi as it drives down a street lined with so many food vendors and shoppers that the narrator describes them as "the multitude of Paris," meaning an immense group of people. The street is essentially a large open-air market, and there are so many people pushing small wagons of goods and carrying shopping baskets that "every inch" of the taxi’s progress is impeded. In other words, the people are providing resistance to the taxi’s attempt to drive down the street.

Choice A is incorrect. Although in some contexts, "disputing" can mean arguing, the narrator doesn’t portray the shoppers and vendors as arguing with the driver of the taxi or, indeed, arguing at all. Choice B is incorrect. Although in some contexts, "disputing" can mean expressing disapproval, the narrator doesn’t suggest that the shoppers and vendors necessarily disapprove of the taxi’s attempt to drive down the street. Instead, their combined presence along the street has the effect of impeding the taxi’s progress. Choice C is incorrect because, as the narrator explains, both the multitude of people and the taxi are using a public space (a street) at the same time. The narrator doesn’t go so far as to suggest that the people feel that they, and not the taxi, possess exclusive access to the street.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID d72b325e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: d72b325e

Text 1

What factors influence the abundance of species in a given ecological community? Some theorists have argued that historical diversity is a major driver of how diverse an ecological community eventually becomes: differences in community diversity across otherwise similar habitats, in this view, are strongly affected by the number of species living in those habitats at earlier times. 

Text 2

In 2010, a group of researchers including biologist Carla Cáceres created artificial pools in a New York forest. They stocked some pools with a diverse mix of zooplankton species and others with a single zooplankton species and allowed the pool communities to develop naturally thereafter. Over the course of four years, Cáceres and colleagues periodically measured the species diversity of the pools, finding—contrary to their expectations—that by the end of the study there was little to no difference in the pools’ species diversity. 

Based on the texts, how would Cáceres and colleagues (Text 2) most likely describe the view of the theorists presented in Text 1?

  • It is largely correct, but it requires a minor refinement in light of the research team’s results.

  • It is not compelling as a theory regardless of any experimental data collected by the research team.

  • It may seem plausible, but it is not supported by the research team’s findings. 

  • It probably holds true only in conditions like those in the research team’s study.

ID: d72b325e Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. This is how Cáceres and co. would most likely describe the view presented in Text 1. The view in Text 1 is that historical diversity affects how diverse an ecological community eventually becomes. But Cáceres and co. did not get this result: they found no difference in eventual diversity between a zooplankton pool that started out diverse and a zooplankton pool that started out with only a single species.

Choice A is incorrect. Cáceres and co. would probably not describe the view presented in Text 1 this way. The view in Text 1 is that historical diversity affects how diverse an ecological community eventually becomes. Cáceres and co’s findings directly undermine this view: they found no difference in eventual diversity between a zooplankton pool that started out diverse and a zooplankton pool that started out with only a single species. Choice B is incorrect. Cáceres and co. would probably not describe the view presented in Text 1 this way. Their experiment was designed to test this hypothesis, and their findings were "contrary to their expectations." In other words, before the study, they predicted the theory was correct. Choice D is incorrect. Cáceres and co. would not describe the view presented in Text 1 this way. Their research finding directly undermines the view presented in Text 1: so it definitely doesn’t hold true in conditions like those in the study.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID cb526866

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: cb526866

The recent discovery of a carved wooden figure dating to around 2,000 years ago in a ditch in England was truly surprising. Wooden objects blank survive for so long due to their high susceptibility to rot, but archaeologists suspect layers of sediment in the ditch preserved the figure by creating an oxygen-free environment.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • sturdily

  • carelessly

  • rarely

  • simply

ID: cb526866 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the discovery of a carved wooden figure dating to around 2,000 years ago. In this context, “rarely” means infrequently. The text states that the discovery of the figure was “truly surprising” and notes that wooden objects are highly prone to rot. This context conveys the idea that wooden objects infrequently survive for as long as the carved figure has survived.

Choice A is incorrect because “sturdily” means strongly, which wouldn’t make sense in context. If wooden objects in general could strongly survive for long periods of time, then the discovery of a wooden figure that’s around 2,000 years old wouldn’t be surprising. Choice B is incorrect because “carelessly” means accidentally. The text conveys the idea that wooden objects in general don’t survive for very long because they rot, not that wooden objects in general accidentally survive despite this. Choice D is incorrect because the text conveys the idea that wooden objects in general don’t survive for very long because they rot, not that wooden objects in general “simply,” or merely, survive for long periods of time. If wooden objects in general could merely survive for as long as the figure has survived, then the discovery of the figure wouldn’t have been surprising.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 4b4ab04e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 4b4ab04e

Text 1

Mycoprotein is a fungal biomass that can be eaten as an alternative to meat. Studies of the environmental impact of its manufacture generally agree it is lower than that of beef and closer to that of chicken or pork. But the expense of producing mycoprotein restricts its availability to a few countries with postindustrial economies. Knowing that cost reductions would expand access to mycoprotein, biochemists are exploring solutions, such as a cheaper substrate to feed the mycoprotein as it grows.

 

Text 2

Cattle farming is a principal cause of global deforestation, and a study by Florian Humpenöder and his colleagues found that replacing 20% of beef consumption worldwide with consumption of mycoprotein would cut deforestation by half if accomplished over the next thirty years. However, this would likely involve only a small change in agricultural water consumption, since water once dedicated to raising cattle would be diverted to raising crops instead.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 1 most likely respond to the study findings mentioned in Text 2?

  • By emphasizing that since agricultural water consumption would remain static in the event of replacing beef consumption with mycoprotein consumption, an effort must be made to substitute mycoprotein for chicken and pork in diets as well

  • By asserting that the development of a more inexpensive substrate for mycoprotein production would contribute to the goal of decreasing worldwide deforestation over time

  • By noting that most people would be more likely to use mycoprotein as a substitute for chicken or pork in their diets than as a substitute for beef

  • By pointing out that some countries are responsible for greater deforestation than others and thus, to have any significant effect on the environment, will have to replace more than 20% of their beef consumption with mycoprotein

ID: 4b4ab04e Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it reflects how the author of Text 1 would most likely respond to the study findings described in Text 2. The author of Text 2 discusses a study by Florian Humpenöder and his colleagues that found that deforestation would be reduced by half over the next thirty years if 20% of the beef consumed worldwide were replaced with mycoprotein. The author of Text 1 points out that mycoprotein is not widely available because of its high production cost, but goes on to note that this problem could be addressed by the creation of a cheaper substrate to feed mycoprotein. This suggests that the author of Text 1 would assert that the development of a less expensive mycoprotein substrate would contribute to the reduction in deforestation described in the study findings discussed in Text 2: if reducing the cost of mycoprotein increases people’s access to it, then mycoprotein may be able to replace beef in more people’s diets, thereby reducing the deforestation associated with beef production.

Choice A is incorrect because the author of Text 1 indicates that the environmental impact of mycoprotein production is close to that of chicken or pork production, so there is no reason to think that the author would assert that replacing chicken or pork with mycoprotein would be environmentally beneficial: such a replacement would not lessen the total environmental impact of food manufacture. Additionally, the specific issue of agricultural water consumption is never mentioned in Text 1, so there is no evidence indicating what the author of Text 1 would say about that issue. Choice C is incorrect. Although Text 1 does compare the environmental effects of producing mycoprotein to those of producing chicken or pork, nothing in Text 1 suggests that the author believes that people are more likely to replace chicken or pork with mycoprotein than they are to replace beef with mycoprotein. Choice D is incorrect because Text 1 makes no mention of countries’ varying contributions to deforestation, so there is no evidence that the author of Text 1 would respond to the finding described in Text 2 by saying that some countries will have to replace more than 20% of their beef consumption with mycoprotein.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID fb8b56bc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: fb8b56bc

The following text is adapted from George Bernard Shaw’s 1912 play Pygmalion. Henry Higgins has just arrived at the house of his mother (Mrs. Higgins). She is expecting her friends to visit soon.

MRS. HIGGINS: I’m serious, Henry. You offend all my friends: they stop coming whenever they meet you.

HIGGINS: Nonsense! I know I have no small talk; but people don’t mind.

MRS. HIGGINS: Oh! don’t they? Small talk indeed! What about your large talk? Really, dear, you mustn’t stay.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To describe what Henry’s mother does when she goes out with her friends 

  • To show that Henry’s mother wants him to leave

  • To present a detailed account of what Henry’s home looks like

  • To explain why Henry often visits his mother

ID: fb8b56bc Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately states the main purpose of the text, which is to show that Henry’s mother, Mrs. Higgins, wants Henry to leave her house. In the text, Mrs. Higgins complains that Henry offends all her friends and that they stop coming when he’s also visiting. She then tells him directly, "you mustn’t stay." The overall exchange conveys Mrs. Higgins’s intention for Henry to leave so as not to drive away her friends with his behavior.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate what Henry’s mother does when she’s out with her friends. Instead, it focuses on what goes on when Henry and her friends visit her at the same time, indicating that since her friends find Henry’s company disagreeable, she wishes him to leave before they arrive. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t contain an account of what Henry’s home looks like. The setting is established as the house of Henry’s mother, and the dialogue focuses solely on her wish that Henry should depart before her friends arrive. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention how often Henry visits his mother nor does it provide any explanation for why he visits his mother. Instead, it indicates that she thinks her friends dislike Henry and that she therefore wants him to depart before they arrive.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 83687083

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 83687083

Due to their often strange images, highly experimental syntax, and opaque subject matter, many of John Ashbery’s poems can be quite difficult to blank and thus are the object of heated debate among scholars.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • delegate

  • compose

  • interpret

  • renounce

ID: 83687083 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of John Ashbery’s poems. As used in this context, “interpret” would mean decipher the meaning of. The text indicates that Ashbery’s poems have many unusual features, that it’s difficult to tell what exactly the poems’ subject matter is, and that scholars strongly disagree about the poems. This context conveys the idea that it’s difficult to interpret Ashbery’s poems. 

Choice A is incorrect because “delegate” means to assign someone as a representative of another person or to entrust something to someone else, neither of which would make sense in context. The text is focused only on the difficulty that readers have interpreting Ashbery’s poems due to their many unusual features; it doesn’t suggest anything about the poems being difficult to delegate. Choice B is incorrect because describing Ashbery’s poems as difficult to “compose,” or put together or produce, would make sense only if the text were about Ashbery’s experience of writing the poems. It could be true that it was difficult for Ashbery to compose his poems, but the text doesn’t address this; it instead discusses how readers interpret and engage with the poems. Choice D is incorrect because describing Ashbery’s poems as being difficult to “renounce,” or give up or refuse, wouldn’t make sense in context. The text focuses on the idea that features of Ashbery’s poems are odd or unclear and have caused heated scholarly debate. This context suggests that the poems are difficult to interpret, not that the poems are difficult to renounce.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 637d0878

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 637d0878

The Appalachian Trail is a hiking path in the eastern United States. Much of the 2,000 mile trail passes through wilderness areas. In order to blank those areas, the United States Congress passed the National Trails System Act in 1968, ensuring that the trail would not be sold or commercially developed.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • borrow

  • postpone

  • protect

  • decorate

ID: 637d0878 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. "Protect" means "preserve" or "keep safe from." By ensuring that the wilderness areas along the Appalachian Trail can’t be sold or developed, the National Trails System Act protects them.

Choice A is incorrect. "Borrow" means "to take something with intent to return it." The text doesn’t say anything about taking and returning the wilderness that surrounds the Appalachian Trail. Choice B is incorrect. "Postpone" means "to put off until later." Nothing in the passage suggests that Congress wants to "postpone" the wilderness areas (and that doesn’t make sense anyway—they can postpone doing something to the wilderness areas, but they can’t postpone the areas themselves). Choice D is incorrect. "Decorate" means "to adorn" or "add extra items or pictures to make more attractive." No details in the text suggest that Congress wishes to make the trail fancier or more attractive.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 39857700

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 39857700

The following text is from Edith Wharton’s 1905 novel The House of Mirth. Lily Bart and a companion are walking through a park.

Lily had no real intimacy with nature, but she had a passion for the appropriate and could be keenly sensitive to a scene which was the fitting background of her own sensations. The landscape outspread below her seemed an enlargement of her present mood, and she found something of herself in its calmness, its breadth, its long free reaches. On the nearer slopes the sugar-maples wavered like pyres of light; lower down was a massing of grey orchards, and here and there the lingering green of an oak-grove.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • It creates a detailed image of the physical setting of the scene.

  • It establishes that a character is experiencing an internal conflict.

  • It makes an assertion that the next sentence then expands on.

  • It illustrates an idea that is introduced in the previous sentence.

ID: 39857700 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it best describes how the underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence of the text establishes that Lily can be “keenly sensitive to” scenes that serve as a “fitting background” for her feelings—that is, she’s very aware of when a setting seems to reflect her mood. The next sentence, which is underlined, then demonstrates this awareness: Lily views the landscape she’s in as a large-scale reflection of her current mood, identifying with elements such as its calmness. Thus, the function of the underlined sentence is to illustrate an idea introduced in the previous sentence.

Choice A is incorrect because the underlined sentence describes the scene only in very general terms, referring to its calmness, breadth, and long stretches of land. It’s the next sentence that adds specific details about colors, light, and various trees nearby. Choice B is incorrect because nothing in the underlined sentence suggests that Lily is experiencing an internal conflict. In fact, the sentence indicates that Lily thinks the landscape reflects her own feeling of calmness. Choice C is incorrect because the only assertion in the underlined sentence is that Lily feels that broad aspects of the landscape, such as its calmness, reflect her current mood, and that assertion isn’t expanded on in the next sentence. Instead, the next sentence describes specific details of the scene without connecting them to Lily’s feelings.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID ed52a093

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Easy
ID: ed52a093

Text 1

Flamingos are known for their vibrant pink coloring, but they’re actually born with gray feathers. Their pink color comes from eating brine shrimp, but brine shrimp aren’t naturally pink either. Animals can’t produce carotenoids, the pigments that provide the pink hue. The algae that brine shrimp feed on, however, can produce these pigments. Thus, the pinker the flamingo, the more shrimp it has eaten.

 

Text 2

Ecologist Juan Amat has found that flamingos apply a kind of makeup to make themselves appear pinker. A gland near their tail contains pigments that come from the food they eat. When the flamingos groom themselves using the pigments, their feathers become pinker. Flamingos may do this to improve their success during mating season, when they would benefit from looking pinker.

Based on the texts, how would the ecologist in Text 2 most likely respond to the author’s conclusion in Text 1?

  • By emphasizing that flamingos’ tail feathers are pinker than their other feathers are

  • By claiming that the coloring of flamingos’ feathers doesn’t change significantly enough for most observers to notice

  • By pointing out that the amount of shrimp eaten isn’t the only thing that influences flamingos’ coloring

  • By arguing that flamingos’ diet doesn’t include much shrimp except during mating season

ID: ed52a093 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it describes how the ecologist in Text 2 would most likely respond to the author’s conclusion in Text 1 based on the information provided. The author of Text 1 states that the pink color of flamingo feathers comes from pigments carried by the brine shrimp flamingos consume. The author of Text 1 concludes that this means that a flamingo that is pinker than another flamingo must have eaten more shrimp. However, according to Text 2, ecologist Juan Amat has found that flamingos can also affect how pink they look through grooming, when they move ingested pigments from a gland near the tail to their feathers. This indicates that not all the pigments available from the shrimp a flamingo has eaten automatically end up coloring the flamingo’s feathers; some may or may not be applied later. Since grooming is also a factor, the ecologist (Amat) in Text 2 would most likely respond to the conclusion in Text 1 that pinker flamingos have eaten more shrimp by pointing out that the amount of shrimp eaten isn’t the only thing that influences flamingos’ coloring.

Choice A is incorrect. Although Text 2 states that the ecologist has found that flamingos can move pigments to their feathers from a gland near their tail, there is no indication that their tail feathers are pinker than their other feathers. Moreover, the point that tail feathers are pinker than other feathers wouldn’t logically address the idea that the quantity of shrimp eaten is what determines a flamingo’s coloring. Choice B is incorrect because Text 2 indicates that the ecologist has found that flamingos’ feathers do sometimes look pinker and gives no indication that this change in color is particularly subtle. Moreover, the point that most observers wouldn’t notice a change wouldn’t logically address the idea that the quantity of shrimp eaten is what determines a flamingo’s coloring. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in Text 2 suggests that the ecologist would argue about flamingos’ shrimp consumption. Although Text 2 indicates that the ecologist has found that flamingos may make themselves look pinker during mating season, this is addressed in terms of grooming habits; apart from referring to food as a source of pigments, Text 2 doesn’t discuss the diet of flamingos at all.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID e929fe98

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: e929fe98

Composer Florence Price won first place for her score Symphony in E Minor at the 1932 Wanamaker Foundation Awards. The piece was performed the following year by the Chicago Symphony Orchestra, a significant recognition of its quality. Price continued to compose many musical pieces throughout her career, blending traditional Black spirituals with classical European Romantic musical traditions. In recent years, Price’s concertos and symphonies have been performed and recorded by several major orchestras, further preserving her work for others to enjoy.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To provide examples of Price’s importance as a composer

  • To argue that more major orchestras should perform Price’s compositions

  • To describe the musical styles that inspired many of Price’s symphonies

  • To compare Price’s scores with those of classical European composers

ID: e929fe98 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The text provides an overview of Florence Price’s importance by describing her success at the 1932 Wanamaker Foundation Awards, her blending of Black spirituals and classical European Romantic musical traditions, and the recent performances and recordings of her concertos and symphonies by major orchestras.

Choice B is incorrect. The text does mention that Price’s compositions have been performed and recorded by major orchestras, but it doesn’t argue that more orchestras should do so. Choice C is incorrect. The text does mention the blending of Black spirituals and classical European Romantic musical traditions, but only briefly, as part of a broader overview of Price’s career. Choice D is incorrect. The text mentions Price’s blending of Black spirituals with classical European Romantic musical traditions, but it doesn’t directly compare Price’s scores with those of classical European composers.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 2aaee77f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 2aaee77f

Some bird species don’t raise their own chicks. Instead, adult females lay their eggs in other nests, next to another bird species’ own eggs. Female cuckoos have been seen quickly laying eggs in the nests of other bird species when those birds are out looking for food. After the eggs hatch, the noncuckoo parents will typically raise the cuckoo chicks as if they were their own offspring, even if the cuckoos look very different from the other chicks.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • It introduces a physical feature of female cuckoos that is described later in the text.

  • It describes the appearance of the cuckoo nests mentioned earlier in the text.

  • It offers a detail about how female cuckoos carry out the behavior discussed in the text.

  • It explains how other birds react to the female cuckoo behavior discussed in the text.

ID: 2aaee77f Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it best describes how the underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. The first two sentences establish that birds of some species don’t raise their own young; instead, they lay their eggs in the nests of birds of other species. The underlined sentence then states that female cuckoo birds engage in this behavior, having been observed specifically laying their eggs in other nests while the other birds are out finding food. According to the text, the cuckoo chicks are then raised by the other birds. Thus, the underlined sentence provides a particular detail about how female cuckoos carry out the behavior of laying eggs for other birds to raise.

Choice A is incorrect. Rather than mentioning a physical feature of female cuckoos, the underlined sentence introduces a specific behavior of female cuckoos: laying eggs in the nests of birds of other species when the other birds are away. The only reference to physical features is the last sentence’s general mention of cuckoo chicks looking different from chicks of other species. Choice B is incorrect because the underlined sentence refers to the nests of birds other than cuckoos and doesn’t describe how any nests look, cuckoo or otherwise. Instead, the sentence addresses how female cuckoos use other birds’ nests. Choice D is incorrect because the underlined sentence describes only female cuckoo behavior (laying eggs in the nests of birds of other species when the other birds are away); it’s the last sentence of the text that addresses the other birds’ reaction, indicating that those birds usually raise the cuckoo chicks once they’ve hatched. 

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID f61c22f3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: f61c22f3

Changes to vegetation cover and other human activities influence carbon and nitrogen levels in soil, though how deep these effects extend is unclear. Hypothesizing that differences in land use lead to differences in carbon and nitrogen levels that are not restricted to the topsoil layer (0–30 cm deep), Chukwuebuka Okolo and colleagues sampled soils across multiple land-use types (e.g., grazing land, cropland, forest) within each of several Ethiopian locations. They found, though, that across land-use types, carbon and nitrogen decreased to comparably low levels beyond depths of 30 cm.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • It describes a phenomenon that scientists do not fully understand, explains a research team’s hypothesis about that phenomenon, and then describes a finding that led the team to refine the hypothesis. 

  • It introduces an unresolved scientific question, presents a research team’s hypothesis pertaining to that question, and then describes an observation made by the team that conflicts with that hypothesis. 

  • It discusses a process that scientists are somewhat unclear about, introduces competing hypotheses about that process, and then explains how a research team concluded that one of those hypotheses is likely correct.

  • It explains a hypothesis that has been the subject of scientific debate, discusses how a research team tested that hypothesis, and then presents data the team collected that validate the hypothesis.

ID: f61c22f3 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately describes the overall structure of the text. The text begins by explaining that human activities influence carbon and nitrogen levels in soil, but how deeply these effects are seen in the soil remains an unresolved question. Next, the text summarizes Okolo and colleagues’ hypothesis regarding this question—which is that the different effects on carbon and nitrogen levels associated with different types of land use would also be observed below the topsoil layer—and then briefly explains the methods they used to test this hypothesis. Finally, the text states that the researchers found that at depths below the topsoil layer, carbon and nitrogen decreased to similarly low levels across all land-use types, a finding that conflicts with the team’s hypothesis presented earlier in the text. Thus, the text introduces an unresolved scientific question, presents a research team’s hypothesis pertaining to that question, and then describes an observation that the team made that conflicted with their hypothesis.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text introduces a phenomenon (the fact that human activities influence carbon and nitrogen levels in the soil) that isn’t fully understood by scientists and explains a research team’s hypothesis about the phenomenon, the text doesn’t describe how the team refined their hypothesis when a research finding contradicted it. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss a process at all; rather, it poses an unsolved scientific question and presents a hypothesis that Okolo and colleagues tested to answer that question. Moreover, the text only describes one hypothesis; it doesn’t mention any competing hypotheses, nor does it suggest that Okolo’s team was able to determine which hypothesis was correct. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t begin by presenting a hypothesis that is under scientific debate; rather, it presents a question that scientists have been unable to answer and then introduces a hypothesis formulated by Okolo and colleagues. While the text does explain how Okolo’s team tested their hypothesis, the text goes on to say that their data conflicted with their hypothesis, not that the data validated, or supported, their hypothesis.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 54804e10

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 54804e10

While scholars believe many Mesoamerican cities influenced each other, direct evidence of such influence is difficult to ascertain. However, recent excavations in a sector of Tikal (Guatemala) unearthed a citadel that shows blank Teotihuacán (Mexico) architecture—including a near replica of a famed Teotihuacán temple—providing tangible evidence of outside influence in portions of Tikal.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • refinements of

  • precursors of

  • commonalities with

  • animosities toward

ID: 54804e10 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of architectural influences among Mesoamerican cities. In this context, “commonalities with” means similarities to or shared attributes with. The text indicates that a recently discovered citadel in Tikal includes a close imitation of a famous temple in Teotihuacán (another Mesoamerican city) and other evidence of Teotihuacán influence, which suggests that the citadel possesses features that resemble architectural features found in Teotihuacán. This context thus indicates that the Tikal citadel shows commonalities with Teotihuacán architecture.

Choice A is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text that suggests that the Tikal citadel shows “refinements of,” or improvements on, Teotihuacán architecture. Although the text suggests that the architecture of Teotihuacán influenced the architecture of the Tikal citadel, and although it’s possible that later architectural designs could make improvements on earlier designs, the text doesn’t discuss whether, in imitating Teotihuacán architecture, the Tikal citadel’s builders improved on it. Choice B is incorrect because describing the citadel in Tikal as showing “precursors of” Teotihuacán architecture—or features that preceded and foreshadowed those of Teotihuacán architecture—would imply the opposite of what the text suggests about the relationship between the architecture found in Tikal and Teotihuacán. The text claims that the discovery of similarities between the Tikal citadel and the architecture of Teotihuacán, including a replica of a temple in Teotihuacán, provides evidence of outside influences on Tikal architecture. If the Tikal citadel was influenced by Teotihuacán architecture, then the Teotihuacán architecture must predate the citadel, not the other way around. In this context, therefore, it wouldn’t make sense to say that the Tikal citadel shows precursors of Teotihuacán architecture. Choice D is incorrect because the text discusses how the citadel in Tikal indicates the influence of Teotihuacán architecture, which implies that the makers of the Tikal citadel likely admired aspects of Teotihuacán architecture enough to imitate it. Thus, there’s no reason to think that the Tikal citadel provides evidence of the Tikal people’s “animosities toward,” or feelings of strong dislike or hostility toward, Teotihuacán architecture. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 6cf906fc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 6cf906fc

The following text is adapted from José Martí’s 1891 poem “At the Salon” (translated by Cecil Charles in 1898). The speaker describes a painting featuring a female figure.

From the sterile soil no ray

   Of hope in a blade of green,

Nor sheltering roof is seen—

   Though the skies are heavy and gray.

 

Ah, this is the woman fair

   Who stole away my heart

In the splendid halls of art

   Yester-e’en as I wandered there!

As used in the text, what does the word “sheltering” most nearly mean? 

  • Protective

  • Restrictive

  • Affectionate

  • Suspicious

ID: 6cf906fc Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because as used in the text, "sheltering" most nearly means protective. In the text, the speaker describes a painting featuring a female figure. The speaker ultimately confesses to falling in love with the woman in the painting, who has "stole[n] away" the speaker’s heart, but first the speaker describes elements of the painting’s setting. These include sterile soil, barren fields with "no ray / Of hope in a blade of green"—a description that conveys a mood of melancholy and forlornness, possibly reflecting the speaker’s own sadness at falling in love with an image that can’t return the speaker’s love. The text continues by stating that there’s no "sheltering roof" in the painting, even though the "skies are heavy and gray," showing signs of an impending storm. Generally, a roof’s intended purpose is to provide protection from the elements, and in this context, a roof would offer shelter and protection from the gathering storm.

Choice B is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that a roof would be restrictive—that is, that it would limit or restrain something in some way. Although a roof would provide some cover from stormy winds and rain, it wouldn’t limit the wind and rain, only deflect them. Choice C is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that if a "sheltering roof" were present in the painting, it would be affectionate, or loving and tender. In the text, the immediate context in which the word "sheltering" appears refers to the absence of a roof that would provide protection from the oncoming storm depicted in the painting, not to the idea that such a shelter would be loving and tender if it were present. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, suspicious would mean questionable or dubious, and there’s nothing in the text to suggest that if any roofs were present in the painting, they would be questionable or cause any suspicion.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 4480fae9

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 4480fae9

The following text is adapted from Sui Sin Far’s 1912 short story “Mrs. Spring Fragrance.” Mr. and Mrs. Spring Fragrance immigrated to the United States from China.

Mrs. Spring Fragrance was unaware that Mr. Spring Fragrance, tired with the day’s business, had thrown himself down on the bamboo settee on the veranda, and that although his eyes were engaged in scanning the pages of the Chinese World, his ears could not help receiving the words which were borne to him through the open window.

As used in the text, what does the word “receiving” most nearly mean?

  • Denying

  • Entering

  • Carrying

  • Hearing

ID: 4480fae9 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because as used in the text, “receiving” most nearly means hearing, or perceiving sound. The text describes Mr. Spring Fragrance as he reads a newspaper, focusing on his eyes and ears. While his eyes look at the newspaper, he is unwillingly distracted by words coming through a nearby open window (that is, “his ears could not help receiving the words”). The words are being perceived specifically by his ears and not his eyes, and ears are the organs of sense with which one hears, so therefore Mr. Spring Fragrance is hearing the words through the open window.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication in the text that Mr. Spring Fragrance is denying, or refusing the truth of, the words coming to him through the window. He is merely distracted by them. Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that Mr. Spring Fragrance’s ears couldn’t help entering, or coming into, the words coming to him through the window. Instead, the text indicates that the opposite occurs: that is, when Mr. Spring Fragrance hears the words, they enter his ears, but his ears don’t enter the words. Choice C is incorrect because it doesn’t make sense in this context to think of Mr. Spring Fragrance as carrying the words coming to him through the window, even though the word “carry” can have a number of different meanings depending on context: for example, he is not lifting them, he is not supporting them, and he is not accepting blame for them (as one “carries the blame” for a mistake).

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 5d2fd27d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 5d2fd27d

While we can infer information about climate activity in Earth’s distant past from physical evidence, we of course cannot observe past climates directly. To study early Earth’s climate in action, we must blank that climate using computer models that represent various climate conditions consistent with the physical evidence.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • invent

  • simulate

  • exaggerate

  • preserve

ID: 5d2fd27d Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of climate activity in Earth’s distant past. In this context, to “simulate” most nearly means to represent a natural process using computer models. According to the text, understanding Earth’s early climate is difficult because we cannot make direct observations of the distant past. Instead, scientists must create computer models that approximate early climate conditions, based on the physical evidence that those conditions left behind on Earth’s surface. This context supports the idea that computer models simulate Earth’s climate in the distant past.

Choice A is incorrect because scientists use existing physical evidence as a basis for developing computer models that describe what Earth’s actual past climate might have been like. The models are not being used to “invent,” or imagine, a completely fictional climate. Choice C is incorrect because the computer models are being used in an attempt to describe as accurately as possible what Earth’s past climate might have been like. They are not attempting to “exaggerate,” or distort, those features. Choice D is incorrect because the computer models do not “preserve,” or protect from deterioration, Earth’s early climate; instead, they attempt to reproduce the characteristics of that climate, based on the remaining physical evidence of that climate.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 2e744883

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 2e744883

Historians have argued that a crucial component of the Civil Rights Movement’s success in the 1960s was the Southern Christian Leadership Conference’s Citizen Education Program (CEP), which invited promising activists from across the South to its one-week training sessions in Dorchester, Georgia. Led by experienced organizers such as Dorothy Cotton and Septima Clark, CEP attendees—more than 7,000 in all—participated in workshops on topics ranging from public speaking to legal doctrine before returning home and using their newly acquired knowledge to spearhead local civil rights initiatives.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?

  • It underscores the extent of the CEP’s impact on the Civil Rights Movement of the 1960s.

  • It illustrates the CEP organizers’ efforts to educate participants on a wide variety of topics.

  • It suggests that CEP attendees held a diverse array of opinions about the Southern Christian Leadership Conference’s political philosophy. 

  • It establishes that criticism of the CEP was limited to a few individuals in the Southern Christian Leadership Conference.

ID: 2e744883 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined portion functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence of the text states that the CEP had a positive impact on the Civil Rights Movement in the 1960s. The next sentence explains that the CEP organized workshops for attendees, who later used the knowledge they gained to lead civil rights initiatives. And the underlined portion indicates the number of activists—more than 7,000—who participated in the workshops. Thus, the underlined portion provides a number that underscores the extent of the CEP’s impact on the Civil Rights Movement in the 1960s.

Choice B is incorrect. Although the sentence that contains the underlined portion mentions some CEP workshop topics, the underlined portion itself addresses the number of participants in the CEP workshops, not the number of topics covered. Choice C is incorrect. Although the underlined portion refers to attendees of the CEP workshops, nothing in the underlined portion or the text as a whole addresses the Southern Christian Leadership Conference’s philosophy or the attendees’ opinions thereof. Choice D is incorrect because neither the underlined portion nor the text as a whole mentions any criticism of the CEP by members of the Southern Christian Leadership Conference.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID e3ffb854

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: e3ffb854

The following text is adapted from John Matheus’s 1925 short story “Fog.”

The fog extended its tentacles over city and river, gradually obliterating traces of familiar landscapes. At five-thirty the old Panhandle bridge, supported by massive sandstone pillars, stalwart, as when erected fifty years before to serve a generation now passed behind the portals of life, had become a spectral outline against the sky.

As used in the text, what does the word “supported” most nearly mean?

  • Held up

  • Encouraged

  • Improved on

  • Defended

ID: e3ffb854 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because as used in the text, "supported" most nearly means held up or sustained physically. The sentence describes the physical structure of the Panhandle bridge, stating it was "supported by massive sandstone pillars." This clearly refers to the structural relationship between the bridge and its pillars—the pillars physically hold up the bridge and keep it standing. The text further emphasizes the physical nature of this support by describing the pillars as "stalwart" (strong and sturdy) and noting they’ve been performing this function for fifty years.

Choice B is incorrect. Although in some contexts "supported" can mean "encouraged," the sandstone pillars and bridge described in the text are all inanimate objects that can’t provide or receive encouragement. The text clearly describes a structural relationship between the elements of the bridge, not an emotional one. Choice C is incorrect. Although in some contexts "supported" has a meaning similar to "improved on," the text doesn’t suggest that the sandstone pillars have enhanced or made the bridge better; rather, they simply provide the necessary physical foundation to keep the bridge standing. Thus, the sentence describes the structural elements of the bridge, not improvements made to it. Choice D is incorrect. Although in some contexts "supported" can mean "defended," the text doesn’t present a situation in which the sandstone pillars are defending the bridge from a threat. Instead, the description focuses on the physical structure of the bridge, in which the pillars hold the bridge up and ensure its stability.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 9aa44886

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 9aa44886

The following text is from F. Scott Fitzgerald’s 1925 novel The Great Gatsby.

[Jay Gatsby] was balancing himself on the dashboard of his car with that resourcefulness of movement that is so peculiarly American—that comes, I suppose, with the absence of lifting work in youth and, even more, with the formless grace of our nervous, sporadic games. This quality was continually breaking through his punctilious manner in the shape of restlessness.

As used in the text, what does the word “quality” most nearly mean?

  • Standard

  • Prestige

  • Characteristic

  • Accomplishment

ID: 9aa44886 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. “This quality” refers to Gatsby’s “resourcefulness of movement,” which is described as a characteristic or trait of his. 

Choice A is incorrect. This isn’t what “quality” means in this context. Here, “this quality” refers to Gatsby’s “resourcefulness of movement,” which is described as a characteristic or trait of his. “Standard” is a synonym for a different definition of “quality”: the degree of excellence of something. Choice B is incorrect. This isn’t what “quality” means in this context. Here, “this quality” refers to Gatsby’s “resourcefulness of movement,” which is described as a characteristic or trait of his. “Prestige” would suggest a high status or an admirable reputation, which doesn’t match that description. Choice D is incorrect. This isn’t what “quality” means in this context. Here, “this quality” refers to Gatsby’s “resourcefulness of movement,” which is described as a characteristic or trait of his. “Accomplishment” would suggest an achievement, which doesn’t match that description.   

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID e1befb41

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: e1befb41

 

Text 1

In a study of the benefits of having free time, Marissa Sharif found that the reported sense of life satisfaction tended to plateau when participants had two hours of free time per day and actually began to fall when they had five hours of free time per day. After further research, Sharif concluded that this dip in life satisfaction mainly occurred when individuals spent all their free time unproductively, such as by watching TV or playing games.

 

Text 2

Psychologist James Maddux cautions against suggesting an ideal amount of free time. The human desire for both free time and productivity is universal, but Maddux asserts that individuals have unique needs for life satisfaction. Furthermore, he points out that there is no objective definition for what constitutes productivity; reading a book might be considered a productive activity by some, but idleness by others.

Based on the texts, how would Maddux (Text 2) most likely respond to the conclusion Sharif (Text 1) reached after her further research?

  • By acknowledging that free time is more likely to enhance life satisfaction when it is spent productively than when it is spent unproductively

  • By challenging the reasoning in Text 1, as it has not been proved that productivity commonly contributes to individuals’ life satisfaction

  • By warning against making an overly broad assumption, as there is no clear consensus in distinguishing between productive and unproductive activities

  • By claiming that the specific activities named in Text 1 are actually examples of productive activities rather than unproductive ones

ID: e1befb41 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it characterizes how Maddux would most likely respond to the conclusion Sharif reached after her research. Text 1 describes Sharif’s study of the benefits of free time, saying that the reported sense of satisfaction plateaued at two hours per day and began to decline at five hours per day. Further research led Sharif to conclude that time spent doing tasks she defines as unproductive, such as watching TV or playing games, correlated with a drop in life satisfaction.  However, in Text 2 Maddux says that there is no objective definition of what constitutes productive behavior, giving the example that reading a book might be considered productive by some but unproductive by others. It can be inferred that Maddux would also assert that whether watching TV or playing games is productive or unproductive is a matter of subjective judgment. Thus, Maddux would most likely caution against making an overly broad assumption, as there is no clear consensus in distinguishing between productive and unproductive activities.

Choice A is incorrect because Maddux asserts that individuals have unique needs for life satisfaction: some may want to spend that time productively, others unproductively, and what counts as productive is subjective. Therefore, Maddux would likely not consider it universally true that free time is more likely to enhance life satisfaction when it is spent productively. Choice B is incorrect because the study described in Text 1 concerns whether free time contributes to life satisfaction, not whether productivity contributes to life satisfaction. The dip in life satisfaction that Sharif claims to observe in Text 1 happens only after five hours, and mainly if the time is spent unproductively—that is, two hours of free time spent productively might increase life satisfaction just as much as two hours spent unproductively. Choice D is incorrect because Maddux holds the opinion that whether an activity is productive or unproductive is subjective and depends on the individual; therefore, he would most likely claim that watching TV or playing games might be productive for some and unproductive for others.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID afd48140

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: afd48140

In 1877, 85% of California’s railways were already controlled by the Southern Pacific Railroad. The company further solidified its blank in rail access to the state’s Pacific coast when it completed the Sunset Route in 1883: running from Louisiana to Southern California, the route established the first transcontinental rail line across the southern United States. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • dominance

  • creativity

  • insignificance

  • neutrality

ID: afd48140 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically and precisely completes the text’s discussion of the Southern Pacific Railroad. As used in this context, "dominance" means the state of being more successful than others. The text states that the Southern Pacific Railroad already controlled 85% of California’s railways in 1877, and that the Sunset Route it constructed in 1883 was the first transcontinental rail line across the southern United States. Therefore, the Southern Pacific Railroad would be more successful than other railroads in the area, and the construction of the Sunset Route would further solidify its dominance in rail access to California’s coast.

Choice B is incorrect. Although the construction of the Sunset Route must have required some creativity, or use of imagination, the word "creativity" would not also encompass the fact that the Southern Pacific Railroad already controlled 85% of California’s railways. The text is more focused on the railroad’s control of the field and overall success rather than its imaginative thought processes. Choice C is incorrect because if the Southern Pacific Railroad controlled the majority of California’s railways, it would not make sense to refer to its "insignificance," or the state of being unimportant. Rather, the opposite would be true. Choice D is incorrect because in context it would not make sense to refer to the Southern Pacific Railroad’s "neutrality," or absence of strong opinion on a matter, since no opinions are mentioned. Nor would "neutrality" in the sense of impartiality in a conflict be a logical or precise choice since no conflict is explicitly described. There might be an implied conflict between the Southern Pacific Railroad and other railroads doing business in California, but that is not a conflict in which the Southern Pacific Railroad would take an impartial position.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID ab1bd603

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: ab1bd603

The following text is adapted from Upton Sinclair’s 1906 novel The Jungle. Marija is helping to manage her sister’s wedding.

It was [Marija’s] task to see that all things went in due form, and after the best home traditions; and, flying wildly hither and thither, bowling every one out of the way, and scolding and exhorting all day with her tremendous voice, Marija was too eager to see that others conformed to the proprieties to consider them herself.

As used in the text, what does the word “consider” most nearly mean?

  • Take into account and follow

  • Admire steadily and praise

  • Come to a decision about

  • Have an opinion on

ID: ab1bd603 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because as used in the text, "consider" most nearly means to take into account and follow. The text explains that Marija’s job was to make sure that her sister’s wedding proceeded in certain ways ("in due form") and that she loudly directed everyone’s actions all day. The text then indicates that Marija was so focused on ensuring that others "conformed to the proprieties"—that is, that they behaved in appropriate ways—that she failed to "consider them herself"; that is, she didn’t take standards of appropriate behavior into account and follow them in her own actions.

Choice B is incorrect. In some contexts, "consider" can mean to think about something in a positive way—which can involve admiration—but the text doesn’t suggest that Marija was so busy imposing "proprieties" (standards of appropriate behavior) on others that she didn’t admire and praise them herself. The context suggests it’s more likely that Marija did speak positively of "due form" and "the best home traditions" while ensuring others behaved in certain ways. Choice C is incorrect. In some contexts, "consider" can mean to come to a decision, but the text doesn’t suggest that Marija wasn’t able to make a decision for herself about the "proprieties" (standards of appropriate behavior) she ensured everyone else conformed to. Rather, the context conveys that Marija knew very clearly which behaviors others should follow as "due form" and "the best home traditions." Choice D is incorrect. In some contexts, "consider" can mean to have an opinion, but the text doesn’t suggest that Marija wasn’t able to have an opinion on the "proprieties" (standards of appropriate behavior) she was ensuring others conformed to. Rather, the context conveys that Marija had strong feelings about which behaviors were "due form" and "the best home traditions."

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID b4887dae

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: b4887dae

Mathematician Claude Shannon is widely regarded as a foundational figure in information theory. His most important paper, “A Mathematical Theory of Communication,” published in 1948 when he was employed at Bell Labs, utilized a concept called a “binary digit” (shortened to “bit”) to measure the amount of information in any signal and determine the fastest rate at which information could be transmitted while still being reliably decipherable. Robert Gallagher, one of Shannon’s colleagues, said that the bit was “[Shannon’s] discovery, and from it the whole communications revolution has sprung.”

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • It presents a theoretical concept, illustrates how the name of the concept has changed, and shows how the name has entered common usage.

  • It introduces a respected researcher, describes an aspect of his work, and suggests why the work is historically significant.

  • It names the company where an important mathematician worked, details the mathematician’s career at the company, and provides an example of the recognition he received there.

  • It mentions a paper, offers a summary of the paper’s findings, and presents a researcher’s commentary on the paper.

ID: b4887dae Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The text starts with a general statement that introduces Shannon, then describes a specific contribution from one of his papers, then provides a quote that illustrates just how important this contribution was.

Choice A is incorrect. This isn’t the overall structure. The text only mentions very briefly, in parentheses, that “binary digit” was shortened to “bit.” It doesn’t go into detail about this name change, and it doesn’t discuss any “common usage” of the name at all. Choice C is incorrect. This isn’t the overall structure. Shannon’s employment at Bell Labs is only mentioned once, very briefly: the text never goes into detail about his career there, and it never mentions any recognition he received there. Choice D is incorrect. This is too narrow. Overall, the text is about Shannon’s importance in his field, not just this one paper of his.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID c68ceeff

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Easy
ID: c68ceeff

Text 1

Today the starchy root cassava is found in many dishes across West Africa, but its rise to popularity was slow. Portuguese traders brought cassava from Brazil to the West African coast in the 1500s. But at this time, people living in the capitals further inland had little contact with coastal communities. Thus, cassava remained relatively unknown to most of the region’s inhabitants until the 1800s.

 

Text 2

Cassava’s slow adoption into the diet of West Africans is mainly due to the nature of the crop itself. If not cooked properly, cassava can be toxic. Knowledge of how to properly prepare cassava needed to spread before the food could grow in popularity. The arrival of formerly enslaved people from Brazil in the 1800s, who brought their knowledge of cassava and its preparation with them, thus directly fueled the spread of this crop.

Based on the texts, the author of Text 1 and the author of Text 2 would most likely agree with which statement?

  • Cassava did not become a significant crop in West Africa until long after it was first introduced.

  • Several of the most commonly grown crops in West Africa are originally from Brazil.

  • The climate of the West African coast in the 1500s prevented cassava’s spread in the region. 

  • The most commonly used methods to cook cassava today date to the 1500s.

ID: c68ceeff Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. Text 1 states that cassava’s “rise to popularity was slow” in West Africa. Text 2 also describes cassava’s “slow adoption into the diet of West Africans.” While the two texts identify different causes for this slow adoption, both agree that cassava took a long time to catch on.

Choice B is incorrect. This isn’t something that either text claims. Cassava is the only crop discussed in the passages, so we have no basis to draw conclusions about what the authors might say about “several” crops. Choice C is incorrect. This isn’t something that either text claims. Neither text mentions the “climate of the West African coast,” so we have no evidence that either author would agree with this. Choice D is incorrect. This isn’t something that either text claims. The 1500s were when cassava was brought to West Africa, but neither text describes how cassava is cooked, nor do they make any claims about when cooking methods were developed.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID cf9a00e0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: cf9a00e0

Chile’s Atacama Desert is one of the driest places on Earth. Mary Beth Wilhelm and other astrobiologists search for life, or its remains, in this harsh place because the desert closely mirrors the extreme environment on Mars. The algae and bacteria found in Atacama’s driest regions may offer clues about Martian life. By studying how these and other microorganisms survive such extreme conditions on Earth, Wilhelm’s team hopes to determine whether similar life might have existed on Mars and to develop the best tools to look for evidence of it.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • To contrast the conditions in the Atacama Desert with those on Mars

  • To explain why many life-forms cannot survive in the Atacama Desert

  • To indicate why astrobiologists choose to conduct research in the Atacama Desert

  • To describe certain limitations to conducting scientific study in the Atacama Desert

ID: cf9a00e0 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence describes a unique location on Earth, the Atacama Desert. The next sentence, which is the underlined sentence, states that the reason why astrobiologists study life, or its remains, in this unique location is that Atacama is a harsh environment that closely resembles the extreme environment of Mars. The remainder of the text explains that the researchers hope their work in Atacama will support inquiry into life on Mars. Thus, the underlined portion functions mainly to indicate why astrobiologists choose to conduct research in the Atacama Desert.

Choice A is incorrect because to contrast two things means to show the differences between them, and the phrase "closely mirrors" in the underlined sentence indicates that the extreme environment in the Atacama Desert is similar to, not different from, that on Mars. This similarity is why, according to the underlined sentence, astrobiologists conduct research in Atacama. Choice B is incorrect because the underlined sentence doesn’t address forms of life that are unable to survive the harsh environment of the Atacama Desert. Instead, the underlined sentence explains why astrobiologists study life, or its remains, in this environment. Choice D is incorrect because the underlined sentence doesn’t suggest that the scientific research in the Atacama Desert is limited in any way; instead, the sentence explains that the similarity between the environments of Atacama and Mars is the reason why astrobiologists search for life, or its remains, in Atacama.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 9b22bf7b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 9b22bf7b

The following text is from the 1989 novel The Ancient Child by Kiowa writer N. Scott Momaday. The main character has achieved tremendous commercial success as a painter.

More and more often he was asked to compromise his art or himself in one way or another, and more often than not he did so, for he was inclined to be passive and naïve; it was difficult for him to say no. Those who exhibited his work, who praised and purchased it, and who demanded its proliferation began to determine it.

©1989 by N. Scott Momaday

As used in the text, what does the word “determine” most nearly mean?

  • Conclude

  • Dictate

  • Evaluate

  • Select

ID: 9b22bf7b Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because as used in the text "determine" most nearly means "dictate." The text describes the relationship between the main character and those who exhibit, praise, and purchase his artwork. The text states that the main character is often asked to change his art or himself based on outside influences, and he usually acquiesces. Because the main character admits that those who support his work often shape it based on their demands, it follows that those outside influences dictate, or guide or dominate, the direction his work takes.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that outside influences "conclude," or end, the main character’s work. The text states that many supporters of the main character’s art "demand its proliferation," not its conclusion. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that outside influences are "evaluating," or judging the main character’s work. According to the text, the main character’s art has already achieved great commercial success, with many people exhibiting, purchasing, and praising his work. Thus, outsiders have already supported the main character’s work and are not questioning or evaluating its success or worth. They are instead influencing its initial direction. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that outside influences "select," or choose the main character’s work. According to the text, the main character’s art has already achieved great commercial success, with many people exhibiting, purchasing, and praising his work. Thus, outsiders have already supported the main character’s work and are not selecting it. They are instead influencing its initial direction.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID daaed806

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: daaed806

Mônica Lopes-Ferreira and others at Brazil’s Butantan Institute are studying the freshwater stingray species Potamotrygon rex to determine whether biological characteristics such as the rays’ age and sex have blank effect on the toxicity of their venom—that is, to see if differences in these traits are associated with considerable variations in venom potency.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • a disconcerting

  • an acceptable

  • an imperceptible

  • a substantial

ID: daaed806 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the research that Lopes-Ferreira and her colleagues are conducting on the stingray species Potamotrygon rex. As used in this context, “a substantial” effect means an effect that is sizable or noteworthy. The text indicates that the researchers are seeking to determine whether there are “considerable variations” in the potency of stingray venom that are associated with variation in the stingrays’ age and sex. This context suggests that the researchers want to find out whether stingray age and sex have a substantial effect on venom toxicity.

Choice A is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text that suggests that the researchers have been studying whether the stingrays’ age and sex have “a disconcerting,” or an unsettling and disturbing, effect on the stingrays’ venom. The text indicates that the researchers wish to determine if stingray age and sex cause large variations in the toxicity of stingray venom, not if the effect of age and sex is disconcerting. Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that researchers want to find out whether differences in stingray age and sex produce differences in stingray venom, not that the researchers want to find out whether age and sex have “an acceptable,” or a satisfactory, effect on venom. The text makes no mention of what would make an effect on venom toxicity acceptable and gives no indication that the researchers are interested in that question. Choice C is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context for the researchers to be looking for “an imperceptible,” or an unnoticeable, effect of age and sex on stingray venom. The text says that the researchers are trying to determine if there are “considerable variations” in venom toxicity linked to age and sex, not that the researchers are trying to find effects that they can’t perceive.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID d2a90d4f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: d2a90d4f

The majority of plastics today wind up in landfills or are, at best, recycled into materials that have a very limited range of applications. To address this problem, chemist Guoliang Liu and colleagues designed a reactor that melts polyethylene and polypropylene—two widely used plastics—into a wax. The wax can then be transformed into a surfactant (a chemical compound usable as a detergent). With this promising new method, plastic waste could be turned into a range of useful cleaning products.

Which choice best states the function of the underlined portion of the text?

  • It clarifies the meaning of a scientific term.

  • It describes an environmental concern.

  • It explains the significance of a scientific discovery.

  • It identifies a result that confused the team.

ID: d2a90d4f Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined phrase functions in the text as a whole. The text states that the wax produced by Liu and colleagues’ reactor can be turned into a surfactant. The underlined phrase, which is set off with parentheses, then provides a definition for the term "surfactant," explaining that it’s a chemical compound that can be used as a detergent. Thus, the underlined portion of the text functions to clarify the meaning of a scientific term.

Choice B is incorrect. Though the text as a whole focuses broadly on an environmental concern, the underlined phrase does not; it simply indicates what a surfactant is. Choice C is incorrect. Though the text as a whole focuses on a scientific discovery (Liu and colleagues’ solution to the problem of plastic recycling), the underlined phrase does not explain its significance; it simply defines a scientific term used in the discussion. Choice D is incorrect. Though the text as a whole includes discussion of the result found by Liu and colleagues, the underlined phrase does not discuss it; it simply defines a scientific term used in the discussion. Additionally, at no point in the text is it mentioned that the team was confused.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 84f9b577

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 84f9b577

The following text is from Jhumpa Lahiri’s 2003 novel The Namesake. Gogol, a child, is at a beach in Massachusetts with his father.

On the beach Gogol collects rocks, digs tunnels in the sand. He and his father wander barefoot, their pant legs rolled halfway up their calves. 

©2003 by Jhumpa Lahiri

As used in the text, what does the word “collects” most nearly mean?

  • Increases

  • Makes

  • Ignores

  • Gathers

ID: 84f9b577 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because as used in the text, "collects" most nearly means gathers or accumulates. In the text, Gogol "collects" (or gathers) rocks and digs in the sand while strolling the beach with his father. Thus, "gathers" is the best answer.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, "increases" would mean expands or inflates, which is not something a child could logically do to rocks. Rather, the text indicates that Gogol "collects" or gathers rocks while strolling the beach with his father. Choice B is incorrect because in this context, "makes" would suggest that Gogol is creating or manufacturing rocks, which doesn’t make sense. Rather, the text indicates that Gogol "collects" or gathers rocks while strolling the beach with his father. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, "ignores" would mean disregards or avoids, but in the text Gogol "collects rocks," which indicates that he’s engaging with the rocks, not ignoring them.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 5514fd1f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 5514fd1f

Archaeologist Erika Karuzas works with the Confederated Salish and Kootenai Tribes of Montana to preserve culturally significant sites. In 2015 they decided that creating a new national trail connecting many of these sites would blank their preservation efforts, because the US government provides some protections to national trails that aren’t given to other areas.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • inspire

  • ignore

  • promote

  • reduce

ID: 5514fd1f Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the preservation efforts undertaken by Erika Karuzas and the Confederated Salish and Kootenai Tribes of Montana. In this context, "promote" means play a part in the success or growth of something or someone. The text indicates that Karuzas and the Confederated Salish and Kootenai Tribes work to preserve culturally important sites. It goes on to say that their decision to create a national trail connecting the sites was motivated by the fact that such a trail would receive protections from the US government that the sites wouldn’t otherwise receive. Thus, such a decision would promote the preservation efforts.

Choice A is incorrect because "inspire" means motivate or influence, which wouldn’t make sense in context. The text establishes that Karuzas and the Confederated Salish and Kootenai Tribes of Montana work to preserve culturally significant sites and that their decision to create a new national trail occurred as a result of a desire to add protections to the sites that they wouldn’t otherwise receive. Thus, creating the trail wouldn’t inspire the efforts to preserve the sites; instead, it would promote the efforts. Choice B is incorrect because "ignore" means overlook, which wouldn’t make sense in context. The text indicates that Karuzas and the Confederated Salish and Kootenai Tribes of Montana work to preserve culturally significant sites and that they decided to create a national trail connecting the sites because such a trail would receive protections from the US government that the sites wouldn’t otherwise receive. Thus, the creation of the trail would promote, not ignore, the preservation efforts. Choice D is incorrect because "reduce" means decrease or restrict, which wouldn’t make sense in context. The text indicates that Karuzas and the Confederated Salish and Kootenai Tribes of Montana work to preserve culturally significant sites and that they decided to create a national trail connecting the sites because such a trail would receive protections from the US government that the sites wouldn’t otherwise receive. The decision would therefore promote, not reduce, the preservation efforts.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 3e6ad72d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 3e6ad72d

A study by a team including finance professor Madhu Veeraraghavan suggests that exposure to sunshine during the workday can lead to overly optimistic behavior. Using data spanning from 1994 to 2010 for a set of US companies, the team compared over 29,000 annual earnings forecasts to the actual earnings later reported by those companies. The team found that the greater the exposure to sunshine at work in the two weeks before a manager submitted an earnings forecast, the more the manager’s forecast exceeded what the company actually earned that year.

Which choice best states the function of the underlined sentence in the overall structure of the text?

  • To summarize the results of the team’s analysis

  • To present a specific example that illustrates the study’s findings

  • To explain part of the methodology used in the team’s study

  • To call out a challenge the team faced in conducting its analysis

ID: 3e6ad72d Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it best describes how the underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence presents the implications of Veeraraghavan’s team’s study: sunshine exposure during work hours can cause overly optimistic behavior. The underlined sentence then describes the data the team consulted and how they were used (comparing predictions about earnings to what the companies actually earned), and the final sentence presents what the team found in their examination of the data. Thus, the underlined sentence mainly functions to explain part of the methodology used in the team’s study.

Choice A is incorrect because the underlined sentence explains in part how the team conducted their analysis of the effect of sunshine but doesn’t address what the team found; a broad summary is instead given in the other two sentences. Choice B is incorrect because the underlined sentence doesn’t present any specific examples from the team’s comparisons of 29,000 earnings predictions to actual earnings; it simply explains in part how the team conducted their analysis. Choice D is incorrect because the underlined sentence simply explains in part how the team conducted their analysis; the text never mentions any challenges that the team encountered in their study.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID f3c45b4f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: f3c45b4f

Text 1

Fossils of the hominin Australopithecus africanus have been found in the Sterkfontein Caves of South Africa, but assigning an age to the fossils is challenging because of the unreliability of dating methods in this context. The geology of Sterkfontein has caused soil layers from different periods to mix, impeding stratigraphic dating, and dates cannot be reliably imputed from those of nearby animal bones since the bones may have been relocated by flooding.

Text 2

Archaeologists used new cosmogenic nuclide dating techniques to reevaluate the ages of A. africanus fossils found in the Sterkfontein Caves. This technique involves analyzing the cosmogenic nucleotides in the breccia—the matrix of rock fragments immediately surrounding the fossils. The researchers assert that this approach avoids the potential for misdating associated with assigning ages based on Sterkfontein’s soil layers or animal bones.

Based on the texts, how would the researchers in Text 2 most likely respond to the underlined portion in Text 1?

  • They would emphasize the fact that the A. africanus fossils found in the Sterkfontein Caves may have been corrupted in some way over the years.

  • They would contend that if analyses of surrounding layers and bones in the Sterkfontein Caves were combined, then the dating of the fossils there would be more accurate. 

  • They would argue that their techniques are better suited than other methods to the unique challenges posed by the Sterkfontein Caves.

  • They would claim that cosmogenic nuclide dating is reliable in the context of the Sterkfontein Caves because it is applied to the fossils directly.

ID: f3c45b4f Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. Text 2 states that the researchers used cosmogenic nuclide dating to "avoid the potential for misdating" caused by the geology of Sterkfontein, which Text 1 describes as "challenging" and unreliable.

Choice A is incorrect. Neither text suggests that the A. africanus fossils have been "corrupted," but only that traditional dating methods are difficult in Sterkfontein because of floods and soil mixing where the fossils were found. Nothing is implied to have compromised the fossils themselves. Choice B is incorrect. This choice misreads Text 2. Text 2 agrees that stratigraphy and other methods are prone to error in the context of Sterkfontein: there’s a "potential for misdating" when evaluating age based on soil layers and bones. Choice D is incorrect. Text 2 does not state that cosmogenic nuclide dating is applied to the fossils directly but rather to the breccia that surrounds them.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID bdab32fc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: bdab32fc

Cucurbits, a group of plants that includes squash and melons, relied on mastodons to spread their seeds in the Ice Age. When these animals died out, cucurbits faced extinction in turn, having lost their means of seed dispersal. Around this time, however, the ancestors of Indigenous peoples in North America began raising cucurbits as crops, thus blank the plants’ survival.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • verifying

  • multiplying

  • comforting

  • ensuring

ID: bdab32fc Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of cucurbits. In this context, “ensuring” means guaranteeing, or making sure of, the cucurbits’ survival. The text states that cucurbits faced extinction in the past because their means of seed dispersal disappeared, but the ancestors of Indigenous peoples in North America began farming cucurbits around that same time, so the crops were no longer threatened. Therefore, the context supports the idea that the ancestors of Indigenous peoples in North America helped with ensuring the cucurbits’ survival.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context verifying means making sure that something is accurate. In the text, the ancestors of Indigenous peoples in North America were ensuring the survival, not the accuracy of, the cucurbits. Choice B is incorrect. Although the cucurbit crops themselves were multiplying, or growing in number, as a result of the work of the ancestors of Indigenous peoples in North America, it wouldn’t make sense in context to say that the survival of the plants was multiplying. Choice C is incorrect because according to the text, in raising cucurbits as crops, the ancestors of Indigenous peoples in North America were attempting to help the plants grow and survive; they weren’t attempting to comfort, or free the plants from pain.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID e8c26398

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: e8c26398

To develop a method for measuring snow depth with laser beams, NASA physicist Yongxiang Hu relied on blank; identifying broad similarities between two seemingly different phenomena, Hu used information about how ants move inside colonies to calculate how the particles of light that make up laser beams travel through snow.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • a collaboration

  • an accessory

  • a contradiction

  • an analogy

ID: e8c26398 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The text after the semicolon tells us that Hu "identif[ied] broad similarities between two seemingly different phenomena," comparing ants with light particles. Since an analogy seeks similarities between seemingly unrelated phenomena, this fits the context perfectly.

Choice A is incorrect. "A collaboration" refers to "an act of working with others," but what comes after the semicolon doesn’t describe collaboration with other researchers. Instead, it shows a comparison between two different (but ultimately similar) scientific phenomena. Choice B is incorrect. "An accessory" can refer to "something added to increase attractiveness or usefulness." No accessories are described in this text. Choice C is incorrect. "A contradiction" means "a set of ideas or things that are opposed to or inconsistent with each other." The text describes how Hu used the similarity between ant and light particle movement to develop his method, so a word that refers to difference would not make sense here.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 4830ab87

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 4830ab87

The way in which individual elements are balanced within a photographic image tends to affect how viewers perceive it: symmetry tends to give the elements equal importance, asymmetry emphasizes differences, and radial balance (organizing the elements around a central point) emphasizes the center over the periphery. What a photograph conveys is therefore largely blank how it is balanced.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • inhibited by

  • contingent on

  • obligated to

  • reserved for

ID: 4830ab87 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of visual balance in photography. In this context, "contingent on" means conditional upon, or determined by. The text indicates that different ways of balancing elements in a photograph convey different ideas to viewers (for example, symmetrical composition tends to emphasize similarity among elements, whereas asymmetry tends to emphasize difference). Thus, there is a strong connection between what a photograph conveys and how its elements are balanced. Therefore, what a photo conveys is contingent on how it is balanced.

Choice A is incorrect. In this context, "inhibited by" most nearly means hindered or undermined by. The text indicates that different ways of balancing elements in a photograph convey different ideas to viewers, thereby indicating a relationship between image balance and what is conveyed. Although this explanation is consistent with a photographer choosing asymmetrical balance even while intending to convey similarity (associated with symmetrical balance), there is nothing to indicate that messages generally are inhibited by balance. Rather the implication is that balance is a tool photographers can use to craft their messages. Choice C is incorrect. In this context, "obligated to" means duty bound toward or answerable to. In context, it would not make sense to assert that a photograph’s message is obligated to how that photograph is balanced. Choice D is incorrect. In this context, "reserved for" most nearly means solely available to someone or held aside for some purpose. The text as a whole does not support the claim that a photograph’s message is reserved for how that photograph is balanced.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 5336f2e4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 5336f2e4

The following text is adapted from Zora Neale Hurston’s 1921 short story “John Redding Goes to Sea.” John is a child who lives in a town in the woods.

Perhaps ten-year-old John was puzzling to the folk there in the Florida woods for he was an imaginative child and fond of day-dreams. The St. John River flowed a scarce three hundred feet from his back door. On its banks at this point grow numerous palms, luxuriant magnolias and bay trees. On the bosom of the stream float millions of delicately colored hyacinths. [John Redding] loved to wander down to the water’s edge, and, casting in dry twigs, watch them sail away down stream to Jacksonville, the sea, the wide world and [he] wanted to follow them.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • It provides an extended description of a location that John likes to visit.

  • It reveals that some residents of John’s town are confused by his behavior.

  • It illustrates the uniqueness of John’s imagination compared to the imaginations of other children.

  • It suggests that John longs to experience a larger life outside the Florida woods.

ID: 5336f2e4 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it accurately describes how the underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. The text establishes that John has a strong imagination and then goes on to describe the St. John River near John’s home in the Florida woods. The underlined sentence depicts John sending twigs sailing down the river while he imagines them reaching “Jacksonville, the sea, the wide world,” where he wishes he could follow. This suggests that John longs to expand his life experiences beyond the Florida woods.

Choice A is incorrect because the second and third sentences of the text provide an extended description of the riverbank where John likes to go, whereas the underlined sentence describes what John does at that location. Choice B is incorrect because the first sentence of the text suggests that John’s behavior “was puzzling” to others around him, whereas the underlined sentence concerns the content of John’s imaginings. Choice C is incorrect because the underlined sentence elaborates on John’s imagination but doesn’t mention any other children to whom John could be compared.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 6f5fc289

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 6f5fc289

The following text is adapted from Charles Dickens’s 1854 novel Hard Times. Coketown is a fictional town in England. 

[Coketown] contained several large streets all very like one another, and many small streets still more like one another, inhabited by people equally like one another, who all went in and out at the same hours, with the same sound upon the same pavements, to do the same work, and to whom every day was the same as yesterday and tomorrow, and every year the counterpart of the last and the next. 

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To emphasize the uniformity of both the town and the people who live there

  • To explain the limited work opportunities available to the town’s residents

  • To reveal how the predictability of the town makes it easy for people lose track of time

  • To argue that the simplicity of life in the town makes it a pleasant place to live

ID: 6f5fc289 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The author describes Coketown as having streets that are all very similar and residents who live similarly and do the same work. This repetition of similarities emphasizes how everything in Coketown is alike.

Choice B is incorrect. While the text mentions that all the residents “do the same work,” it never explains what that work is or why everyone does it. Besides, the idea that they all do the same work is just one of several similarities among the townspeople described in the text. Choice C is incorrect. While the last sentence states that “every day was the same as yesterday and tomorrow, and every year the counterpart of the last and the next,” it never suggests that people actually “lose track of time.” This is also too narrow to be the main idea, since time is just one of many aspects of Coketown that the text describes as always being the same. Choice D is incorrect. The text never mentions whether life is simple in Coketown, and the town sounds as though it’s probably a pretty dull place to live, rather than a pleasant one.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 1455b754

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 1455b754

While recent scholarship has undermined claims that the works of twelfth-century Islamic philosopher Ibn Rushd were blank other Muslim philosophers of his time, it is indisputable that his location in the Muslim-ruled area of what is now Spain meant that his works were primarily available thousands of miles west of the era’s center of Islamic thought. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • controversial among

  • antagonistic toward

  • imitated by

  • inconsequential to

ID: 1455b754 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the twelfth-century Islamic philosopher Ibn Rushd. As used in this context, "inconsequential to" means not significant to. According to the text, Ibn Rushd’s works were primarily available in Spain, where he lived, far from central areas of the Muslim world, a fact that could support the conclusion that his influence on Muslim contemporaries was limited. The text implies, however, that recent scholarship has shown that his works still had an impact on other Muslim philosophers of his time. This context supports the idea that his works weren’t inconsequential to Islamic thought in this period.

Choice A is incorrect because the issue under consideration in the text is whether other Muslim philosophers of Ibn Rushd’s time had access to his works, not whether his works were "controversial among," or causing dispute among, other philosophers. Choice B is incorrect. The text implies that other Muslim philosophers of Ibn Rushd’s era were aware of his works, not that they were "antagonistic toward," or hostile toward, them. There is no suggestion that Ibn Rushd’s writings elicited hostility from his contemporaries. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, "imitated by" would mean followed as a model by. Although the text implies that Ibn Rushd’s works were at least somewhat available in regions that were at the center of Islamic thought during the period, it doesn’t specifically address in what ways his works influenced contemporary Muslim philosophers. Thus, the text doesn’t support the idea that other philosophers modeled their own works after Ibn Rushd’s works.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 7bc05fa2

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 7bc05fa2

Whether the reign of a French monarch such as Hugh Capet or Henry I was historically consequential or relatively uneventful, its trajectory was shaped by questions of legitimacy and therefore cannot be understood without a corollary understanding of the factors that allowed the monarch to blank his right to hold the throne.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • disengage

  • annotate

  • buttress

  • reciprocate

ID: 7bc05fa2 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the legitimacy of the reigns of French monarchs such as Hugh Capet and Henry I. As used in this context, “buttress” means to strengthen or defend. The text indicates that regardless of whether a French monarch’s reign was significant or uneventful, each monarch faced questions about his right to the throne. The text goes on to say that in order to understand the path of a French monarch’s reign, it’s important to understand what contributed to the monarch’s ability to “hold the throne.” This context suggests that French monarchs such as Hugh Capet and Henry I had to buttress, or defend, their right to be monarch. 

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context to discuss factors that enabled a monarch to “disengage,” or withdraw his right to the French throne. The text focuses on an examination of people who reigned as French monarchs, not on people who didn’t choose to rule. Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context to discuss factors that enabled a monarch to “annotate,” or add notes to or explain, his right to the French throne. Nothing in the text suggests that the monarchs were writing notes about their right to the throne; instead, faced with questions about the legitimacy of their reign, the monarchs defended their right. Choice D is incorrect. Saying that a monarch who is faced with questions about the legitimacy of his reign was able to “reciprocate” his right to the French throne would mean that he either returned his right to the throne or that he responded in kind to the challenge. Neither of these meanings would make sense in context because the text focuses on people who did reign as French monarchs and defended their right to do so.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 65406d2c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 65406d2c

Dubautia carrii is a species in a family of plants known collectively as the silversword alliance, all of which grow only on the Hawaiian Islands. Members of this alliance exhibit an extraordinary range of phenotypes, with some species maturing into vines and others into shrubs and trees. All species in the alliance descended from a single ancestral tarweed plant that arrived on the islands around 5 million years ago. The tarweed’s descendants diversified into distinct species as they adapted to live in the wide variety of habitats found on the Hawaiian Islands.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To indicate the specific tarweed ancestor of all plants that grow on the Hawaiian Islands and explain why the plants have such varied physical characteristics

  • To describe the specific habitat where Dubautia carrii are found and identify other plants that share a common ancestor with them

  • To describe the silversword alliance and explain how the plant family became so varied

  • To advance the claim that all plants on the Hawaiian Islands are part of the silversword alliance and list possible ancestors of the plants that make up the alliance

ID: 65406d2c Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text, which is to describe the family of plants known as the silversword alliance and explain why the plants came to exhibit "an extraordinary range of phenotypes." The text introduces the silversword alliance as a family of plants unique to the Hawaiian Islands, presenting those that mature into vines and those that mature into shrubs and trees as examples of different phenotypes. The text concludes by explaining that these plants are all descendants of "a single ancestral tarweed plant" that arrived 5 million years ago in the Hawaiian Islands, where a "wide variety of habitats" drove the plant’s descendants to adapt and thus differentiate themselves, diversifying into a group of related but distinct species with different physical characteristics.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text explains why the plants within the silversword alliance have varied physical characteristics, the text doesn’t suggest that tarweed is the ancestor of all plants on the Hawaiian Islands. The text states instead that all members of the silversword alliance descend from a single tarweed ancestor. Choice B is incorrect because while Dubautia carrii is mentioned as an example of a species in the silversword alliance, no details about its particular habitat are provided. And although the text indicates that the Hawaiian Islands are home to "a wide variety of habitats," it doesn’t describe the specific habitat where Dubautia carrii is found. The text discusses the silversword alliance as a whole rather than focusing on Dubautia carrii or any one species within this family. Choice D is incorrect. Although the silversword alliance is only found on the Hawaiian Islands and includes "an extraordinary range of phenotypes," the text doesn’t claim that all plants on the Hawaiian Islands are part of the alliance. Furthermore, the text indicates that these plants all "descended from a single ancestral tarweed plant," not that there are multiple possible candidates for that ancestor plant.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 10c236ce

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 10c236ce

Text corpora such as the Bank of English are enormous collections of electronically stored texts that can be used for empirical testing of hypotheses regarding the frequency of typical word usage. If one has a blank that the word “get” has a high incidence in English, for example, an analysis of a corpus can support that hypothesis by showing that “get” is the fifth most commonly used verb.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • recognition

  • scheme

  • supposition

  • synopsis

ID: 10c236ce Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of testing hypotheses regarding usage by means of text corpora. In this context, "supposition" refers to an assumption or hypothesis that is not yet proven. The text explains that text corpora can be used for "empirical testing of hypotheses regarding the frequency of typical word usage" and then provides a specific example of using corpus analysis to support a claim about the word "get." The word "supposition" precisely conveys this idea of an assumption or hypothesis about word frequency that can then be tested against empirical data.

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that someone has a "recognition" that the word "get" has a high incidence in English. Recognition implies acknowledging something already established as true or valid, but the text indicates that corpus analysis is needed to support the claim about "get," suggesting its high frequency wasn’t already established or previously known. Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that someone has a "scheme" that the word "get" has a high incidence in English. A scheme is a plan or systematic arrangement, but the context indicates what’s needed is a preliminary hypothesis that can be tested with corpus data, not a plan related to word frequency. Choice D is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that someone has a "synopsis" that the word "get" has a high incidence in English. A synopsis is a summary or outline, but the text is discussing an initial hypothesis about word frequency that requires testing, not a condensed statement of existing information.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID b92c13fa

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: b92c13fa

According to statistician Nassim Nicholas Taleb, the best way to predict the amount of time a nonperishable entity (such as a building or a technology) will continue to exist is to examine how long it has survived so far. In this view, an item’s age is the strongest blank how much longer it will last.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • uncertainty about

  • indicator of

  • motivation for

  • criticism of

ID: b92c13fa Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. “Indicator” means “something that shows or suggests,” which matches Taleb’s argument that an item’s age can suggest how much longer it will last.

Choice A is incorrect. The passage tells us that examining an item’s age is the best way to predict how much longer it will last. Therefore, according to Taleb’s theory, an item’s age should add more certainty about how much longer it will last. Choice C is incorrect. A “motivation” is “a reason for doing.” Items don’t have feelings and motivations, so it wouldn’t make sense to say that their age is a motivation for how much longer they will last. Choice D is incorrect. “Criticism” can mean “describing faults or problems” or “an analysis of an artistic work.” Neither of these definitions makes sense here. An item’s age can’t criticize how much longer it will last.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID f7c02e89

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: f7c02e89

 

Text 1

Films and television shows commonly include a long list of credits naming the people involved in a production. Credit sequences may not be exciting, but they generally ensure that everyone’s contributions are duly acknowledged. Because they are highly standardized, film and television credits are also valuable to anyone researching the careers of pioneering cast and crew members who have worked in the mediums.

 

Text 2

Video game scholars face a major challenge in the industry’s failure to consistently credit the artists, designers, and other contributors involved in making video games. Without a reliable record of which people worked on which games, questions about the medium’s development can be difficult to answer, and the accomplishments of all but its best-known innovators can be difficult to trace.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 1 most likely respond to the discussion in Text 2?

  • By recommending that the scholars mentioned in Text 2 consider employing the methods regularly used by film and television researchers

  • By pointing out that credits have a different intended purpose in film and television than in the medium addressed by the scholars mentioned in Text 2

  • By suggesting that the scholars mentioned in Text 2 rely more heavily on credits as a source of information than film and television researchers do

  • By observing that a widespread practice in film and television largely prevents the kind of problem faced by the scholars mentioned in Text 2

ID: f7c02e89 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it reflects how the author of Text 1 would most likely respond to Text 2 based on the information provided. Text 2 discusses how the inconsistent use of credits to identify the contributors to video games can pose an obstacle to scholars of the medium, who rely on such credits to answer questions about the medium’s development. Text 1 notes that in film and television, on the other hand, credits are used consistently and are valuable to researchers studying the cast and crew members in these mediums. Since Text 1 asserts how the consistent use of credits benefits scholars of film and television, it can be inferred that this text’s author would respond to the discussion in Text 2 by observing that the kind of problem faced by scholars of video games—the inability to know who contributed to a particular production and how—is, in film and television studies, largely prevented by the widespread practice of credits in these mediums.

Choice A is incorrect. Although Text 1 discusses a method used by film and television researchers—namely, relying on credits to research the careers of cast and crew members—the author doesn’t explicitly recommend that or any other method. Moreover, Text 1 states that films and television shows themselves, not their researchers, regularly use the method of listing credits. Choice B is incorrect. It can be inferred from Text 2 that when video games do feature credits, they have essentially the same function as credits in film and television—namely, to identify the individuals who worked on a particular production. Therefore, it is unlikely that the author of Text 1 would characterize video game credits as differing in purpose from film and television credits. Choice C is incorrect because, as Text 2 explains, credits are not consistently used in video games. Therefore, it is unlikely that the author of Text 1 would argue that scholars of the medium discussed in this text—video games—rely more heavily on credits than scholars of film and television, two mediums where credits consistently appear.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID b44066dc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: b44066dc

Economist Jingting Fan argues that the effects of international trade may display spatial variation at sub-national levels. For instance, imported goods may reduce expenses for a country’s average consumer, but for consumers living far from ports, high intranational transport costs could blank the price advantages associated with imports.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • nullify

  • denigrate

  • underestimate

  • misconstrue

ID: b44066dc Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it logically completes the text’s discussion of imported goods and consumer prices. In this context, "nullify" most nearly means negate or undermine. The text indicates that importing goods to a country can reduce consumer prices in that country, then cautions that the costs of transporting goods within the country is also a factor. These transportation costs likely raise the prices that must be paid by people who live far from the ports of entry. Therefore, the intranational transportation costs could nullify the price advantages to consumers of importing goods.

Choice B is incorrect. In this context, "denigrate" would most nearly mean disparage or deny the importance of. Since transportation costs would not be capable of denying the importance of price advantages, it would not make sense to state that intranational transportation costs denigrate the price advantages of importing goods. Choice C is incorrect. In this context, "underestimate" would most nearly mean predict a lower value for, or to undervalue, someone or something. Though transportation costs might be undervalued, they cannot themselves undervalue something else, so it would not make sense to state that intranational transportation costs underestimate the price advantages of importing goods. Choice D is incorrect. In this context, "misconstrue" would most nearly mean misunderstand. Since transport costs are not capable of understanding, it would not make sense to claim that intranational transportation costs misconstrue the price advantages of importing goods.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 74ee7737

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 74ee7737

Whether Carmen Lomas Garza is creating small paintings and illustrations or large public artworks—such as Baile, a copper cutout of traditional Mexican dance in the San Francisco International Airport—she is blank direct experience, drawing from memories of her childhood in Texas or details of her current surroundings in California.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • complimented by

  • uncertain about

  • unbothered by

  • inspired by

ID: 74ee7737 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Carmen Lomas Garza’s artistic process. In this context, "inspired by" means influenced by or motivated by. The text refers to how, regardless of the scale of the work, Garza uses her memories of Texas and details from California to create her art. If Garza is basing her work on her direct experiences, then they play a part in her artistic process. This context thus suggests that Garza’s art is inspired by the experiences of her childhood in Texas and her current life in California.

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make logical sense to indicate that Garza is "complimented by"—or praised by—something inanimate such as direct experience. Choice B is incorrect because describing Garza as "uncertain about"—or unsure or doubtful of—direct experience would suggest that she had misgivings about it. If Garza were unsure of her experiences, that would suggest that she couldn’t recall them, and Garza wouldn’t be able to represent direct experience in her art if she were uncertain of the memories or details. Choice C is incorrect because describing Garza as "unbothered by"—or uninterested in—her experience would imply the opposite of what the text suggests about Garza’s artistic process. The text indicates that Garza’s art comes from memories of her childhood in Texas and details of her surroundings in California.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 809addda

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 809addda

The following text is from Ameen Rihani’s 1921 poem “The Wanderer.” 

I wander among the hills of alien lands

Where Nature her prerogative resigns

To Man; where Comfort in her shack reclines

And all the arts and sciences commands.

But in my soul

The eastern billows roll—

I hear the voices of my native strands.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined lines in the text as a whole?

  • It establishes that the speaker’s enthusiasm about current travels conflicts with the growing urge to return home.

  • It illustrates the speaker’s uncertainty about maintaining strong links with relatives in distant places.

  • It conveys the speaker’s sense of feeling a pull toward home while traveling in an unfamiliar place.

  • It reveals that upon returning after an extended absence, the speaker longs for the way a location once felt.

ID: 809addda Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes the function of the underlined lines in the text as a whole. In the opening line of the text, the speaker describes wandering in "alien lands," which establishes that the speaker is traveling in unfamiliar territory. In the underlined lines, the speaker describes "billows" (large waves) rolling in the soul, which suggests that the speaker feels inner turmoil. The underlined lines go on to associate these rolling billows with voices calling to the speaker from the speaker’s "native strands," or homeland, indicating that thoughts of home are prompting the emotional experience these lines describe. Taken together, the imagery in the underlined lines thus implies that the speaker feels a deep emotional connection to, or pull toward, home while traveling in an unfamiliar place.

Choice A is incorrect. While the text’s first line states that the speaker is traveling and the underlined lines indicate that the speaker experiences an emotional pull toward home, neither the underlined lines nor the text as a whole establishes an enthusiasm about the current travels that conflicts with a growing urge to return home. The text’s description of the lands the speaker is traveling in focuses on their artificial quality, stating, "Nature her prerogative resigns / To Man," which doesn’t suggest enthusiasm but rather a sense of detachment or even critique. Choice B is incorrect because the underlined lines don’t address uncertainty about maintaining links with relatives in distant places. In the underlined lines, the speaker expresses a sense of connection to the speaker’s homeland ("native strands") but doesn’t refer to any family members the speaker may have there or to concerns about maintaining any familial ties. Choice D is incorrect because the poem doesn’t indicate that the speaker has returned home after an absence. Rather, the speaker explicitly states, "I wander among the hills of alien lands," establishing that the current setting is a foreign place. Moreover, the underlined lines express a sense of connection with, or pull toward, a distant homeland, not a sense of longing for how that homeland or any other location once felt.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 82c05b34

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 82c05b34

Text 1

The live music festival business is growing in event size and genre variety. With so many consumer options, organizers are finding ways to cement festival attendance as a special experience worth sharing. This phenomenon is linked to the growing “experiential economy,” where many find it gratifying to purchase lived experiences. To ensure a profitable event, venues need to consider the overall consumer experience, not just the band lineup.

Text 2

Music festival appearances are becoming a more important part of musicians’ careers. One factor in this shift is the rising use of streaming services that allow access to huge numbers of songs for a monthly fee, subsequently reducing sales of full-length albums. With this shift in consumer behavior, musicians are increasingly dependent on revenue from live performances.

Based on the texts, both authors would most likely agree with which statement?

  • Consumers are more interested in paying subscription fees to stream music than in attending music festivals in person. 

  • Consumers’ growing interest in purchasing experiences is mostly confined to the music industry. 

  • Changing consumer behaviors are leading to changes in music-related businesses. 

  • The rising consumer demand for live music festivals also generates higher demand for music streaming platforms.

ID: 82c05b34 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. Both authors mention how consumer behaviors have shifted, and how this affects different aspects of the music industry. Text 1 states that consumers enjoy purchasing “lived experiences,” and that this influences how organizers design music festivals. Text 2 states that consumers are using streaming services more, and that this reduces album sales and increases the importance of live performances for musicians.

Choice A is incorrect. Neither text claims that consumers prefer streaming to festivals, or that these are mutually exclusive options. Text 1 implies that festivals are popular and profitable, and Text 2 never suggests that streaming services diminish the demand for live music. Choice B is incorrect. This choice misreads Text 1, which identifies music festivals as just one example of a broader trend of purchasing “lived experiences.” Text 2 doesn’t mention growing interest in purchasing experiences, in the music industry or otherwise. Choice D is incorrect. Neither text establishes a cause/effect relationship between the demand for festivals and the demand for streaming platforms. Text 1 does not mention streaming platforms at all, and Text 2 does not imply that streaming platforms benefit from the popularity of festivals.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 849bf8d7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 849bf8d7

In the mid-nineteenth century, some abolitionist newspapers blank westward migration in the United States; by printing a letter that described the easy fortunes and high salaries miners could make in California during the Gold Rush, Frederick Douglass’s newspaper North Star was one such publication that inspired readers to relocate.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • stimulated

  • assigned

  • opposed

  • disregarded

ID: 849bf8d7 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. "Stimulated" means "encouraged interest or increased activity in." Because the newspapers discussed the benefits of westward migration and "inspired readers to relocate," we can infer that they encouraged people to move west.

Choice B is incorrect. "Assigned" means "gave a job or duty." Newspapers do not have the power to assign people to move west, although they can encourage it. Choice C is incorrect. "Opposed" means "disapproved of." We can tell that this isn’t the case, because the newspapers discussed "the easy fortunes and high salaries miners could make in California" and "inspired readers to relocate." Choice D is incorrect. "Disregarded" means "ignored." If the newspapers are writing about the west and "inspir[ing] readers to relocate," they can’t be ignoring it at the same time.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID f7d58b53

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: f7d58b53

Like other tribal nations, the Muscogee (Creek) Nation is self-governing; its National Council generates laws regulating aspects of community life such as land use and healthcare, while the principal chief and cabinet officials blank those laws by devising policies and administering services in accordance with them.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • implement

  • presume

  • improvise

  • mimic

ID: f7d58b53 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of self-government among the Muscogee (Creek) Nation. In this context, “implement” means to carry out or put into effect. The text states that the National Council generates laws, while the principal chief and cabinet officials are responsible for “devising policies and administering services in accordance with” those laws. This context suggests that the principal chief and cabinet officials implement the laws: they put the laws into effect by creating policies and administering services that accord with those laws.

Choice B is incorrect because “presume” in this context would mean to assume based on incomplete information, and the text does not suggest that the principal chief and cabinet officials either made assumptions about the content of the laws or had incomplete information about them. Choice C is incorrect because in this context “improvise” would mean to create something without preparation, and the text does not suggest that the principal chief and cabinet officials create policies and administer services without advance preparation. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that the principal chief and cabinet officials “mimic,” or imitate, the laws generated by the National Council. To mimic laws would mean to generate new laws that are imitations of existing laws, but the text indicates that the National Council, not the principal chief and cabinet officials, is responsible for generating laws. Instead of generating laws, the principal chief and cabinet officials put laws into effect by “devising policies and administering services in accordance with” the laws.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 6286dd96

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 6286dd96

The following text is adapted from Frances Hodgson Burnett’s 1905 novel A Little Princess. Sara is a young student at a school in London.

Sara not only could tell stories, but she adored telling them. When she sat or stood in the midst of a circle and began to invent wonderful things, her green eyes grew big and shining, her cheeks flushed, and, without knowing that she was doing it, she began to act and made what she told lovely or alarming by the raising or dropping of her voice.

As used in the text, what does the word “invent” most nearly mean?

  • Mislead

  • Disguise

  • Create

  • Discover

ID: 6286dd96 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because as used in the text, "invent" most nearly means create or make up. The text begins by stating that Sara likes to tell stories and thoroughly enjoys telling them. The rest of the text describes how she looks and acts when she invents, or creates, "wonderful things" in her stories ("what she told").

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text suggests that Sara makes up "wonderful things," nothing suggests that she does so to mislead, or intentionally deceive, others; there is no reason to assume that Sara’s listeners don’t know that she’s creating the stories she shares. Choice B is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that Sara is disguising, or trying to cover up or conceal, "wonderful things" when she tells stories; rather, she is creating them and presenting them in ways that make them "lovely or alarming" for her listeners. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that Sara is discovering, or unexpectedly finding, "wonderful things" in the stories she loves to tell; rather, that she is making things up as she tells the stories.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 8b46bb51

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 8b46bb51

A journalist and well-respected art critic of nineteenth-century Britain, Lady Elizabeth Rigby Eastlake did not hesitate to publish reviews that went against popular opinion. One of her most divisive works was an essay questioning the idea of photography as an emerging medium for fine art: in the essay, Eastlake blank that the value of photographs was informational rather than creative.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • exposed

  • asserted

  • discovered

  • doubted

ID: 8b46bb51 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. "Asserted" means "stated confidently." Eastlake "did not hesitate to publish reviews going against popular opinion," so we can assume that she was confident in sharing her opinions.

Choice A is incorrect. "Exposed" means "made visible by uncovering" and, when talking about ideas, tends to be used in relation to uncovering the truth. Eastlake was sharing an opinion, not uncovering a truth. Choice C is incorrect. "Discovered" means "found," but Eastlake was writing an opinion essay. She was writing her own opinion, not "discovering" a new universal truth. Choice D is incorrect. "Doubted" means "didn’t believe in." We’re told that Eastlake "questioned" the idea that photography could be fine art. Placing "doubted" in the blank would actually suggest that Eastlake argued that photos were valuable for creativity and not for information, which is the opposite of what we were told she believes.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 44cc5f75

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 44cc5f75

Artificially delivering biomolecules to plant cells is an important component of protecting plants from pathogens, but it is difficult to transmit biomolecules through the layers of the plant cell wall. Markita del Carpio Landry and her colleagues have shown that it may be possible to blank this problem by transmitting molecules through carbon nanotubes, which can cross cell walls.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • conceptualize

  • neglect

  • illustrate

  • overcome

ID: 44cc5f75 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of delivering biomolecules to plant cells. In this context, “overcome” means to succeed in dealing with an obstacle. The text suggests that although it’s difficult to move biomolecules through plant cell walls, Landry and her colleagues have shown that carbon nanotubes may be useful, since they can cross cell walls. This context conveys that Landry and her colleagues think it’s possible, using carbon nanotubes, to succeed in dealing with the obstacle of transmitting biomolecules to plant cells.

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context to say that Landry and her colleagues have shown that it may be possible to “conceptualize,” or form an idea of, the difficulty of transmitting biomolecules through the walls of plant cells. The text presents this difficulty as a known problem that Landry and her colleagues think they may have solved, not as a mysterious occurrence that they have yet to form ideas about. Choice B is incorrect because the text suggests that Landry and her colleagues think it may be possible to successfully deal with the problem of transmitting biomolecules through the walls of plant cells, not that Landry and her colleagues think it may be possible to “neglect,” or simply to disregard and ignore the problem. Choice C is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context to say that Landry and her colleagues have shown that it may be possible to “illustrate,” or demonstrate, the difficulty of transmitting biomolecules through the walls of plant cells by using carbon nanotubes. According to the text, carbon nanotubes allow molecules to be transmitted to plant cells—something that is otherwise difficult to do. The text therefore presents carbon nanotubes as a way of possibly solving a problem, not as a means of demonstrating the problem.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID aaa3ee7c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: aaa3ee7c

Critics have asserted that fine art and fashion rarely blank in a world where artists create timeless works for exhibition and designers periodically produce new styles for the public to buy. Luiseño/Shoshone-Bannock beadwork artist and designer Jamie Okuma challenges this view: her work can be seen in the Metropolitan Museum of Art and purchased through her online boutique.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • prevail

  • succumb

  • diverge

  • intersect

ID: aaa3ee7c Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion about the relationship between fine art and fashion. As used in this context, “intersect” means to connect or overlap. The text indicates that Jamie Okuma challenges the position held by critics because her work can be seen at an art museum and can be bought by the public from her online boutique. The text also presents the critics’ view as being influenced by a perception that fine artists create works that are “timeless” and meant for exhibition, whereas fashion designers periodically produce new styles that are meant for purchase. This context suggests that the critics believe that fine art and fashion tend not to overlap—in other words, that they rarely intersect. 

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context to say that critics contend that fine art and fashion rarely “prevail,” or prove to be triumphant or widespread. The text indicates that Okuma is an example of an artist who demonstrates that it’s possible to make fine art that is also available to the public as fashion. Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context to say that fine art and fashion rarely “succumb,” or surrender. The text establishes that unlike what critics believe, Okuma creates works that are in art museums and available for the public to purchase, suggesting that critics believe fine art and fashion rarely overlap, not that they rarely succumb. Choice C is incorrect because saying that critics believe that fine art and fashion rarely “diverge,” or disagree or move in different directions, wouldn’t make sense in context. The text presents Okuma’s work as both fine art and fashion, thereby undermining what the critics assert. This suggests that the critics believe that fine art and fashion rarely intersect rather than that the two rarely diverge.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID afd2a9eb

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: afd2a9eb

Manul cats are small, shy felines. They live mostly alone in out-of-the-way parts of Asia, such as on Mount Everest. These cats have been difficult to research because their habitats are so blank large populations of humans.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • full of

  • drawn to

  • responsible for

  • distant from

ID: afd2a9eb Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of manul cats. The text states that manul cats live in "out-of-the-way parts of Asia" (citing the famously remote Mount Everest as an example) and indicates that it is difficult to research the cats because of the location of their habitats. By emphasizing that the habitats are remote in relation to humans, the text conveys that being "distant from," or far from, large groups of humans makes manul cats challenging to study.

Choice A is incorrect because saying that the habitats of manul cats are "full of large populations of humans" would indicate that the cats cohabitate with many humans, which would directly contradict the text’s claim that the cats live in "out-of-the-way" areas. Choice B is incorrect because the missing words describe an aspect of manul cats’ habitats, or the areas where they live, and it wouldn’t make sense to say that areas could be "drawn to," or attracted by, large groups of humans. Choice C is incorrect. In this context, "responsible for" would mean either having an obligation to care for something or being the cause of something, and it wouldn’t make sense to say that the habitats of manul cats (the areas where the cats live) would need to care for humans or that the habitats somehow created large human populations.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 4ed09415

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 4ed09415

Vadamalai Elangovan and Ganapathi Marimuthu showed that high moonlight intensity inhibits the activity of the greater short-nosed fruit bat (Cynopterus sphinx), a result explicable in terms of benefits and costs: greater lunar intensity may not enable the bats to increase foraging success enough to offset the higher chance of detection by predatory owls or hawks. Most other nocturnal mammals respond to lunar intensity variations similarly to greater short-nosed fruit bats, but mongoose lemurs (Eulemur mongoz) display the opposite pattern, as their heavy reliance on visual foraging results in a different balance of reward and risk.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • It discusses two different responses to the same natural phenomenon, explains why one of those responses occurs, and then suggests that the other response still needs to be explained. 

  • It describes and accounts for a finding, characterizes the finding as representative of a general pattern, and then describes and accounts for an exception to that pattern.

  • It presents and explains a study result, indicates that the result is similar to the results of many other studies, and then attributes a conflicting study result to a difference in that study’s methods.

  • It introduces an observation of a behavioral pattern, presents an explanation for the pattern, and then describes an exception to the pattern that casts doubt on that explanation. 

ID: 4ed09415 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately describes the overall structure of the text. The text begins by describing a study’s finding about greater short-nosed fruit bats—namely, that high moonlight intensity inhibits the bats’ activity—and also accounts for that finding, stating that this occurs because the potential increase in foraging success that greater lunar intensity enables doesn’t offset these bats’ increased vulnerability to predators (whose vision is also implied to become more acute under intense moonlight). The text goes on to characterize this finding as representative of a general pattern, stating that many nocturnal mammals behave similarly in response to changes in lunar intensity. The text concludes by describing an exception to this pattern, explaining that mongoose lemurs display an opposite tendency because they rely heavily on visual foraging. This strategy presumably would allow them to derive more benefit from greater lunar intensity than many other nocturnal mammals would, resulting in a "different balance of reward and risk" than exists for other nocturnal mammals. Therefore, the overall structure of the text is best described as a description and account of a finding, a characterization of that finding as representative of a pattern, and then a description and account of an exception to that pattern.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text discusses two different responses to variations in moonlight intensity, explaining that as moonlight intensity increases, greater short-nosed fruit bats and many other nocturnal mammals decrease their foraging activity but mongoose lemurs increase their foraging activity, it doesn’t leave one of these responses unexplained. The text accounts for both the typical response to increased lunar intensity (reduced activity due to predation risk) and the exception (increased activity due to a reliance on visual foraging) by making reference to a cost-benefit framework. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text presents a study′s finding about the effect of increased lunar intensity on greater short-nosed fruit bats’ activity before going on to contrast this behavior with the fact that mongoose lemurs display the opposite response to increased lunar intensity, the text doesn’t explicitly invoke other studies and doesn’t attribute this difference in observed behavior to the fact that the study of greater short-nosed fruit bats used different methods than studies of mongoose lemurs did. Rather, the text explains that the different observed behaviors can be attributed to differences in species’ foraging strategies. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text characterizes the behavior of mongoose lemurs in response to increased lunar intensity as an exception to a pattern of behavior observed in other nocturnal mammal species, this exception doesn’t cast any doubt on the explanation that is offered for the general pattern observed among other species. Instead, the text uses the same cost-benefit framework to explain why increased lunar intensity is associated with decreased activity by greater short-nosed fruit bats and other nocturnal mammals but with increased activity by mongoose lemurs.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 3654202f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 3654202f

Radar and sonar can detect objects or people through walls, but they are too costly for consumer use. Researchers Fadel Adib and Dina Katabi have shown, however, that there may be a comparatively blank alternative: small changes to the Wi-Fi technology used in smartphones can give users a cheap way to count people or even identify their gestures through walls.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • infrequent

  • inexpensive

  • unmistakable

  • impractical

ID: 3654202f Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of ways to detect people through walls. In this context, "inexpensive" means less costly or low in price. The passage describes two kinds of methods that can be used to "detect objects or people through walls": radar and sonar, and changes to the Wi-Fi technology used in smartphones. The word "comparatively" before the blank indicates that the best answer would be one that helps to describe a comparison between the two. Radar and sonar are described as "costly," while the method that uses Wi-Fi technology is described as "cheap"; therefore, it would be comparatively affordable, or inexpensive.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that a small modification to the smartphones that many consumers already own would presumably result in consumers using that technology to detect objects or people through walls more regularly, or frequently; therefore, it would not be true that such technology would be comparatively infrequent, or uncommon. Choice C is incorrect because there is nothing in the text to indicate that either radar and sonar or changes to smartphone Wi-Fi technology are capable of being misunderstood or mistaken for something else; therefore, it would not make sense to describe changes to Wi-Fi smartphone technology as comparatively unmistakable, or indisputable. Choice D is incorrect because the text indicates that a small modification to the smartphones that many consumers already own and carry with them would be more functional or practical than radar and sonar, not more impractical, or unrealistic.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID ea971260

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: ea971260

The following text is adapted from Louisa May Alcott’s 1869 novel An Old-Fashioned Girl. Polly, a teenager, is visiting her friend Fanny.

Fanny’s friends did not interest Polly much; she was rather afraid of them [because] they seemed so much older and wiser than herself, even those younger in years. They talked about things of which she knew nothing and when Fanny tried to explain, she didn’t find them interesting; indeed, some of them rather shocked and puzzled her.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To portray Polly’s reaction to Fanny’s friends

  • To identify the topics Polly talks about with Fanny’s friends

  • To explain how Fanny met some of her friends

  • To illustrate how Fanny’s friends feel about Polly

ID: ea971260 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text, which is to show how Polly reacted to some of Fanny’s other friends. The text describes Polly as being frightened of Fanny’s friends because they seemed “much older and wiser” to her and elaborates that they “talked about things of which” Polly was unfamiliar, uninterested, and shocked. Thus, the main purpose of the text is to describe Polly’s impressions of Fanny’s other friends. 

Choice B is incorrect because the text does not provide any of the topics Polly discussed with Fanny’s friends, stating only that Polly found the topics unfamiliar, uninteresting, and shocking. Choice C is incorrect because the text says nothing about how Fanny and her other friends first met. Choice D is incorrect because the focus of the text is on Polly’s feelings about Fanny’s other friends, not on the other friends’ feelings about Polly.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 975b0602

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 975b0602

A number of Indigenous politicians have been elected to the United States Congress since 2000 as members of the country’s two established political parties. In Canada and several Latin American countries, on the other hand, Indigenous people have formed their own political parties to advance candidates who will advocate for the interests of their communities. This movement has been particularly successful in Ecuador, where Guadalupe Llori, a member of the Indigenous party known as Pachakutik, was elected president of the National Assembly in 2021.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To trace the history of an Indigenous political movement and speculate about its future development

  • To argue that Indigenous politicians in the United States should form their own political party

  • To highlight two approaches to achieving political representation for Indigenous people

  • To consider how Indigenous politicians in the United States have influenced Indigenous politicians in Canada and Latin America

ID: 975b0602 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text, which is to illustrate two approaches that Indigenous politicians have taken to achieve political representation for their communities. The text begins by explaining that one approach is exemplified by Indigenous politicians in the United States who, in an effort to ensure that the interests of their communities are represented in government, joined preexisting political parties and were subsequently elected to Congress. The text goes on to highlight a second approach adopted by Indigenous leaders in Canada and several Latin American countries: rather than joining established political parties, many Indigenous politicians in these countries have instead formed their own parties to promote candidates for office who support causes that are important to their communities. 

Choice A is incorrect because the text’s focus is on the contrasting approaches adopted by different Indigenous political movements in different countries; thus, it isn’t accurate to say that the text traces the history of one political movement. Moreover, the text only discusses examples from 2000 to 2021, a relatively short period of time; therefore, it provides very little in the way of discussion of larger historical developments, nor does it make any predictions about how these movements might continue to develop in the future. Choice B is incorrect because the text never urges Indigenous politicians in the US to alter their strategy of striving for representation through the established political parties, nor does it suggest that this strategy is inferior to that of Indigenous politicians in Canada and Latin America, who have formed their own parties. In fact, the text notes that both strategies have resulted in the election of Indigenous politicians to national governments. Choice D is incorrect because the text never suggests that Indigenous politicians in the US have influenced those in Canada and Latin America; instead, it stresses how Indigenous politicians’ approach toward achieving representation in the US government has differed from the approach Indigenous politicians have taken to achieve representation in national governments elsewhere in the Americas.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 2b085bc6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 2b085bc6

The following text is adapted from Paul Laurence Dunbar’s 1902 novel The Sport of the Gods. Joe and some of his family members have recently moved to New York City.

[Joe] was wild with enthusiasm and with a desire to be a part of all that the metropolis meant. In the evening he saw the young fellows passing by dressed in their spruce clothes, and he wondered with a sort of envy where they could be going. Back home there had been no place much worth going to, except church and one or two people’s houses.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • It illustrates a character’s reaction to a new environment.

  • It explains why a character has traveled to a city.

  • It compares a character’s thoughts about an event at two different times of day.

  • It presents a character feeling regret over leaving home.

ID: 2b085bc6 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text. The narrator describes how Joe responds to being in “the metropolis”: he’s excited and “wild with enthusiasm.” He also envies the young fellows who walk by because, dressed as they are, they look as if they have somewhere special to go. The text contrasts this new place with the place Joe comes from, where apparently there wasn’t as much to do. Thus, the main purpose of the text is to illustrate Joe’s reaction to a new environment.

Choice B is incorrect because the text makes no reference to why Joe has moved. The narrator indicates that Joe is enthusiastic about being in a city, but there’s no explanation provided for the move. Choice C is incorrect because the text makes no reference to how Joe thinks about an event. The narrator describes young men passing by in the evening and then recalls places worth going to at home—church and a few people’s houses—but there’s no explicit comparison made nor is a time of day mentioned for these events back home. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t support the idea that Joe feels regret over leaving home. Instead, Joe is described as “wild with enthusiasm” at being in the city. Joe’s home is mentioned, but only to compare it unfavorably with the city.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 03f5a9b7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 03f5a9b7

When marine biologist Brittany Williams played different ocean recordings to groups of oyster larvae, groups that heard sounds of a healthy oyster reef were the most blank. They were twice as likely as other groups to show signs of making a permanent home. This suggests that playing recordings of a healthy ocean reef may encourage oysters to create such a reef.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • responsive

  • inactive

  • liked

  • distressed

ID: 03f5a9b7 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of oysters and ocean recordings. As used in this context, "responsive" means reacting positively. The text presents a finding and describes it as suggesting that healthy ocean sounds may encourage oyster larvae to establish a reef (a permanent home): groups of oyster larvae that heard recorded sounds of a healthy oyster reef were two times more likely to show signs of forming their own reef than groups that heard different ocean recordings were. This context conveys that the groups that heard healthy reef sounds had a more positive reaction than the other groups did—that is, they were the most responsive.

Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that hearing sounds of a healthy oyster reef caused some groups of oyster larvae to become "inactive," or to stop engaging in work or activity. Instead, the text conveys that the groups that heard those sounds were observed engaging in activity: they were two times more likely to create a reef (a permanent home) than groups that heard different ocean sounds were. Choice C is incorrect because describing the groups of oyster larvae that heard sounds of a healthy oyster reef as most "liked," or regarded with pleasure, wouldn’t make sense in context. The text focuses on the idea that a study found that healthy reef sounds may encourage groups of oyster larvae to form reefs (permanent homes), not on the idea that some of the groups in the study were liked more than others. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that hearing sounds of a healthy oyster reef caused some groups of oyster larvae to be "distressed," or to experience difficulty or begin to decline. Instead, the text indicates that the sounds increased the likelihood that groups of larvae would establish a reef (a permanent home), suggesting that the sounds had a positive effect on the larvae.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID edd64a4a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: edd64a4a

The following text is adapted from Charles Chesnutt’s 1899 story “The Wife of His Youth.” Mr. Ryder is hosting a formal gathering where he will propose marriage to the woman he has been courting.

[A] younger and less cautious man would long since have spoken. But he had made up his mind, and had only to determine the time when he would ask her to be his wife. He decided to give a ball in her honor, and at some time during the evening of the ball to offer her his heart and hand.

As used in the text, what does the word “determine” most nearly mean? 

  • Choose

  • Influence

  • Demonstrate

  • Measure

ID: edd64a4a Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because as used in the text, "determine" most nearly means choose or decide. The text indicates that Mr. Ryder "had made up his mind" to ask a woman to marry him but had not yet "spoken"—that is, he had not yet asked her. The text also indicates that Mr. Ryder "decided" to throw a party for the woman and ask her during it. This context conveys that after making up his mind to propose, what Mr. Ryder had to do was determine, or choose, the time to do it.

Choice B is incorrect because in this context, "determine" doesn’t mean influence, or affect or control. The text isn’t indicating that Mr. Ryder is controlling time itself; such a thing isn’t possible. Rather, the text conveys that after making up his mind to ask a woman to marry him, Mr. Ryder had to make another decision about his own actions by selecting a time to propose. Choice C is incorrect. The text focuses on Mr. Ryder’s plan to ask a woman to marry him and his decision about when to ask her. This context conveys that after making up his mind to propose, Mr. Ryder had to choose the time, not that he had to demonstrate, or show, the time; it’s not clear what it would mean to demonstrate a time. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, "determine" doesn’t mean measure, or control with careful restraint. The text isn’t indicating that Mr. Ryder is carefully controlling time itself; such a thing isn’t possible. Rather, the text conveys that after making up his mind to ask a woman to marry him, Mr. Ryder had to make another decision about his own actions by selecting a time to propose; it’s Mr. Ryder’s decision that is measured, not the time he eventually chooses.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID f8ca5766

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: f8ca5766

Nigerian American author Teju Cole’s blank his two passions—photography and the written word—culminates in his 2017 book, Blind Spot, which evocatively combines his original photographs from his travels with his poetic prose.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • indifference to

  • enthusiasm for

  • concern about

  • surprise at

ID: f8ca5766 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Cole’s book Blind Spot. In this context, “enthusiasm for” means excitement about. The text explains that Blind Spot consists of original photographs as well as poetic prose—two elements that correspond to Cole’s passions, identified in the text, for photography and the written word. This context suggests that Cole’s excitement about photography and writing led him to create a book that successfully combines the two mediums.

Choice A is incorrect because describing Cole as feeling “indifference to” his two passions wouldn’t make sense in context. If Cole is indifferent to his passions, that would mean he doesn’t care about photography or writing—in which case they wouldn’t be his passions at all. Choice C is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that Cole feels “concern about,” or uneasiness about, his passions. The text’s use of the word “culminates” indicates that Blind Spot represents a triumphant climax of Cole’s passions, not a work that results from his sense of discomfort with photography and writing. Choice D is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that Cole feels “surprise at,” or astonished by, his passions. The text indicates that Cole’s feeling about his passions “culminates” in a book that “evocatively” combines photographs and writing, suggesting that Cole has a long-standing and skillful relationship to his passions, not that he is startled by them.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 9671d61d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 9671d61d

The following text is from Claude McKay’s 1922 poem “Morning Joy.” The speaker is looking out a window and observing a wold, or large area of land.

 

At night the wide and level stretch of wold,

Which at high noon had basked in quiet gold,

Far as the eye could see was ghostly white;

Dark was the night save for the snow’s weird light.

 

I drew the shades far down, crept into bed;

Hearing the cold wind moaning overhead

Through the sad pines, my soul, catching its pain,

Went sorrowing with it across the plain.

As used in the text, what does the word “drew” most nearly mean?

  • Pulled

  • Drained

  • Inspired

  • Sketched

ID: 9671d61d Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because as used in the text, “drew” most nearly means pulled. In the text, the speaker stands at a window, looking out on a landscape at night. The speaker then “drew the shades far down, crept into bed.” That is, the speaker pulled down, or lowered, the shades until they were completely shut before going to sleep. 

Choice B is incorrect. Although in some contexts, “drew” can refer to draining or removing liquid, especially water, as when someone draws water from a well, in this context it refers to the speaker pulling down window shades for the night. Choice C is incorrect. In some contexts, “drew” can be used to describe how a person or thing inspires, or elicits, a response from someone, as when a performer draws applause from an audience. But in this context it refers to the speaker pulling down window shades for the night. Choice D is incorrect. Although “drew” has several meanings, including sketched, or illustrated with a pen or pencil, in this context it refers to the speaker pulling down window shades for the night.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 0b5ecf0e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 0b5ecf0e

During Rome’s republican period, which ended in the first century BCE, libraries were predominantly owned by wealthy individuals who tightly controlled access to their book collections. The first public library became available in Rome in 28 BCE and was soon followed by one commissioned by Emperor Augustus. As modern scholar Fabio Fernandes notes, however, these two traditions aren’t as distinct as they seem, as both the emperor and the private library owners viewed their libraries as extensions of their personal patronage, just on vastly differing scales. 

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To give a brief overview of public access to libraries throughout Rome’s republican period

  • To contend that early imperial leaders in Rome wielded too much influence over libraries

  • To assert that private and early public libraries in ancient Rome had an essential similarity

  • To call into question the notion that private Roman libraries disappeared during the first century BCE

ID: 0b5ecf0e Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text. The text describes two types of libraries in first-century BCE Rome—private libraries controlled by wealthy individuals, and the public libraries like that commissioned by Emperor Augustus—and then notes that "these two traditions aren’t as distinct as they seem." It explains that both private-library owners and the emperor saw their libraries as "extensions of their personal patronage, just on vastly differing scales," because the emperor’s patronage extended to the whole citizenry of Rome. Thus, both private and public libraries in ancient Rome were fundamentally tied to relevant principles of patronage.

Choice A is incorrect because the text mentions that Rome’s republican period only to say that it "ended in the first century BCE," thus it doesn’t support any conclusions about possible occurrences "throughout Rome’s republican period." Choice B is incorrect. The text neither discusses "early imperial leaders in Rome," nor whether their level of influence was appropriate. Rather it discusses the end of "Rome’s republican period" in relation to libraries, who created them, and who got to use them without passing judgment on propriety. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text indicates that Rome’s republican period "ended in the first century BCE," a period that also saw the first public library come into use (28 BCE), nothing in the text suggests that private libraries disappeared at that time.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 213a25d1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 213a25d1

The following text is from Paul Laurence Dunbar’s 1913 poem “The Poet and His Song.”

A song is but a little thing,

And yet what joy it is to sing!

In hours of toil it gives me zest,

And when at eve I long for rest;

When cows come home along the bars,

And in the fold I hear the bell,

As Night, the shepherd, herds his stars,

I sing my song, and all is well.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To convey how engaging in song makes the speaker feel

  • To compare the speaker to a singing shepherd

  • To portray the speaker’s excitement about farming

  • To describe the pieces of music the speaker enjoys hearing

ID: 213a25d1 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because is accurately states the main purpose of the text. The text begins by declaring that although a song is "but a little thing," or seemingly insignificant, singing it brings joy and gives the speaker of the text "zest," or excitement, in "hours of toil." The remainder of the text explores the idea that as night is falling, singing allows the speaker to feel that "all is well." Thus, the main purpose of the text is to convey how engaging in song makes the speaker feel.

Choice B is incorrect. Although the text mentions a shepherd, it neither indicates that the shepherd is singing nor does it compare the shepherd to the speaker. Choice C is incorrect. The text indicates that the speaker works hard, engaging in "hours of toil," and it can be inferred that the speaker likely lives in a rural area, since cows and a cowbell can be heard nearby. However, the text does not suggest that the speaker is a farmer or feels excited about farming. Moreover, the shepherd in the text is not a literal reference to someone who herds sheep but instead a figurative description of the moon as the shepherd of the stars. Choice D is incorrect because in the text, the speaker is singing a song, not listening to others sing one. Moreover, the text describes the feelings that the speaker has when singing a song, not the song itself.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID a06c434d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: a06c434d

The work of Kiowa painter T.C. Cannon derives its power in part from the tension among his blank influences: classic European portraiture, with its realistic treatment of faces; the American pop art movement, with its vivid colors; and flatstyle, the intertribal painting style that rejects the effect of depth typically achieved through shading and perspective.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • complementary

  • unknown

  • disparate

  • interchangeable

ID: a06c434d Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the artistic styles that have influenced Cannon’s work. As used in this context, “disparate” means distinct or dissimilar. The text indicates that a tension exists among the styles that have influenced Cannon’s work and goes on to describe how those styles differ: classic European portraiture favors realism, American pop art uses vivid colors, and intertribal flatstyle rejects the use of shading and perspective to achieve depth. This context suggests that the styles that have influenced Cannon’s work are disparate. 

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that there is a tension among the influences on Cannon’s artwork, so it wouldn’t make sense to say that the influences are “complementary,” or that they complete one another or make up for one another’s deficiencies. Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to characterize Cannon’s influences as “unknown,” or not familiar; it’s clear that the influences are known because the text goes on to list them. Choice D is incorrect because the text indicates that there is a tension among the influences on Cannon’s work, not that they are  “interchangeable,” or capable of being used in one another’s place.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID ea9dfe27

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: ea9dfe27

The following text is from Joan Didion’s memoir The Year of Magical Thinking. In the text, the author discusses her home life.

[I]n California we heated our houses by building fires. We built fires even on summer evenings, because the fog came in. Fires said we were home, we had drawn the circle, we were safe through the night.

©2005 by Joan Didion

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?

  • It illustrates that a fire provides comfort beyond physical warmth.

  • It summarizes the information that came before it in the text.

  • It explains that the house remains cold even in summer.

  • It suggests that the author feels comfortable in her home with or without a fire.

ID: ea9dfe27 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined portion functions in the text as a whole. The first two sentences of the text establish that in California, houses were heated by building fires year-round. The underlined portion then indicates that the fires didn’t merely provide physical warmth: they also represented being "home" and feeling protected. The underlined portion thus illustrates that a fire provides comfort beyond physical warmth.

Choice B is incorrect because the underlined portion doesn’t summarize information that came before it. Whereas the previous two sentences describe fires’ ability to provide physical warmth to homes, the underlined portion focuses on the psychological comfort the fires offered. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text’s second sentence mentions that fires were built in the summer because fog came in, which may have cooled the house, this detail isn’t the focus of the underlined portion. Instead, the underlined portion indicates that fires were built for reasons beyond physical warmth: to create a sense of being home and safe. Choice D is incorrect because the underlined portion focuses on the emotional significance the author places on having a fire going inside the home. There is no indication that the author feels equally comfortable without a fire present.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID ba974387

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: ba974387

The following text is adapted from Mary Seacole’s 1857 autobiography Wonderful Adventures of Mrs. Seacole in Many Lands.

That journey across the Isthmus [of Panama], insignificant in distance as it was, was by no means an easy one. It seemed as if nature had determined to throw every conceivable obstacle in the way of those who should seek to join the two great oceans of the world.

As used in the text, what does the word “conceivable” most nearly mean?

  • Obvious

  • Imaginable

  • Straightforward

  • Uninterrupted

ID: ba974387 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because as used in the text, "conceivable" most nearly means capable of being thought of or imagined. The text describes a journey that, despite being "insignificant in distance," was "by no means an easy one" because of the variety of obstacles that "nature had determined to throw…in the way." To emphasize the difficulty of the journey, the author portrays nature as actively scheming to present travelers with every obstacle that can be thought of—i.e., every imaginable obstacle.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, "conceivable" does not mean obvious, or evident. Instead, by referring to "every conceivable obstacle," the text suggests a wide variety of challenges by evoking all the potential difficulties nature could present, not just those that the travelers might reasonably expect or foresee. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, "conceivable" does not mean straightforward, or easy to negotiate. The text is not indicating that the obstacles were simple to respond to and overcome. Rather, the text suggests that a wide range of obstacles made the journey difficult. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, "conceivable" does not mean uninterrupted. Although the text suggests that the obstacles were frequent and numerous, it does not emphasize the obstacles’ continuity; instead, the text conveys their unexpected variety and range.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID c8603ed7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: c8603ed7

San Francisco is known for the colorful murals painted on many of its buildings. The densest collection of murals is found on Balmy Alley in the Mission District neighborhood. In the 1970s, Latina artists painted vivid scenes of community life on walls along this block. As the original murals have faded, later generations of artists have painted new ones over them. As a result, Balmy Alley has become a living showcase of San Francisco’s artistic spirit, with its murals reflecting changes in the cultural life of the city.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To compare the Balmy Alley murals to other murals in San Francisco

  • To offer an overview of the history and importance of the Balmy Alley murals

  • To urge people to protect the murals of San Francisco from decay

  • To describe the rise of mural painting in San Francisco beginning in the 1970s

ID: c8603ed7 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it best states the main purpose of the text. The text begins by briefly stating that San Francisco is known for its murals, then transitions to a discussion of a single collection of murals, which is found on Balmy Alley in the city’s Mission District. The text explains that the murals in this area were originally created in the 1970s, then observes that they have changed over time: as some have faded through the decades, others have been painted in their place. The text ends by emphasizing that these murals are significant because they reflect San Francisco’s artistic spirit and cultural life. Therefore, the text provides an overview of the history and importance of the Balmy Alley murals.

Choice A is incorrect. Although it can be inferred from the text that there are murals in other areas of San Francisco besides Balmy Alley, the text doesn’t specifically discuss murals in other areas or compare the murals of Balmy Alley to those in other areas. Choice C is incorrect. By observing that some of the murals of Balmy Alley have been replaced due to fading, the text implies that murals can decay, but it never urges readers to protect this specific collection of murals—or any murals elsewhere in San Francisco, for that matter. Indeed, by describing the ever-changing murals of Balmy Alley as “a living showcase of San Francisco’s artistic spirit,” the text emphasizes the positive aspects of the fact that the original Balmy Alley murals have faded and been replaced with new murals. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t describe the rise of mural painting in San Francisco generally or note when this occurred. The only historical development of the 1970s mentioned in the text is the origin of the murals in a specific area of the city: Balmy Alley in the Mission District.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 9c759a09

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 9c759a09

The following text is from Georgia Douglas Johnson’s 1922 poem “Benediction.”

Go forth, my son,
Winged by my heart’s desire!
Great reaches, yet unknown,
Await
For your possession.
I may not, if I would,
Retrace the way with you,
My pilgrimage is through,
But life is calling you!

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To express hope that a child will have the same accomplishments as his parent did

  • To suggest that raising a child involves many struggles

  • To warn a child that he will face many challenges throughout his life

  • To encourage a child to embrace the experiences life will offer

ID: 9c759a09 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it accurately states the text’s main purpose. The poem begins with the speaker urging a child to “go forth” with her encouragement (“my heart’s desire”). The speaker goes on to suggest that new experiences (“Great reaches, yet unknown”) lie ahead for the son that “life is calling” him to seek out. Thus, the main purpose is to encourage a child to embrace the experiences available to him in his life.

Choice A is incorrect because the speaker encourages the child to pursue new experiences (“Great reaches”) without knowing exactly what those experiences will be (“yet unknown”) or suggesting that they should match the speaker’s own accomplishments. Choice B is incorrect because the speaker focuses on positive possibilities for her son (“Great reaches, yet unknown”) and her enthusiastic encouragement to embrace those possibilities (“life is calling you!”), while there is no mention of raising a child or associated struggles. Choice C is incorrect because the speaker frames the possibilities for her son in a positive light when she says that “great reaches, yet unknown” are waiting for him, and this positive outlook for the son is consistent throughout the text.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID ce8c03a8

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: ce8c03a8

The Illustrated History of San Mateo County, published in 1878, features several illustrations by Grafton Tyler Brown showing the California county’s farms, residences, and businesses. It was blank for a business to be featured, since being included suggested that a business was an important part of the community.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • risky

  • misleading

  • advantageous

  • unremarkable

ID: ce8c03a8 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of businesses being featured in The Illustrated History of San Mateo County. In this context, "advantageous" means beneficial or providing a favorable position. The text explains that being included in the book "suggested that a business was an important part of the community," and it can be inferred that an enhanced reputation within the local community would benefit a business, commercially or otherwise. This context supports the idea that being featured in this publication would be advantageous.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, "risky" would suggest that being featured in The Illustrated History of San Mateo County might have negative consequences for a business. However, the text implies only positive outcomes since inclusion indicated importance within the local community. Choice B is incorrect because "misleading" would mean deceptive or deliberately giving a wrong impression, but the text doesn’t indicate there was something deceptive about being featured in The Illustrated History of San Mateo County; rather, it suggests that inclusion indicated community importance. Choice D is incorrect because "unremarkable" would mean common or ordinary, which doesn’t make sense in context. The text suggests that inclusion in The Illustrated History of San Mateo County instead conferred a special status on a business by conveying its importance in the local community.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 05575bca

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 05575bca

The following text is adapted from Lewis Carroll’s 1871 novel Through the Looking-Glass, and What Alice Found There. Alice, a child, is talking to her cat.

“Do you hear the snow against the window-panes, Kitty? How nice and soft it sounds! Just as if someone was kissing the window all over outside.”

As used in the text, what does the word “soft” most nearly mean?

  • Gentle

  • Sensitive

  • Shapeless

  • Bland

ID: 05575bca Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because as used in the text, "soft" most nearly means gentle. The text portrays Alice speaking about the snow falling against the window, describing it as sounding "nice" and similar to someone "kissing the window." These details most strongly suggest that Alice thinks the sound made by the snow falling against the window is gentle.

Choice B is incorrect. Although in some contexts, "gentle" can mean sensitive, or caring about others’ feelings, that isn’t the meaning in this context; it doesn’t make sense to say that Alice thinks the sound of the snow cares about anything. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that Alice thinks the sound of the snow is shapeless, or lacks a definite shape; she isn’t indicating how anything looks or feels but, rather, is describing how "nice" and gentle the snow sounds. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that Alice thinks the sound of the snow is bland, or uninteresting; rather, she notices the sound and comments on how "nice" it is.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID c7265342

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: c7265342

The following text is from the 1895 poem “Marshlands” by Emily Pauline Johnson, a Kanienkahagen (Mohawk) writer also known as Tekahionwake. 

Among the wild rice in the still lagoon,

In monotone the lizard shrills his tune.

The wild goose, homing, seeks a sheltering,

Where rushes grow, and oozing lichens cling.

Late cranes with heavy wing, and lazy flight,

Sail up the silence with the nearing night.

And like a spirit, swathed in some soft veil,

Steals twilight and its shadows o’er the swale.

Hushed lie the sedges, and the vapours creep,

Thick, grey and humid, while the marshes sleep.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • It names animal species found in a place, then names plant species there.

  • It sketches a setting by presenting a series of images of nature.

  • It makes an extended comparison of nature to human emotions.

  • It identifies a location, then refers to a person living there.

ID: c7265342 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it best describes the overall structure of the text. The text first establishes the setting, a "still lagoon," and then goes on to provide more details about the lagoon by presenting several descriptive images of nature, including a lizard that "shrills his tune," "oozing lichens," and "thick, grey and humid" vapors.

Choice A is incorrect. Instead of simply naming species, the text presents descriptive images of nature; further, instead of naming animals and then moving on to name plants, the text refers first to a plant ("the wild rice"), then to two animals ("the lizard," "the wild goose"), then to another plant ("rushes"), and so on. Choice C is incorrect because the text does not draw any comparison between nature and human emotions; it does not refer to human emotions at all. Choice D is incorrect. While the text does begin by identifying a specific location, a "still lagoon," it makes no mention of a person living there.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 5a4b147c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 5a4b147c

Text 1

On April 26th, 1777, Sybil Ludington rode 40 miles by horse through Putnam County, New York, to gather up local militia. British forces were burning nearby Danbury, Connecticut, and Ludington wanted to rally rebel troops to meet them. Although she was only 16 years old at the time, her brave feat made Ludington one of the heroes of the American Revolution. Since then, Ludington has been widely celebrated, inspiring postage stamps, statues, and even children’s TV series. 

 

Text 2

Historian Paula D. Hunt researched the life and legacy of Sybil Ludington but found no evidence for her famous ride. Although many articles and books have been written about Ludington, Hunt believes writers may have been inventing details about Ludington as they retold her story. Ludington is revered by Americans today, but there simply isn’t a strong historical record of her heroic ride.

Based on the texts, both authors would most likely agree with which statement?

  • Sybil Ludington was crucial to the outcome of the Revolutionary War.

  • Historians have confirmed which route Sybil Ludington took.

  • Sybil Ludington was likely not a real person.

  • Many people have come to admire the story of Sybil Ludington’s ride.

ID: 5a4b147c Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. Both authors agree that Ludington’s story has been widely celebrated and revered by Americans, even if they disagree on its accuracy. Text 1 states that Ludington has inspired postage stamps, statues, and TV series, and Text 2 states that many articles and books have been written about her. Thus, both authors acknowledge the popularity of Ludington’s story.

Choice A is incorrect. Neither author claims that Ludington had a significant impact on the war. Text 1 doesn’t mention how Ludington’s ride affected the war overall, and Text 2 suggests that Ludington’s ride may have been exaggerated or invented over time. Choice B is incorrect. Neither author claims that Ludington’s route has been verified by historians. Text 1 claims she rode 40 miles through Putnam County, but doesn’t cite any sources for this information, while Text 2 suggests the ride may not have even happened. Choice C is incorrect. This choice misreads text 2. Neither author claims that Ludington was not a real person, only that her ride may not have happened. Both authors seem to treat Ludington as a genuine historical figure.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID c6bd3447

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: c6bd3447

The following text is from Virginia Woolf’s 1919 novel Night and Day. The text describes a gathering of young artists and intellectuals.

One person after another rose, and, as with an ill-balanced axe, attempted to hew out his conception of art a little more clearly, and sat down with the feeling that, for some reason which he could not grasp, his strokes had gone awry. As they sat down they turned almost invariably to the person sitting next them, and rectified and continued what they had just said in public.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portions in the text as a whole?

  • To demonstrate individuals’ puzzlement over the reputation of a certain artwork

  • To highlight the physical effort involved in individuals’ construction of large-scale works of art

  • To draw attention to individuals’ discontent with the group’s conversation about art

  • To emphasize the extent of individuals’ struggles to articulate thoughts on art

ID: c6bd3447 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately describes the function of the underlined portions in the text as a whole. The underlined portions describe the young artists and intellectuals at the gathering as trying to "hew out," or give shape to, their views of art more clearly, but with each seeming to be using "an ill-balanced axe" and then feeling that the "strokes had gone awry." In context, the metaphorical language comparing attempts to refine concepts of art to imprecisely cutting wood with an inadequate axe serves to emphasize how much the individuals at the gathering struggled to articulate, or express, their thoughts; indeed, the text explains that the individuals couldn’t quite grasp why their statements had gone awry and tended to try to rectify, or correct, them in continued discussion after they sat down.

Choice A is incorrect because the underlined portions characterize aspects of the young artists and intellectuals’ attempts to present their general views of art more clearly, not their views of the reputation of a certain artwork; the text never mentions any specific artwork or its reputation. Choice B is incorrect. Although the underlined portions refer to a physical activity—cutting wood with an axe—the descriptions are metaphorical rather than literal. The text isn’t describing people constructing works of art, large-scale or otherwise; rather, it’s describing people talking at a gathering, using the idea of imprecisely cutting wood with an inadequate axe to suggest that each individual struggled when trying to present their view of art more clearly. Choice C is incorrect. Although the underlined portions do provide a reason for the young artists and intellectuals’ discontent, the text focuses on the fact that they were each dissatisfied with their own statements, not on how they felt about the group’s full conversation about art. Instead, the text explains that each individual tried to present their view of art more clearly but struggled (as if imprecisely cutting wood with an inadequate axe), couldn’t grasp what went awry, and then felt the need to rectify, or correct, what they had just said. It’s possible that the individuals were also discontented with the group’s conversation overall, but neither the underlined portions nor the text as a whole suggest that.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID b411eb09

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: b411eb09

New and interesting research conducted by Suleiman A. Al-Sweedan and Moath Alhaj is inspired by their observation that though there have been many studies of the effect of high altitude on blood chemistry, there is a blank studies of the effect on blood chemistry of living in locations below sea level, such as the California towns of Salton City and Seeley.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • quarrel about

  • paucity of

  • profusion of

  • verisimilitude in

ID: b411eb09 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically and precisely completes the text’s discussion of studies of altitude’s effect on blood chemistry. In this context, “paucity of” means lack of. In describing the inspiration behind Al-Sweedan and Alhaj’s research, the text uses the word “though” to suggest a contrasting relationship between two types of studies: those examining the effect on blood chemistry of living at a high altitude and those examining the effect on blood chemistry of living in locations below sea level. This contrasting relationship and the text’s use of the word “many” provide context suggesting that there are few, if any, examples of the second type of study, whereas there are numerous examples of the first type.

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context for there to be a “quarrel about,” or open disagreement about, studies of the effect on blood chemistry of living in locations below sea level. The text’s use of the words “though” and “many” suggests a contrasting relationship in terms of amount between two types of studies: those examining the effect on blood chemistry of living at a high altitude and those examining the effect on blood chemistry of living in locations below sea level. There’s nothing in the text to suggest that the contrast between the two types of studies involves the extent to which researchers broadly agree or disagree about the contents of either type. Choice C is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context for there to be a “profusion of,” or great abundance of, studies of the effect on blood chemistry of living in locations below sea level. The text’s use of the words “though” and “many” suggests a contrasting relationship in terms of amount between two types of studies: those examining the effect on blood chemistry of living at a high altitude and those examining the effect on blood chemistry of living in locations below sea level. Rather than logically completing this contrast, “profusion of” would indicate that the two types of studies are similar in terms of amount, with many examples existing of both types. Choice D is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context for there to be a “verisimilitude in,” or appearance of truth in, studies of the effect on blood chemistry of living in locations below sea level. The text’s use of the words “though” and “many” suggests a contrasting relationship in terms of amount between two types of studies: those examining the effect on blood chemistry of living at a high altitude and those examining the effect on blood chemistry of living in locations below sea level. There’s nothing in the text to suggest that the contrast between the two types of studies involves the extent to which either type of study presents an appearance of truth.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 8963273a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 8963273a

Musician Joni Mitchell, who is also a painter, uses images she creates for her album covers to emphasize ideas expressed in her music. For the cover of her album Turbulent Indigo (1994), Mitchell painted a striking self-portrait that closely resembles Vincent van Gogh’s Self-Portrait with Bandaged Ear (1889). The image calls attention to the album’s title song, in which Mitchell sings about the legacy of the postimpressionist painter. In that song, Mitchell also hints that she feels a strong artistic connection to Van Gogh—an idea that is reinforced by her imagery on the cover.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • It presents a claim about Mitchell, then gives an example supporting that claim.

  • It discusses Van Gogh’s influence on Mitchell, then considers Mitchell’s influence on other artists.

  • It describes a similarity between two artists, then notes a difference between them.

  • It describes the songs on Turbulent Indigo, then explains how they relate to the album’s cover.

ID: 8963273a Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it accurately describes the organization of the elements within the text. The text begins with the claim that Joni Mitchell’s album covers use images she creates in order to emphasize ideas embedded in her albums. It then goes on to provide an example of how Mitchell’s self-portrait on the cover of Turbulent Indigo resembles a painting by Van Gogh, which the text indicates helps emphasize the strong connection Mitchell feels toward Van Gogh, a connection that is also expressed in the album’s title song.

Choice B is incorrect because there are no references in the text to artists other than Joni Mitchell and Van Gogh. Choice C is incorrect because there is nothing in the text that calls attention to any similarities or differences between Joni Mitchell and Van Gogh. Instead, it mentions that Mitchell feels a strong “artistic connection” to Van Gogh. Choice D is incorrect because the text discusses the cover before referring to any songs, and it only references one song from the album not all the songs.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID c4900368

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: c4900368

The following text is from the 1924 poem “Cycle” by D’Arcy McNickle, who was a citizen of the Confederated Salish and Kootenai Tribes.

There shall be new roads wending,
A new beating of the drum—
Men’s eyes shall have fresh seeing,
Grey lives reprise their span—
But under the new sun’s being,
Completing what night began,
There’ll be the same backs bending,
The same sad feet shall drum—
When this night finds its ending
And day shall have come.....

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To consider how the repetitiveness inherent in human life can be both rewarding and challenging

  • To question whether activities completed at one time of day are more memorable than those completed at another time of day

  • To refute the idea that joy is a more commonly experienced emotion than sadness is

  • To demonstrate how the experiences of individuals relate to the experiences of their communities

ID: c4900368 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it accurately states the main purpose of the text. The text begins by discussing the promise of the future, with positive references to renewal such as “new roads,” “new beating of the drum,” and “fresh seeing.” But with the “new sun,” the text continues, there will still be “the same backs bending” and “the same sad feet” drumming, indicating that these difficulties will follow people into this new day. The poem thus considers both the rewards and challenges associated with the repetitiveness of human life.

Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t say anything about how memorable activities are, let alone compare the memorability of activities completed at different times of the day. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text contrasts hope with difficulty, it does not compare the relative frequency of joyful feelings with that of sad feelings. Choice D is incorrect because the text makes no distinction between the experiences of individuals and the experiences of their communities.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 1ad04ea0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 1ad04ea0

In habitats with limited nutrients, certain fungus species grow on the roots of trees, engaging in mutually beneficial relationships known as ectomycorrhizae: in this symbiotic exchange, the tree provides the fungus with carbon, a nutrient necessary for both species, and the fungus blank by enhancing the tree’s ability to absorb nitrogen, another key nutrient, from the soil.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • overreacts

  • reciprocates

  • retaliates

  • deviates

ID: 1ad04ea0 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of ectomycorrhizae relationships. In this context, “reciprocates” means responds in kind or degree. The text indicates that the relationship between certain fungi and trees in some habitats is “mutually beneficial” and involves a “symbiotic exchange” in which each organism helps the other access an important nutrient. In other words, each organism provides the same kind of benefit it receives: the tree provides a nutrient (carbon) for the fungus and the fungus reciprocates by helping the tree to absorb more of another nutrient (nitrogen).

Choice A is incorrect because the text emphasizes that the relationship between certain fungi and trees in some habitats involves a “symbiotic exchange” in which each organism helps the other access an important nutrient. Nothing in the text suggests that the fungus “overreacts,” or responds too strongly, by allowing the tree to be better able to absorb a beneficial nutrient. Choice C is incorrect because “retaliates” means responds to a harmful action with a similarly harmful action. The text indicates that the relationship between certain fungi and trees in some habitats is “mutually beneficial” and involves a “symbiotic exchange” in which each organism helps the other, not that the relationship is one in which the organisms harm one another. Choice D is incorrect. In this context, “deviates” would mean departs from an established course or norm. The text explains that the relationship between certain fungi and trees in some habitats involves a “symbiotic exchange” in which each organism helps the other access an important nutrient. Because the relationship involves benefits for both the fungus and the tree, it wouldn’t make sense to say that the fungus deviates by helping the tree be better able to absorb a beneficial nutrient.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID a68239ed

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: a68239ed

The following text is adapted from Oscar Wilde’s 1897 nonfiction work De Profundis. 

People whose desire is solely for self-realisation never know where they are going. They can’t know. In one sense of the word it is of course necessary to know oneself: that is the first achievement of knowledge. But to recognise that the soul of a man is unknowable, is the ultimate achievement of wisdom. The final mystery is oneself. When one has weighed the sun in the balance, and measured the steps of the moon, and mapped out the seven heavens star by star, there still remains oneself. Who can calculate the orbit of his own soul?

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined question in the text as a whole?

  • It reinforces the text’s skepticism about the possibility of truly achieving self-knowledge.

  • It speculates that some readers will share the doubts expressed in the text about the value of self-knowledge.

  • It cautions readers that the text’s directions for how to achieve self-knowledge are hard to follow.

  • It concedes that the definition of self-knowledge advanced in the text is unpopular.

ID: a68239ed Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The text repeatedly claims that true self-knowledge can’t possibly be achieved, and this rhetorical question emphasizes that point.

Choice B is incorrect. The underlined question doesn’t do this. The text never expresses doubts about the value of self-knowledge—rather, the text expresses doubts about the possibility of achieving self-knowledge. Choice C is incorrect. The underlined question doesn’t do this. The text doesn’t provide directions for how to achieve self-knowledge—rather, it claims that true self-knowledge is impossible to achieve. Choice D is incorrect. The underlined question doesn’t do this. The text doesn’t ever define self-knowledge, and popularity isn’t mentioned in the text at all.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 04e4c51d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 04e4c51d

Taking photographs in the mid-1800s was complicated and expensive, but this changed with the 1854 invention of the carte de visite, a small photo that cost little to make. Carte de visite photos helped to blank photography: they made it easy and enjoyable for everyday people to have their pictures taken, and people at the time loved exchanging these small photos with friends and family.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • weaken

  • praise

  • popularize

  • isolate

ID: 04e4c51d Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of carte de visite photos. To "popularize" a technology is to allow it to be used and appreciated widely. The text explains that unlike the photos produced by earlier forms of photographic technology, carte de visite photos were inexpensive and could easily be obtained by "everyday people," who enjoyed exchanging the images. Therefore, carte de visite photos helped popularize photography.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that instead of weakening the emerging technology of photography, carte de visite photos allowed it to be more widely accessed and enjoyed by people. Choice B is incorrect. The text establishes that large numbers of people enjoyed using carte de visite photos, so it can be inferred that these photos caused photography to be praised, or celebrated. However, it wouldn’t make sense to say that inanimate objects—in this case, photos—had praised photography; instead, carte de visite consumers themselves would have praised it. Choice D is incorrect because the text explains that rather than isolating photography, or limiting its availability, carte de visite technology made photography more widely accessible to people.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 422c5068

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 422c5068

Generally it takes Tule geese about four days to migrate south for the winter. From their summer breeding grounds in Cook Inlet, Alaska, the birds begin by flying over the Gulf of Alaska, keeping about 100 miles from the Canadian shore. They pause to rest on the Pacific Ocean, then fly toward Summer Lake, Oregon, before finally arriving at their winter destination of Sacramento Valley, California. In 2020, however, it took the geese over twice as long to make their way from Cook Inlet to Sacramento Valley. According to researchers, the reason was airborne pollutants.

Which choice best states the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?

  • It illustrates a change in Tule geese’s usual flight behavior.

  • It suggests an explanation for why Tule geese breed in Alaska.

  • It describes part of the Tule geese’s typical winter migration journey.

  • It compares Tule geese to other birds that migrate south for the winter.

ID: 422c5068 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it best states how the underlined portion functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence states that Tule geese typically take four days to migrate south. Then in the next sentence, which contains the underlined portion, the text describes the first part of that journey, which begins with the geese flying over the Gulf of Alaska while keeping about 100 miles from the Canadian shore. The rest of the text details the remainder of the geese’s typical journey and then mentions circumstances in 2020 that resulted in the geese taking an unusually long time to complete it. Thus, the underlined portion describes part of the Tule geese’s typical winter migration journey.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text concludes by stating that in 2020, Tule geese took twice as long to complete their typical migration, which suggests a change in their usual flight behavior, the underlined portion doesn’t discuss this. Instead, the underlined portion describes the first part of the Tule geese’s typical winter migration journey over the Gulf of Alaska. Choice B is incorrect. Although the sentence containing the underlined portion mentions that Tule geese breed in Alaska, the underlined portion doesn’t explain why the geese breed in that location. Rather, the text mentions Alaska to explain that it’s the starting point of the Tule geese’s typical winter migration. Choice D is incorrect because the underlined portion doesn’t discuss any other birds that migrate south for the winter. In fact, the text is only concerned with the migration of Tule geese.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 479c7e82

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 479c7e82

Although critics believed that customers would never agree to pay to pick their own produce on farms, such concerns didn’t blank Booker T. Whatley’s efforts to promote the practice. Thanks in part to Whatley’s determined advocacy, farms that allow visitors to pick their own apples, pumpkins, and other produce can be found throughout the United States.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • enhance

  • hinder

  • misrepresent

  • aggravate

ID: 479c7e82 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Booker T. Whatley. In this context, “hinder” means hold back or obstruct. The text explains that Whatley encouraged farms to allow customers on site to pick their own produce for a fee. He did so despite critics’ concerns that the customers would never pay to do so. This context establishes that the critics’ concerns didn’t hinder Whatley’s efforts to promote the practice.

Choice A is incorrect. The text indicates that critics’ skepticism of the idea that customers would pay to pick their own produce didn’t have some effect on Whatley’s promotion of the practice. The text illustrates this assertion by describing Whatley’s “determined advocacy” for the practice. This context suggests that critics’ concerns didn’t obstruct Whatley’s efforts, not that critics’ concerns didn’t “enhance,” or increase or improve, Whatley’s efforts. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, “misrepresent” would mean portray inaccurately, and the text includes no information relevant to the issue of how Whatley’s efforts were portrayed by critics of the practice of charging customers to pick their own produce. Choice D is incorrect. The text indicates that critics’ skepticism of the idea that customers would pay to pick their own produce didn’t have some effect on Whatley’s promotion of the practice. The text illustrates this assertion by describing Whatley’s “determined advocacy” for the practice. This context suggests that critics’ concerns didn’t obstruct Whatley’s efforts, not that critics’ concerns didn’t “aggravate,” or irritate or make more severe, Whatley’s efforts.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 52fe862a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 52fe862a

Researcher Lucy Salazar is using radiocarbon dating to study Machu Picchu, an ancient Incan fortress in the Andes Mountains. She and her colleagues have found that the site’s age differs from the blank estimate: it is approximately 20 years older than scholars thought when first encountering Machu Picchu in 1911.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • genuine

  • intentional

  • independent

  • original

ID: 52fe862a Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the dating of Machu Picchu. In this context, "original" means first or initial. The text indicates that Lucy Salazar and her colleagues have determined the age of Machu Picchu and that the age differs from another estimate of the site’s age, explaining that the site is about 20 years older than scholars thought in 1911 when they initially encountered Machu Picchu. In other words, Salazar and her team found that the site’s age differs from the first estimate.

Choice A is incorrect. The text’s structure indicates that the missing word describes the estimate made by scholars when they first encountered Machu Picchu in 1911 in relation to the age determined by Salazar and her colleagues. It wouldn’t make sense to suggest that the estimate by earlier scholars was "genuine," or actual and true, while the one by Salazar’s team wasn’t, since the text treats the finding by Salazar’s team as true and as invalidating the earlier estimate ("it is approximately 20 years older than scholars thought"). Choice B is incorrect. The text’s structure indicates that the missing word describes the estimate made by scholars when they first encountered Machu Picchu in 1911 in relation to the age determined by Salazar and her colleagues. It wouldn’t make sense to suggest that the estimate by earlier scholars was "intentional," or done on purpose, while the one by Salazar’s team wasn’t; the text indicates that Salazar and her colleagues were deliberately using radiocarbon dating to study Machu Picchu. Choice C is incorrect. The text’s structure indicates that the missing word describes the estimate made by scholars when they first encountered Machu Picchu in 1911 in relation to the age determined by Salazar and her colleagues. There’s no reason to suggest that the estimate by earlier scholars was "independent," or not controlled by or affiliated with others, while the one by Salazar’s team wasn’t; there’s no mention of any outside influence on the work by Salazar and her team or by scholars in 1911.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 74446089

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 74446089

For his 1986 album Keyboard Fantasies, Beverly Glenn-Copeland wrote songs grounded in traditional soul and folk music, then accompanied them with futuristic synthesizer arrangements featuring ambient sounds and complex rhythms. The result was so strange, so unprecedented, that the album attracted little attention when first released. In recent years, however, a younger generation of musicians has embraced the stylistic experimentation of Keyboard Fantasies. Alternative R&B musicians Blood Orange and Moses Sumney, among other contemporary recording artists, cite the album as an influence.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • It urges contemporary musicians to adopt the unique sound of Keyboard Fantasies.

  • It responds to criticism of Keyboard Fantasies by some younger musicians.

  • It offers examples of younger musicians whose work has been impacted by Keyboard Fantasies.

  • It contrasts Keyboard Fantasies with the recordings of two younger musicians.

ID: 74446089 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole. The text’s subject is Beverly Glenn-Copeland’s 1986 album Keyboard Fantasies, notable for its innovative, experimental arrangements. According to the text, the album was not initially admired, but in recent years it has become popular among younger musicians. The underlined portion of the text mentions two of those musicians, Blood Orange and Moses Sumney, who “cite the album as an influence.” Therefore, the underlined portion of the text offers examples of younger musicians whose work has been impacted by Keyboard Fantasies.

Choice A is incorrect because even though the underlined sentence states that Blood Orange and Moses Sumney were influenced by Keyboard Fantasies, it doesn’t say that all other musicians should also embrace the album’s experimental style. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text states that Keyboard Fantasies was not admired on its first release, the text doesn’t present any criticism of the album by younger musicians: it only presents two younger musicians who cite it as an influence. Choice D is incorrect because the underlined sentence doesn’t mention any differences between Keyboard Fantasies and the work of Blood Orange and Moses Sumney.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 2e8ab360

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 2e8ab360

Eighteenth-century historian Edward Gibbon thought the only character defect of the Roman emperor Marcus Aurelius was his mild temperament—though the emperor was widely considered virtuous, his overly permissive nature led him to blank the vices of those who surrounded him.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • indulge

  • despise

  • moderate

  • criticize

ID: 2e8ab360 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the Roman emperor Marcus Aurelius. In this context, "indulge" means treat with excessive leniency. The text states that according to historian Edward Gibbon, Marcus Aurelius, who was widely considered virtuous, had only a single character flaw: his mild temperament. The text suggests that because of this flaw, Marcus Aurelius had an overly permissive nature. This context, in turn, supports the idea that Marcus Aurelius treated the vices, or evils, of those around him with excessive leniency, indulging rather than punishing those vices.

Choice B is incorrect. While the text does state that Marcus Aurelius was widely considered virtuous, it gives no indication that he was inclined to "despise," or hate, others’ vices. Rather, the text suggests that he showed undue tolerance for these vices because of his overly permissive nature—that is, his inclination to allow others to do as they wished. Choice C is incorrect because the text’s description of Marcus Aurelius as overly permissive suggests that he showed undue tolerance for others’ vices, not that he tried to "moderate" those vices, or lessen their intensity. Choice D is incorrect because the text’s description of Marcus Aurelius as overly permissive suggests that he showed undue tolerance for others’ vices, not that he attempted to "criticize," or speak disapprovingly of, those vices.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID c14daa3c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: c14daa3c

Close analysis of the painting Girl with a Flute, long attributed to the seventeenth-century Dutch painter Johannes Vermeer, has revealed subtle deviations from the artist’s signature techniques. These variations suggest that the work may be that of a student under Vermeer’s tutelage—potentially blank our understanding of Vermeer as a solitary artist.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • negating 

  • prefiguring

  • entrenching

  • substantiating

ID: c14daa3c Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. "Negating" means "reversing" or "making invalid." Proving that Vermeer worked with students would reverse the view of him as a solitary artist.

Choice B is incorrect. "Prefiguring" means "being an early indicator of." There already existed views of Vermeer as a solitary painter, so a new painting would not be an early indicator of those views. Rather, a painting proving that Vermeer had a student would contradict those earlier views. Choice C is incorrect. "Entrenching" means "solidifying." A painting proving that Vermeer had a student would not solidify views of him as solitary, but would rather contradict those views. Choice D is incorrect. "Substantiating" means "supporting with proof." A painting proving that Vermeer had a student would not support views of him as solitary, but would rather contradict those views.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID d3ca5d59

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: d3ca5d59

Stephen Hannock’s luminous landscape paintings are appealing to viewers but have elicited little commentary from contemporary critics, a phenomenon that may be due to the very fact that the paintings seem so blank. Many critics focus their attention on art that is cryptic or overtly challenging. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • innovative

  • subversive

  • profound

  • accessible

ID: d3ca5d59 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. When talking about a thing, “accessible” means “easy to understand.” This sets up the contrast in the next sentence, which tells us that critics mostly focus on art that is “cryptic or challenging” (meaning not easy to understand).

Choice A is incorrect. This doesn’t fit the logic of the text. The next sentence tells us that critics focus on art that is mysterious and challenging. If Hannock’s paintings are “innovative” (meaning advanced and original), then critics probably would comment on them. Choice B is incorrect. This doesn’t fit the logic of the text. The next sentence tells us that critics focus on art that is mysterious and challenging. If Hannock’s paintings are “subversive” (meaning disruptive and revolutionary), then critics probably would comment on them. Choice C is incorrect. This doesn’t fit the logic of the text. The next sentence tells us that critics focus on art that is mysterious and challenging. If Hannock’s paintings are “profound” (meaning very deep and insightful), then critics probably would comment on them.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 7a327791

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 7a327791

Novelist Leon Forrest admired William Faulkner’s writing style. Forrest’s novel Divine Days contains a long passage in tribute to Faulkner that is a perfect blank of Faulkner’s style: anyone familiar with Faulkner’s writing would see the resemblance.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • forgetting

  • rejection

  • imitation

  • opinion

ID: 7a327791 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of novelist Leon Forrest’s admiration of William Faulkner’s writing style. In this context, "imitation" means something that resembles or reproduces something else. The text states that Forrest admired Faulkner’s style and that anyone familiar with Faulkner’s style would be able to see the stylistic similarities between a particular passage in Forrest’s novel Divine Days and Faulkner’s writing, a fact that supports the idea that Forrest’s novel pays tribute to Faulkner by reproducing, or imitating, Faulkner’s style.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, a "forgetting" would mean an instance in which something is overlooked or not remembered. The text emphasizes Forrest’s admiration for Faulkner’s style and the fact that Forrest’s writing in some instances closely resembles Faulkner’s stylistically. It therefore wouldn’t make sense to say that in trying to pay tribute to Faulkner’s style, Forrest failed to remember it. Choice B is incorrect because in this context, a "rejection" would mean a dismissal of something as unworthy. The text emphasizes Forrest’s admiration for Faulkner’s writing style, stating that parts of Forrest’s writings indicate efforts to copy that style. It wouldn’t make sense therefore to suggest that Forrest had rejected or dismissed Faulkner’s style as unworthy. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, an "opinion" would mean a view or judgment. Although the text focuses on Forrest’s admiration of Faulkner, which suggests that Forrest had formed a positive judgment of Faulkner’s style, the word opinion wouldn’t make sense in this sentence: the sentence doesn’t say that the passage from Forrest’s novel expresses his view of Faulkner’s style; rather, it suggests that stylistically, the passage closely resembles, or imitates, Faulkner’s writing.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 0ee67e09

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 0ee67e09

Anthropologist Kristian J. Carlson and colleagues examined the fossilized clavicle and shoulder bones of a 3.6-million-year-old early hominin known as “Little Foot.” They found that these bones were blank the clavicle and shoulder bones of modern apes that are frequent climbers, such as gorillas and chimpanzees, suggesting that Little Foot had adapted to life in the trees.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • surpassed by

  • comparable to

  • independent of

  • obtained from

ID: 0ee67e09 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the fossilized bones of the hominin known as Little Foot. As used in this context, “comparable to” would mean similar to. The text indicates that the relationship between the fossilized clavicle and shoulder bones of Little Foot and the clavicle and shoulder bones of “frequent climbers,” such as chimpanzees and gorillas, suggests that Little Foot had adapted to moving around in trees. This context suggests that the relationship between the fossilized bones of Little Foot and the bones of chimpanzees and gorillas is one of similarity—the Little Foot fossils are likely comparable to the modern ape bones. 

Choice A is incorrect because if the fossilized bones of Little Foot were “surpassed by,” or exceeded by or made inferior to, the bones of modern apes that are frequent climbers, it wouldn’t suggest, as the text says, that Little Foot was adapted to moving around in trees. If anything, learning that Little Foot’s clavicle and shoulder bones were surpassed by those of chimpanzees and gorillas would suggest that Little Foot was poorly adapted to climbing. Choice C is incorrect because if Little Foot’s fossilized clavicle and shoulder bones were “independent of,” or not influenced by or affiliated with, the bones of modern apes that climb often, it wouldn’t suggest, as the text says, that Little Foot was adapted to moving around in trees. Choice D is incorrect because the text indicates that Little Foot’s fossilized bones date to 3.6 million years ago, so they couldn’t have been “obtained from,” or acquired from, the bones of modern apes.   

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 760ee1db

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 760ee1db

Although the playwrights hoped that their play would be blank when performed live, critics generally agreed that the production and performances had the opposite effect, wearying audiences instead of energizing them.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • multifaceted

  • realistic

  • rousing

  • subtle

ID: 760ee1db Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the play’s effect on audiences. As used in this context, “rousing” means exciting or energizing. The text indicates that critics found the play to have “the opposite effect” on audiences of what the playwrights hoped for. The critics, the text says, thought the play was wearying rather than energizing to viewers. This context supports the idea that the playwrights hoped live performances of the play would be energizing, or rousing, to audiences.

Choice A is incorrect because there’s no information in the text suggesting that the playwrights hoped live performances of the play would be “multifaceted,” or be varied or have many aspects. The text indicates that critics found the play to be wearying to audiences and that this was the opposite of what the playwrights hoped for. Multifaceted is not the opposite of wearying, but rousing is, which suggests that the playwrights hoped the play would be rousing. Choice B is incorrect because there’s no information in the text suggesting that the playwrights hoped live performances of the play would be “realistic,” or lifelike or sensible. The text says that critics found the play to be wearying to audiences and that this was the opposite of what the playwrights hoped for. Realistic is not the opposite of wearying, but rousing is, which suggests that the playwrights hoped the play would be rousing. Choice D is incorrect because there’s no information in the text suggesting that the playwrights hoped live performances of the play would be subtle, or complex or understated. The text says that critics found the play to be wearying to audiences and that this was the opposite of what the playwrights hoped for. Subtle is not the opposite of wearying, but rousing is, which suggests that the playwrights hoped the play would be rousing. 

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 417f8dfa

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 417f8dfa

The following text is from Darcie Little Badger’s 2021 novel A Snake Falls to Earth. Nina is looking at old family photographs.

Nina couldn’t stop looking at the sepia-toned photograph in an oak frame. Propped on the window ledge, it featured a portrait of Great-Great-Grandmother Rosita as a young woman.

©2021 by Darcie Little Badger

As used in the text, what does the word “featured” most nearly mean?

  • Displayed

  • Questioned

  • Approved

  • Ignored

ID: 417f8dfa Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because as used in the text, "featured" most nearly means displayed. The text describes Nina’s fascination with a framed photograph. It then goes on to describe what the photograph showed, or displayed, which is a portrait of Nina’s great-great-grandmother Rosita as a young woman. Thus, the text indicates that the photograph displayed a portrait of Rosita.

Choice B is incorrect because the text identifies the person shown in the photograph as Nina’s great-great-grandmother; it gives no indication that the contents of the photograph were questioned, or asked about. Choice C is incorrect because approved means expressed a favorable opinion of, and there’s nothing to suggest that the photograph of Nina’s great-great-grandmother has received approval or been viewed favorably, only that Nina is unable to stop looking at it. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that the photograph Nina is fascinated with ignored, or refused to take notice of, Nina’s great-great-grandmother Rosita. Rather, the text indicates that the photograph was a portrait of Rosita.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID e5ca7687

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: e5ca7687

Archaeologists studying the ancient city of Pompeii in Italy recently discovered a well-preserved food shop known as a thermopolium. The site contains food remains, artworks, and decorations. These items give researchers a better understanding of what daily life in Pompeii may have been like. For example, the archaeologists found a ceramic jar that they believe likely contained a meat and seafood stew. 

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text? 

  • To compare ancient artworks with modern ones

  • To discuss the political system of Italy

  • To present a recent archaeological discovery 

  • To describe a region’s climate

ID: e5ca7687 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text. The text states that archaeologists recently discovered a well-preserved food shop, or thermopolium, in Pompeii, Italy. The text then further describes the contents of the discovery and provides an example of what was found. Thus, the overall purpose of the text is to present a recent archaeological discovery.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text states that archaeologists found ancient artworks, it doesn’t compare these artworks to modern ones or to any other artworks. Choice B is incorrect. Although the archaeological discovery discussed in the text was made in Italy, the text doesn’t provide any information about politics or government in Italy. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss the climate where the archaeological discovery was made or in any other region.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID c5b1afe5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: c5b1afe5

Bicycle sharing systems allow users to rent a bicycle at one location within a city and return it to any other designated location in that city, which can cause serious problems of bicycle supply and user demand within the city’s system. Tohru Ikeguchi uses open-source data and statistical modeling to identify when a high number of users making one-way trips is likely to leave some locations within the system blank bicycles and other areas with insufficient supply.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • susceptible to

  • contingent on

  • saturated with

  • depleted of

ID: c5b1afe5 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Ikeguchi’s model of bicycle supply. In this context, “saturated with” means thoroughly or completely supplied with. The text explains a problem encountered by some bicycle-sharing programs: users can return bicycles to different locations than where the users picked up the bicycles to start, which can result in a mismatch between bicycle supply (that is, where the bicycles are currently located) and user demand (that is, the locations where users are hoping to pick up bicycles). The text goes on to explain that Ikeguchi developed a way to identify when this mismatch is likely to occur. This context suggests that Ikeguchi’s method will show when it is likely that some locations have an insufficient supply and other locations, by implicit contrast, are saturated with bicycles. 

Choice A is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that some locations are “susceptible to,” or sensitive to or easily influenced by, bicycles. The text describes the phenomenon of bicycles being redistributed away from locations where users want them, not anything about those locations being influenced by the bicycles. Choice B is incorrect because the text describes situations in which some locations have an insufficient supply of bicycles because the bicycles have been relocated elsewhere, which suggests that the other locations have many bicycles, not that the other locations are “contingent on,” or dependent on, the bicycles. Nothing in the text suggests that the locations themselves depend on the bicycles for anything. Choice D is incorrect because it would not make sense in context to say that some locations are “depleted of,” or empty of, bicycles while others have an insufficient supply. The text describes situations in which bicycles have been relocated such that there is a mismatch between bicycle supply and user demand—the bicycles are no longer at the locations where users want to pick them up. This means that some locations do not have enough bicycles, while other locations must have many bicycles, not be depleted of bicycles.   

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 84dbd633

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 84dbd633

Text 1

The Cretaceous-Paleogene (K-Pg) mass extinction event is usually attributed solely to an asteroid impact near Chicxulub, Mexico. Some scientists argue that volcanic activity was the true cause, as the K-Pg event occurred relatively early in a long period of eruption of the Deccan Traps range that initially produced huge amounts of climate-altering gases. These dissenters note that other mass extinctions have coincided with large volcanic eruptions, while only the K-Pg event lines up with an asteroid strike.

 

Text 2

In a 2020 study, Pincelli Hull and her colleagues analyzed ocean core samples and modeled climate changes around the K-Pg event. The team concluded that Deccan Traps gases did affect global conditions prior to the event, but that the climate returned to normal well before the extinctions began—extinctions that instead closely align with the Chicxulub impact.

Based on the texts, how would Hull’s team (Text 2) most likely respond to the argument in the underlined portion of Text 1?

  • By agreeing that the Chicxulub impact changed the climate and that the Deccan Traps eruption caused the K-Pg event

  • By declaring that the changes in climate caused by the Deccan Traps eruption weren’t the main cause of the K-Pg event

  • By questioning why those scientists assume that the Chicxulub impact caused the Deccan Traps eruption

  • By asserting that the Deccan Traps eruption had a more significant effect on global conditions than those scientists claim

ID: 84dbd633 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it describes how Hull’s team would most likely respond to the argument in the underlined portion of Text 1, which asserts that volcanic activity in the Deccan Traps range led to changes in the climate and caused the K-Pg mass extinction event. According to Text 2, although Hull’s team found that activity in the Deccan Traps did indeed alter the climate before the K-Pg event, the team determined that the climate had returned to normal before mass extinctions began. This finding and the observation that the K-Pg extinctions closely align with the Chicxulub asteroid impact suggest that Hull’s team would likely dispute the claim in the underlined portion of Text 1 and say that the climate changes caused by the Deccan Traps activity were not the main cause of the extinctions.

Choice A is incorrect because Text 2 describes how Hull’s team found that the climate had recovered from the changes brought about by the Deccan Traps activity before the K-Pg event occurred, which suggests that Hull’s team would disagree that the Deccan Traps activity caused the K-Pg event. Additionally, the claim in the underlined portion of Text 1 says nothing about how the Chicxulub impact changed the climate, so while Hull’s team might believe that the impact did in fact change the climate, they could not be said to agree with the claim in Text 1 on this point. Choice C is incorrect because there is no indication in either text that any scientists assume that the Chicxulub impact caused the Deccan Traps activity, so there is no reason to conclude that Hull’s team would question why the scientists referred to in Text 1 make such an assumption. Choice D is incorrect because Text 2 describes how Hull’s team found that the climate had recovered from the changes brought about by the Deccan Traps activity before the K-Pg event occurred, which suggests that Hull’s team would say that the Deccan Traps activity had a less enduring effect on global conditions than the scientists referenced in Text 1 believe, not that the effect on global conditions was more significant than those scientists claim.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 97ca2cda

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 97ca2cda

In the early days of television in the 1940s, many people thought that US television programs would rely on the financial support of ad agencies and commercial sponsors, much like radio did. But advertisers hesitated to jump into a new space, particularly at a time when the manufacturing of new television sets was stalled due to the US’s involvement in World War II. Broadcasters, like the National Broadcasting Company (NBC), needed to persuade advertisers to support their programming despite not knowing whether there would be a robust television audience to begin with.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined phrase in the text as a whole?

  • It compares the beginnings of radio programming with the beginnings of television programming in the United States. 

  • It identifies a specific reason behind some advertisers’ hesitance to support television.

  • It describes how broadcasters attempted to convince advertisers to support television.

  • It explains why a type of television programming was popular at the time.

ID: 97ca2cda Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it accurately describes the function of the underlined phrase in the text as a whole. According to the text, advertisers were reluctant to support television in its early days. The underlined phrase then indicates that this reluctance was partly due to the US’s involvement in World War II, which hindered television production. Thus, the underlined phrase identifies a specific reason behind some advertisers’ hesitance to support television.

Choice A is incorrect. The text merely mentions that television was expected to be financed through advertising, as radio was at the time. Nothing in the text compares the origins of radio and television. Choice C is incorrect. The underlined phrase focuses on a reason advertisers were reluctant to support television, not measures taken to convince advertisers to support television. Choice D is incorrect. The underlined phrase focuses on a reason advertisers were reluctant to support television, not what types of television programming were popular.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID a2dd51c1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: a2dd51c1

In most building demolitions, the building materials are destroyed and sent to landfills. City officials in Portland, Oregon, wanted to reduce this waste. The officials passed a law requiring demolition companies to deconstruct some buildings instead. Deconstruction involves carefully taking buildings apart piece by piece. Damage to the materials is avoided so that they can be reused in new constructions. A 2019 study found that 27 percent of materials from deconstructions in Portland were able to be reused. The remaining materials were processed for recycling instead of going to a landfill.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To explain an effort made by the city of Portland to reduce demolition waste and some results of that effort 

  • To show that popular support for measures that reduce demolition waste has increased since 2019

  • To argue that building deconstruction is not as effective as other measures at reducing demolition waste

  • To discuss laws aimed to reduce demolition waste in Portland and compare them to similar laws in other cities 

ID: a2dd51c1 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The author first describes a Portland law aimed at reducing demolition waste, and then goes on to explain that 27% of materials from building deconstructions were able to be reused and the rest were recycled.

Choice B is incorrect. The text never discusses the popularity of the law. Choice C is incorrect. The text never compares building deconstruction to other measures designed to reduce demolition waste. Choice D is incorrect. The text never mentions laws in cities other than Portland, Oregon.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 9d73c9eb

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 9d73c9eb

Osage Nation citizen Randy Tinker-Smith produced and directed the ballet Wahzhazhe, which vividly chronicles Osage history and culture. Telling Osage stories through ballet is blank choice because two of the foremost ballet dancers of the twentieth century were Osage: sisters Maria and Marjorie Tallchief. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • a suitable

  • a determined

  • an arbitrary

  • an unpredictable

ID: 9d73c9eb Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. “Suitable” means “appropriate for a particular purpose.” Since the text indicates that two of the best ballet dancers of the twentieth century were Osage, we can infer that the author believes that ballet is a very suitable artform for telling Osage stories.

Choice B is incorrect. The text never suggests that Tinker-Smith’s choice was determined. That would imply that Tinker-Smith initially faced some kind of obstacle or opposition, and nothing like that is mentioned in the passage. Choice C is incorrect. The text implies the opposite of this. “Arbitrary” means “based on random choice or whim rather than reason.” But the text does give us a good reason behind the choice to tell Osage stories through ballet: two of the best ballet dancers of the twentieth century were Osage. Choice D is incorrect. The text never suggests that Tinker-Smith’s choice was “unpredictable.” Rather, the fact that two of the best ballet dancers of the twentieth century were Osage makes ballet especially appropriate for telling Osage stories.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 81a3a607

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 81a3a607

In the Indigenous intercropping system known as the Three Sisters, maize, squash, and beans form an blank web of relations: maize provides the structure on which the bean vines grow; the squash vines cover the soil, discouraging competition from weeds; and the beans aid their two “sisters” by enriching the soil with essential nitrogen.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • indecipherable

  • ornamental

  • obscure

  • intricate

ID: 81a3a607 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the Three Sisters intercropping system. As used in this context, “intricate” would mean made up of complexly related elements. The text indicates that in the Three Sisters system, maize, squash, and beans form a “web of relations” in which the crops interact in various ways. The text’s description of these interactions—the bean vines growing on the maize stalks, the squash vines keeping weeds away, and the beans adding nutrients that the maize and squash use—provides context suggesting that this “web of relations” is intricate.

Choice A is incorrect because describing the relationship among the crops in the Three Sisters system as “indecipherable,” or impossible to comprehend, would not make sense in context. Although the text presents the relationship as complex, the text’s description of the role that each crop plays makes it clear that the relationship is well understood, not indecipherable. Choice B is incorrect because the text discusses the practical benefits that each plant in the Three Sisters system provides to other members of the system, showing that the relationship among the crops that make up the system is not “ornamental,” or mainly serving a decorative purpose. Choice C is incorrect because describing the relationship among the crops in the Three Sisters system as “obscure,” or unknown or poorly understood, would not make sense in context. Although the text presents the relationship as complex, the text’s description of the role that each crop plays makes it clear that the relationship is well understood, not obscure. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 96f3accc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 96f3accc

Text 1

When the 50-second-long film Arrival of the Train—which depicts what its title says, a train pulling into a station—was first shown publicly in 1896, spectators, naïve to the new medium of film and seeing a train appearing to come directly at them, leaped from their seats and fled the room. This moment marks a major cultural shift: a new way of representing and seeing the world had arrived with that train, and nothing would ever be the same.

 

Text 2

The fact that there is no contemporary evidence that the first audience of Arrival of the Train was alarmed has not stopped the story from becoming canonical, even among film historians. But that phenomenon itself is highly revealing. Our belief that the coming of film was transformative is so strong that we invented and keep retelling a founding myth that divides cultural history into a (naïve) “before” and (sophisticated) “after.” 

Based on the texts, the author of Text 2 would most likely agree with which statement about the description of the first showing of Arrival of the Train in Text 1?

  • It is more motivated by a perception of the significance of the invention of film than by facts. 

  • It expresses a view about the transformative nature of film that film historians tend to regard as naïve.

  • It is not based on evidence and reflects film historians’ belief that they are more sophisticated than today’s audiences.

  • It reflects a misconception that is widely believed because it captures early film audiences’ sense that the new medium was alarming.

ID: 96f3accc Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it provides a statement about the description of the first showing of Arrival of the Train in Text 1 that, based on the texts, the author of Text 2 would most likely agree with. Text 1 indicates that members of the audience, unaccustomed to the new medium of film and believing that they were looking at a real oncoming train, allegedly reacted to the film with alarm. Text 1 then goes on to treat this anecdote as a factual account of the film’s first showing, interpreting it as a moment that marked a "major cultural shift." In contrast, the author of Text 2 indicates that though the story of the film’s first showing has become "canonical," or widely accepted, there is no contemporary evidence to support the idea that the audience reacted as Text 1 describes. Text 2 goes on to explain that this factually questionable description likely persists because it functions as a "founding myth" that reinforces a widespread belief in the profoundly transformative nature of the invention of film. This indicates that the author of Text 2 would likely see the description in Text 1 as motivated primarily by cultural perceptions about film’s significance rather than by documented historical facts.

Choice B is incorrect because the author of Text 2 doesn’t suggest that film historians regard the view about film’s transformative nature as naïve. On the contrary, Text 2 states that the story of the first showing of Arrival of the Train has become "canonical, even among film historians," indicating that historians broadly accept this narrative as a compelling illustration of film’s impact, not that they regard either the narrative or the views it conveys about the transformative nature of film as naïve. Text 2 refers to a "(naïve) ‘before’" in cultural history, but this is describing how the myth itself characterizes pre-film audiences, not how historians regard views about the transformative nature of film. Choice C is incorrect. While the author of Text 2 does indicate that the story of the audience’s reaction to Arrival of the Train described in Text 1 is a myth that lacks evidence, the text doesn’t suggest that the story reflects the fact that film historians believe themselves to be more sophisticated than modern audiences are. Rather, Text 2 suggests that the story persists because of a collective cultural belief, which historians share, in the profound impact of the invention of film. Moreover, the "naïve" versus "sophisticated" distinction mentioned in Text 2 refers to how the myth characterizes audiences before and after the invention of film; it doesn’t characterize modern audiences versus film historians. Choice D is incorrect. Although the author of Text 2 would agree that the description of the first showing of Arrival of the Train in Text 1 reflects a misconception, the author wouldn’t agree that widespread belief in the misconception can be attributed to the fact that it accurately captures early audiences’ actual sense of alarm. In fact, the misconception identified by the author of Text 2 concerns the accuracy of the audience’s alleged reaction; the author questions whether early audiences were alarmed at all, stating there is "no contemporary evidence" that they reacted in this way. According to Text 2, the description is widely believed not because it accurately captures historical reactions but because it serves as a "founding myth" that supports a belief in film’s transformative cultural impact.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 48e4021d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 48e4021d

The following text is from Holly Goldberg Sloan’s 2017 novel Short. 

More than two years ago my parents bought a piano from some people who were moving to Utah. Mom and Dad gave it to my brothers and me for Christmas. I had to act really happy because it was such a big present, but I pretty much hated the thing from the second it was carried into the hallway upstairs, which is right next to my bedroom. The piano glared at me. It was like a songbird in a cage. It wanted to be set free.  

©2017 by Holly Goldberg Sloan

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • It explains why the narrator always wanted a piano close to her bedroom. 

  • It establishes how the narrator feels about the piano.

  • It suggests that the narrator’s brothers are talented piano players.

  • It describes the event that led the narrator’s parents to buy a piano.

ID: 48e4021d Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it best states the main purpose of the text, which is to establish the narrator’s feelings about the piano. The narrator reveals that she “had to act really happy” about the piano even though she “pretty much hated the thing” as soon as it was placed upstairs near her bedroom. The narrator also describes the piano as glaring at her and compares it to a caged bird that wants to be set free. These details establish the narrator’s feelings about the piano, suggesting that it makes her uneasy.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that the narrator hated having the piano upstairs right next to her bedroom, not that she wanted a piano to be close to her bedroom. Choice C is incorrect because the only information provided in the text about the narrator’s brothers is that they were given the piano along with the narrator. Choice D is incorrect because the text does not describe the event that led the narrator’s parents to buy the piano from the people moving to Utah. Instead, the text focuses on the narrator’s feelings about the piano after it was given to her and her brothers.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 8d579825

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 8d579825

The printing of Virginia Woolf’s novels featured a creative blank between Woolf and her sister Vanessa Bell: a talented painter, Bell worked closely with Woolf to create original cover art for most of the novels.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • rebellion

  • partnership

  • discovery

  • disagreement

ID: 8d579825 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the cover art of Virginia Woolf’s novels. In this context, “partnership” means collaboration or joint effort. The text states that Woolf’s sister Vanessa Bell was a talented painter and that Bell worked with Woolf to provide the cover art for most of Woolf’s novels. Thus, this context suggests that Woolf and Bell pursued a creative partnership in order to produce several of Woolf’s novels.

Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication that Woolf or Bell were undergoing a “rebellion,” or revolt, against anything in particular. Instead, the text focuses on how they worked together in some aspects of the production of Woolf’s novels. Choice C is incorrect because there is nothing in the text to indicate that Woolf or Bell made a “discovery,” or encountered anything new for the first time as they worked together. The text suggests that Woolf had already written her novels and that Bell then assisted Woolf with the cover art for many of them. Choice D is incorrect because the text implies that Woolf and Bell had a positive relationship. According to the text, the sisters “worked closely” together to produce the cover art for many of Woolf’s novels; the text doesn’t mention whether while working together, Woolf and Bell had a “disagreement,” or conflict.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 85083d4d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 85083d4d

Disproving the common misconception of Native art as blank, the painters whose work appears in the collection at the National Museum of the American Indian employ a range of styles. There are artists working in the traditional arts of their specific tribal communities, artists working in European modernist or American abstract expressionist art traditions, and artists blending various traditions into something wholly new.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • uncontroversial

  • individualistic

  • theoretical

  • homogeneous

ID: 85083d4d Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the art at the National Museum of the American Indian. In this context, "homogenous" means uniform or highly similar. The text explains that the painters whose works are included in this museum’s collection employ an array of artistic styles, both Native and non-Native, traditional and new. Given this high degree of stylistic diversity, it is a misconception that Native art is uniform, or homogenous.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t consider whether Native art is controversial, or causes disagreement or discussion; instead, the text discusses the stylistic diversity of the collection of the National Museum of the American Indian. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text indicates that some of the artists whose work is represented in the collection of the National Museum of the American Indian blend various artistic traditions into highly individual styles of their own, this is not the primary focus of the text. Instead, the text is concerned with how Native art is often mistakenly perceived as uniform, when in fact it is stylistically diverse. Choice C is incorrect because the text never implies that people mistakenly conceive of Native art as theoretical, or concerned with philosophical or abstract issues; instead, the text’s discussion of Native art is framed around this art’s stylistic diversity versus the misconception of it as homogenous.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 3566120b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 3566120b

The following text is adapted from Oscar Wilde’s 1895 play The Importance of Being Earnest.

CECILY: Have we got to part?

ALGERNON: I am afraid so. It’s a very painful parting.

CECILY: It is always painful to part from people whom one has known for a very brief space of time. The absence of old friends one can endure with equanimity. But even a momentary separation from anyone to whom one has just been introduced is almost unbearable.

As used in the text, what does the word “endure” most nearly mean?

  • Regret

  • Persist

  • Tolerate

  • Encourage

ID: 3566120b Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because as used in the text, “endure” most nearly means tolerate. In the text, Cecily and Algernon discuss parting, or saying goodbye. Cecily remarks on the deep pain of saying goodbye to people whom one has only known briefly and then comments on the equanimity, or calm steadiness, one experiences when separated from old friends. The text sets up an ironic contrast: one can easily tolerate, or put up with, the absence of close friends, but even a very short separation from a new acquaintance is unbearable.

Choice A is incorrect. Nothing in the text suggests that Cecily associates regret, or a feeling of sorrow, with the absence of old friends. Rather, the text sets up an ironic contrast between the feeling of calm steadiness one feels when separated from old friends and the unbearable pain of being separated from new acquaintances. Choice B is incorrect. Although in some contexts “endure” can mean persist, or proceed stubbornly, it doesn’t have that meaning in this context because what is being endured is the absence of old friends. Whereas one can persist despite the absence of someone else, one can’t persist the absence itself. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t convey that Cecily encourages, or urges, old friends to be absent. Although it may be that Cecily prefers new acquaintances to friends she has known for a long time, the text focuses on her feelings as a result of others’ absences, not on her treatment of others.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID f2c48e47

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: f2c48e47

The following text is from Charlotte Perkins Gilman’s 1910 poem “The Earth’s Entail.”

No matter how we cultivate the land,

Taming the forest and the prairie free;

No matter how we irrigate the sand,

Making the desert blossom at command,

 We must always leave the borders of the sea;

 The immeasureable reaches

 Of the windy wave-wet beaches,

The million-mile-long margin of the sea.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • The speaker argues against interfering with nature and then gives evidence supporting this interference.

  • The speaker presents an account of efforts to dominate nature and then cautions that such efforts are only temporary.

  • The speaker provides examples of an admirable way of approaching nature and then challenges that approach. 

  • The speaker describes attempts to control nature and then offers a reminder that not all nature is controllable. 

ID: f2c48e47 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. This best describes the overall structure of the text. In the first half of the text, the speaker describes our attempts to control nature: cultivating, taming, and irrigating different kinds of land. In the second half, the speaker states that we can never tame the sea or the beach. 

Choice A is incorrect. This doesn’t describe the overall structure of the text. The speaker never argues that we should not interfere with nature. Rather, the speaker says that we are able to tame many different kinds of land, but we are unable to tame the sea or beaches. Choice B is incorrect. This doesn’t describe the overall structure of the text. The speaker never describes our cultivation, taming, and irrigation of land as “temporary.” Rather, the speaker says that we are able to tame many different kinds of land, but we are unable to tame the sea or beaches. Choice C is incorrect. This doesn’t describe the overall structure of the text. The speaker never describes our cultivation, taming, and irrigation of land as an “admirable” approach to nature.” Rather, the speaker says that we are able to tame many different kinds of land, but we are unable to tame the sea or beaches. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 79dec1e1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 79dec1e1

Art scholars have noted that some colors seem to be more blank viewers than others. For example, people tend to find paintings featuring blues and greens more appealing than paintings featuring yellows and oranges.  

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • confusing for

  • attractive to

  • corrected by

  • similar to

ID: 79dec1e1 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it best completes the text’s discussion of how viewers respond to colors. The text presents something art scholars have noted and gives the example of people tending to find paintings with blues and greens more appealing than those with yellows and oranges. This context conveys that certain colors are more "attractive to" viewers than other colors are.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates only that people tend to find some colors more appealing than others and gives no indication that certain colors are ever "confusing for," or puzzling to, viewers. Choice C is incorrect because the text discusses the relative appeal of certain colors in paintings but gives no indication that any colors would ever be "corrected by" viewers, or somehow fixed or improved by them. Choice D is incorrect because it wouldn’t make much sense to say that some colors are more "similar to" viewers than others, which would suggest that colors and viewers are alike to different degrees. Further, the text primarily emphasizes a difference, not a similarity, in how appealing paintings tend to be based on the colors they contain.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID bcc91b1e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: bcc91b1e

The spacecraft OSIRIS-REx briefly made contact with the asteroid 101955 Bennu in 2020. NASA scientist Daniella DellaGiustina reports that despite facing the unexpected obstacle of a surface mostly covered in boulders, OSIRIS-REx successfully blank a sample of the surface, gathering pieces of it to bring back to Earth.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • attached

  • collected

  • followed

  • replaced

ID: bcc91b1e Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the OSIRIS-REx spacecraft’s contact with the asteroid 101955 Bennu. In this context, “collected” means acquired and took away. The text indicates that although the boulders on the asteroid’s surface caused some unforeseen problems, OSIRIS-REx was able to gather a sample to return to Earth. This context suggests that OSIRIS-REx successfully collected a sample of 101955 Bennu.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context “attached” means connected or affixed. The text indicates that OSIRIS-REx gathered pieces of 101955 Bennu to bring to Earth; it doesn’t suggest that the spacecraft attached anything to the asteroid. Choice C is incorrect because in this context “followed” means tracked or traveled behind and the text discusses OSIRIS-REx’s brief encounter with 101955 Bennu during which the spacecraft gathered a sample to bring to Earth. The text doesn’t suggest that the spacecraft tracked the sample, and it’s not clear what it would mean for the spacecraft to travel behind the sample it collected. Choice D is incorrect because in this context “replaced” means put back or returned. The text indicates that OSIRIS-REx gathered pieces of 101955 Bennu to bring to Earth but doesn’t suggest that anything was returned to the asteroid.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 7d075fc5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 7d075fc5

Oral histories—whether they consist of interviews or recordings of songs and stories—can offer researchers a rich view of people’s everyday experiences. For her book about coal mining communities in Kentucky during the twentieth century, Karida Brown therefore relied in part on interviews with coal miners and their families. By doing so, she gained valuable insights into her subjects’ day-to-day lives.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • It provides a little-known geographical fact about Kentucky.

  • It argues that Karida Brown is an expert on United States politics.

  • It presents a major historical event that took place in the twentieth century.

  • It describes how Karida Brown benefited from incorporating oral history in her book.

ID: 7d075fc5 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. The text begins by pointing out one of the advantages of oral histories: that they allow researchers to document the daily experiences of people. The text then goes on to describe how Karida Brown utilized interviews with coal miners and their families for her book about twentieth-century coal mining in Kentucky. The underlined sentence affirms that the general advantages of oral histories mentioned earlier in the text were also benefits in Brown’s particular case. Thus, the underlined sentence describes how Karida Brown benefited from incorporating oral history in her book.

Choice A is incorrect because though the text mentions coal miners who live in Kentucky, the underlined sentence does not offer a geographical fact about Kentucky. Choice B is incorrect because the underlined sentence does not mention United States politics or that Brown is an expert in this particular area. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text mentions that Brown’s book revolved around coal miners during the twentieth century, the underlined sentence does not focus on a major historical event during this time.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 9645f55e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 9645f55e

Text 1

For decades, bluegrass musicians have debated whether their genre should exclude influences from mainstream genres such as rock. Many insist that bluegrass is defined by its adherence to the folk music of the US South, out of which bluegrass emerged. Such “purists,” as they are known, regard the recordings of Bill Monroe, which established the bluegrass sound in the 1940s, as a standard against which the genre should still be measured.

 

Text 2

Bluegrass isn’t simply an extension of folk traditions into the era of recorded music. In reality, Bill Monroe created the bluegrass sound in the 1940s by combining Southern folk music with commercial genres that had arisen only a few decades before, such as jazz and the blues. Since bluegrass has always been a mixed genre, contemporary bluegrass musicians should not be forbidden from incorporating into it influences from rock and other mainstream genres.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely regard the perspective of bluegrass purists, as described in Text 1?

  • As inconsistent, since bluegrass purists themselves enjoy other musical genres

  • As unrealistic, since bluegrass purists have no way of enforcing their musical preferences

  • As shortsighted, because bluegrass could enlarge its audience by including influences from mainstream genres

  • As illogical, because the purists overlook crucial aspects of how the bluegrass sound first originated.

ID: 9645f55e Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. According to Author 1, the “purists” argue that bluegrass should stick to its folk music roots. But Author 2 points out that this isn’t how bluegrass emerged: it actually got its sound from a mix of folk, jazz, and blues.

Choice A is incorrect. There’s nothing in Text 2 about what other genres the purists enjoy, so this inference about Author 2’s views isn’t supported. Choice B is incorrect. There’s nothing in Text 2 about whether or how purists can enforce their preferences, so this inference about Author 2’s views isn’t supported. Choice C is incorrect. There’s nothing in Text 2 about the size of bluegrass’s audience, so this inference about Author 2’s views isn’t supported.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID f1c9d2c1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: f1c9d2c1

Text 1

Stage lighting theorist Adolphe Appia was perhaps the first to argue that light must be considered alongside all the various elements of a stage to create a single, unified performance. Researcher Kelly Bremner, however, has noted that Appia lacked technical expertise in the use of light in the theater. As a result of Appia’s inexperience, Bremner argues, Appia’s theory of light called for lighting practices that weren’t possible until after the advent of electricity around 1881. 

 

Text 2

Adolphe Appia was not an amateur in the practice of lighting. Instead, it is precisely his exposure to lighting techniques at the time that contributed to his theory on the importance of light. When working as an apprentice for a lighting specialist in his youth, Appia observed the use of portable lighting devices that could be operated by hand. This experience developed his understanding of what was possible in the coordination of elements on the stage.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely respond to the claim about Appia’s level of technical expertise made by Bremner in Text 1?

  • Many lighting technicians dismissed Appia’s ideas about light on the stage.

  • Appia likely gained a level of technical expertise during his time as an apprentice.

  • Theater practitioners who worked with Appia greatly admired his work.

  • Appia was unfamiliar with the use of music and sound in theater.

ID: f1c9d2c1 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The author of Text 2 directly contradicts Bremner’s claim that Appia lacked technical expertise by stating that Appia was “not an amateur in the practice of lighting.” His experience as a lighting specialist’s apprentice would have, the author of Text 2 argues, allowed Appia to “[develop] his understanding of what was possible” with the elements of theatrical design.

Choice A is incorrect. Neither text describes how other lighting technicians responded to Appia’s ideas. Furthermore, this claim isn’t relevant to Bremner’s evaluation of Appia’s technical expertise. Choice C is incorrect. Neither text mentions anything about the opinions of theater practitioners who worked with Appia, so this answer choice does not relate to the claim about Appia’s level of technical expertise made by Bremner in Text 1. Choice D is incorrect. Neither text mentions anything about Appia’s familiarity with or ignorance of the use of music and sound in theater. Both focus on his expertise (or lack thereof) in lighting.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 31d0bd9a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 31d0bd9a

The parasitic dodder plant increases its reproductive success by flowering at the same time as the host plant it has latched onto. In 2020, Jianqiang Wu and his colleagues determined that the tiny dodder achieves this blank with its host by absorbing and utilizing a protein the host produces when it is about to flower.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • synchronization

  • hibernation

  • prediction

  • moderation

ID: 31d0bd9a Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of a relationship between the dodder plant and its host plant. As used in this context, “synchronization” means the act of things happening at the same time. The text indicates that the dodder and its host plant flower in unison and that this synchronization occurs because the dodder makes use of a protein produced by the host shortly before flowering.

Choice B is incorrect because referring to “hibernation,” or the state of being dormant or inactive, wouldn’t make sense in context. The text focuses on something the dodder plant actively engages in—making use of a protein and producing flowers. Choice C is incorrect because stating that the dodder plant and its host engage together in “prediction,” or the act of declaring or indicating something in advance, wouldn’t make sense in context. Rather than indicating that the dodder plant and its host plant make a prediction about flowering activity, the text suggests that the host produces a protein as part of its regular flowering process and that the dodder then absorbs and uses that protein to flower at the same time. Choice D is incorrect because referring to “moderation,” or the act of causing something to become less intense or extreme, wouldn’t make sense in context. Although the text states that the dodder plant absorbs and uses a protein made by its host plant, it doesn’t suggest that the dodder lessens the host plant’s flowering activity; the two plants simply flower in unison.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID dc043599

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Easy
ID: dc043599

Text 1

Most scientists agree that the moon was likely formed after a collision between Earth and a large planet named Theia. This collision likely created a huge debris field, made up of material from both Earth and Theia. Based on models of this event, scientists believe that the moon was formed from this debris over the course of thousands of years.

 

Text 2 

Researchers from NASA’s Ames Research Center used a computer to model how the moon could have formed. Although simulations of the moon’s formation have been done in the past, the team from NASA ran simulations that were much more detailed. They found that the formation of the moon was likely not a slow process that took many years. Instead, it’s probable that the moon’s formation happened immediately after impact, taking just a few hours.

Which choice best describes a difference in how the author of Text 1 and the author of Text 2 view the evidence for the formation of the moon?

  • The author of Text 1 argues that the formation of the moon occurred much earlier than the author of Text 2 argues.

  • The author of Text 1 suggests there is more evidence confirming the existence of Theia than the author of Text 2 suggests.

  • The author of Text 1 claims that the moon’s surface is more similar to Earth’s surface than the author of Text 2 claims.

  • The author of Text 1 believes that the moon formed more slowly than the author of Text 2 believes.

ID: dc043599 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. Text 1 states that the moon was formed from the debris “over the course of thousands of years,” while Text 2 states that the moon’s formation happened “immediately after impact, taking just a few hours.” This shows a clear difference in how the authors view the evidence for the speed of the moon’s formation.

Choice A is incorrect. While Text 2 suggests that the moon formed over “just a few hours” and Text 1 says it took “thousands of years,” neither one mentions when that formation occurred. Choice B is incorrect. While Theia isn’t mentioned in Text 2, neither text describes or disputes evidence of Theia’s existence. Choice C is incorrect. Neither text makes any claims about the similarity or difference between the moon’s surface and Earth’s surface.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID cf9a3f34

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: cf9a3f34

The following text is adapted from Elizabeth von Arnim’s 1922 novel The Enchanted April. Mrs. Wilkins and her friend Rose are traveling in Italy.

“I’m going to have one of these gorgeous oranges,” said Mrs. Wilkins, staying where she was and reaching across to a black bowl piled with them. “Rose, how can you resist them. Look—have this one. Do have this beauty—” And she held out a big one.

As used in the text, what does the phrase “reaching across to” most nearly mean?

  • Joining with

  • Gaining on

  • Stretching toward

  • Arriving at

ID: cf9a3f34 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because as used in the text "reaching across to" most nearly means stretching toward. The text begins with Mrs. Wilkins stating that she wants to have one of the oranges that she’s admiring. The text then indicates that Mrs. Wilkins, staying where she is, holds out a big orange to her friend. This context suggests that when the text describes Mrs. Wilkins as reaching across to the bowl of oranges, it means that she is stretching toward the bowl.

Choice A is incorrect because the text never suggests that Mrs. Wilkins is joining with, or becoming attached to, the bowl of oranges. Rather, the text indicates that she is stretching toward the bowl so she can pick out oranges for herself and her friend Rose to eat. Choice B is incorrect because the text never suggests that Mrs. Wilkins is gaining on, or overtaking in a competition or race, the bowl of oranges. The text suggests instead that the bowl is sitting still on a surface and that Mrs. Wilkins is extending her arm toward the bowl so she can pick out oranges for herself and her friend Rose to eat. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that Mrs. Wilkins is arriving at the bowl of oranges. In fact, the text states that Mrs. Wilkins stays where she is when reaching across to the bowl, meaning that she remains at a distance from it.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 1b5d4e3e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 1b5d4e3e

Were penguins always flightless? Theresa Cole and her team argue that penguins could fly at some point, but that they lost that ability more than 60 million years ago as they adapted to marine life. After examining various penguin fossils and genetic information, the researchers concluded that over time penguins developed underwater vision, blood oxygenation, and bone density better suited for swimming than flying. Thus, environmental conditions might have driven penguins to change from flyers to swimmers.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • It defines a scientific term used in the sentence that follows.

  • It contradicts a description in the sentence that follows.

  • It provides an answer to the question in the previous sentence.

  • It notes that the question in the previous sentence has not been researched.

ID: 1b5d4e3e Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it best describes how the underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. The text begins with a question: have penguins always been unable to fly? The underlined sentence then presents an answer that has been offered by researchers, indicating that Theresa Cole and her team believe that penguins were once able to fly but lost that ability long ago as they began living in the sea. The text then describes the research that led to that answer. Thus, the function of the underlined sentence is to provide an answer to the question in the previous sentence.

Choice A is incorrect because none of the terms used in the sentence that follows are defined in the underlined sentence; no definitions are given at all. Instead, the sentence presents Theresa Cole and her team’s answer to the earlier question about penguins’ ability to fly. Choice B is incorrect because there is no contradiction between the underlined sentence and the sentence that follows since both convey that at some point penguins underwent adaptations that limited their ability to fly and helped them swim and live in the sea. Instead of contradicting later information, the underlined sentence presents an answer to the earlier question about penguins’ ability to fly. Choice D is incorrect because the question in the previous sentence is about penguins’ ability to fly and the underlined sentence presents Theresa Cole and her team’s answer to that question based on their research into penguin flight, which is described in the rest of the text.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID dc234d74

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: dc234d74

The recently observed gamma ray burst GRB 230307A lasted for 200 seconds, blank for a burst generated by the merger of neutron stars. Bursts caused by neutron mergers typically last fewer than 2 seconds.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • a coincidence 

  • a reprieve

  • an incident

  • an oddity

ID: dc234d74 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the duration of gamma ray burst GRB 230307A. In this context, "an oddity" is something that is odd or unusual. The text explains that the burst lasted for 200 seconds and that other bursts generated by neutron mergers have usually lasted fewer than 2 seconds. In other words, the duration of gamma ray burst GRB 230307A was unusual.

Choice A is incorrect because the text focuses on a difference between the duration of gamma ray burst GRB 230307A and the typical duration of bursts caused by neutron mergers, not "a coincidence," or a point of correspondence, between them; the text indicates that GRB 230307A lasted much longer than what is typical of other bursts. Choice B is incorrect. In this context, "a reprieve" would be either a temporary relief from something or a delay of a punishment, neither of which would make sense as something that the duration of a gamma ray burst could provide to the burst itself. Choice C is incorrect. Although it would make sense to refer to gamma ray burst GRB 230307A itself as "an incident," or a thing that occurred, the missing word describes the duration of the burst, and it doesn’t make much sense to describe a length of time as an incident. Further, the sentence emphasizes that the burst’s duration was very unusual, not simply that the burst occurred.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 47955354

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 47955354

Sumerian civilization (which lasted from around 3300 to 2000 BCE) blank many concepts that persist into present-day civilizations: for example, the first description of the seven-day week appears in the Sumerian Epic of Gilgamesh.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • transformed

  • introduced

  • inherited

  • overlooked

ID: 47955354 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the contributions of the Sumerian civilization. In this context, “introduced” means brought into practice or use. The text states that the first reference to a seven-day week appears in the Sumerian Epic of Gilgamesh. The text presents this information about the seven-day week as an example of a concept introduced by the Sumerian civilization that persists into present-day civilizations. 

Choice A is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that the Sumerian civilization “transformed,” or changed the nature of, concepts that persist into present-day civilizations. Instead, the text’s presentation of a Sumerian literary work that contains the first description of the seven-day week is an example of the phenomenon described in the first half of the sentence, suggesting that the Sumerians invented many concepts that still persist. Choice C is incorrect because the information that a Sumerian literary work includes the first description of the seven-day week suggests that Sumerian civilization may have originated the seven-day week and other concepts that persist into present-day civilizations, not that it “inherited” the concepts, or received them from an ancestral figure or culture. Choice D is incorrect because the information that Sumerian civilization produced the first description of the seven-day week is presented as an example of the phenomenon described in the first half of the sentence, suggesting that Sumerian civilization originated this and other concepts that still persist, not that the Sumerians “overlooked,” or failed to notice or consider, such concepts.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID a3761c7e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: a3761c7e

Physicist Joseph Weber performed blank work in gravitational wave research in the 1960s and 1970s, conducting key experiments that scientists later used as the basis for their own investigations that led to the first verified detection of a gravitational wave in 2015.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • foundational

  • supplementary

  • repetitive

  • ineffective

ID: a3761c7e Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of physicist Joseph Webster’s research on gravitational waves. In this context “foundational” means the basis on which something else develops. The text indicates that Webster’s experiments in the 1960s and 1970s were earlier than, and “key” to, the work of later scientists in the field; thus, Webster’s work was foundational to the later scientists’ experiments and the eventual detection of a gravitational wave in 2015.  

Choice B is incorrect because the text does not suggest that Webster’s work was supplementary, or an additional element of an existing, larger project, but rather it was “the basis for” later experiments. Choice C is incorrect because the text does not assert that Webster’s work was repetitive, or involved doing something the same way many times. Rather, the text indicates that Webster’s work formed the basis for later investigations in the field of gravitational wave research.  Choice D is incorrect because the text does not state that Webster’s work was ineffective, or failed to produce the desired outcome. Rather, the text strongly implies that Webster’s work was productive and extremely important to later work in the field of gravitational wave research. 

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 34d7bb25

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 34d7bb25

According to Indian economist and sociologist Radhakamal Mukerjee (1889–1968), the Eurocentric concepts that informed early twentieth-century social scientific methods—for example, the idea that all social relations are reducible to struggles between individuals—had little relevance for India. Making the social sciences more responsive to Indians’ needs, Mukerjee argued, required constructing analytical categories informed by India’s cultural and ecological circumstances. Mukerjee thus proposed the communalist “Indian village” as the ideal model on which to base Indian economic and social policy.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • The text recounts Mukerjee’s early training in the social scientific disciplines and then lists social policies whose implementation Mukerjee oversaw. 

  • The text mentions some of Mukerjee’s economic theories and then traces their impact on other Indian social scientists of the twentieth century.

  • The text presents Mukerjee’s critique of the social sciences and then provides an example of his attempts to address issues he identified in his critique.

  • The text explains an influential economic theory and then demonstrates how that theory was more important to Mukerjee’s work than other social scientists have acknowledged.  

ID: 34d7bb25 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The text does indeed present Mukerjee’s critique of the social sciences—that they were too Eurocentric—and then provides an example of how he attempted to address the issues he identified: by suggesting a social science model based on the Indian village.

Choice A is incorrect. The text doesn’t discuss Mukerjee’s early training or his oversight of the implementation of social policies at all. Choice B is incorrect. The text never discusses any other Indian social scientists. Choice D is incorrect. The text never mentions other social scientists’ responses to Mukerjee’s work.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID c0e1b70a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: c0e1b70a

The following text is adapted from Etsu Inagaki Sugimoto’s 1925 memoir A Daughter of the Samurai. As a young woman, Sugimoto moved from feudal Japan to the United States.

The standards of my own and my adopted country differed so widely in some ways, and my love for both lands was so sincere, that sometimes I had an odd feeling of standing upon a cloud in space, and gazing with measuring eyes upon two separate worlds. At first I was continually trying to explain, by Japanese standards, all the queer things that came every day before my surprised eyes; for no one seemed to know the origin or significance of even the most familiar customs, nor why they existed and were followed.

Which choice best describes the main purpose of the text?

  • To convey the narrator’s experience of observing and making sense of differences between two cultures she embraces

  • To establish the narrator’s hope of forming connections with new companions by sharing customs she learned as a child

  • To reveal the narrator’s recognition that she is hesitant to ask questions about certain aspects of a culture she is newly encountering 

  • To emphasize the narrator’s wonder at discovering that the physical distance between two countries is greater than she had expected

ID: c0e1b70a Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text. The narrator asserts that she loves both her “own” country (Japan) and her “adopted country” (the United States) even though the two countries differ “widely.” She also indicates that, at first, she would try to explain unfamiliar experiences that she had in the United States using the standards ingrained in her from growing up in Japan. Thus, the main purpose of the text is to convey the narrator’s experience of observing and making sense of the differences between two cultures she embraces.

Choice B is incorrect because the text makes no reference to possible companions. Although the text does indicate that the narrator sometimes used the cultural framework she acquired growing up in Japan to explain some experiences she’s had, there is no suggestion that this was in service of making friends. And although “no one seemed to know” strongly implies that the narrator has interacted with other people in the United States, there is no indication that these conversations involved her discussing Japanese customs. Choice C is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that the narrator was hesitant to ask questions. In fact, the narrator indicates that “no one seemed to know the origin” of various customs, which provides evidence that, rather than being hesitant, she sought information from several people. Choice D is incorrect because the text makes no reference to the physical distance between Japan and the United States. Although the narrator indicates that the two countries differ “widely” and likens them to “two separate worlds,” these descriptions relate to cultural aspects of the countries and the narrator’s feelings about the two countries, not the physical distance between them.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID bbb77c84

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: bbb77c84

Containing over 160 billion base pairs of DNA resulting from polyploidy (whole genome duplication) and accumulation of noncoding DNA without significant deletion, the genome of Tmesipteris oblanceolata (New Caledonian fork fern) is the largest known among eukaryotes—and, given the high biological costs of extremely large genomes, is unlikely to be blank. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • protracted

  • superseded

  • curtailed

  • obviated

ID: bbb77c84 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the fork fern’s enormous genome. In this context, "superseded" means surpassed or exceeded by something else. The text establishes that this plant has "the largest known" genome among eukaryotes and mentions "the high biological costs of extremely large genomes," suggesting there are natural constraints that make it biologically disadvantageous to maintain such massive genetic material. This context supports the idea that it’s unlikely another organism will evolve an even larger genome that would replace this plant’s record—that is, its status as having the largest genome is unlikely to be superseded.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, "protracted" would mean drawn out over time or space, and the text focuses on the record size of the New Caledonian fork fern’s genome and the fact that extremely large genomes carry "high biological costs." This information suggests that the biological upper limit for genome size may have been reached and that the New Caledonian fork fern’s genome is therefore unlikely to be surpassed, or superseded, not that it’s unlikely to be protracted. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, "curtailed" would mean cut short or reduced, and the text focuses on the record size of the New Caledonian fork fern’s genome and the fact that extremely large genomes carry "high biological costs." This information suggests that the biological upper limit for genome size may have been reached and that the New Caledonian fork fern’s genome is therefore unlikely to be surpassed, or superseded, not that it’s unlikely to be curtailed. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, "obviated" would mean made unnecessary or redundant, and the text focuses on the record size of the New Caledonian fork fern’s genome and the fact that extremely large genomes carry "high biological costs." This information suggests that the biological upper limit for genome size may have been reached and that the New Caledonian fork fern’s genome is therefore unlikely to be surpassed, or superseded, not that it’s unlikely to be obviated.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID f631132b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: f631132b

In the Here and Now Storybook (1921), educator Lucy Sprague Mitchell advanced the then controversial idea that books for very young children should imitate how they use language, since toddlers, who cannot yet grasp narrative or abstract ideas, seek reassurance in verbal repetition and naming. The most enduring example of this idea is Margaret Wise Brown’s 1947 picture book Goodnight Moon, in which a young rabbit names the objects in his room as he drifts off to sleep. Scholars note that the book’s emphasis on repetition, rhythm, and nonsense rhyme speaks directly to Mitchell’s influence. 

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • The text outlines a debate between two authors of children’s literature and then traces how that debate shaped theories on early childhood education. 

  • The text summarizes an argument about how children’s literature should be evaluated and then discusses a contrasting view on that subject.

  • The text lists the literary characteristics that are common to many classics of children’s literature and then indicates the narrative subjects that are most appropriate for young children.

  • The text presents a philosophy about what material is most suitable for children’s literature and then describes a book influenced by that philosophy.  

ID: f631132b Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The text starts by introducing Mitchell’s philosophy about using simple, repetitive language in books for young children. Then it describes a book influenced by that philosophy, Goodnight Moon.

Choice A is incorrect. Although two authors are mentioned in the text, they both agree about the type of language that should be contained in books for young children. Choice B is incorrect. The text never discusses the evaluation of children’s literature. It does provide one view of how children’s books should be written, but never introduces a competing view. Choice C is incorrect. The text doesn’t mention “many classics of children’s literature.” Instead, it describes an educational theory and identifies one example of a famous children’s book that was influenced by that theory.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 80ebb189

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 80ebb189

As an architect in Los Angeles in the 1950s, Helen Liu Fong became known for avoiding blank designs in her buildings. Instead of using standard shapes and colors, she typically explored innovative forms and daring hues.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • creative

  • bold

  • traditional

  • understandable

ID: 80ebb189 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Helen Liu Fong’s architectural designs. In this context, “traditional” means conventional. The text states that rather than use “standard shapes and colors,” Fong pursued “innovative” and “daring” design choices in her work. Fong’s style is depicted as inventive, so it therefore makes sense in this context that she avoided mainstream, traditional designs in her buildings. 

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that Fong’s work is innovative and experimental. Thus, Fong’s design choices could reasonably be considered creative, or original. She likely would have pursued creative designs, not avoided them. Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that Fong used “daring” hues in her designs. Thus, Fong likely would have pursued bold, or brave and vivid design choices; she wouldn’t have avoided them. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t address whether Fong’s designs are understandable, or reasonable or expected. The text focuses on certain characteristics of Fong’s designs, not on how people received or understood them.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 47904792

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 47904792

Animals use many objects as tools to achieve goals more easily. Such goals include grooming, finding food, and protecting themselves. For a long time, people thought tool use was unique to primates. Dolphins and other animals, though, have busted the myth that tool use requires hands. Inventively, dolphins use sponges to protect their noses from scratches when foraging on the seafloor. Palm cockatoos also get creative. They use leaves to pad their beaks when opening nuts.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To question the belief that birds are intelligent

  • To compare tool use in humans with tool use in palm cockatoos

  • To establish that tool use doesn’t indicate intelligence

  • To argue that a variety of animals use tools

ID: 47904792 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately states the main purpose of the text. The text first states that animals make use of objects as tools to help them achieve different goals. The text then explains that although people used to think only primates use tools, tool use by dolphins (aquatic mammals) and palm cockatoos (birds) has shown that primates are not the only animals that use tools. Thus, the main purpose of the text is to argue that a variety of animals, not just primates, use tools.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention intelligence at all, focusing just on the idea that animals use tools. Further, the text mentions one kind of bird (palm cockatoos) only as an example of a non-primate that uses tools and describes its use of tools as creative, not unintelligent. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text mentions tool use in primates (a group that includes humans) and in palm cockatoos, it doesn’t compare humans’ tool use with palm cockatoos’ tool use. The text mentions palm cockatoos only as one example out of the variety of animals that use tools and never directly mentions tool use in humans. Choice C is incorrect because the text discusses tool use but never makes any mention of intelligence. Rather than establishing that tool use doesn’t indicate intelligence, the text describes certain tool use as inventive and creative.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID e7d37666

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: e7d37666

It is by no means blank to recognize the influence of Dutch painter Hieronymus Bosch on Ali Banisadr’s paintings; indeed, Banisadr himself cites Bosch as an inspiration. However, some scholars have suggested that the ancient Mesopotamian poem Epic of Gilgamesh may have had a far greater impact on Banisadr’s work.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • substantial

  • satisfying

  • unimportant

  • appropriate

ID: e7d37666 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the sentence about the influences on Banisadr’s work. In context, “It is by no means” followed by “unimportant” conveys how it is relevant to recognize Bosch’s influence on Banisadr. The text points out that the artist himself cites Bosch as an inspiration, and then goes on to claim that The Epic of Gilgamesh has had a more significant influence than Bosch. 

Choice A is incorrect because “substantial,” which means weighty or meaningful, incorrectly suggests that it wouldn’t be meaningful to acknowledge Bosch’s influence on Banisadr. The phrase “indeed, Banisadr himself cites Bosch as an inspiration” doesn’t support this suggestion. Choice B is incorrect because “satisfying,” which means pleasing, incorrectly suggests that it wouldn’t be pleasing to acknowledge Bosch’s influence on Banisadr. The phrase “indeed, Banisadr himself cites Bosch as an inspiration” doesn’t support this suggestion. Choice D is incorrect because “appropriate,” which means suitable, incorrectly suggests that it wouldn’t be proper to acknowledge Bosch’s influence on Banisadr. The phrase “indeed, Banisadr himself cites Bosch as an inspiration” doesn’t support this suggestion. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID b940952c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: b940952c

On the basis of extensive calculations and models, astronomers in the 1990s predicted that the collision of two neutron stars or a neutron star and a black hole could release a massive burst of gamma rays in an event called a kilonova. This blank was confirmed with observations in 2017. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • theory

  • evidence

  • constant

  • experiment

ID: b940952c Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of a prediction about a kilonova. In this context, a "theory" is an explanation that is considered scientifically acceptable. The text states that astronomers predicted in the 1990s that a collision between a black hole and a neutron star or between two neutron stars could release a massive gamma ray burst called a kilonova, explaining that they determined this possibility based on their extensive work with existing data and simulations ("calculations and models"). In other words, the prediction was a theory—a well-supported explanation—that, as the text indicates, was later confirmed with observations in 2017.

Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that it is the prediction made by astronomers in the 1990s that was confirmed in 2017, and a prediction of an event isn’t "evidence," or proof, of that event’s existence, even when the prediction is based on extensive study. Further, there would be no need for later confirmation of something that was already recognized as evidence. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, a "constant" is a situation or factor that doesn’t change. The text indicates that it is the prediction made by astronomers in the 1990s that was confirmed in 2017, and there is no reason to describe the prediction as a constant because the text doesn’t suggest that the prediction was completely unchanged over time—it addresses only the making of the prediction and its later confirmation. Choice D is incorrect because the text indicates that it is the prediction made by astronomers in the 1990s that was confirmed in 2017; although a prediction might be informed by an "experiment," or a controlled test, a prediction is an idea rather than a test.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 570970cd

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 570970cd

The following text is adapted from Indian Boyhood, a 1902 memoir by Ohiyesa (Charles A. Eastman), a Santee Dakota writer. In the text, Ohiyesa recalls how the women in his tribe harvested maple syrup during his childhood.

Now the women began to test the trees—moving leisurely among them, axe in hand, and striking a single quick blow, to see if the sap would appear. The trees, like people, have their individual characters; some were ready to yield up their life-blood, while others were more reluctant. Now one of the birchen basins was set under each tree, and a hardwood chip driven deep into the cut which the axe had made. From the corners of this chip—at first drop by drop, then more freely—the sap trickled into the little dishes.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • It portrays the range of personality traits displayed by the women as they work.

  • It foregrounds the beneficial relationship between humans and maple trees.

  • It demonstrates how human behavior can be influenced by the natural environment.

  • It elaborates on an aspect of the maple trees that the women evaluate.

ID: 570970cd Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text’s overall portrayal of how the women in Ohiyesa’s tribe harvested maple syrup. The text states that the women used an axe to strike the maple trees in order to find out which ones would produce sap. The underlined sentence compares the trees to people, with the sap described as the trees’ “life-blood.” Some of the trees are ready to give out their sap, while others are unwilling to do so. Using personification, the sentence provides greater detail about the aspect of the maple trees—their potential to give sap—that the women are evaluating.

Choice A is incorrect because the personalities of the women are not discussed in the text. Although the underlined sentence does mention “individual characters,” this reference is not to the women in the text but rather to the maple trees, which the sentence compares to people with individual character traits. Choice B is incorrect because the underlined sentence focuses on the trees’ willingness or refusal to yield sap, not on the beneficial relationship between the women and the trees. Additionally, although the text does suggest that the women and their tribe benefit from the maple trees since the trees allow the women to harvest syrup, there is nothing in the text to suggest that the trees benefit from this relationship in turn. Choice C is incorrect because the underlined sentence is comparing maple trees to humans, not addressing the influence of the natural environment on how the actual humans in the text, the women, behave.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 683f66c9

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 683f66c9

Though not closely related, the hedgehog tenrecs of Madagascar share basic blank true hedgehogs, including protective spines, pointed snouts, and small body size—traits the two groups of mammals independently developed in response to equivalent roles in their respective habitats.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • examples of

  • concerns about

  • indications of

  • similarities with

ID: 683f66c9 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because in context, sharing "similarities with" means having some resemblance to. The text establishes a comparison between two groups of mammals, stating that although they aren’t closely related, hedgehog tenrecs and true hedgehogs play similar roles in their habitats, a circumstance that has resulted in the independent development of some of the same physical traits. This context supports the idea that hedgehog tenrecs resemble, or share basic similarities with, true hedgehogs in some respects.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that hedgehog tenrecs are "examples of," or representative of, true hedgehogs. The text states that despite some shared physical traits, the two groups of mammals aren’t closely related; therefore, hedgehog tenrecs can’t be examples of true hedgehogs. Choice B is incorrect because in this context, "concerns about" would mean worries about or interests in. The text focuses on the various physical traits that hedgehog tenrecs and true hedgehogs share. There’s nothing in the text to suggest why hedgehog tenrecs would be worried about true hedgehogs, or why they would be interested in them. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, "indications of" would mean evidence of. By listing a set of traits that hedgehog tenrecs share with true hedgehogs, the text establishes a comparison between the two groups of mammals, and saying that the traits shared within one group of mammals provide evidence of another group of mammals wouldn’t be an effective way to establish the similarities between the two groups.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID eae66bf9

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: eae66bf9

Text 1

In 2021, a team led by Amir Siraj hypothesized that the Chicxulub impactor—the object that struck the Yucatán Peninsula sixty-six million years ago, precipitating the mass extinction of the dinosaurs—was likely a member of the class of long-period comets. As evidence, Siraj cited the carbonaceous chondritic composition of samples from the Chicxulub impact crater as well as of samples obtained from long-period comet Wild 2 in 2006.

 

Text 2

Although long-period comets contain carbonaceous chondrites, asteroids are similarly rich in these materials. Furthermore, some asteroids are rich in iridium, as Natalia Artemieva points out, whereas long-period comets are not. Given the prevalence of iridium at the crater and, more broadly, in geological layers deposited worldwide following the impact, Artemieva argues that an asteroid is a more plausible candidate for the Chicxulub impactor.

Based on the texts, how would Artemieva likely respond to Siraj’s hypothesis, as presented in Text 1?

  • By insisting that it overestimates how representative Wild 2 is of long-period comets as a class

  • By arguing that it does not account for the amount of iridium found in geological layers dating to the Chicxulub impact

  • By praising it for connecting the composition of Chicxulub crater samples to the composition of certain asteroids

  • By concurring that carbonaceous chondrites are prevalent in soil samples from sites distant from the Chicxulub crater

ID: eae66bf9 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. Siraj’s hypothesis is that the Chicxulub impactor was a long-period comet. But Artemieva points to the iridium found in the crater and in “geological layers that were deposited worldwide after the impact” as evidence that it was actually an asteroid, not a long-period comet.

Choice A is incorrect. We can’t infer that this is how Artemieva would respond to Siraj’s hypothesis. Text 2 never discusses whether Wild 2 is representative of long-period comets in general. Rather, Text 2 presents Artemieva’s argument that the Chicxulub impactor was an asteroid, not a long-term comet. Choice C is incorrect. We can’t infer that this is how Artemieva would respond to Siraj’s hypothesis. Siraj’s hypothesis doesn’t make this connection: rather, Siraj hypothesizes that the Chicxulub impactor was a long-term comet. Choice D is incorrect. We can’t infer that this is how Artemieva would respond to Siraj’s hypothesis. “Soil samples from sites distant from the Chicxulub crater” is too vague. Only soil samples from sites that are connected to the impact in some way are involved in either hypothesis.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID a1ff8ce3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: a1ff8ce3

As discussed by scholar Anna Mladentseva, many artworks produced in the mid-1990s to the early 2000s exclusively for exhibition on the internet, such as Sinae Kim’s Genesis (2001), have become inaccessible because viewing them requires the use of blank software (most notably Adobe Flash, discontinued in 2021).

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • defunct

  • arcane

  • ubiquitous

  • extraneous

ID: a1ff8ce3 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of artworks that were produced for exhibition on the internet. In this context, "defunct" means no longer existing or functioning. According to the text, many artworks that were produced in the mid-1990s to the early 2000s for exhibition on the internet have become inaccessible due to their reliance on certain software. As an example, the text cites Sinae Kim’s Genesis, which relied on software that was discontinued in 2021. This context supports the idea that the software is defunct.

Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that viewing artworks produced in the mid-1990s to the early 2000s for exhibition on the internet requires the use of software. Artists generally want their works to be seen by many people, so it wouldn’t make sense for creators of internet art to require the use of software that is "arcane," or known or knowable to only a few people. Moreover, the text states that a prominent example of software used to view these artworks is Adobe Flash, which was discontinued in 2021, meaning it’s now defunct. Choice C is incorrect because "ubiquitous" would mean found everywhere, which wouldn’t make sense in this context. The text indicates that the reason why many artworks that were produced in the mid-1990s to the early 2000s for exhibition on the internet have become inaccessible has to do with the software required for viewing them. According to the text, one example of such software is Adobe Flash, which was discontinued in 2021, meaning it’s now defunct. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that the software used to view artworks produced in the mid-1990s to the early 2000s for exhibition on the internet is "extraneous," or irrelevant. Instead, the text indicates that use of specific software is required to view certain artworks from this period and that the discontinuation of the software renders the works inaccessible.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 9a94eb77

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 9a94eb77

Text 1

One challenge faced by researchers studying global urbanization is that countries may define urban settlements differently. Many countries define urban settlements based on the number of people living in them. However, countries do not all use the same number; for example, Iceland uses a minimum population of 200, while the Netherlands uses 20,000. Other countries use a combination of population and other factors. This variation makes it difficult for researchers to compare aspects of urbanization in different countries.

 

Text 2

Recently, a group of six international organizations developed global definitions of common types of settlements. The group developed a new measure called the “degree of urbanization.” This new measure establishes global criteria used to define three types of settlements (cities, towns, and rural areas) and allows researchers to better understand global urbanization rates. 

 

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely respond to the problem presented in Text 1?

  • By recommending that a specific institution should further investigate the problem

  • By suggesting that researchers focus on topics besides urbanization

  • By supplying additional ways in which urbanization research is difficult

  • By noting that a possible solution to the problem is available

ID: 9a94eb77 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because Text 2 presents a possible solution to the problem identified in Text 1—that is, how disparities in the criteria used by different countries to define urban settlements make it "difficult for researchers to compare aspects of urbanization in different countries." Text 2 describes the creation of a shared framework for studying global urbanization: "global definitions of common types of settlements" and a "new measure called the ‘degree of urbanization’" that "allows researchers to better understand global urbanization rates."

Choice A is incorrect. Although Text 2 mentions "a group of six international organizations" that developed criteria and a measure related to settlements and urbanization, no organization or institution is singled out to perform further research. Choice B is incorrect because both texts are about urbanization research and neither mentions any other fields of study. Choice C is incorrect. Text 2 discusses a possible solution to the terminological problem in global urbanization research, not additional areas of difficulty in the field.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 7b4dde72

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 7b4dde72

In 1891, design artist William Morris cofounded the Kelmscott Press, which printed editions of books using preindustrial methods. Historians argue that Morris’s repudiation of industrialization is blank the Kelmscott editions’ use of handmade materials and intricate ornamentation reminiscent of medieval manuscripts: these meticulously handcrafted elements exemplify the artistry involved.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • insensible to

  • manifest in

  • scrutinized by

  • complicated by

ID: 7b4dde72 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the Kelmscott Press’s books. In this context, "manifest in" means evident or apparent from. The text states that the Kelmscott Press, which was cofounded by William Morris, produced its books using preindustrial methods. The text notes the similarity between those methods, which include the use of handmade materials and intricate ornamentation, and methods used in the creation of medieval manuscripts. This context suggests that Morris’s repudiation of industrialization is apparent from, or manifest in, the methods and materials his company employed.

Choice A is incorrect because there is nothing in the text to suggest that Morris’s repudiation of industrialization is "insensible to," or unaware of or lacking perception of, the use of handmade materials and intricate ornamentation in the production of the Kelmscott editions. Instead, the text suggests that the methods and materials used to produce the Kelmscott editions are evidence of Morris’s repudiation of industrialization. Choice C is incorrect because it would not make sense to say that Morris’s repudiation of industrialization was "scrutinized by," or examined closely by, the Kelmscott editions’ use of handmade materials and intricate ornamentation. Although creating the Kelmscott editions may have involved examining the books closely, the text does not mention this aspect of Morris’s work, and in any case, the action of using certain materials to create those editions cannot scrutinize Morris’s attitude toward industrialization. Choice D is incorrect because the text gives no indication that Morris’s repudiation of industrialization is "complicated by," or made more complex or difficult by, the Kelmscott Press’s use of preindustrial methods and handcrafted elements to produce books. Instead, the text presents those methods as exemplifying Morris’s repudiation of industrialization.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 35fd0eb4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 35fd0eb4

The discoverers of the minor planet 1227 Geranium named it after the plant genus that includes cranesbills. Most of the recently discovered minor planets, however, are given only an identification number, largely due to there being over 500,000 such bodies known at present, which makes the already challenging task of finding a unique name for each nearly blank.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • insurmountable

  • feasible

  • substantial

  • unnecessary

ID: 35fd0eb4 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the difficulty in naming a large number of minor planets. In this context, "insurmountable" means impossible to overcome or too difficult to solve. The text establishes that coming up with distinct names for minor planets is already a difficult task that has become even more challenging because there are now more than 500,000 known minor planets. The logical conclusion is that finding unique names for such a vast number of celestial objects has become virtually impossible—or insurmountable—which explains why the majority of recently discovered minor planets receive only identification numbers instead of proper names.

Choice B is incorrect because "feasible" means possible to do or achieve, which would contradict the logic of the text. The text indicates that the task of naming minor planets has become more difficult because of their large number. The text then explains that this is why most new discoveries receive only identification numbers. If the task were feasible, there would be no reason to abandon the practice of giving proper names to minor planets in favor of using only numbers. Choice C is incorrect because "substantial" means considerable in size, amount, or importance. While the text does suggest that naming all minor planets would be a significant undertaking, describing the task as substantial wouldn’t logically explain why the naming practice has been largely abandoned in favor of using only identification numbers. The text suggests that the task has become virtually impossible (insurmountable), not merely large or significant. Choice D is incorrect because "unnecessary," which means not needed, would suggest that giving proper names to minor planets serves no purpose. However, the text doesn’t question the value or purpose of naming minor planets; rather, it explains that the sheer number of discoveries has made the already challenging naming task nearly impossible to complete. The text provides an example of a named minor planet (1227 Geranium), indicating that naming has been considered worthwhile but has become impractical because of the volume.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID c8a2af72

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: c8a2af72

Text 1

French Impressionist artist Edgar Degas insisted that his paintings be kept in their original frames after they were sold. Like many Impressionist painters, Degas used painted frames that stood in contrast to the gold frames frequently seen at the Paris Salon, a prestigious art exhibition that was sponsored by the French government and promoted traditional painting styles. Impressionist painters likely chose these colorful frames to distinguish themselves from what was considered conventional at the time.

 

Text 2

Impressionist painters often focused on the interplay of color and light in their works. As such, those Impressionists who placed their works in painted frames instead of the more traditional gold ones did so for aesthetic reasons: a frame’s color was likely chosen because it would harmonize with the colors or subjects in a painting. Gold, conversely, could distract from the subtleties in a painted scene. 

Based on the texts, both authors would most likely agree with which statement?

  • Gold frames were considered especially desirable by those who purchased works from Impressionist painters.

  • The colors in an Impressionist painting were often chosen to complement the colors of the frame it would be placed in.

  • Many Impressionist painters were intentional about the frames they selected for their works.

  • Degas’s preferred framing style was different from that of most Impressionist painters.

ID: c8a2af72 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it presents the statement about the use of painted frames in Impressionist painting that both authors would be most likely to agree with. Text 1 discusses painter Edgar Degas’s insistence that his works remain in their original painted frames, which contrasted with the gold frames that were typical of the Paris art scene at the time. The text then argues that the preference of Degas and other French Impressionist painters for colorful frames can likely be attributed to their desire "to distinguish themselves from what was considered conventional at the time." Text 2 also notes that Impressionist painters "placed their works in painted frames" but argues that they probably did so for a purely aesthetic reason: to ensure that "the frame’s color...would harmonize with the colors or subjects in a painting." Though differing on Impressionist painters’ rationale for using painted frames, the authors of both texts would agree that many Impressionist painters were intentional about the frames they selected for their works.

Choice A is incorrect because neither text suggests that gold frames were considered desirable by those purchasing Impressionist works. Indeed, it can be inferred from the fact that Impressionist painters used painted frames that those who purchased those works wouldn’t have had a strong preference for gold frames. Choice B is incorrect because neither text suggests that Impressionist painters chose colors for their paintings based on planned frame colors. Indeed, Text 2 states that frame colors were chosen to "harmonize with the colors or subjects in a painting," implying that the color scheme of paintings predated and took precedence over the choice of the colors of frames. Choice D is incorrect because Text 1 presents Degas’s preference for painted frames as being typical of Impressionist painters’ attitudes toward the framing of their works. Moreover, although Text 2 doesn’t specifically discuss Degas, it concurs with Text 1’s assertion that these painters preferred painted frames. Thus, both texts position painted frames as a hallmark of French Impressionist painting, not as a deviation from it.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 10a409bd

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 10a409bd

The following text is adapted from Ida B. Wells’s 1970 autobiography A Crusade for Justice. Mr. Watts is a reference to George Frederic Watts, an English painter.

[Manchester’s] art galleries are so arranged that the name of every picture is plainly seen and one has no need of a catalogue to pick out the name and the artist. This is a convenience to the general public, which other art galleries, which shall be nameless, might copy to advantage. To her treasure of art Manchester has added Mr. Watts’ latest picture, the Good Samaritan.

©1970 by the University of Chicago Press

As used in the text, what does the word “arranged” most nearly mean?

  • Organized

  • Ranked

  • Scheduled

  • Discussed

ID: 10a409bd Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because as used in the text, "arranged" most nearly means "organized." The text states that a welcome feature of Manchester’s art galleries (as opposed to others) is that the titles of the paintings are easy to see and that a catalogue is therefore unneeded while visitors browse the art galleries. This suggests that the paintings are displayed in a systematic, or organized, way.

Choice B is incorrect. "Ranked" might mean either classified or placed in orderly rows. Neither of these meanings would necessarily imply that the names of the paintings are easy to see (even if the paintings are placed in rows, their labels might be obscured). Choice C is incorrect because it would not make sense in context to describe the paintings as "scheduled," or planned to take place at a certain time. Choice D is incorrect because if the paintings were "discussed," or talked about, this would have no bearing on whether the names of the paintings could be easily seen.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID a60b0004

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: a60b0004

Scholarly discussions of gender in Shakespeare’s comedies often celebrate the rebellion of the playwright’s characters against the rigid expectations blank by Elizabethan society. Most of the comedies end in marriage, with characters returning to their socially dictated gender roles after previously defying them, but there are some notable exceptions.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • interjected

  • committed

  • illustrated

  • prescribed

ID: a60b0004 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of gender roles in Shakespeare’s comedies. As used in this context, “prescribed” would mean laid down as rules. The text indicates that the characters in the comedies often defy gender roles that are “socially dictated” (even if most characters do return to those roles eventually) and that scholars have been very interested in these acts of defiance. This context indicates that what the characters are rebelling against are standards of behavior prescribed by the society of the time.  

Choice A is incorrect because saying that expectations about gender were “interjected,” or suddenly inserted between other things, wouldn’t make sense in context. There’s no suggestion in the text that the issue of gender roles was inserted between other things or was an interruption in a larger discussion. Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that Shakespeare depicts characters rebelling against expectations about gender that have been “socially dictated,” not expectations that society has “committed,” or carried out, entrusted, or promised. Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates that Shakespeare depicts characters rebelling against expectations about gender that have been “socially dictated,” not expectations that have been “illustrated,” or clarified with examples. Although it’s possible for expectations about gender roles to be illustrated, there’s nothing in the text to indicate that characters in Shakespeare’s comedies rebel against illustrations of gender expectations.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID a5e747f0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: a5e747f0

Despite how blank they may seem on first glance, the works of the philosopher Georg Hegel have proven to be quite influential. Readers who manage to penetrate Hegel’s frustratingly dense prose often find that his thrillingly original and profound ideas wind up shaping their own thinking.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • authoritative

  • opaque

  • empirical

  • facile

ID: a5e747f0 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Hegel’s works. In this context, "opaque" means difficult to understand or unclear. The text creates a contrast between the initial impression given by Hegel’s works and their influence and insight, noting that readers must "penetrate Hegel’s frustratingly dense prose" to access his important ideas. This context clearly establishes that Hegel’s writing is initially challenging to comprehend, or opaque.

Choice A is incorrect because "authoritative" means influential or clearly accurate. Hegel’s works may be authoritative, but it wouldn’t make logical sense in context to say that although his works seem authoritative, they have been influential. Instead, the text focuses on the fact that Hegel’s works are challenging to read, but that working through the dense prose can be rewarding. Choice C is incorrect because referring to Hegel’s works as "empirical," which means factual or verifiable, would suggest that they are based on observation or experience rather than theory. The text, however, doesn’t address this aspect of Hegel’s philosophy. Instead, it focuses on the difficulty of understanding his writing. Choice D is incorrect because describing Hegel’s works as "facile," which means superficial or simplistic, would directly contradict the text’s characterization of his writing as "frustratingly dense" and requiring effort to understand.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 03080769

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 03080769

Text 1

Philosopher G.E. Moore’s most influential work entails the concept of common sense. He asserts that there are certain beliefs that all people, including philosophers, know instinctively to be true, whether or not they profess otherwise: among them, that they have bodies, or that they exist in a world with other objects that have three dimensions. Moore’s careful work on common sense may seem obvious but was in fact groundbreaking.

 

Text 2

External world skepticism is a philosophical stance supposing that we cannot be sure of the existence of anything outside our own minds. During a lecture, G.E. Moore once offered a proof refuting this stance by holding out his hands and saying, “Here is one hand, and here is another.” Many philosophers reflexively reject this proof (Annalisa Coliva called it “an obviously annoying failure”) but have found it a challenge to articulate exactly why the proof fails.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 1 most likely respond to proponents of the philosophical stance outlined in Text 2?

  • By agreeing with those proponents that Moore’s treatment of positions that contradict his own is fundamentally unserious

  • By suggesting that an instinctive distaste for Moore’s position is preventing external world skeptics from constructing a sufficiently rigorous refutation of Moore

  • By arguing that if it is valid to assert that some facts are true based on instinct, it is also valid to assert that some proofs are inadequate based on instinct

  • By pointing out that Moore would assert that external world skepticism is at odds with other beliefs those proponents must unavoidably hold

ID: 03080769 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. According to the author of Text 1, Moore’s definition of common sense—things we instinctively know are true—includes the belief that we all “exist in a world with other objects.” The author of Text 1 describes this notion as both “obvious” and “groundbreaking.”  So it’s safe to infer that the author would observe that Moore would respond to external world skeptics by arguing that since everyone instinctively knows that things exist outside of their own minds, then external world skepticism must be wrong.

Choice A is incorrect. We can’t infer that the author of Text 1 would respond this way to external world skeptics. If anything, the author of Text 1 seems to agree with Moore. Choice B is incorrect. We can’t infer that the author of Text 1 would respond this way to external world skeptics. The author of Text 1 never mentions external world skeptics directly, let alone why they have a hard time refuting Moore’s position. Choice C is incorrect. We can’t infer that the author of Text 1 would respond this way to external world skeptics. Text 1’s presentation of Moore’s concept of common sense only includes the idea that some facts are true based on instinct—it doesn’t mention the idea that some proofs are inadequate based on instinct.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID b0ea8c28

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: b0ea8c28

Sueño de Familia is an exhibition of drawings, paintings, and ceramics that explores the artistic heritage of US-based artist Yolanda González. The exhibition blank five generations, featuring works by González’s great-grandfather, grandmother, mother, and niece as well as González herself. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • borrows

  • spans

  • judges

  • neglects

ID: b0ea8c28 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the Sueño de Familia art exhibition. In this context, “spans” means extends across or covers. The text states that the exhibition explores González’s artistic heritage and features artwork by her great-grandfather, grandmother, mother, and niece. This context conveys the idea that the exhibition spans, or extends across, five generations of González’s family.

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that the exhibition “borrows,” or acquires, five generations of González’s family. The text indicates that the exhibition features artwork by family members from five generations, not that the five generations themselves have been acquired for inclusion in the exhibition. Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates that the purpose of the exhibition is to highlight artwork, not to “judge,” or give an opinion on, five generations of the artist’s family. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the exhibition “neglects,” or gives little attention to, five generations of González’s family. On the contrary, the text indicates that the exhibition is dedicated to exploring González’s artistic heritage and therefore designed to bring attention to her family members and their artwork.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 749f3334

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 749f3334

The following text is from Charlotte Forten Grimké’s 1888 poem “At Newport.”

Oh, deep delight to watch the gladsome waves
Exultant leap upon the rugged rocks;
Ever repulsed, yet ever rushing on—
Filled with a life that will not know defeat;
To see the glorious hues of sky and sea.
The distant snowy sails, glide spirit like,
Into an unknown world, to feel the sweet
Enchantment of the sea thrill all the soul,
Clearing the clouded brain, making the heart
Leap joyous as it own bright, singing waves!

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?

  • It portrays the surroundings as an imposing and intimidating scene.

  • It characterizes the sea’s waves as a relentless and enduring force.

  • It conveys the speaker’s ambivalence about the natural world.

  • It draws a contrast between the sea’s waves and the speaker’s thoughts.

ID: 749f3334 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined portion functions in the text as a whole. The text presents the speaker’s experience of viewing the sea. In the underlined portion, the speaker focuses on the idea that the waves hitting rocks on the shore are a relentless and enduring force: they are constantly pushed back (“ever repulsed”) but always return (“ever rushing on”), as though they have an energy that can’t be overcome (“a life that will not know defeat”).

Choice A is incorrect. Although the underlined portion characterizes the waves as a relentless force (always “repulsed” but still “rushing on” and never being defeated), the speaker doesn’t suggest that the surroundings are intimidating. Instead, the speaker presents the scene in a positive way, describing the “deep delight” of the “gladsome,” or cheerful, waves and feeling “the heart / Leap joyous” while viewing the sea. Choice C is incorrect because the underlined portion doesn’t suggest that the speaker is ambivalent, or has mixed feelings about, the natural world. Instead, it presents a single view of one part of the immediate surroundings: the speaker characterizes the sea’s waves as an unstoppable force, since they are constantly pushed back but always return (“ever repulsed, yet ever rushing on”). Choice D is incorrect. Although the text later suggests the speaker’s view of her own thoughts by referring to a “clouded brain” and a heart that leaps joyously, this reference neither occurs within the underlined portion nor establishes a clear contrast with the relentless determination of the waves. The underlined portion addresses only the speaker’s view of the waves and doesn’t suggest what her own thoughts might be.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID fce80a36

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: fce80a36

In 2008 a complete set of ancient pessoi (glass game pieces) was uncovered from beneath a paving stone in modern-day Israel. Due to their small size, pessoi were easily misplaced, making a whole set a rare find. This has led some experts to suggest that the set may have been buried intentionally; however, without clear evidence, archaeologists are left to blank what happened.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • speculate about

  • dismiss

  • expand on

  • catalog

ID: fce80a36 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. "Speculate" means "to form a theory or guess without any clear evidence." This makes sense because, due to the lack of "clear evidence," the archaeologists can only guess how the pessoi set might have come to be there.

Choice B is incorrect. "Dismiss" can mean "send away" or "treat as unworthy of consideration." The text implies that the archaeologists are trying to figure out the truth—they wouldn’t "dismiss" what really happened. Choice C is incorrect. "Expand on" means "give more details about," but there aren’t any details to give. Without any "clear evidence," the archaeologists can’t give any more details. Choice D is incorrect. "Catalog" means "carefully record" or "make a list of." However, there’s no "clear evidence," so there’s no real information to "catalog."

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID e5e7f264

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: e5e7f264

The general store was essential to daily life in the rural United States during the 1800s because it provided the supplies that the people living in nearby communities needed. Also, the store was a blank of information. People socializing at the general store would share news and help spread it throughout their communities.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • source

  • rival

  • condition

  • waste

ID: e5e7f264 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the role of the general store in US rural communities during the 1800s. In this context, "source" means a place where something originates or is obtained. The text states that people would share news while socializing at the general store. This context supports the idea that the store served as a source of information in rural communities.

Choice B is incorrect because "rival" would mean competitor or opponent. The text doesn’t indicate that the general store was a rival of anything. Instead, the text describes the general store as a place that enabled the sharing of information within rural communities. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, "condition" would mean state, circumstance, or requirement. Although the text implies that visiting the store was helpful for acquiring information since people shared news there, it wouldn’t make sense to say that the general store was a condition of information. Choice D is incorrect because "waste" would mean something that is unused, discarded, or spent unnecessarily, which would not make sense in context. The text describes the general store as an essential part of daily life and a place for socializing and information sharing. The store was therefore a source, not a waste, of information.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID e4e2aeb3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: e4e2aeb3

Text 1

Like the work of Ralph Ellison before her, Toni Morrison’s novels feature scenes in which characters deliver sermons of such length and verbal dexterity that for a time, the text exchanges the formal parameters of fiction for those of oral literature. Given the many other echoes of Ellison in Morrison’s novels, both in structure and prose style, these scenes suggest Ellison’s direct influence on Morrison.

Text 2

In their destabilizing effect on literary form, the sermons in Morrison’s works recall those in Ellison’s. Yet literature by Black Americans abounds in moments where interpolated speech erodes the division between oral and written forms that literature in English has traditionally observed. Morrison’s use of the sermon is attributable not only to the influence of Ellison but also to a community-wide strategy of resistance to externally imposed literary conventions.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely characterize the underlined claim in Text 1?

  • As failing to consider Ellison’s and Morrison’s equivalent uses of the sermon within the wider cultural context in which they wrote

  • As misunderstanding the function of sermons in novels by Black American writers other than Ellison and Morrison

  • As disregarding points of structural and stylistic divergence between the works of Ellison and those of Morrison

  • As being indebted to the tradition of resisting literary conventions that privilege written forms, such as novels, over sermons and other oral forms

ID: e4e2aeb3 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The author of Text 2 argues that Morrison’s use of the sermon is not only influenced by Ellison, but also by a “community-wide strategy of resistance” to literary conventions practiced by Black American authors. Ellison, Text 2 alleges, is only one of many influences on Morrison.

Choice B is incorrect. Neither text specifically mentions sermons in works by authors other than Morrison or Ellison, only a tendency towards eroding “the division between oral and written forms” among Black American writers. Choice C is incorrect. Both texts describe similarities between the works of Ellison and Morrison, and neither points out instances of divergence. Text 2 simply suggests that Morrison was influenced by more than just Ellison. Choice D is incorrect. While Text 2 does discuss Morrison’s resistance to certain literary conventions, it’s unclear what it would mean for the underlined claim to be “indebted” to that tradition. This choice recycles language from the text, but not in a way that makes any coherent point.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 0d402146

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 0d402146

US traffic signals didn’t always contain the familiar three lights (red, yellow, and green). Traffic lights only blank red and green lights until the three-light traffic signal was developed in the 1920s.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • avoided

  • featured

  • appreciated

  • disregarded

ID: 0d402146 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of traffic signals. As used in this context, “featured” means had as a characteristic or part. The text indicates that although US traffic signals have lights of three different colors (red, yellow, and green), this wasn’t the case until the 1920s, when the three-light signal was first developed. Before then, the text suggests, traffic signals had fewer lights (as indicated by the word “only” in the second sentence). This context supports the idea that before the 1920s, traffic signals featured only red and green lights.

Choice A is incorrect because “avoided” means kept away from someone or something or prevented something from occurring, neither of which would make sense in context. The text doesn’t discuss keeping away from someone or something but instead focuses on what US traffic signals look like. The text states that they didn’t have lights of three different colors until the three-light signal was developed in the 1920s. Choice C is incorrect because “appreciated” means admired or increased in value, neither of which would make sense in context. The text focuses solely on the fact that US traffic signals have contained lights of three colors only since the three-light signal was developed in the 1920s. The text doesn’t mention how this characteristic or traffic signals in general are perceived or what their value is. Moreover, the blank portion of the text describes “traffic signals,” which are lifeless objects and therefore unable to admire or increase the value of something. Choice D is incorrect because “disregarded” means ignored or treated something as unworthy of notice, neither of which would make sense in context. The text doesn’t discuss how people react to traffic signals; rather, it addresses the idea that US traffic signals have contained lights of three colors only since the three-light signal was developed in the 1920s. Moreover, the blank portion of the text describes “traffic signals,” which are lifeless objects and therefore unable to ignore or treat something in a particular manner. 

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID e5da61f1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: e5da61f1

The following text is adapted from Charles Chesnutt’s 1899 short story “Mars Jeems’s Nightmare.” The narrator and his wife have recently moved to the southern United States, and Julius is their carriage driver.

Julius [was] very useful when we moved to our new residence. He had a thorough knowledge of the neighborhood, was familiar with the roads and the watercourses, knew the qualities of the various soils and what they would produce, and where the best hunting and fishing were to be had. He was a marvelous hand in the management of horses and dogs.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To compare the narrator’s reaction to a new home with his wife’s reaction

  • To give an example of Julius’s knowledge about soil

  • To show that the narrator and Julius often hunt and fish together

  • To explain different ways in which Julius was helpful

ID: e5da61f1 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text, which is to explain different ways in which Julius was helpful. The text begins with the narrator stating that Julius was very helpful to him and his wife when they moved to their new residence. The narrator then provides a list of examples to illustrate Julius’s helpfulness. For instance, the narrator states that Julius was familiar with the neighborhood’s roads, which suggests that he was helpful in navigating them, and that Julius helped manage the horses and dogs. The text’s many examples of Julius’s usefulness reinforce just how helpful he was and in how many different ways.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t portray either the narrator’s or his wife’s reaction to their new home. Rather, the text focuses on how Julius was useful to the narrator and his wife in their new home. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text states that Julius was knowledgeable about the soil, this is one of several supporting details that illustrate how helpful Julius was. Moreover, the text merely states that Julius was knowledgeable about soil; it doesn’t provide an example of that knowledge. Choice C is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest the frequency with which the narrator and Julius hunted and fished together. In fact, it’s unclear from the text whether the narrator and Julius hunted and fished together at all. The text merely indicates that Julius knew the best places to hunt and fish—a detail that supports the text’s main purpose by conveying Julius’s usefulness.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID ac5bf490

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: ac5bf490

The following text is from Reyna Grande’s 2012 memoir The Distance Between Us. In the text, Grande reflects on a time when she and her older sister Mago were children. A Barbie is a type of doll.

I begged Mago to come play with me. She wasn’t as interested in my Barbie as she had been just two months before, which made me sad because that was the only thing Mago had envied me for. Usually, it was me doing the envying. After I pestered her relentlessly, she finally put her notebook down and came over to me.

©2012 by Reyna Grande

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text?

  • It indicates Grande’s unhappiness over Mago’s disinterest in Grande’s doll.

  • It expresses Grande’s anger over Mago’s refusal to spend time with her.

  • It presents an example of how Mago and Grande generally played together as children.

  • It provides a reason for why Mago is unwilling to play with Grande.

ID: ac5bf490 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes the function of the underlined portion in the text. The underlined portion ("which made me sad because that was the only thing Mago had envied me for") directly expresses Grande’s unhappiness about her sister’s diminished interest in her Barbie doll. The underlined text specifically identifies that Grande feels sad and explains why Mago’s disinterest particularly affects her—because it was the one rare instance where her older sister had envied her, rather than the reverse.

Choice B is incorrect because the underlined portion expresses sadness, not anger. Although there is some correspondence between the emotions anger and envy and the text does indicate that Grande usually envies her sister, the underlined portion states that Grande feels sad about Mago’s disinterest in Grande’s Barbie, not angry about Mago’s refusal to spend time with her. Choice C is incorrect. While the first part of the sentence that contains the underlined portion indicates that Mago has previously taken an interest in Grande’s Barbie, implying that the sisters may regularly have played with the Barbie together in the past, the underlined portion doesn’t provide an example of this. The underlined portion instead explains why Mago’s recently developed disinterest in the Barbie saddens Grande. Choice D is incorrect because neither the underlined portion nor the text as a whole explains why Mago is unwilling to play with Grande. Rather than addressing Mago’s motivation or reasoning, the underlined portion describes Grande’s emotional reaction to Mago’s disinterest in Grande’s Barbie and explains why this lack of interest matters to Grande.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 6a1dc7c5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 6a1dc7c5

Text 1

Virginia Woolf’s 1928 novel Orlando is an oddity within her body of work. Her other major novels consist mainly of scenes of everyday life and describe their characters’ interior states in great detail, whereas Orlando propels itself through a series of fantastical events and considers its characters’ psychology more superficially. Woolf herself sometimes regarded the novel as a minor work, even admitting once that she “began it as a joke.”

 

Text 2

Like Woolf’s other great novels, Orlando portrays how people’s memories inform their experience of the present. Like those works, it examines how people navigate social interactions shaped by gender and social class. Though it is lighter in tone—more entertaining, even—this literary “joke” nonetheless engages seriously with the themes that motivated the four or five other novels by Woolf that have achieved the status of literary classics.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely respond to the assessment of Orlando presented in Text 1?

  • By conceding that Woolf’s talents were best suited to serious novels but asserting that the humor in Orlando is often effective

  • By agreeing that Orlando is less impressive than certain other novels by Woolf but arguing that it should still be regarded as a classic

  • By acknowledging that Orlando clearly differs from Woolf’s other major novels but insisting on its centrality to her body of work nonetheless 

  • By concurring that the reputation of Orlando as a minor work has led readers to overlook this novel but maintaining that the reputation is unearned 

ID: 6a1dc7c5 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it reflects how the author of Text 2 would most likely respond to the assessment of Orlando in Text 1. Both authors agree that Orlando is unusual for Woolf: Text 1 states that the novel examines its characters’ psychologies more superficially than Woolf’s other novels do, and Text 2 describes it as being lighter in tone. However, while Text 1 calls Orlando an “oddity” and mentions that Woolf “began it as a joke,” Text 2 asserts that Orlando engages the same themes as Woolf’s other great novels. Hence, the author of Text 2 would most likely accept that Orlando differs from Woolf’s other novels but would also insist on its importance in the context of Woolf’s work as a writer.

Choice A is incorrect. Text 2 does suggest that the humor in Orlando is effective. However, there’s nothing in Text 2 to suggest that the author would agree that Woolf’s talents were best suited to serious novels. Rather, the author of Text 2 compares Orlando favorably to other novels by Woolf that are implied to be darker in tone. Choice B is incorrect because the author of Text 2 does not indicate that Orlando is less impressive than Woolf’s other novels, but instead points out that it engages the same themes as other novels by Woolf that are considered classics. Choice D is incorrect because there’s nothing in Text 1 or Text 2 to suggest that readers have generally ignored Orlando because of its reputation.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 5dce6cab

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 5dce6cab

Given that the conditions in binary star systems should make planetary formation nearly impossible, it’s not surprising that the existence of planets in such systems has lacked blank explanation. Roman Rafikov and Kedron Silsbee shed light on the subject when they used modeling to determine a complex set of factors that could support planets’ development.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • a discernible

  • a straightforward

  • an inconclusive

  • an unbiased

ID: 5dce6cab Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s description of efforts to explain the existence of planets in binary star systems. As used in this context, describing an explanation as “a straightforward” one would mean that the explanation is direct and uncomplicated. The text asserts that since it should be “nearly impossible” for planets to form in binary star systems, it’s “not surprising” that there isn’t a straightforward explanation for the existence of planets in such systems; the fact that one potential approach involves “complex” factors offers further contextual support for this idea.

Choice A is incorrect because it would not make sense in context to say that there isn’t “a discernible” explanation—meaning an explanation capable of being perceived—for the existence of planets in binary star systems. The text discusses just such an explanation offered by Roman Rafikov and Kedron Silsbee, which indicates that their explanation can be discerned. Choice C is incorrect because the text emphasizes how difficult it is to explain the existence of planets in binary star systems, suggesting that the situation isn’t marked by the lack of “an inconclusive” explanation—an explanation that does not resolve the issue—but rather that if any explanations have been offered, they’ve likely been inconclusive ones. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that there is a lack of “an unbiased,” or impartial and unprejudiced, explanation for the existence of planets in binary star systems. The text indicates that it’s difficult to explain the existence of planets in such systems and it describes one attempt to do so, but there is no evidence that explanations from Roman Rafikov and Kedron Silsbee or others are biased. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID d4e8662d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: d4e8662d

The percentage of US forest land that a 2023 federal report identified as being either mature or old growth exceeds other recent estimates. Given how little blank there is among scientists regarding the scope of these categories, this discrepancy shouldn’t be surprising: forest researchers regularly dispute one another’s classifications. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • deliberation

  • vigilance

  • interest

  • consensus

ID: d4e8662d Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of US forest land classifications. In this context, "consensus" means agreement. The text indicates that a percentage given in a US forest land report differs from other estimates and that this discrepancy isn’t surprising, given that forest researchers regularly dispute one another’s classifications of parts of US forest land as either mature or old growth. This context conveys that there is little agreement when it comes to these categories.

Choice A is incorrect because the text states that there is often dispute among forest researchers about classifications of US forest land as either mature or old growth, which directly indicates that when it comes to these categories, there is much "deliberation," or discussion and consideration, not little deliberation. Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that there is often dispute among forest researchers about classifications of US forest land as either mature or old growth; this doesn’t imply that there is little "vigilance," or careful attention, among researchers when it comes to these categories but rather conveys that researchers do pay attention to forest land classifications and question one another’s decisions. Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates that there is often dispute among forest researchers about classifications of US forest land as either mature or old growth; this doesn’t imply that there is little "interest," or concern, among researchers when it comes to these categories but rather conveys that researchers are concerned with forest land classifications and pay attention to one another’s classifications.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 8a47383f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 8a47383f

The National Heritage Fellowship was created to publicly blank exceptional folk and traditional artists in the United States. In 2015, the fellowship was given to the circus aerialist (mid-air acrobat) Dolly Jacobs to celebrate her lifetime contributions to the arts.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • startle

  • recognize

  • familiarize

  • convey

ID: 8a47383f Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the purpose of the National Heritage Fellowship. In this context, "recognize" means acknowledge or honor someone officially for their achievements. The text states that the fellowship was created for "exceptional folk and traditional artists." It then provides an example of one recipient of the fellowship, circus aerialist Dolly Jacobs, who was given the fellowship "to celebrate her lifetime contributions to the arts." The fact that the fellowship is given to celebrate exceptional artists for their achievements therefore suggests that its purpose is to publicly honor, or recognize, them.

Choice A is incorrect because "startle" would mean alarm or surprise, and there’s nothing in the text to suggest that Jacobs and other artists who received the National Heritage Fellowship didn’t expect to receive it or were alarmed by it. It therefore wouldn’t make sense to say the fellowship was created to publicly alarm or surprise exceptional artists. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, "familiarize" would mean make known or familiar, but the text gives no indication that Jacobs or other recipients of the National Heritage Fellowship were unknown or unfamiliar before receiving the fellowship or that the fellowship was intended to make them familiar to the public. In fact, the text describes recipients as "exceptional" and notes that Jacobs received the award "to celebrate her lifetime contributions to the arts," both of which suggest that Jacobs and other recipients were already well known in the arts world. Choice D is incorrect because "convey" would mean either transport or communicate something, neither of which would be logical in this context. The fellowship doesn’t transport artists, and though the process of awarding the fellowship might communicate something about the artists to the general public, it would be illogical to state that the fellowship communicates the artists themselves. Rather, the fellowship honors artists for their contributions.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID f99847ed

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: f99847ed

For her 2021 art installation Anthem, Wu Tsang joined forces with singer and composer Beverly Glenn-Copeland to produce a piece that critics found truly blank: they praised Tsang for creatively transforming a museum rotunda into a dynamic exhibit by projecting filmed images of Glenn-Copeland onto a massive 84-foot curtain and filling the space with the sounds of his and other voices singing.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • restrained

  • inventive

  • inexplicable

  • mystifying

ID: f99847ed Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the art installation Anthem. In this context, “inventive” means characterized by invention and creativity. The text explains that critics’ responses to the installation involved praise for Tsang’s creative transformation of a space into a dynamic exhibit with huge images and lots of sound. This context conveys that the critics found the piece particularly creative.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that critics praised the installation for being dynamic and including huge images and lots of sound, and it wouldn’t make sense to describe such an exhibit as “restrained,” or limited and not extravagant or showy. Choice C is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that critics found the installation “inexplicable,” or incapable of being explained or interpreted, since the critics were able to explain their praise for the installation’s transformation of a space with huge images and lots of sound. Choice D is incorrect because the text focuses on the idea that critics praised Tsang for creatively transforming a space into a dynamic exhibit, not that they found the installation “mystifying,” or bewildering and hard to understand. Nothing in the text suggests that the critics couldn’t understand the piece.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 83fd3cf4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 83fd3cf4

Despite stated claims of global relevance, much major research on income inequality performed in the 2010s suffered from a myopic focus on a few countries in North America and Western Europe, partly due to limited data availability. Researchers would later blank this shortcoming after gaining new access to banking records located in nations in Africa, such as Tunisia, and Eastern Europe, such as Hungary.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • presuppose

  • categorize

  • mitigate

  • validate

ID: 83fd3cf4 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of research on income inequality in the 2010s. In this context, "mitigate" means to make less severe or reduce the negative effects of something. The text first identifies a shortcoming in the research: a "myopic focus on a few countries" despite claims of "global relevance." The text then explains that researchers later gained access to new data from previously excluded regions (Africa and Eastern Europe). This context supports the idea that with these new data, researchers would be able to reduce, or mitigate, the identified shortcoming by incorporating a broader range of geographic regions into their studies of income inequality.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, "presuppose" would mean to assume in advance that something is true, and it wouldn’t make logical sense to say that researchers later assumed as true in advance a shortcoming they had already encountered. Choice B is incorrect because in this context, "categorize" would mean to classify or place into groups. The text indicates that researchers did something about the shortcoming that characterized research on income inequality in the 2010s—limited geographic scope—after they gained access to new data from previously excluded regions. Categorizing a shortcoming doesn’t require access to or analysis of new data; it could be done without any new information, but by analyzing new data, researchers went beyond merely categorizing the shortcoming and instead took action to address it. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, "validate" would mean to confirm or substantiate something. The text indicates that researchers did something about a known shortcoming of research on income inequality in the 2010s—limited geographic scope—after they gained access to new data from previously excluded regions. Confirming an already known shortcoming doesn’t require access to or analysis of new data; it could be done without any new information, but by analyzing new data, researchers went beyond merely validating the shortcoming and instead took action to make the shortcoming less severe.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 5e101c70

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 5e101c70

 

Text 1

Most animals can regenerate some parts of their bodies, such as skin. But when a three-banded panther worm is cut into three pieces, each piece grows into a new worm. Researchers are investigating this feat partly to learn more about humans’ comparatively limited abilities to regenerate, and they’re making exciting progress. An especially promising discovery is that both humans and panther worms have a gene for early growth response (EGR) linked to regeneration.

 

Text 2

When Mansi Srivastava and her team reported that panther worms, like humans, possess a gene for EGR, it caused excitement. However, as the team pointed out, the gene likely functions very differently in humans than it does in panther worms. Srivastava has likened EGR to a switch that activates other genes involved in regeneration in panther worms, but how this switch operates in humans remains unclear.

Based on the texts, what would the author of Text 2 most likely say about Text 1’s characterization of the discovery involving EGR?

  • It is reasonable given that Srivastava and her team have identified how EGR functions in both humans and panther worms.

  • It is overly optimistic given additional observations from Srivastava and her team.

  • It is unexpected given that Srivastava and her team’s findings were generally met with enthusiasm.

  • It is unfairly dismissive given the progress that Srivastava and her team have reported.

ID: 5e101c70 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it reflects how the author of Text 2 would most likely respond to Text 1 based on the information provided. Text 1 discusses the discovery of a regeneration-linked gene, EGR, in both three-banded panther worms (which are capable of full regeneration) and humans (who have relatively limited regeneration abilities). Text 1 characterizes this discovery as “especially promising” and a sign of “exciting progress” in understanding human regeneration. The author of Text 2, on the other hand, focuses on the fact that the team that reported the EGR finding pointed out that while EGR’s function in humans isn’t yet known, it’s likely very different from its function in panther worms. Therefore, the author of Text 2 would most likely say that Text 1’s enthusiasm about the EGR discovery is overly optimistic given Srivastava’s team’s observations about EGR in humans.

Choice A is incorrect because the author of Text 2 explains that Srivastava and her team explicitly reported that they haven’t yet identified how EGR functions in humans; therefore, the author of Text 2 wouldn’t say that Text 1’s excitement is reasonable for the stated reason. Instead, the author of Text 2 would likely characterize Text 1’s excitement as premature and overly optimistic. Choice C is incorrect because Text 1 does treat Srivastava’s team’s findings with enthusiasm; it describes the discovery of EGR in both three-banded panther worms and humans as promising and exciting. It would be illogical for the author of Text 2 to say that because most others treat the discovery with enthusiasm, Text 1’s enthusiastic characterization of the discovery is unexpected. Choice D is incorrect because Text 1 isn’t at all dismissive of Srivastava’s team’s findings; instead, Text 1 is optimistic about the EGR discovery, characterizing it as promising and exciting. There’s nothing in Text 2 to suggest that the author of Text 2 would say that Text 1’s praise for the discovery is dismissive, or disdainful. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID df45f0eb

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: df45f0eb

Several studies have found negligible electoral consequences for governments that impose fiscal austerity measures, yet some European governments recently suffered electorally due to their austerity programs. Evelyne Huebscher and colleagues attribute this incongruity to governments’ tendency—not followed in the recent European cases—to implement austerity programs strategically to avoid electoral costs (e.g., setting spending cuts to take effect only after the next election), which has obscured the inherent political risks of austerity measures in the election data scholars have examined.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • It explains a discrepancy between what has been observed in study settings and what has been observed in real-world settings that the text goes on to assert is attributable to the studies not using real-world data. 

  • It identifies a conflict between research findings and recent events that the text goes on to suggest is a consequence of a complicating factor in the data used to generate those findings.

  • It presents a long-standing divergence in research findings that the text goes on to say is due to different groups of researchers using data that derive from different electoral circumstances.

  • It describes a recent exception to a general pattern in research findings that the text goes on to explain is a result of researchers underestimating the significance of inconsistencies in the data they’ve analyzed.

ID: df45f0eb Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it best describes how the underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. The underlined sentence explains that contrary to what several studies would suggest, recent European governments suffered electorally after the launch of fiscal austerity programs. The text goes on to indicate that the researchers generated their findings from data that didn’t reveal the true political risk of austerity measures because the data were based on cases in which governments had set austerity programs to take effect after the next election, a practice the European governments that recently suffered electorally didn’t adhere to, thus introducing a complicating factor resulting in a conflict between the research findings and recent events.

Choice A is incorrect because the underlined sentence doesn’t indicate that the discrepancy described in the text is between observations made in study settings and observations made in real-world settings. Rather, the underlined sentence indicates that the outcome of recent events is contrary to what would be expected based on the findings of several studies. Additionally, there is nothing in the text to suggest that the studies mentioned did not use real-world data; instead, the text indicates that the data used was generated under potentially different circumstances than the recent events. Choice C is incorrect because the underlined sentence doesn’t present a long-standing divergence in research findings but rather a discrepancy between past research findings and recent events that the text goes on to attribute to researchers’ use of data that didn’t reveal the true political risk of austerity measures. Choice D is incorrect because while the underlined sentence notes that there have been some recent exceptions to a general pattern observed in several research studies, it does not go on to attribute this exception to the researchers underestimating inconsistencies in the data. Rather, the text goes on to attribute this to a circumstance (fiscal austerity measures being implemented before an election rather than after) which adds a complicating factor into the data not accounted for in past studies.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 2d77660e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 2d77660e

In the late 1800s, Spanish-language newspapers flourished in cities across Texas. San Antonio alone produced eleven newspapers in Spanish between 1890 and 1900. But El Paso surpassed all other cities in the state. This city produced twenty-two newspapers in Spanish during that period. El Paso is located on the border with Mexico and has always had a large population of Spanish speakers. Thus, it is unsurprising that this city became such a rich site for Spanish-language journalism.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To compare Spanish-language newspapers published in Texas today with ones published there during the late 1800s

  • To explain that Spanish-language newspapers thrived in Texas and especially in El Paso during the late 1800s

  • To argue that Spanish-language newspapers published in El Paso influenced the ones published in San Antonio during the late 1800s

  • To explain why Spanish-language newspapers published in Texas were so popular in Mexico during the late 1800s

ID: 2d77660e Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text. The text begins by stating that there were many Spanish-language newspapers in cities across Texas in the late 1800s, citing San Antonio as a city that produced eleven such newspapers. The text then goes on to note that in El Paso, there were twenty-two newspapers published in Spanish in the late 1800s, more than any other Texas city. The text then concludes by explaining that the reason for this large number of Spanish-language newspapers was likely El Paso’s location near Mexico and its large population of Spanish speakers. Therefore, the main purpose of the text is to explain that Spanish-language newspapers thrived in Texas cities, especially in El Paso, in the late 1800s.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss Spanish-language newspapers published in Texas today, let alone compare them with newspapers that were published in the 1800s. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text characterizes El Paso as a particularly rich site for Spanish-language journalism in the late 1800s, the text doesn’t discuss whether newspapers published in El Paso influenced the newspapers published in other cities across Texas, including San Antonio. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention whether Spanish-language newspapers published in Texas were also widely read in Mexico. The text only focuses on the popularity of Spanish-language newspapers within Texas, and especially in El Paso.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 12d81fc1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 12d81fc1

Text 1

Because literacy in Nahuatl script, the writing system of the Aztec Empire, was lost after Spain invaded central Mexico in the 1500s, it is unclear exactly how meaning was encoded in the script’s symbols. Although many scholars had assumed that the symbols signified entire words, linguist Alfonso Lacadena theorized in 2008 that they signified units of language smaller than words: individual syllables.

 

Text 2

The growing consensus among scholars of Nahuatl script is that many of its symbols could signify either words or syllables, depending on syntax and content at any given site within a text. For example, the symbol signifying the word huipil (blouse) in some contexts could signify the syllable “pil” in others, as in the place name “Chipiltepec.” Thus, for the Aztecs, reading required a determination of how such symbols functioned each time they appeared in a text.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely characterize Lacadena’s theory, as described in Text 1?

  • By praising the theory for recognizing that the script’s symbols could represent entire words

  • By arguing that the theory is overly influenced by the work of earlier scholars 

  • By approving of the theory’s emphasis on how the script changed over time

  • By cautioning that the theory overlooks certain important aspects of how the script functioned

ID: 12d81fc1 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. Lacadena’s theory is that Nahuatl script symbols signified syllables, but the consensus described in Text 2 is that they can signify either symbols or full words, depending on the context. So the author of Text 2 would likely consider Lacadena’s theory too simplistic: it’s missing the importance of the context in determining the meaning of a symbol.

Choice A is incorrect. This conflicts with Text 1’s description of Lacadena’s theory. Lacadena’s theory is that Nahuatl script symbols signified syllables. Choice B is incorrect. This conflicts with Text 1’s description of Lacadena’s theory. Text 1 states that Lacadena’s theory differed from what earlier scholars believed. Choice C is incorrect. We can’t infer that this is how the author of Text 2 would characterize Lacadena’s theory. Neither text mentions how or even if the script changed over time.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID af43b0bd

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: af43b0bd

Researchers have long hypothesized that woolly mammoths were hunted to extinction in North America by humans using spears with grooved tips known as Clovis points. One anthropologist set out to test this hypothesis. Using a mechanical spear-thrower, he launched spears with Clovis points into mounds of clay—substitutes for the animals’ large bodies. The projectiles generally penetrated only a few inches into the clay, an amount insufficient to have harmed most woolly mammoths. This led the anthropologist to conclude that hunters using spears with Clovis points likely weren’t the principal drivers of the extinction.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To argue for the significance of new findings amid an ongoing debate among researchers

  • To discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the method used in an experiment

  • To summarize two competing hypotheses and a major finding associated with each one

  • To describe an experiment whose results cast doubt on an established hypothesis

ID: af43b0bd Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately states the main purpose of the text, which is to describe an experiment whose results cast doubt on an established hypothesis. The text begins by noting that researchers have long believed that woolly mammoths were hunted to extinction in North America by humans using spears with Clovis points. The text then describes an experiment conducted by an anthropologist to test this hypothesis. According to the text, the results of the experiment led the anthropologist to conclude that hunters using spears with Clovis points likely weren’t the primary cause of the extinction. The anthropologist’s results cast doubt on the long-held hypothesis presented at the beginning of the text and suggest that woolly mammoths may have become extinct in North America due to some other cause.

Choice A is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that researchers have been involved in an ongoing debate. On the contrary, the text suggests that most researchers agree on the cause of the woolly mammoth’s extinction in North America. Choice B is incorrect because the text never mentions any advantages or disadvantages of the method used in the experiment, focusing instead on the results achieved using that method. Choice C is incorrect because the text addresses only one hypothesis, that mammoths were hunted to extinction in North America by humans using spears with Clovis points. Rather than present a competing hypothesis, the text explains how one anthropologist designed an experiment to test this long-held hypothesis.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 5127fc1e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 5127fc1e

The north celestial pole (NCP)—the fixed point around which stars in the Northern Hemisphere (including the Sun) appear to rotate—is discernible only at night. Inspired by the navigational strategies of some insects and birds, researchers devised a method for locating the NCP in daytime using skylight polarization, which occurs as atmospheric particles scatter sunlight. A polarimetric camera captures images of polarization patterns, which rotate as the Sun’s position in the sky changes; temporal variances across images can then be used to determine an observer’s latitude and bearing relative to the NCP.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • It illustrates how most navigational tools utilize the NCP, recounts how researchers discovered that certain animals are able to navigate without using the NCP, and then proposes that this discovery could be used to avoid problems in navigation associated with reliance on the NCP.

  • It presents a celestial-based method of navigation, enumerates the comparative benefits of an alternative method used by certain animals that is based on an unrelated natural occurrence, and then indicates how researchers assessed the relative accuracy of the two methods.

  • It explains how the NCP is typically located, emphasizes a key difference between how humans and certain animals use the NCP for navigation, and then suggests an alternative way of using the NCP to improve existing navigational instruments.

  • It notes an obstacle to observing an astronomical phenomenon, mentions a navigational ability of certain animals that inspired a solution to that obstacle, and then explains how researchers used an optical device to mimic that ability.

ID: 5127fc1e Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it accurately describes the overall structure of the text. The text begins by pointing out an obstacle to observing the astronomical phenomenon of the NCP: the NCP is visible only at night. The text then indicates that, inspired by the ability of some insects and birds to navigate using visualizations of polarized sunlight, researchers devised a way to locate the NCP during daylight. The text then indicates that the researchers mimicked the insects’ and birds’ polarized-light visualization capabilities using a polarimetric camera. Thus, the text notes an obstacle to observing an astronomical phenomenon, mentions a navigational ability of certain animals that inspired a solution to that obstacle, and then explains how researchers used an optical device to mimic that ability.

Choice A is incorrect. Although it’s reasonable to conjecture that humans have used the NCP for navigation, the text doesn’t indicate this is the case, let alone that the NCP is relevant to a majority of navigational tools. Furthermore, the text doesn’t state that researchers discovered that insects and birds navigate without the NCP; rather, it indicates that it’s known that some animals navigate by using skylight polarization to locate the NCP during the day and that this knowledge inspired the method the researchers devised. Choice B is incorrect. Although it’s reasonable to conjecture that humans have used the NCP for navigation, the text doesn’t state that this is the case. Furthermore, the text discusses how some animals’ use of navigational strategies based on the same celestial occurrence served as the inspiration for the researchers’ polarized-light approach, not as the basis for a comparison of the relative effectiveness of animal and human methods of navigation. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text implies that humans have typically been able to locate the NCP visually at night and indicates that some animals use the NCP to navigate, the text doesn’t state that humans use the NCP for navigation. The text therefore doesn’t emphasize a difference between how humans and animals use the NCP for this purpose. Furthermore, the text doesn’t suggest that existing navigational instruments will be augmented with polarimetric technologies.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 6ae393f7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 6ae393f7

Asteroid 6478 Gault has experienced intermittent mass loss since at least 2013, but in contrast to some other asteroids with repeated mass-loss episodes, 6478 Gault has not lost mass at its perihelion (the closest point of its orbit to the Sun), and thus the loss is not attributable to solar energy–driven ice vaporization. And as Jane X. Luu et al. point out, the singular nature of impact ejection makes it untenable as an account of multiple loss episodes of similar duration over several years. Instead, Luu et al. are likely correct that 6478 Gault is shedding mass due to rotational instability.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • It presents a scientific observation, describes a contrast between that observation and other observations, and then explains why those other observations should not be considered credible.  

  • It describes an astronomical finding, discusses competing theories about that finding that the author regards as flawed, and then describes new evidence that supports an alternative theory.

  • It introduces a natural phenomenon, refutes two potential explanations for that phenomenon, and then presents a third explanation for that phenomenon that the author regards as plausible.

  • It discusses a physical process, evaluates possible causes of that process, and then states that a persuasive account of the process has yet to be put forward.

ID: 6ae393f7 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes the overall structure of the text. The text begins by introducing the natural phenomenon of intermittent mass loss with regard to Asteroid 6478 Gault and notes that it curiously has not lost mass at its perihelion like other asteroids typically do. The text then refutes "solar energy–driven ice vaporization" and "the singular nature of impact ejection" as two possible explanations for Asteroid 6478 Gault’s intermittent mass loss. Finally, the text presents Luu et al.’s explanation that "6478 Gault is shedding mass due to rotational instability," which the author says is "likely correct." Thus, the overall structure of the text is that it introduces a natural phenomenon, refutes two potential explanations for that phenomenon, and then presents a third explanation for that phenomenon that the author regards as plausible.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t distinguish between multiple observations. It focuses on the single observation that Asteroid 6478 Gault is losing mass and evaluates multiple explanations for the phenomenon. The text also asserts that Luu et al.’s explanation is credible and "likely correct." Choice B is incorrect because the text describes a natural phenomenon, not a specific astronomical finding. In addition, although the text does note flawed reasons for Asteroid 6478 Gault’s intermittent mass loss, it doesn’t mention that Asteroid 6478 Gault’s intermittent mass loss is based on new evidence. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text does evaluate explanations for the cause of Asteroid 6478 Gault’s intermittent mass loss, the text also asserts that Luu et al.’s explanation that they have put forth is persuasive and "likely correct."

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID e4f312c5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: e4f312c5

While most animals are incapable of passing somatic mutations—genetic alterations that arise in an organism’s nonreproductive cells—on to their offspring, elkhorn coral (Acropora palmata) presents an intriguing blank: in a 2022 study, researchers found that elkhorn coral produced offspring that inherited somatic mutations from a parent.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • hypothesis

  • affinity

  • anomaly

  • corroboration

ID: e4f312c5 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. An "anomaly" is something that deviates from norms or expectations. In this case, the elkhorn coral is an anomaly because it can pass on somatic mutations, whereas most other animals can’t.

Choice A is incorrect. A "hypothesis" is "a theory about something," but no theories are provided about elkhorn coral in this text, just facts. Choice B is incorrect. "Affinity" represents "an inclination or liking toward something." As genetic mutations tend to occur without any conscious effort, you can’t really have an inclination toward passing on somatic mutations. Choice D is incorrect. "Corroboration" means "evidence to support or prove something." Because elkhorn coral do the opposite of what most animals do, they do not provide corroboration of the theory that somatic mutations can’t be passed onto offspring. Rather, they show the opposite.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID a4f50d30

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: a4f50d30

Scientists previously thought that all electric eels belong to a single species, but a team of researchers led by zoologist C. David de Santana proved this idea wrong by blank that there are in fact three distinct species of electric eels. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • pretending

  • complaining

  • requiring

  • demonstrating

ID: a4f50d30 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. “Demonstrating” means “showing,” and the text describes how de Santana disproved a previous belief in only one species of electric eel by showing that three electric eel species actually exist.

Choice A is incorrect. Pretending that there are three species of electric eel might be a fun game for marine biologists, but it wouldn’t prove the existence of more than one species. Choice B is incorrect. Complaining won’t prove anything about eels, so de Santana could not have proved wrong the idea of only one species of electric eel by complaining about it. Choice C is incorrect. “Requiring” means “needing.” It wouldn’t make sense to say that de Santana “needed” there to be three distinct species of electric eel.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID fa7a89f1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: fa7a89f1

Studying how workload affects productivity, Maryam Kouchaki and colleagues found that people who chose to do relatively easy tasks first were less blank compared to those who did hard tasks first. Finishing easy tasks gave participants a sense of accomplishment, but those who tackled hard tasks first actually became more skilled and productive workers over time.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • secretive

  • efficient

  • outgoing

  • unsympathetic

ID: fa7a89f1 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion about Kouchaki and colleagues’ research into how workload affects productivity. In context, “efficient” means effective or well organized. The text indicates that, according to Kouchaki and colleagues’ research, people who worked on hard tasks first were “more skilled and productive” than those who did easy tasks first. This context conveys the idea that despite their sense of accomplishment, the people who chose to do the easy tasks first were less efficient or productive than those who tackled hard tasks first. 

Choice A is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that workers who do easy tasks first are less “secretive,” or uncommunicative or silent, than those who do hard tasks first. Rather, the text suggests that people are less skillful or efficient if they tackle easy tasks before the hard ones. Choice C is incorrect because “outgoing” means openly friendly, which wouldn’t make sense in this context. The text focuses on Kouchaki and colleagues’ research in which people who worked on hard tasks first were “more skilled and productive” than those who did easy tasks first and were therefore less efficient. Choice D is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that workers who do easy tasks first are less “unsympathetic,” or insensitive or unkind, than those who do hard tasks first. Rather, the text suggests that people are less skillful or efficient if they tackle easy tasks before the hard ones.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID e37b9e34

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: e37b9e34

Some researchers believe that the genes that enable groundhogs and certain other mammals to hibernate through the winter by slowing their breathing and heart rates and lowering their body temperature may be blank in humans: present yet having essentially no effect on our bodily processes.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • decisive

  • lacking

  • variable

  • dormant

ID: e37b9e34 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it logically completes the text’s discussion about genes related to hibernation. In this context, “dormant” means inactive. The text explains that the same genes that enable certain nonhuman mammal species to hibernate during the winter by altering their bodily processes are also found in our species but have “essentially no effect” on humans’ bodily processes. In other words, these genes don’t function in humans.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, “decisive” means has the power to affect the outcome of something, but the text states that genes related to hibernation are instead inactive in humans—that is, the genes don’t affect humans’ bodily processes, although they are present in their bodies. Choice B is incorrect because in this context, “lacking” means missing, but the text states that the genes are present in humans, though inactive. Choice C is incorrect because “variable” means characterized by the potential to change, but the text indicates that these genes don’t change in their effect on humans’ bodily processes; instead, the genes are consistently inactive in humans.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID faa5696c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: faa5696c

Arturo A. Schomburg was dedicated to preserving books, art, and other materials from peoples of African descent around the world. To get these items, Schomburg blank friends and colleagues, whom he asked to bring back rare and valuable objects from their international travels. Now, Schomburg’s collection is a valuable resource for scholars of Black history and culture.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • admired

  • disagreed with

  • warned

  • depended on

ID: faa5696c Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Arturo A. Schomburg’s collection. In this context, the phrase “depended on” means relied on. The text explains that Schomburg, wanting to preserve “books, art, and other materials” created by peoples of African descent from around the world, built a large collection of these objects. The text also states that in order to obtain these items, Schomburg asked friends and colleagues who were traveling internationally to bring them back for him. This implies that he wouldn’t have been able to create his collection without help. Thus, the context supports the idea that Schomburg relied on, or depended on, friends and colleagues to build his collection.

Choice A is incorrect because “admired” means respected and approved of. Although it’s reasonable to expect that Schomburg respected his friends and colleagues, the text doesn’t discuss any such aspect of their relationships. The text focuses instead on what Schomburg asked his friends and colleagues to do to help build his collection. Choice B is incorrect because “disagreed with” means held an opposing belief, and nothing in the text suggests that Schomburg and his friends or colleagues held opposing views on any subject. In fact, the text strongly implies that Schomburg’s friends and colleagues supported him in his goal of preserving objects of importance for Black history and culture by bringing him such objects from around the world. Choice C is incorrect because “warned” means informed someone in advance about something dangerous, which wouldn’t make sense in this context. Nothing in the text suggests that Schomburg thought his friends and colleagues were in any danger, let alone that he warned them of danger.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID f0ae0da3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: f0ae0da3

Text 1

When companies in the same industry propose merging with one another, they often claim that the merger will benefit consumers by increasing efficiency and therefore lowering prices. Economist Ying Fan investigated this notion in the context of the United States newspaper market. She modeled a hypothetical merger of Minneapolis-area newspapers and found that subscription prices would rise following a merger.

 

Text 2

Economists Dario Focarelli and Fabio Panetta have argued that research on the effect of mergers on prices has focused excessively on short-term effects, which tend to be adverse for consumers. Using the case of consumer banking in Italy, they show that over the long term (several years, in their study), the efficiency gains realized by merged companies do result in economic benefits for consumers. 

Based on the texts, how would Focarelli and Panetta (Text 2) most likely respond to Fan’s findings (Text 1)?

  • They would recommend that Fan compare the near-term effect of a merger on subscription prices in the Minneapolis area with the effect of a merger in another newspaper market.

  • They would argue that over the long term the expenses incurred by the merged newspaper company will also increase.

  • They would encourage Fan to investigate whether the projected effect on subscription prices persists over an extended period.

  • They would claim that mergers have a different effect on consumer prices in the newspaper industry than in most other industries. 

ID: f0ae0da3 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because, based on the information presented in the texts, it represents how Focarelli and Panetta would most likely respond to Fan’s findings. Text 1 indicates that Fan found that a newspaper merger would result in a rise in subscription prices. This rise wouldn’t benefit customers, who would have to pay more for news after a merger. Text 2 presents Focarelli and Panetta’s argument that merger research tends to focus too much on what happens immediately after the merger. Text 2 goes on to describe their finding that mergers can be economically beneficial for consumers over the long term. This suggests that Focarelli and Panetta would encourage Fan to investigate the long-term effect of the hypothetical newspaper merger on subscription prices.

Choice A is incorrect because Text 2 doesn’t indicate that Focarelli and Panetta connect the effects of mergers to specific locations. Instead, Focarelli and Panetta focus on the length of time over which the effects of mergers should be evaluated. Choice B is incorrect because Text 2 indicates that Focarelli and Panetta found that merged companies experience "efficiency gains" over the long term, meaning that their expenses go down relative to their output, not that their expenses increase. Choice D is incorrect because there’s no indication in Text 2 that Focarelli and Panetta believe that the newspaper industry is different from any other industry when it comes to the effects of mergers. Although their own research was about consumer banking, Text 2 suggests that they view their conclusions as applicable to mergers in general.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID b3e145e4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: b3e145e4

In the 1950s, scientists didn’t know much about the ocean floor. Many scientists at the time believed that the ocean floor was mostly flat. But geologist Marie Tharp and her research partner, Bruce Heezen, proved that this idea was wrong. Using sonar data collected from the Atlantic Ocean, Tharp and Heezen showed that the floor was filled with canyons, mountains, and valleys.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • It identifies a scientific belief that Tharp and Heezen showed to be wrong.

  • It describes the design of Tharp and Heezen’s experiment. 

  • It emphasizes a disagreement between Tharp and Heezen.

  • It presents data to support a claim that Tharp and Heezen made. 

ID: b3e145e4 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence of the text establishes that scientists didn’t know much about the ocean floor in the 1950s. The second sentence, which is underlined, describes what many scientists thought at the time—that the ocean floor was mostly flat. The remainder of the text establishes that the ocean floor is far from flat, citing research conducted by Marie Tharp and Bruce Heezen. Thus, the purpose of the underlined sentence is to identify a scientific belief that Tharp and Heezen showed to be wrong.

Choice B is incorrect. Although Tharp and Heezen’s work with sonar data in the Atlantic Ocean is mentioned later in the text, the underlined sentence doesn’t describe the design of their experiment. Instead, it identifies a belief held by scientists that Tharp and Heezen demonstrated to be wrong. Choice C is incorrect because the underlined sentence presents a belief held by many scientists in the 1950s; nowhere does the text mention a disagreement between Tharp and Heezen, whom the text describes as research partners working together to map the ocean floor. Choice D is incorrect because the underlined sentence doesn’t present data in support of a claim; instead, it presents a scientific belief that Tharp and Heezen’s work showed to be wrong.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 54c6128b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 54c6128b

When ancient oak planks were unearthed during subway construction in Rome, Mauro Bernabei and his team examined the growth rings in the wood to determine where these planks came from. By comparing the growth rings on the planks to records of similar rings in oaks from Europe, the team could trace the wood to the Jura region of France, hundreds of kilometers from Rome. Because timber could only have been transported from distant Jura to Rome by boat, the team’s findings suggest the complexity of Roman trade routes.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • It presents a conclusion about Roman trade routes based on the team’s findings. 

  • It questions how the team was able to conclude that the planks were used to build a boat.

  • It explains why the planks were made from oak rather than a different kind of wood. 

  • It describes common methods used in Roman subway construction.

ID: 54c6128b Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence explains that Bernabei and his team studied growth rings to obtain information about the ancient oak planks found during a construction project in Rome. The next sentence presents what the researchers learned: the wood from the planks came from France’s Jura region, which is far from Rome. The underlined sentence then presents the implications of the findings about the planks: the wood must have been brought to Rome by boat, a difficult task that suggests Roman trade routes were complex. Thus, the underlined sentence mainly functions to present a conclusion about Roman trade routes based on the team’s findings.

Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the team thought the ancient planks were used in the construction of a boat, nor does the underlined sentence question that conclusion. Instead, the text states that the wood could only have been transported from Jura to Rome in a boat. Choice C is incorrect because the underlined sentence simply offers a conclusion drawn from the team’s findings about the likely place of origin of the ancient planks; the text never mentions why oak was chosen for the planks instead of other wood. Choice D is incorrect because neither the underlined sentence nor the text as a whole addresses any methods that Romans used in constructing subways. Instead, the underlined sentence offers a conclusion drawn from the team’s findings about the likely place of origin of the ancient wooden planks discovered.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 2c50ed1a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 2c50ed1a

Text 1

Literary scholars have struggled with the vastness of Nigerian writer Wole Soyinka’s collective works of drama (spanning over 20 plays in total). It is best, however, to understand Soyinka’s body of work as a dramatist chronologically. Soyinka’s progression as a playwright can be considered to fall into three periods, with each one representing a particular thematic and stylistic cohesion: the 1960s, the two decades between 1970 and 1990, and lastly, from roughly 1990 onwards. 

 

Text 2 

It is tempting to impose a linear sense of order on the expanse of Wole Soyinka’s body of work as a dramatist. However, critics who have considered Soyinka’s plays to fit neatly into three phases overlook potential commonalities in Soyinka’s work that span across these phases. Additionally, this view may discount significant differences in the styles and content of plays written around the same time. 

Which choice best describes a difference in how the author of Text 1 and the author of Text 2 view the study of Soyinka’s works of drama?

  • While the author of Text 1 believes that thinking about Soyinka’s works of theater in phases is useful, the author of Text 2 views such an approach as limiting.

  • Although the author of Text 1 claims that Soyinka’s style as a dramatist has evolved over time, the author of Text 2 argues that Soyinka’s style has remained consistent throughout his career.

  • The author of Text 1 considers Soyinka’s plays to showcase his strongest writing, whereas the author of Text 2 believes that Soyinka’s poetry is where he is most skilled.

  • The author of Text 1 argues that Soyinka’s early plays were his most politically charged, whereas the author of Text 2 claims that Soyinka’s most recent plays are the most politicized.

ID: 2c50ed1a Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The author of Text 1 states that Soyinka’s progression as a playwright can be considered to fall into three periods, implying that this is a helpful way to understand his works. The author of Text 2, on the other hand, challenges this view and says that it overlooks potential commonalities and differences in Soyinka’s work across what Text 1 calls distinctive stylistic phases.

Choice B is incorrect. This choice overstates the central claim of Text 2. The author of Text 2 argues against the chronological progression supported in Text 1, but does not go so far as to say that Soyinka’s style remained consistent. In fact, Text 2 points out “significant differences in styles and content” among Soyinka’s plays. Choice C is incorrect. Neither of the texts mention Soyinka’s poetry, nor do they rank his dramatic writing relative to his other work. Choice D is incorrect. Neither text discusses the political aspects of Soyinka’s plays, nor do they make any claims about whether they have changed over time.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 0ed94d4c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 0ed94d4c

Jackie Ormes’s Torchy Brown in Dixie to Harlem (1937–38) was the first comic strip by a Black woman to appear in a widely read newspaper. The strip tells the story of Torchy, a young woman who leaves Mississippi to become a performer in New York City. Torchy’s story reflects the experience of the Great Migration (1910–1970), when millions of Black Americans left the South in search of opportunities in other parts of the United States. Torchy Brown thus shows how Ormes used comics to comment humorously on issues affecting Black Americans, which she continued to do throughout her career.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To show how Ormes’s Torchy Brown inspired other Black women to write comic strips in the 1930s

  • To illustrate how the subjects Ormes addressed in her comic strips changed over the course of her career

  • To give an example of how Ormes presented the experiences of Black Americans in her comic strips 

  • To claim that several characters in Torchy Brown were based on people that Ormes knew personally 

ID: 0ed94d4c Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The text describes how Torchy Brown depicted the experiences of a young Black woman experiencing America’s Great Migration. It further states that Ormes continued to use comics throughout her career to humorously comment on important issues impacting Black Americans.

Choice A is incorrect. The text never mentions other Black women comic strip writers. Choice B is incorrect. The text never mentions any changes in the subjects Ormes addressed. Choice D is incorrect. The text never mentions the inspiration for characters in Torchy Brown.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID d8d33cc5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: d8d33cc5

The early British postal system required the cost of mail delivery to be paid upon receipt, a system which encouraged inventive strategies by the intended recipient to avoid payment. To improve this system, blank were proposed in 1837, including the use of a postage stamp, a small receipt pasted to the mail indicating that delivery costs had been paid by the sender.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • investigations

  • expansions

  • reforms

  • possessions

ID: d8d33cc5 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the early British postal system. In this context, "reforms" most nearly means attempts at improving something. The text indicates that the pay-upon-delivery postage method led to fee avoidance on the part of recipients. It then says that action was taken to improve the postal system, giving examples such as the move to having the sender pay and affixing stamps to indicate payment had been received. These represent revisions to the system intended to improve its functioning; therefore, "reforms" most logically completes the text.

Choice A is incorrect. In this context, "investigations" most nearly means attempts to understand something. And although it is plausible that an attempt to improve the postal system would involve investigations, nothing in the text provides a logical basis for understanding the example of changes like affixing stamps to letters as an investigation. Choice B is incorrect. In this context, "expansions" most nearly means additions to something. Although the text indicates that some new policies were adopted, nothing in the text suggests that the overall number of policies increased, which expansions would seem to entail. Choice D is incorrect. In this context, "possessions" most nearly means items of personal property or things that otherwise belong to, or are part of, something. The text provides no logical context for understanding changes like affixing stamps to letters as possessions.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 79fe7550

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 79fe7550

Researcher Haesung Jung led a 2020 study showing that individual acts of kindness can blank prosocial behavior across a larger group. Jung and her team found that bystanders who witness a helpful act become more likely to offer help to someone else, and in doing so, can inspire still others to act.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • require

  • remember

  • foster

  • discourage

ID: 79fe7550 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Jung and her team’s study of acts of kindness. In this context, “foster” means encourage or promote the development of. The text indicates that Jung and her team found that seeing a helpful (or prosocial) act makes a bystander more likely to help someone else, which can in turn inspire additional people to help others. That is, the team showed that single acts of kindness can foster additional prosocial acts across a group.

Choice A is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that Jung and her team found that single acts of kindness “require,” or depend on or make obligatory, broader prosocial (or helpful) behavior across a group. There’s no suggestion in the text that individual acts of kindness can only occur if other prosocial acts have already occurred, and the text indicates only that an act of kindness can inspire additional helpful acts, not that it necessarily will do so. Choice B is incorrect because the text focuses on a possible direct effect of individual acts of kindness, or single helpful actions, and it wouldn’t make sense to suggest that actions can “remember,” or hold a memory of, something. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that Jung and her team found that single acts of kindness can “discourage,” or hinder, prosocial (or helpful) behavior across a group. On the contrary, the text states that Jung and her team found that seeing a helpful act makes a bystander more likely to help someone else, which can in turn inspire even more people to help others.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 0a04cac5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 0a04cac5

The following text is adapted from Jane Austen’s 1814 novel Mansfield Park. The speaker, Tom, is considering staging a play at home with a group of his friends and family.

We mean nothing but a little amusement among ourselves, just to vary the scene, and exercise our powers in something new. We want no audience, no publicity. We may be trusted, I think, in choosing some play most perfectly unexceptionable; and I can conceive no greater harm or danger to any of us in conversing in the elegant written language of some respectable author than in chattering in words of our own.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To offer Tom’s assurance that the play will be inoffensive and involve only a small number of people

  • To clarify that the play will not be performed in the manner Tom had originally intended

  • To elaborate on the idea that the people around Tom lack the skills to successfully stage a play

  • To assert that Tom believes the group performing the play will be able to successfully promote it

ID: 0a04cac5 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately portrays the main purpose of the text. At the beginning of the text, Tom asserts that he and the other people staging the play are doing so only for “a little amusement among ourselves” and aren’t interested in attracting an audience or any attention with the production. Then, Tom promises that the play they chose is modest and appropriate, and he further reasons that using the well-written prose of “some respectable author” is better than using their own words. Overall, the main purpose of the text is to convey Tom’s promise that the play will be inoffensive and involve only a few people.

Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that Tom had earlier intentions for the play’s performance or that anything has changed since the group first decided to stage a play. Instead, the text focuses on how harmless the entire endeavor will be. Choice C is incorrect. Although Tom mentions that using the words of a “respectable author” will be better than using their own words, he never addresses the idea that the people around him generally aren’t skilled enough to stage a play. Choice D is incorrect because in the text Tom specifically says that they “want no audience, no publicity,” which indicates that they don’t plan on promoting the play at all. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 1fa751f1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 1fa751f1

Handedness, a preferential use of either the right or left hand, typically is easy to observe in humans. Because this trait is present but less blank in many other animals, animal-behavior researchers often employ tasks specially designed to reveal individual animals’ preferences for a certain hand or paw.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • recognizable

  • intriguing

  • significant

  • useful

ID: 1fa751f1 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion about handedness in animals. As used in this context, “recognizable” means apparent or identifiable. The text indicates that handedness is “easy to observe in humans,” but that animal-behavior researchers use special tasks to determine handedness in other animals. This context and the use of “less” before the blank indicate that compared with handedness in humans, handedness in other animals is less recognizable.

Choice B is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that handedness is less “intriguing,” or fascinating, in nonhuman animals than it is in humans. The text focuses on how easy it is to observe handedness in humans as compared with other animals; the text doesn’t suggest that handedness is more fascinating in humans.  Choice C is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that handedness is less “significant,” or important or meaningful, in nonhuman animals than it is in humans. The text focuses on how easy it is to observe handedness in humans as compared with other animals; the text doesn’t suggest that handedness is more significant in humans. Choice D is incorrect because “useful,” or functional or helpful, wouldn’t make sense in context. The text focuses on the ease with which researchers can determine whether an animal or person is right- or left-handed, not on how useful handedness in nonhuman animals is compared with handedness in humans. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 1d9a09c0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 1d9a09c0

The following text is adapted from Jason Reynolds’s 2016 novel Ghost. The narrator, who is in middle school, is at a bus stop.

I just go there [to the bus stop] to look at the people working out. See, the gym across the street has this big window—like the whole wall is a window—and they have those machines that make you feel like you walking up steps and so everybody just be facing the bus stop, looking all crazy like they’re about to pass out. And trust me, there ain’t nothing funnier than that. So I check that out for a little while like it’s some kind of movie: The About to Pass Out Show, starring stair-stepper person one through ten.

©2016 by Jason Reynolds

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To give a reason why the narrator is excited to start middle school

  • To describe an activity that the narrator finds amusing

  • To explain a problem that the narrator has overcome

  • To discuss a movie that the narrator saw in a theater

ID: 1d9a09c0 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text. The text describes how the narrator watches people working out at a gym through a window near a bus stop. The narrator says that "there ain’t nothing funnier" than watching people try to work out on the stair climber machine. Thus, the main purpose of the text is to describe an activity that the narrator finds amusing.

Choice A is incorrect because the text isn’t about the narrator beginning middle school. The text describes how the narrator finds people working out at a gym amusing and makes no mention of school life. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention any problems that the narrator currently has or has overcome. It just describes how the narrator finds watching people work out amusing. Choice D is incorrect because the narrator invents the made-up movie mentioned in the text. The text doesn’t indicate that the narrator has seen a movie in a theater. The focus of the text is on the narrator watching people at the gym, not watching a movie.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 49bbe4d7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 49bbe4d7

For painter Jacob Lawrence, being blank was an important part of the artistic process. Because he paid close attention to all the details of his Harlem neighborhood, Lawrence’s artwork captured nuances in the beauty and vitality of the Black experience during the Harlem Renaissance and the Great Migration.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • skeptical

  • observant

  • critical

  • confident

ID: 49bbe4d7 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Jacob Lawrence’s artistic process. In this context, “observant” means watchful and perceptive. The text emphasizes that the “close attention” Lawrence paid to “all the details” of his neighborhood allowed him to reflect subtle elements of “the beauty and vitality of the Black experience” in his artwork. This context indicates that being observant of his surroundings was an important part of Lawrence’s work as an artist.

Choice A is incorrect because the text gives no indication that Lawrence was “skeptical,” or had an attitude of doubt in general or about particular things, let alone that skepticism was important to him as an artist. Rather than indicating that he was skeptical, the text focuses on how Lawrence paid careful attention to everything around him and reflected his observations in his artwork. Choice C is incorrect because the text gives no indication that Lawrence was “critical,” which in this context would mean inclined to criticize harshly or unfairly. Rather than indicating that Lawrence found fault in things, the text suggests that he paid careful attention to everything around him and that his artwork reflects this careful attention. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that Lawrence was “confident,” or self-assured. Rather than addressing how Lawrence felt about himself and how that feeling affected his artistic process, the text emphasizes the careful attention Lawrence paid to everything around him—attention that allowed him to capture subtle elements of a particular place and time in his artwork.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID f6d1f735

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: f6d1f735

Researchers have struggled to pinpoint specific causes for hiccups, which happen when a person’s diaphragm contracts blank. However, neuroscientist Kimberley Whitehead has found that these uncontrollable contractions may play an important role in helping infants regulate their breathing.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • involuntarily

  • beneficially

  • strenuously

  • smoothly

ID: f6d1f735 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of diaphragm contractions and hiccups. In this context, “involuntarily” means done without any control, or by reflex. The text explains that when a person’s diaphragm repeatedly contracts and results in hiccups (which may be beneficial for infants), those muscle contractions are “uncontrollable.” This context indicates that the diaphragm contractions occur without the person’s control.

Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t support the logical relationship established in the text’s discussion of diaphragm contractions and hiccups. The text indicates that although specific causes for hiccups haven’t been identified, it may be the case that the muscle contractions that occur have an important purpose in infants. It wouldn’t make sense to say that even though the contractions occur “beneficially,” or with a good or helpful effect, they might play a positive role in infants’ breathing regulation. Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates that the diaphragm contractions that result in hiccups are “uncontrollable.” Because those muscle contractions are described as happening automatically and without the person’s control, it wouldn’t make sense to describe them as occurring “strenuously,” or in a way that requires great effort or energy. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t describe the quality of the diaphragm contractions that result in hiccups beyond stating that they are “uncontrollable.” Nothing in the text indicates that those muscle contractions occur “smoothly,” or evenly and continuously.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID fcc328c6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: fcc328c6

Streams and rivers carry soil and rocks from one location to another. But there is another way for these geological materials to move. Scientists call this process “aeolian transport.” In aeolian transport, winds move small particles of soil or rock over potentially great distances. Geologist Melisa Diaz and her team studied dust in Antarctica to find out if it was moved by aeolian transport. They discovered that the dust matched geological material in Australia. Aeolian transport had carried it from one continent to another, across thousands of miles of open ocean. 

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?

  • It presents Melisa Diaz’s remarks about difficulties that her team encountered.

  • It introduces a scientific term that is used in the discussion that follows. 

  • It emphasizes the surprising nature of the findings that are presented.

  • It explains the difference between two kinds of geological material. 

ID: fcc328c6 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole. The first two sentences introduce the idea that soil and rocks can be moved from one location to another by something other than rivers and streams. The underlined sentence then states that the term used by scientists to refer to this process is “aeolian transport.” The discussion that follows explains what aeolian transport is (the movement of small geological materials over potentially great distances by the wind) and describes an example of a study that found that dust particles had been moved by aeolian transport from Australia to Antarctica. Thus, the underlined portion introduces a scientific term that is used in the discussion that follows.

Choice A is incorrect because the underlined portion of the text doesn’t present any remarks from Melisa Diaz, nor does it suggest that Diaz and her team encountered difficulties in their study. Instead, the phrase in quotation marks in the underlined portion simply presents a term that is used by scientists to refer to a specific process discussed in the text. Choice C is incorrect because nothing in either the underlined portion or the text as a whole suggests that the findings of the study presented in the text were surprising or unexpected. In fact, the text suggests that Diaz and her team wanted to see if aeolian transport could explain the appearance of certain geological materials in Antarctica, and their findings did indeed confirm the involvement of aeolian transport. Choice D is incorrect. Although the first sentence of the text mentions soil and rocks, which are two different kinds of geological material, the underlined portion doesn’t refer to these materials, nor does it explain the difference between them. Rather, the underlined portion introduces the scientific term “aeolian transport,” which is used in the discussion that follows. 

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 01de46bb

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 01de46bb

The Menominee and Anishinaabe peoples have been growing wild rice—known as manoomin in the Ojibwe language—in the Great Lakes region of North America for centuries, but climatic changes are causing lakes to get deeper, thereby threatening wild rice. These plants are extremely blank to water depth during the “floating leaf” stage of development, and if the water is too deep, the buoyancy of the young wild-rice plants can literally uproot them from the lake bottom, destroying them.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • immune

  • sensitive

  • limited

  • receptive

ID: 01de46bb Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of wild rice. As used in this context, "sensitive" means vulnerable or easily affected. The text indicates that climate change is causing the lakes to get deeper, which consequently threatens the wild rice that grows in the area. The text goes on to state that deep water can cause young wild-rice plants to uproot from the bottom of the lake. This context supports the idea that the plants are sensitive to water depth during early stages of development.

Choice A is incorrect because "immune" means protected or shielded, which wouldn’t make sense in this context. The text explains that deep water can cause young wild-rice plants to become uprooted and destroyed, indicating that these plants are harmed by deep water, not protected from it. Choice C is incorrect because "limited" means confined or restrained, which wouldn’t make sense in this context. The text explains that water depth can negatively affect young wild-rice plants but doesn’t suggest that water depth limits or restrains the plants. Choice D is incorrect because "receptive" means open or tolerant, which wouldn’t make sense in this context. The text doesn’t indicate that the wild-rice plants are open to or tolerant of an increase in water depth but rather the opposite: an increase in water depth can harm young wild-rice plants.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID aa7ae735

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: aa7ae735

The following text is adapted from Mohsin Hamid’s 2017 novel Exit West. Saeed lives with his mother and father.

On cloudless nights after a daytime rain, Saeed’s father would sometimes bring out the telescope, and the family would sip green tea on their balcony, enjoying a breeze, and take turns to look up at objects whose light, often, had been emitted before any of these three viewers had been born—light from other centuries, only now reaching Earth.

©2017 by Mohsin Hamid

As used in the text, what does the word “reaching” most nearly mean?

  • Arriving at

  • Consulting with

  • Running to

  • Clinging to

ID: aa7ae735 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The word "reaching" in this text means "to arrive" at Earth. Before, the light had been traveling across space; now, it had arrived at Earth.

Choice B is incorrect. "Consulting with" means "seeking advice or information from someone." Light is not alive, so it can’t consult with Earth. Choice C is incorrect. It’s confusing to say that starlight is "only now running to Earth," both because light doesn’t literally "run" and because the text is describing the moment the light touches Earth, not the period of time when it’s traveling to Earth. Choice D is incorrect. This might be tempting, as "clinging to" has a connotation of "sticking to." It wouldn’t make sense to say that the light was "only now" clinging to Earth.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID a7991da1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: a7991da1

A unique dialect, or regional variety, of Spanish is spoken in Puerto Rico. It contains many words borrowed from the language of the Taínos, the Indigenous people of Puerto Rico. African languages also made important contributions to the Puerto Rican dialect. For example, the way certain vowel sounds are pronounced in it can be blank to how they are pronounced in Yoruba, a West African language.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • traced

  • surrendered

  • announced

  • offered

ID: a7991da1 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the origins of the unique dialect of Spanish spoken in Puerto Rico. In this context, "traced" means tracked back to. The text notes that the regional variety of Spanish spoken in Puerto Rico has its roots in the language of the Taínos and in the West African language of Yoruba. This context supports the idea that the way certain vowel sounds are pronounced in the Puerto Rican dialect can be traced back to Yoruba.

Choice B is incorrect because the text presents the statement about the relationship between vowel pronunciation in the Puerto Rican dialect of Spanish and in Yoruba as an example to support the claim that African languages have contributed to the Puerto Rican dialect. It therefore wouldn’t make sense to say that the pronunciation of certain vowel sounds in the Puerto Rican dialect can be "surrendered," or handed over on demand, to the pronunciation in Yoruba. Choice C is incorrect because the text gives no indication that the way certain vowel sounds are pronounced in the Puerto Rican dialect of Spanish has been "announced," or officially declared or proclaimed. According to the text, elements of the dialect have been inherited or borrowed from African languages, and the relationship between the pronunciation of certain vowels in the Puerto Rican dialect and in Yoruba is an example of this inheritance, suggesting that the pronunciation in the Puerto Rican dialect can be traced to Yoruba. Choice D is incorrect because the text presents the statement about the relationship between vowel pronunciation in the Puerto Rican dialect of Spanish and in Yoruba as an example to support the claim that African languages have contributed to the Puerto Rican dialect. It therefore wouldn’t make sense to say that the pronunciation of certain vowel sounds in the Puerto Rican dialect can be "offered," or presented as a gift, to the pronunciation in Yoruba.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 84a7fbca

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 84a7fbca

When Mexican-American archaeologist Zelia Maria Magdalena Nuttall published her 1886 research paper on sculptures found at the ancient Indigenous city of Teotihuacan in present-day Mexico, other researchers readily blank her work as groundbreaking; this recognition stemmed from her convincing demonstration that the sculptures were much older than had previously been thought.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • acknowledged

  • ensured

  • denied

  • underestimated

ID: 84a7fbca Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Nuttall’s 1886 research paper. In this context, “acknowledged” means recognized as having a certain status. The text indicates that other researchers recognized Nuttall’s work as groundbreaking because of its “convincing demonstration” related to the age of the ancient sculptures. In other words, the researchers recognized the groundbreaking status of Nuttall’s work.

Choice B is incorrect because in this context, “ensured” would mean to have guaranteed or made sure something was the case. The text states that other researchers gave Nuttall’s work recognition after it was published, but there’s no indication that they contributed to the work or had any involvement that would have allowed them to make sure the work would be groundbreaking. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that other researchers “denied,” or refused to admit or accept, that Nuttall’s work was groundbreaking; on the contrary, it indicates that researchers praised the work, recognizing it as groundbreaking due to its “convincing demonstration” related to the age of the ancient sculptures. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that other researchers “underestimated,” or undervalued, Nuttall’s work; on the contrary, it indicates that researchers praised the work, recognizing it as groundbreaking due to its “convincing demonstration” related to the age of the ancient sculptures.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 5179fd36

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 5179fd36

Urban planning expert Francisco Lara-Valencia and colleagues have argued that managing environmental matters along the US-Mexico border blank coordination between the two countries’ governments. Since ecosystems extend across the border, actions taken on one side can have environmental effects on the other side, making international cooperation essential. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • requires

  • praises

  • reports

  • advises

ID: 5179fd36 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of environmental management along the US and Mexican border. In this context, "requires" means needs in order to perform a task. The text indicates that because ecosystems span the border, actions taken by the government on one side of the border can affect the environment in the nation on the other side of the border, which makes international cooperation crucial. In other words, because actions on one side of the US and Mexican border can affect the other side of the border, managing environmental matters along the border requires coordination between the two governments.

Choice B is incorrect because "praises" in this context would mean to express a favorable judgment, but the text doesn’t describe approval expressed by anyone, and it wouldn’t make sense to say that environmental management itself praises intergovernmental coordination. Choice C is incorrect. In this context, "reports" would mean gives an account. Although coordination between the US and Mexican governments likely would involve some sort of reporting, the text doesn’t describe any such practice. Choice D is incorrect. In this context, "advises" would mean recommends a course of action, and although governments can advise one another, it wouldn’t make sense to say that environmental management itself makes recommendations.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 1f2d6173

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 1f2d6173

Scholarly accounts of the Chicano movement—a movement that advocated for the social, political, and cultural empowerment of Mexican Americans and reached its zenith in the 1960s and 1970s—tend to focus on the most militant, outspoken figures in the movement, making it seem uniformly radical. Geographer Juan Herrera has shown, however, that if we shift our focus toward the way the movement manifested in comparatively low-profile neighborhood institutions and projects, we see participants espousing an array of political orientations and approaches to community activism.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?

  • It presents a trend in scholarship on the Chicano movement that the text claims has been reevaluated by researchers in light of Herrera’s work on the movement’s participants. 

  • It identifies an aspect of the Chicano movement that the text implies was overemphasized by scholars due to their own political orientations. 

  • It describes a common approach to studying the Chicano movement that, according to the text, obscures the ideological diversity of the movement’s participants. 

  • It summarizes the conventional method for analyzing the Chicano movement, which the text suggests creates a misleading impression of the effectiveness of neighborhood institutions and projects.

ID: 1f2d6173 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined portion functions in the text as a whole. The text begins by mentioning scholarly accounts of the Chicano movement, which the underlined portion describes as tending "to focus on the most militant, outspoken figures in the movement," making the movement as a whole seem uniformly radical. The text then indicates that the work of geographer Juan Herrera shows that focusing less on such militant figures and instead paying more attention to manifestations of the Chicano movement in less widely known neighborhood institutions and projects would reveal that the movement’s participants embraced a range of political orientations and approaches. Thus, the underlined portion describes a common approach to studying the Chicano movement that, according to the text, obscures the ideological diversity of the movement’s participants.

Choice A is incorrect. Though the underlined portion does present a trend in scholarship on the Chicano movement, the text does not indicate that other scholars have reevaluated their methods in light of Herrera’s work. It only indicates that Herrera’s work suggests that the work of those other scholars does not provide a complete picture of the Chicano movement. Choice B is incorrect. Though the underlined portion does identify an aspect of the Chicano movement that the text indicates has been overemphasized, the text does not discuss the political orientations of the scholars whose work is mentioned in the text. Choice D is incorrect. Though the underlined portion does summarize the conventional method for analyzing the Chicano movement, the rest of the text does not address the effectiveness of "comparatively low-profile neighborhood institutions and projects." Instead, the text suggests that those projects were led by people with a variety of approaches to community activism.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 428cd2c1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 428cd2c1

Some people have speculated that two helmets with attached horns discovered in Denmark in 1942 belonged to Vikings, but scholars have long been skeptical. Archaeologist Helle Vandkilde and colleagues recently provided radiocarbon dates for the helmets, and their findings blank scholars’ skepticism: the helmets date to the Nordic Bronze Age, centuries before the Vikings existed.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • anticipate

  • inspect

  • reveal

  • justify

ID: 428cd2c1 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the helmets found in Denmark. In this context, “justify” means confirm or give reasons for. The text indicates that scholars have long been skeptical about the supposed Viking origin of two helmets found in Denmark. The radiocarbon dating of the helmets conducted by Vandkilde and colleagues demonstrates that the helmets date from the Nordic Bronze Age, making the helmets too old to have belonged to Vikings. This context supports the idea that the scholars’ skepticism is justified.

Choice A is incorrect because “anticipate” means expect or come before, neither of which would make sense in context. The text indicates that scholars have long been skeptical of the idea that the helmets belonged to Vikings. Because the skepticism has existed for a long time, Vandkilde and colleagues’ research couldn’t be said to anticipate it. Instead, the radiocarbon dating results justify or confirm the scholar’s skepticism. Choice B is incorrect because “inspect” means examine or review, which wouldn’t make sense in this context. Research findings are inanimate and therefore unable to inspect scholars’ skepticism. The text focuses on the origin of two helmets, which some people believe belonged to Vikings. Vandkilde and colleagues found that the helmets are from the Nordic Bronze Age and therefore much older than the Vikings. This context suggests that the researchers’ findings justify, not inspect, the scholars’ skepticism. Choice C is incorrect because “reveal” means uncover or report, which wouldn’t make sense in context. The text focuses on the origin of two helmets, which some people believe belonged to Vikings. Vandkilde and colleagues tested the helmets and found that they date to the Nordic Bronze Age and therefore are much older than the Vikings. This context suggests that the researchers’ findings confirm or justify the scholars’ skepticism, which was already known so didn’t need to be revealed.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 62a18353

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 62a18353

The following text is adapted from Zora Neale Hurston’s 1921 short story “John Redding Goes to Sea.” John wants to travel far beyond the village where he lives near his mother, Matty.

[John] had on several occasions attempted to reconcile his mother to the notion, but found it a difficult task. Matty always took refuge in self-pity and tears. Her son’s desires were incomprehensible to her, that was all.

As used in the text, what does the phrase “reconcile his mother to” most nearly mean?

  • Get his mother to accept

  • Get his mother to apologize for

  • Get his mother to match

  • Get his mother to reunite with

ID: 62a18353 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The expression “reconcile to” means “to cause (a person) to accept something difficult or disagreeable.” The text suggests that John wants his mother to accept his desire to travel, even though she doesn’t like that idea.

Choice B is incorrect. This doesn’t make sense. John doesn’t want his mother to apologize for his own desire to travel—he wants her to accept his desire to travel. Choice C is incorrect. The text doesn’t suggest that John wants his mother to match his desire to travel. Rather, he wants her to accept his desire to travel even though she doesn’t like it. Choice D is incorrect. This is tempting, because it seems to pick up on the idea of people “reconciling” after a fight, but it actually doesn’t make sense. The text never suggests that John’s mother was “united with” the idea of him traveling in the past—if anything, it seems like she’s always been against it. Besides, it would be strange to say that a person “reunites with” a notion.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 4eee64fa

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 4eee64fa

Space scientists Anna-Lisa Paul, Stephen M. Elardo, and Robert Ferl planted seeds of Arabidopsis thaliana in samples of lunar regolith—the surface material of the Moon—and, serving as a control group, in terrestrial soil. They found that while all the seeds germinated, the roots of the regolith-grown plants were stunted compared with those in the control group. Moreover, unlike the plants in the control group, the regolith-grown plants exhibited red pigmentation, reduced leaf size, and inhibited growth rates—indicators of stress that were corroborated by postharvest molecular analysis.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • It describes an experiment that addressed an unresolved question about the extent to which lunar regolith resembles terrestrial soils.

  • It compares two distinct methods of assessing indicators of stress in plants grown in a simulated lunar environment.

  • It presents evidence in support of the hypothesis that seed germination in lunar habitats is an unattainable goal.

  • It discusses the findings of a study that evaluated the effects of exposing a plant species to lunar soil conditions.

ID: 4eee64fa Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The text describes an experiment wherein space scientists compared plant growth in terrestrial and lunar soil conditions. It then discusses the findings of the study, including the fact that all the seeds germinated but that the plants grown in lunar soil exhibited signs of stress.

Choice A is incorrect. The text doesn’t address this question, and never describes any specific characteristics of either soil. It merely describes the outcome of an experiment that exposed a plant species to lunar soil conditions. Choice B is incorrect. The text never compares methods of assessing indicators of stress—instead, it simply mentions several stress indicators observed in the study (red pigmentation, reduced leaf size, and inhibited growth rates). Choice C is incorrect. The text doesn’t present any evidence that we could never achieve seed germination in lunar habitats, and in fact states that the seeds in the lunar soil did germinate.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID c2c26e20

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: c2c26e20

The following text is adapted from Sadakichi Hartmann’s 1894 short story “Magnolia Blossoms.” The narrator is standing on the deck of a boat.

What a night it was! My soul had left its body to lose itself in the wild unrestrained beauty around me—from where it came—and only left a trembling suggestion of its existence within me. The other passengers moved around me like shadows, and again and again my eyes drank in all the glory and wealth of that night.

As used in the text, what does the word “suggestion” most nearly mean? 

  • Trace

  • Opinion

  • Dispute

  • Command

ID: c2c26e20 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because as used in the text, “suggestion” most nearly means trace. The text portrays the narrator standing on the deck of a boat, admiring the view of nature afforded by this position: “My soul had left its body to lose itself in the wild unrestrained beauty around me,” says the narrator, “and only left a trembling suggestion of its existence within me.” This intense response to beauty is such that the narrator’s soul seems to disengage from its body, leaving behind only a barely detectible indication of its presence there. In other words, the narrator senses only a trace of soul left in the body.

Choice B is incorrect. Although in some contexts “suggestion” can refer to an implied or indirectly expressed opinion, the text doesn’t portray the narrator expressing an opinion; instead, the narrator is explaining an experience of intense emotion. Choice C is incorrect. While “suggestion” might be used in some contexts to refer to the tactful expression of a differing viewpoint, it doesn’t refer to the dispute or difference of opinion itself. Moreover, the text doesn’t portray a dispute between characters with differing viewpoints. Choice D is incorrect. Although in some contexts, “suggestion” might be used to refer to a politely worded command, the text doesn’t portray a scenario in which someone receives such a command.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 4b54bbf0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 4b54bbf0

In the 2010s, the price of pop music cassette tapes from the 1980s and 1990s rose dramatically, which had the counterintuitive effect of blank demand: buyers who hadn’t previously wanted to purchase vintage cassettes thronged the market, believing prices would continue to rise and the tapes could be resold later at a profit.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • exploiting

  • monetizing

  • appraising

  • engendering

ID: 4b54bbf0 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of how rising prices affected demand for vintage cassette tapes. In this context, "engendering" means producing or causing to exist. The text indicates that the effect of a dramatic increase in the price of vintage cassettes was counterintuitive, or contrary to what would typically be expected. Generally, when prices rise, demand falls—but the text indicates that in this case, buyers who previously had no interest in cassettes "thronged the market" (that is, many of them began purchasing cassettes) because they saw the cassettes as potential investments. This context conveys that the rising prices surprisingly produced significant demand, producing many new buyers for vintage cassettes.

Choice A is incorrect because the text focuses on a rise in prices of vintage cassettes, and it wouldn’t make sense to describe the price increase itself—rather than sellers of vintage cassettes—as "exploiting," or unfairly or selfishly taking advantage of, demand. Further, wanting to take advantage of new demand would be a motivation for a price increase, not a counterintuitive effect of it. Choice B is incorrect. In this context, "monetizing" would mean utilizing as a source of profit, and it wouldn’t make sense to describe a price increase itself, rather than sellers of vintage cassettes, as using demand as a source of profit; moreover, seeking to profit when there’s new demand would be a reason for price increases, not a counterintuitive effect of them. Choice C is incorrect. In this context, "appraising" would mean assessing the value or significance of something. The text focuses on a rise in prices of vintage cassettes, and while it would be reasonable to suggest that sellers might have appraised demand for those cassettes, it wouldn’t make sense to suggest that a price increase itself could do such an assessment; moreover, an appraisal of demand would most likely precede a price increase rather than be an effect of it.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 1374a9fa

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 1374a9fa

Austin McCoy has argued that historians have tended to blank rank-and-file workers in analyses of changes in organized labor in the United States in the decades following the Second World War, presenting political, business, and labor leaders as the major actors and ordinary workers as nearly devoid of agency.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • epitomize

  • marginalize

  • extol

  • substantiate

ID: 1374a9fa Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of how historians have treated rank-and-file (ordinary) workers in their analyses. In this context, "marginalize" means treat as unimportant or relatively powerless within a group or society. The text explains that according to Austin McCoy, historians have tended to treat "political, business, and labor leaders" as the "major actors" involved in making changes in organized labor in the period after the Second World War. By emphasizing the contributions of these leaders, historians have in effect minimized the contributions of ordinary workers, treating them as relatively unimportant and "nearly devoid of agency," thereby marginalizing them.

Choice A is incorrect. In this context, "epitomize" would mean either serve as an ideal example of something or make into an example of something, neither of which would make sense. In stating that historians have tended to characterize political, business, and labor leaders as the primary actors responsible for changes in the post-Second World War labor movement in a manner that minimizes the influence of ordinary workers, the text suggests that historians have tended to present ordinary workers as unimportant to or uninfluential within the movement, not that historians themselves serve as examples of ordinary workers, or that historians in their analyses have made ordinary workers into examples of the changes that occurred. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, "extol" would mean praise highly or glorify. The text states that historians have tended to present ordinary workers as being "nearly devoid of agency," thereby minimizing their importance. It therefore wouldn’t make sense to say that in doing so, historians have tended to praise or glorify them. Choice D is incorrect because "substantiate" would mean verify with evidence, and nothing in the text suggests that historians have verified rank-and-file workers or their contributions in their analyses. If anything, the text suggests the opposite, implying that by minimizing workers’ agency in organized labor, historians have likely overlooked evidence demonstrating their influence.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID a70cbc53

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: a70cbc53

Raymond Antrobus, an accomplished poet and writer of prose, recently released his debut spoken word poetry album, The First Time I Wore Hearing Aids, in collaboration with producer Ian Brennan. The album contains both autobiographical and reflective pieces combining Antrobus’s spoken words with Brennan’s fragmented audio elements and pieces of music to convey how people who are deaf may experience sound, both its presence and absence. Some critics suggest that the album questions the function of sound in the world, highlighting that the experience of sound is multifaceted.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • It introduces a collaborative spoken word poetry project, details the approach taken to produce the work, and then provides an example of critique the album received upon release. 

  • It mentions a collection of spoken word poems, distinguishes one poem as being an exemplar on the album, and then offers a summary of the subject matter of the whole collection.

  • It summarizes the efforts to produce a collection of spoken word poems, presents biographies of two people who worked on the album, and speculates about the meaning behind the poetry.

  • It connects two artists to the same spoken word poetry project, explains the extent of their collaboration on each poem, and then provides an overview of the technique used to produce the work.

ID: a70cbc53 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The text first introduces the album as being a collaboration between Antrobus and Brennan, then describes the approach taken to produce it, then mentions how critics have said that it calls into question the function of sound.

Choice B is incorrect. While the text does mention a collection of spoken word poems, it doesn’t single out one poem as being particularly noteworthy. Additionally, the text doesn’t simply summarize the subject matter—it goes into detail about the content and production of the album. Choice C is incorrect. The text doesn’t provide biographical information about the two artists, and the text doesn’t speculate about the meaning behind the poetry—instead, it relays what some critics have said about the album. Choice D is incorrect. The text doesn’t provide just an overview of the production techniques used but instead goes into more detail about the content and audio elements of the album, as well as critical response to the album.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 3d658a5a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 3d658a5a

Some foraging models predict that the distance bees travel when foraging will decline as floral density increases, but biologists Shalene Jha and Claire Kremen showed that bees’ behavior is inconsistent with this prediction if flowers in dense patches are blank: bees will forage beyond patches of low species richness to acquire multiple resource types. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • depleted 

  • homogeneous

  • immature

  • dispersed

ID: 3d658a5a Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Jha and Kremen’s finding about bees’ foraging behavior. In this context, “homogeneous” means uniform or of the same kind. The text indicates that some models predict that the distance that bees travel when they’re foraging declines as the density of flowers increases. The text goes on to say, however, that Jha and Kremen identified a circumstance in which bees don’t behave this way. Specifically, if bees encounter “patches of low species richness”—that is, patches in which the flowers are largely from the same species—they’ll travel beyond those patches to get varied food resources. This context thus suggests that bees don’t behave as some models predict if the dense patches of flowers the bees encounter are homogeneous. 

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that Jha and Kremen found that bees will behave differently than some models predict if the bees encounter flower patches that are not rich in species, not if the flowers are “depleted,” or emptied or reduced in quality or quantity. Although it could be true that bees are likely to leave depleted patches in search of more resources, the text doesn’t indicate that Jha and Kremen investigated that possibility. Choice C is incorrect because there’s no information in the text suggesting that bees will not behave as some models predict if flowers in patches are “immature,” or not fully developed. Instead, the text indicates that Jha and Kremen found that bees will behave contrary to some models’ predictions if the flower patches are not rich in species. Choice D is incorrect because the text indicates that bees’ behavior will be inconsistent with the predictions of some models if the flower patches that the bees encounter are of low species richness, not if the flowers are in patches that are “dispersed,” or widely scattered. Although the text does describe bees as leaving patches that are not rich in species to forage elsewhere, there’s no suggestion that Jha and Kremen found that the distance between dense flower patches affects whether the bees behave as some models predict.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID cd2ce51f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: cd2ce51f

Like the 1945 play it reimagines—Federico García Lorca’s The House of Bernarda Alba—Marcus Gardley’s 2014 play The House That Will Not Stand prominently features women. In both plays, the all-female cast blank an array of female characters, including a strong mother and several daughters dealing with individual struggles.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • engulfs

  • encourages

  • comprises

  • provokes

ID: cd2ce51f Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Gardley’s play. In this context, “comprises” means constitutes or makes up the totality of, and the text indicates that The House That Will Not Stand had an “all-female cast” that stands in some relationship to “an array of female characters” in the play. Because all cast members are female, the characters must be played by these female cast members; therefore the cast constitutes, or comprises, the collection of characters.

Choice A is incorrect. In this context, “engulfs” would mean encloses or overwhelms, and although it is fairly common to describe an actor as embodying (or personifying realistically) a character, there is nothing in the text to suggest that the cast members enclosed or overwhelmed the characters they played. Choice B is incorrect because in this context, “encourages” would mean inspires with courage or hope. Although the text does mention “a strong mother and several daughters dealing with individual struggles,” which might suggest that there are moments of encouragement among the characters during the play, there is nothing to suggest that the cast members encouraged the characters they portrayed. Choice D is incorrect because, in this context, “provokes” would mean instigates or incites to anger. Nothing in the text addresses provocation or what it might mean for actors to provoke the characters they are playing.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 17bf10de

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 17bf10de

Text 1

Despite its beautiful prose, The Guns of August, Barbara Tuchman’s 1962 analysis of the start of World War I, has certain weaknesses as a work of history. It fails to address events in Eastern Europe just before the outbreak of hostilities, thereby giving the impression that Germany was the war’s principal instigator. Had Tuchman consulted secondary works available to her by scholars such as Luigi Albertini, she would not have neglected the influence of events in Eastern Europe on Germany’s actions.

 

Text 2

Barbara Tuchman’s The Guns of August is an engrossing if dated introduction to World War I. Tuchman’s analysis of primary documents is laudable, but her main thesis that European powers committed themselves to a catastrophic outcome by refusing to deviate from military plans developed prior to the conflict is implausibly reductive.

Which choice best describes a difference in how the authors of Text 1 and Text 2 view Barbara Tuchman’s The Guns of August?

  • The author of Text 1 argues that Tuchman should have relied more on the work of other historians, while the author of Text 2 implies that Tuchman’s most interesting claims result from her original research.

  • The author of Text 1 believes that the scope of Tuchman’s research led her to an incorrect interpretation, while the author of Text 2 believes that Tuchman’s central argument is overly simplistic.

  • The author of Text 1 asserts that the writing style of The Guns of August makes it worthwhile to read despite any perceived deficiency in Tuchman’s research, while the author of Text 2 focuses exclusively on the weakness of Tuchman’s interpretation of events.

  • The author of Text 1 claims that Tuchman would agree that World War I was largely due to events in Eastern Europe, while the author of Text 2 maintains that Tuchman would say that Eastern European leaders were not committed to military plans in the same way that other leaders were.

ID: 17bf10de Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. Both texts are critical of The Guns of August, but for different reasons: the author of Text 1 argues that Tuchman missed an important factor leading up to the war because she didn’t consult secondary sources, and the author of Text 2 argues that Tuchman’s main thesis is "reductive," which is a close synonym for "overly simplistic."

Choice A is incorrect. This doesn’t accurately describe the difference. This choice’s summary of Text 1 is accurate, but Text 2 never says that Tuchman’s most interesting claims result from her original research. Choice C is incorrect. This doesn’t accurately describe the difference. Text 1 never says that The Guns of August is worthwhile to read despite its research weaknesses. Text 2 does call out a weakness of Tuchman’s interpretation of events, but it also praises her analysis of primary sources. Choice D is incorrect. This doesn’t accurately describe the difference. Text 1 actually says that Tuchman "fails to address" the influence of events in Eastern Europe, while Text 2 says that Tuchman’s thesis was that European powers (not Eastern European leaders) were committed to military plans.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID b4c6cff6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: b4c6cff6

The following text is adapted from Karel Čapek’s 1920 play R.U.R. (Rossum’s Universal Robots), translated by Paul Selver and Nigel Playfair in 1923. Fabry and Busman are telling Miss Glory why their company manufactures robots.

FABRY: One Robot can replace two and a half workmen. The human machine, Miss Glory, was terribly imperfect. It had to be removed sooner or later.

BUSMAN: It was too expensive.

FABRY: It was not effective. It no longer answers the requirements of modern engineering. Nature has no idea of keeping pace with modern labor. 

As used in the text, what does the word “answers” most nearly mean?

  • Explains

  • Rebuts

  • Defends

  • Fulfills

ID: b4c6cff6 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because as used in the text, “answers” most nearly means fulfills. In the text, Fabry and Busman claim that the robots manufactured by their company are more efficient than human workers, which they refer to as “the human machine.” Fabry observes that the human machine “no longer answers the requirements of modern engineering.” That is, human workers are incapable of meeting the rigorous needs of modern, industrialized workplaces.

Choice A is incorrect. Although in some contexts “answers” can mean explains, it doesn’t have that meaning in this context because the topic under discussion is human beings’ inability to perform labor efficiently, not their inability to engage in discussion or explanation. Choice B is incorrect. Although in some contexts “answers” can mean rebuts, or proves a claim or argument to be false, it wouldn’t make sense to speak of proving requirements to be false; requirements might or might not be reasonable, but they can’t be verified as truthful or untruthful, as claims or accusations can. Choice C is incorrect. Although in some contexts, “answers” can mean defends against criticism, or justifies, it doesn’t have that meaning in this context because the opinion that Fabry expresses is that human workers can no longer fulfill the requirements of modern workplaces, not that they have ceased to justify those requirements or to defend them against criticism; indeed, there is no suggestion in the text that workers ever defended those requirements. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID d8d1ecaa

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: d8d1ecaa

Business researcher Melanie Brucks and colleagues found that remote video conference meetings may be less conducive to brainstorming than in-person meetings are. The researchers suspect that video meeting participants are focused on staring at the speaker on the screen and don’t allow their eyes or mind to wander as much, which may ultimately blank creativity.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • recommend

  • criticize

  • impede

  • construct

ID: d8d1ecaa Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The first sentence tells us that video meetings are “less conducive to” (meaning less good for) brainstorming. This suggests that the video meeting participants’ focus is bad for their creativity. “Impede” means “delay” or “prevent,” which works perfectly in this context.

Choice A is incorrect. This choice is too positive to fit the context. The first sentence tells us that video meetings are “less conducive to” (meaning less good for) brainstorming. This suggests that the video meeting participants’ focus is bad for their creativity. Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t make sense. The participants’ intense focus on the screen is the subject of the missing verb. It wouldn’t make sense to say that their over-focusing “criticizes” their creativity. Choice D is incorrect. “Construct” means “build” or “make,” which is too positive to fit the context. The first sentence tells us that video meetings are “less conducive to” (meaning less good for) brainstorming. This suggests that the video meeting participants’ focus is bad for their creativity.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID d0198544

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: d0198544

 

Text 1

In 2007, a team led by Alice Storey analyzed a chicken bone found in El Arenal, Chile, dating it to 1321–1407 CE—over a century before Europeans invaded the region, bringing their own chickens. Storey also found that the El Arenal chicken shared a unique genetic mutation with the ancient chicken breeds of the Polynesian Islands in the Pacific. Thus, Polynesian peoples, not later Europeans, probably first introduced chickens to South America.

 

Text 2

An Australian research team weakened the case for a Polynesian origin for the El Arenal chicken by confirming that the mutation identified by Storey has occurred in breeds from around the world. More recently, though, a team led by Agusto Luzuriaga-Neira found that South American chicken breeds and Polynesian breeds share other genetic markers that European breeds lack. Thus, the preponderance of evidence now favors a Polynesian origin.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely respond to the underlined claim in Text 1?

  • By broadly agreeing with the claim but objecting that the timeline it presupposes conflicts with the findings of the genetic analysis conducted by Storey’s team

  • By faulting the claim for implying that domestic animals couldn’t have been transferred from South America to the Polynesian Islands as well

  • By critiquing the claim for being based on an assumption that before the European invasion of South America, the chickens of Europe were genetically uniform

  • By noting that while the claim is persuasive, the findings of Luzuriaga-Neira’s team provide stronger evidence for it than the findings of the genetic analysis conducted by Storey do

ID: d0198544 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it accurately describes how the author of Text 2 would most likely respond to the underlined claim in Text 1. Text 1 indicates that Storey found a genetic mutation in South American chickens from before the European invasion and in Polynesian chickens, which implies that chickens were first brought to South America by Polynesian people. Text 2 explains that the genetic mutation Storey found is in chickens from all over the world, thus undercutting the mutation as evidence of a Polynesian origin. However, Text 2 goes on to say “[m]ore recently” Luzuriaga-Neira and colleagues found multiple genetic markers shared by South American and Polynesian chickens but “that European breeds lack,” which strongly suggests a Polynesian origin for the South American chickens. This indicates that the author of Text 2 believes Luzuriaga-Neira’s evidence for a Polynesian origin is compelling while Storey’s evidence has been undermined. Thus, the author of Text 2 would most likely agree with the underlined statement and believes Luzuriaga-Neira and colleagues’ evidence for the statement is stronger than Storey’s evidence is.

Choice A is incorrect because both texts indicate that chickens were introduced to South America before the arrival of Europeans. Text 1 states that the El Arenal chicken bone dates from “1321–1407 CE—over a century before Europeans invaded the region” and concludes that these chickens were likely brought to South America by Polynesians. While Text 2 is not as explicit about the time period as Text 1 is, nothing in Text 2 undermines the timing of events ascribed to Storey’s account in Text 1. Choice B is incorrect because both texts agree that chickens were first brought to South America by Polynesian peoples (the underlined claim), and nothing in Text 2 suggests that this claim is in any way deficient because the possibility that animals could have been transferred from South America to Polynesia was not explicitly addressed. Choice C is incorrect because the criticism that Text 2 raises about the ideas in Text 1 is specifically about whether the single genetic mutation cited by Storey in fact supports the idea of a Polynesian origin for South American chickens. There is nothing in Text 2 to suggest that the underlined sentence (Storey’s conclusion) is deficient because it is based on an assumption about the genetic uniformity of European chickens. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID a2be625e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: a2be625e

The following text is from Sarah Orne Jewett’s 1899 short story “Martha’s Lady.” Martha is employed by Miss Pyne as a maid. 

Miss Pyne sat by the window watching, in her best dress, looking stately and calm; she seldom went out now, and it was almost time for the carriage. Martha was just coming in from the garden with the strawberries, and with more flowers in her apron. It was a bright cool evening in June, the golden robins sang in the elms, and the sun was going down behind the apple-trees at the foot of the garden. The beautiful old house stood wide open to the long-expected guest.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To convey the worries brought about by a new guest

  • To describe how the characters have changed over time

  • To contrast the activity indoors with the stillness outside

  • To depict the setting as the characters await a visitor’s arrival 

ID: a2be625e Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately reflects the main purpose of the text. The text portrays Miss Pyne as awaiting the arrival of a carriage while Martha brings strawberries and flowers from the garden into the house. The text also describes the surroundings of the scene, stating that Miss Pyne looks "stately and calm," the evening is bright and cool, and birds are singing in the garden as the sun sets. Then the last sentence states that the house was "wide open to the long-expected guest," which strongly suggests that Miss Pyne’s anticipation and Martha’s activities were in preparation for the guest who is expected to arrive in the carriage. Thus, the text depicts the setting and conveys what these characters are doing as they await the arrival of their visitor.

Choice A is incorrect because there is nothing in the text to indicate that the characters feel any worry about the guest’s arrival. The text indicates that the guest was "long-expected," but characterizing Miss Pyne as "stately and calm" conflicts with the idea that the characters are worried about the guest. Choice B is incorrect because the text describes a moment in time when two characters are awaiting the arrival of a visitor rather than an extended period over which characters could be seen changing. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text describes the activity indoors (Miss Pyne sitting calmly), it describes a higher level of activity, not stillness, outside (Martha bringing fruit and flowers and birds singing).

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID ab56a107

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: ab56a107

 

Text 1

Digital art, the use of digital technology to create or display images, isn’t really art at all. It doesn’t require as much skill as creating physical art. “Painting” with a tablet and stylus is much easier than using paint and a brush: the technology is doing most of the work.

 

Text 2

The painting programs used to create digital art involve more than just pressing a few buttons. In addition to knowing the fundamentals of art, digital artists need to be familiar with sophisticated software. Many artists will start by drawing an image on paper before transforming the piece to a digital format, where they can apply a variety of colors and techniques that would otherwise require many different traditional tools.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely respond to the claims of the author of Text 1? 

  • By arguing that a piece of art created digitally can still be displayed traditionally

  • By explaining that it’s actually much harder to use a tablet and stylus to create art than to use paint and a brush

  • By insisting that digital art requires artistic abilities and skill even if it employs less traditional tools

  • By admitting that most digital artists don’t think fundamental drawing skills are important

ID: ab56a107 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it reflects how the author of Text 2 would respond to the claims in Text 1. Both texts address skills needed to produce digital art. Text 1 claims that digital art doesn’t require the same amount of skill as creating physical art and that “the technology is doing most of the work.” Text 2 states that digital art requires “knowing the fundamentals of art” and that many digital artists begin their work on paper and then transfer it to a digital format using “sophisticated software” and “a variety of colors and techniques.” Therefore, the author of Text 2 would most likely insist that digital art requires artistic abilities even if it employs less traditional tools.

Choice A is incorrect because neither text discusses nondigital means of displaying art. Choice B is incorrect because the author of Text 2 doesn’t address whether it’s harder to use a tablet and stylus than it is to use paint and a brush. Text 2 does argue that digital art requires skills that aren’t part of the traditional methods for producing art, but the text doesn’t address relative difficulty. Choice D is incorrect because the author of Text 2 states that digital artists still need to know “the fundamentals of art” and that many digital artists begin their work by drafting on paper before transferring the work to a digital format.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID f773a56b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: f773a56b

As Mexico’s first president from an Indigenous community, Benito Juarez became one of the most blank figures in his country’s history: among the many significant accomplishments of his long tenure in office (1858–1872), Juarez consolidated the authority of the national government and advanced the rights of Indigenous peoples.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • unpredictable

  • important

  • secretive

  • ordinary

ID: f773a56b Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Juarez. In this context, “important” means marked by significant work or consequence. The text indicates that Juarez, who was the first president of Mexico from an Indigenous community, became a certain kind of figure in Mexico’s history. It then supports that claim by describing some of the “many significant accomplishments” from Juarez’s long tenure in office. This context conveys that Juarez is a significant and consequential figure in Mexico’s history.

Choice A is incorrect because the text focuses on Juarez’s role as the first president of Mexico from an Indigenous community and on his many major accomplishments during his lengthy time in office; nothing in the text suggests that Juarez was “unpredictable,” or tended to behave in ways that couldn’t be predicted. Choice C is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that Juarez was a particularly “secretive” figure, or that he tended to keep things private or hidden from others. Instead, the text focuses on things that are known about Juarez: that he was the first president of Mexico from an Indigenous community, that he had a lengthy tenure, and that his many major accomplishments included consolidating the national government’s authority and advancing Indigenous rights. Choice D is incorrect because the text focuses on the idea that Juarez, who was the first president of Mexico from an Indigenous community, had many major accomplishments during his lengthy time in office. Rather than suggesting that Juarez was an “ordinary,” or common and typical, figure in Mexico’s history, this context conveys that Juarez was instead a notable figure.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID f653b273

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: f653b273

 

Text 1

A tiny, unusual fossil in a piece of 99-million-year-old amber is of the extinct species Oculudentavis khaungraae. The O. khaungraae fossil consists of a rounded skull with a thin snout and a large eye socket. Because these features look like they are avian, or related to birds, researchers initially thought that the fossil might be the smallest avian dinosaur ever found.

 

Text 2

Paleontologists were excited to discover a second small fossil that is similar to the strange O. khaungraae fossil but has part of the lower body along with a birdlike skull. Detailed studies of both fossils revealed several traits that are found in lizards but not in dinosaurs or birds. Therefore, paleontologists think the two creatures were probably unusual lizards, even though the skulls looked avian at first.

Based on the texts, what would the paleontologists in Text 2 most likely say about the researchers’ initial thought in Text 1?

  • It is understandable because the fossil does look like it could be related to birds, even though O. khaungraae is probably a lizard.

  • It is confusing because it isn’t clear what caused the researchers to think that O. khaungraae might be related to birds.

  • It is flawed because the researchers mistakenly assumed that O. khaungraae must be a lizard.

  • It is reasonable because the O. khaungraae skull is about the same size as the skull of the second fossil but is shaped differently.

ID: f653b273 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it reflects what the paleontologists in Text 2 would most likely say about what the researchers in Text 1 initially thought. Text 1 focuses on the discovery of a strange fossil consisting of the skull of the extinct species Oculudentavis khaungraae. According to Text 1, the fossil has features that appear to be avian, or related to birds, which led researchers to initially think that the fossil might be a very small avian dinosaur. Text 2 begins by noting the discovery of a second fossil similar to the one discussed in Text 1, then explains that based on detailed studies of both fossils, paleontologists think that the two creatures were probably unusual lizards, even though the skulls appeared avian at first. This suggests that the paleontologists in Text 2 recognize that the fossils do indeed look like they could be related to birds. For this reason, the paleontologists in Text 2 would most likely say that the initial thought of the researchers in Text 1—that the fossil was avian—is understandable, even if the fossil is probably not avian but rather is from a lizard.

Choice B is incorrect because Text 2 indicates that the fossils initially looked avian, so the paleontologists described in Text 2 wouldn’t be confused by the researchers in Text 1 initially thinking that O. khaungraae might be related to birds. The paleontologists would find that initial thought understandable, not confusing. Choice C is incorrect because Text 1 never mentions lizards, so it wouldn’t make sense for the paleontologists in Text 2 to say that the researchers in Text 1 mistakenly assumed that O. khaungraae must be a lizard. Choice D is incorrect. Although the paleontologists in Text 2 might agree that the initial thought of the researchers in Text 1 was reasonable, nothing in Text 2 suggests that the two skulls were shaped differently.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 7afb470b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 7afb470b

Diadromous fish migrate between freshwater and marine biomes during their life cycle. The migration’s obligate nature is why diadromous fish can be blank those that are merely euryhaline (able to tolerate high salinity): the euryhaline blackchin tilapia can survive high salinity, but its life cycle does not involve relocation to a different biome, as does that of the diadromous wild salmon.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • demarcated from

  • reconstituted as

  • conflated with

  • derived from

ID: 7afb470b Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of diadromous fish. In this context, "demarcated from" means separate or set apart from. The text indicates that diadromous fish differ from euryhaline fish in that diadromous fish "migrate between freshwater and marine biomes during their life," whereas euryhaline fish do not relocate to a different biome because they can tolerate higher salinity environments. Therefore, this context suggests that because of differences between their migration patterns, diadromous fish are distinct and can be demarcated from euryhaline fish.

Choice B is incorrect. Although the text states that diadromous fish migrate and relocate, the text does not suggest that diadromous fish would be "reconstituted as," or formed again as, anything new. Only their environments change and not the fish themselves. Choice C is incorrect because the text does not suggest that diadromous fish can be "conflated with," or combined with, euryhaline fish. Instead, the text distinguishes the two types of fish by pointing out their differences with regard to migration and tolerance for salinity. Choice D is incorrect because the text indicates that based on migration habits and tolerance for salinity, diadromous fish are different from euryhaline fish; so it would not make logical sense to say that diadromous fish would be "derived from," or be an extension of or result from, euryhaline fish.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 5e732e67

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 5e732e67

Many films from the early 1900s have been lost. These losses include several films by the first wave of Black women filmmakers. We know about these lost movies only from small pieces of evidence. For example, an advertisement for Jennie Louise Touissant Welcome’s documentary Doing Their Bit still exists. There’s a reference in a magazine to Tressie Souders’s film A Woman’s Error. And Maria P. Williams’s The Flames of Wrath is mentioned in a letter and a newspaper article, and one image from the movie was discovered in the 1990s.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • The text identifies a complex problem, then presents examples of unsuccessful attempts to solve that problem. 

  • The text summarizes a debate among researchers, then gives reasons for supporting one side in that debate. 

  • The text describes a general situation, then illustrates that situation with specific examples.

  • The text discusses several notable individuals, then explains commonly overlooked differences between those individuals. 

ID: 5e732e67 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The first three sentences describe the general situation: these early films have been lost, and we only know about them from small pieces of evidence. The rest of the text offers specific examples of the small pieces of evidence.

Choice A is incorrect. This isn’t the overall structure. The fact that we only know about these lost early films from small pieces of evidence isn’t presented as a “complex problem”—that’s too extreme. And the examples presented are not “unsuccessful attempts” to solve it. If anything, the examples represent a success, because we discovered that these films existed in the first place. Choice B is incorrect. This isn’t the overall structure. There’s no “debate” presented in the text, so there’s no “side” for the text to support. Choice D is incorrect. This isn’t the overall structure. The text doesn’t discuss any “differences” between the filmmakers.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID d9e55268

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: d9e55268

The following text is adapted from Louise Erdrich’s 2020 novel The Night Watchman. Louis Pipestone is collecting signatures for a petition from fellow members of the Turtle Mountain Band of Chippewa on the tribe’s reservation in North Dakota.

Louis Pipestone tended the petition like a garden. He kept it with him at all times. In town, his eyes sharpened when he noticed a tribal member who hadn’t yet signed. Wherever they were—at the gas pump, mercantile [general store], at Henry’s [Café], on the road, or outside the clinic and hospital—Louis cornered them. If they were waiting for a baby to be born, he’d have them sign. If they were laughing, if they were arguing. If they were taking a child home from school, they signed.

©2020 by Louise Erdrich

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To suggest that some tribal members refuse to sign the petition because they dislike Louis Pipestone

  • To show that attitudes toward the petition within the tribal community change over time

  • To demonstrate that most tribal members are enthusiastic about signing the petition

  • To portray Louis Pipestone’s strong commitment to collecting signatures for the petition

ID: d9e55268 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately states the text’s main purpose. The text indicates that Louis always had his petition with him, asked everyone he encountered to sign it if they hadn’t already, and lists several comical circumstances in which he might try to get someone to sign. Thus, the main purpose of the text is to illustrate Louis’s dedicated focus on getting people to sign the petition.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text suggests that Louis was aggressive in seeking signatures for the petition—for example, saying that he "cornered" people—nothing in the text addresses how those people feel toward Louis, let alone that they are refusing his request. Choice B is incorrect because, other than portraying Louis’s commitment to gathering signatures, the text doesn’t discuss community members’ attitudes toward Louis or the petition. Choice C is incorrect because the text never mentions the attitudes of the people Louis approaches toward the petition, but the text does indicate that he "cornered" prospective signatories, strongly suggesting that their enthusiasm was neither needed nor considered.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID faee8ec7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: faee8ec7

Text 1

It seems clear that emotional contagion (the unintentional transfer of an emotional state from one person to another) requires physical interaction and the observation of body language. After all, research shows that talking to someone who is smiling and expressing positive feelings often causes people to respond in a comparably positive way. Similarly, displays of nervous fidgeting have been found to prompt others to begin behaving more nervously, too.

 

Text 2

In an experiment using a social networking service, Zeyao Yang and Emilio Ferrara found evidence of emotional contagion in text-based online interactions. The researchers discovered that reading social media posts that expressed a positive outlook led people to make more positive posts themselves, while posts with a negative emotional tone led people to make more negative posts.

Based on the texts, what would the researchers in Text 2 most likely say about the claim underlined in Text 1?

  • It perpetuates a flawed understanding of emotional contagion, because there isn’t enough evidence to suggest that smiling is a sign of emotional contagion.

  • It reflects an incomplete view of emotional contagion, because this phenomenon can occur even without in-person interaction.

  • It’s fairly persuasive, because studies attempting to identify emotional contagion in situations without in-person interaction have thus far yielded unclear results.

  • It’s mostly accurate, because the social networking study confirmed that emotional contagion primarily occurs in response to negative emotions like nervousness.

ID: faee8ec7 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it represents how the researchers in Text 2 would most likely respond to the underlined claim in Text 1. Text 1 begins by asserting that the unintended transfer of feelings from one person to another, known as emotional contagion, seems to rely on both people being physically present and able to observe body language. Text 1 then references research that supports this assertion. Text 2 describes an experiment conducted by the researchers Yang and Ferrara in which they found evidence of emotional contagion in the absence of physical interaction, namely through text-based interactions on social media. The researchers in Text 2 wouldn’t completely agree with what is asserted in the underlined portion of Text 1 (that emotional contagion seems to require physical proximity), because their study, which used a social media networking service, found that physical interaction isn’t the only way that emotional contagion can take place. Thus, the researchers in Text 2 would most likely respond to the underlined claim in Text 1 by stating that it reflects an incomplete view of emotional contagion, because the phenomenon can occur without an in-person interaction.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the researchers in Text 2 would likely agree that the underlined statement in Text 1 perpetuates a flawed conclusion that emotional contagion requires physical interaction, Text 2 doesn’t address what the researchers thought about smiling as a sign of emotional contagion. Choice C is incorrect because the researchers in Text 2 wouldn’t say that the underlined claim in Text 1 is fairly persuasive. According to Text 2, the researchers conducted a study that found emotional contagion didn’t require physical interaction, because they found evidence of it in text-based online interactions. Choice D is incorrect because neither of the texts claim that emotional contagion primarily occurs when a person is exposed to negativity. Instead, Text 1 claims that physical interaction is required for emotional contagion to occur, and Text 2 describes a study that suggests emotional contagion can occur in text-based online interactions.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID c19b2f77

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: c19b2f77

Text 1

Little is known about how plate tectonics—wherein slabs of Earth’s crust move over, under, away from, and against one another—began. Some researchers contend that tectonic movements began around 3 billion years ago, often noting that computer models of Earth’s mantle temperature at the time indicate that the mantle would have been sufficiently molten to enable the plates to move.

 

Text 2

Ultimately, any plausible claim about the inception of tectonic movement must rest on empirical evidence from the geological record. Researcher Wriju Chowdhury and his team analyzed the geochemistry of zircon crystals to gain insight into the chemical composition of the magma from which the crystals formed and, based on the data, compellingly argue that plate tectonics may have been occurring as early as 4.2 billion years ago.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely respond to what “some researchers contend” as described in Text 1?

  • By suggesting that the temperature of Earth’s mantle 3 billion years ago was likely insufficient to allow for the level of tectonic movement predicted by computer models

  • By distinguishing between computer models of Earth’s mantle temperature that reliably predict the onset of plate tectonics and those that do not

  • By indicating that computer models of Earth’s mantle temperature are still being improved such that new models tend to be much more reliable than their predecessors

  • By asserting that a more definitive form of evidence than the computer models suggests a different timeline for the onset of plate tectonics on Earth

ID: c19b2f77 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it reflects how the author of Text 2 would most likely respond to what the researchers mentioned in Text 1 contend. Text 1 discusses the lack of knowledge of how plate tectonics on Earth began. Text 1 also mentions researchers who contend that movements of tectonic plates began around 3 billion years ago. As support for this assertion, these researchers cite computer models (which are simulations, not empirical evidence) of the temperature in Earth’s mantle that show that at that time, the mantle would have been sufficiently molten for plates to move. However, the author of Text 2 asserts that empirical evidence from the geological record is necessary to make plausible claims about when tectonic movement began. Text 2 mentions an analysis performed by Wriju Chowdhury and his team of the geochemistry of zircon crystals (which would constitute empirical evidence). Chowdhury and his team argue, based on this analysis, that tectonic plates may have begun to move as early as 4.2 billion years ago. Therefore, since the author of Text 2 would consider Chowdhury et al.’s empirical evidence to be more conclusive than the computer models cited in Text 1, the author of Text 2 would most likely assert that a more definitive form of evidence than the computer models suggests a different timeline for the onset of plate tectonics on Earth.

Choice A is incorrect because the author of Text 2 makes no claims about the temperature of Earth’s mantle and therefore wouldn’t argue that the temperature of Earth’s mantle 3 billion years ago was insufficient to allow tectonic movement. Choice B is incorrect because the author of Text 2 claims that empirical evidence is needed to fix the earliest date of tectonic movement. Computer models are simulations, not empirical evidence, so the author of Text 2 wouldn’t distinguish between different kinds of computer models but would instead argue that no computer models can reliably predict the onset of plate tectonics. Choice C is incorrect because the author of Text 2 wouldn’t consider any computer model to be able to provide evidence to support a plausible claim about tectonic movement, no matter how much such models were improved. The author of Text 2 would only accept empirical evidence.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 14b7dced

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 14b7dced

The following text is from Walt Whitman’s 1860 poem “Calamus 24.”

I HEAR it is charged against me that I seek to destroy institutions;

But really I am neither for nor against institutions

(What indeed have I in common with them?—Or what with the destruction of them?),

Only I will establish in the Mannahatta [Manhattan] and in every city of These States, inland and seaboard,

And in the fields and woods, and above every keel [ship] little or large, that dents the water,

Without edifices, or rules, or trustees, or any argument,

The institution of the dear love of comrades.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • The speaker questions an increasingly prevalent attitude, then summarizes his worldview.

  • The speaker regrets his isolation from others, then predicts a profound change in society.

  • The speaker concedes his personal shortcomings, then boasts of his many achievements.

  • The speaker addresses a criticism leveled against him, then announces a grand ambition of his.

ID: 14b7dced Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it best describes the overall structure of the text. The speaker begins by stating that he has heard that others are accusing him of seeking to destroy institutions. The speaker then addresses this criticism by stating that he is “neither for nor against institutions.” Instead, the speaker states that his ultimate goal is to instill “the institution of the dear love of comrades” everywhere in the country. Therefore, the overall structure of the text is best described as an address of criticism followed by an announcement of a grand ambition.

Choice A is incorrect. While the speaker does address an opinion of him that he believes to be untrue, he doesn’t indicate that this attitude has become increasingly prevalent. The speaker also concludes by explaining his goal for the future rather than his current worldview. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t portray the speaker as isolated or regretful, and the speaker gestures toward a hope for societal change but doesn’t offer an explicit prediction that it will happen. Choice C is incorrect because the speaker addresses a criticism of him that he believes to be false; he doesn’t admit any personal shortcomings. Moreover, the speaker concludes by stating a goal he has rather than showcasing his achievements.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 3118ca93

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 3118ca93

The fashion resale market, in which consumers purchase secondhand clothing from stores and online sellers, generated nearly $30 billion globally in 2019. Expecting to see continued growth, some analysts blank that revenues will more than double by 2028.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • produced

  • denied

  • worried

  • predicted

ID: 3118ca93 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the fashion resale market’s continued growth. As used in this context, “predicted” means forecast, or indicated that something would happen in the future. The text indicates that the fashion resale market made a lot of money in 2019 and that some analysts expected the market to continue to grow. This context suggests that the analysts believed that the fashion resale market was going to make more money than it had already made, with the analysts indicating that revenues would more than double by 2028.

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context to say that some analysts “produced,” or manufactured or brought about, the increase in future revenues of the fashion resale market. The analysts themselves couldn’t have brought about the future revenue growth, since, as the text suggests, they were merely in the position of drawing conclusions about future fashion resale market revenue based on 2019 revenue. Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that some analysts expected the fashion resale market to continue to grow in the future, not that they “denied,” or rejected, this notion. Nothing in the text supports the idea that these analysts thought the revenues wouldn’t grow. Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates that some analysts expected the fashion resale market to continue to grow in the future, not that they “worried,” or felt concerned, that revenue would significantly increase by 2028. Nothing in the text suggests that the analysts felt concerned about the increase; rather, the text suggests that the increase would represent a favorable outcome, since it would mean that the fashion resale market grew to generate even more revenue.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 21d95d1d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 21d95d1d

Ofelia Zepeda’s contributions to the field of linguistics are blank: her many accomplishments include working as a linguistics professor and bilingual poet, authoring the first Tohono O’odham grammar book, and co-founding the American Indian Language Development Institute.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • pragmatic

  • controversial

  • extensive

  • universal

ID: 21d95d1d Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of how Ofelia Zepeda has contributed to the field of linguistics. As used in this context, “extensive” means having a wide or considerable extent. The text indicates that Zepeda’s many accomplishments in linguistics are varied, including teaching linguistics, writing poetry in more than one language, creating a grammar book, and co-founding a language institute. This context supports the idea that Zepeda’s contributions to the field are extensive.

Choice A is incorrect because the sentence presents Zepeda’s accomplishments as examples to support the claim made in the first part of the sentence. It wouldn’t make sense to say that achievements as a professor, poet and author, and co-founder of a language institute demonstrate that Zepeda’s contributions in her field are “pragmatic,” or related to practical matters and not involving intellectual or artistic matters. Choice B is incorrect because the sentence presents Zepeda’s accomplishments as a professor, poet and author, and co-founder of a language institute as examples to support the claim made in the first part of the sentence. There’s no reason to believe that the positive achievements listed demonstrate that Zepeda’s contributions in her field are “controversial,” or have caused disputes and opposing viewpoints. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, “universal” would mean including or covering everything in a group. The sentence presents Zepeda’s accomplishments as examples to support the claim made in the first part of the sentence, and it wouldn’t make sense to say that these specific achievements—particularly as the author of a grammar book specific to the Tohono O’odham language—demonstrate that Zepeda’s contributions relate to everything in the field of linguistics.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID b622fb78

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: b622fb78

The following text is from the 1913 story “The King’s Coin” by Emily Pauline Johnson, a Kanienkahagen (Mohawk) writer also known as Tekahionwake. Fox-Foot, a young Ojibwe man, is guiding a group of fur traders who are traveling by canoe and suspects that they are being followed. 

At supper time, Fox-Foot would allow no fire to be built, no landing to be made, no trace of their passing to be left. They ate canned meat and marmalade, drank again of the stream and pushed on, until just at dusk they reached the edge of a long, still lake, with shores of granite and dense fir forest.

As used in the text, what does the word “trace” most nearly mean?

  • Evidence

  • Blemish

  • Amount

  • Sketch

ID: b622fb78 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because the text indicates that Fox-Foot doesn’t let the group build a fire or create a canoe landing when it’s time for supper. This context suggests that he doesn’t want anyone who might be following the group to see any sign of them or their activities. In other words, Fox-Foot doesn’t want there to be any trace, or evidence, of the group’s movements ("their passing") through the area.

Choice B is incorrect because the text conveys that Fox-Foot doesn’t want the group to be detected, not that he doesn’t want their presence to create a blemish, or a spoiling flaw, in the area; human activity could disturb a natural environment, but the context emphasizes that Fox-Foot is instead focused on avoiding giving any sign of the group’s movements through a place ("their passing") to anyone who might be following them. Choice C is incorrect because the text focuses on Fox-Foot’s desire to avoid detection by those who might be following the group. This context conveys that Fox-Foot doesn’t want to create any signs or evidence of the group moving through a place ("their passing"), not that he doesn’t want to leave behind some quantity of their presence; indeed, it isn’t clear what an amount of a group’s movement would be. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that the group has a sketch, or rough drawing, of their movements through that area ("their passing") that might be left behind. Rather, the context emphasizes that Fox-Foot is focused on ensuring that the group doesn’t give any kind of indication of their presence, as he wants to avoid detection by anyone who might be following the group.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 56ec23a0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 56ec23a0

Hiroshi Senju is known worldwide for his paintings of waterfalls. These paintings are large and tend not to show the entire waterfall.  Instead, Senju focuses on just the point where the falling water reaches the pool below, keeping the top of the waterfall out of view. While Senju’s paintings are rooted in art movements originating in the United States, the artist uses traditional Japanese techniques and materials that make his work instantly recognizable.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • It introduces an artist and then explains some common characteristics of well-known paintings by that artist.

  • It explains a specific painting technique and then provides examples of artists who use the technique.

  • It describes a famous painting and then compares it to a lesser-known painting from the same time period. 

  • It gives an opinion on an artist and then suggests multiple reasons why the artist’s work has been largely overlooked.

ID: 56ec23a0 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The first sentence introduces Senju as a famous artist, while the next three sentences describe the defining features of his art, such as it only showing part of the waterfall and its origins in US art movements and Japanese techniques.

Choice B is incorrect. The text doesn’t provide examples of any other artists who use Senju’s techniques. Choice C is incorrect. The text doesn’t describe any single famous painting or make comparisons between paintings. Choice D is incorrect. The text doesn’t provide an opinion on Senju (just facts), nor does it suggest that his art has been overlooked—in fact, it states that he is “known worldwide.”

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID a318c1ef

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: a318c1ef

The Cambrian explosion gets its name from the sudden appearance and rapid diversification of animal remains in the fossil record about 541 million years ago, during the Cambrian period. Some scientists argue that this blank change in the fossil record might be because of a shift in many organisms to body types that were more likely to be preserved.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • catastrophic

  • elusive

  • abrupt

  • imminent

ID: a318c1ef Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically and precisely completes the text’s discussion of the fossil record from the Cambrian period. In this context, “abrupt” means sudden. The text explains that the fossil record reflects the unexpected appearance and rapid diversification, or increase in variety, of animal remains during the Cambrian period. This context establishes that these remains’ entry into the fossil record was sudden.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the word “explosion” appears in the name of the event marked by the fossil record change, the text never suggests that the change was “catastrophic,” or disastrous. In context, “explosion” refers to the rapid diversification, or the swift increase in variety, of animal remains in the fossil record—a phenomenon that the text presents in a relatively neutral manner, without commenting on whether it was negative or positive. Choice B is incorrect because the text never suggests that the change toward greater diversification is “elusive,” or difficult to locate, in the fossil record. Rather, the text notes that the change occurred about 541 million years ago, suggesting that scientists have indeed been able to locate it. Choice D is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context to describe the change in the fossil record as “imminent,” or about to occur, since the text indicates that the change already occurred millions of years ago.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID e56b66e5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: e56b66e5

Set in a world where science fiction tropes exist as everyday realities, Charles Yu’s 2010 novel How to Live Safely in a Science Fictional Universe traces a time traveler’s quest to find his father. Because the journey at the novel’s center is so blank, with the protagonist ricocheting chaotically across time, the reader often wonders whether the pair will ever be reunited.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • haphazard

  • premeditated

  • inspirational

  • fruitless

ID: e56b66e5 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Yu’s novel. In this context, “haphazard” means marked by a lack of plan or order. The text indicates that the quest featured in the novel, which involves the protagonist bouncing across time, is chaotic and causes the reader to often wonder what will happen. This context suggests that the protagonist’s journey seems to be marked by a lack of order.

Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that the journey featured in Yu’s novel involves a character “ricocheting chaotically,” or bouncing in a disordered way, across time and causes the reader to often wonder what will happen. It wouldn’t make sense to say that a chaotic journey seems “premeditated,” or characterized by forethought and planning. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t give any indication that readers regard the journey in Yu’s novel as “inspirational,” or as causing extraordinarily creative or brilliant thoughts or actions; instead, the text focuses on the idea that the protagonist’s journey is chaotic, or disordered, and doesn’t give readers a clear sense of what will happen. Choice D is incorrect. Rather than suggesting that the journey featured in Yu’s novel is “fruitless,” or has an unsuccessful outcome, the text focuses on the idea that while reading about the protagonist’s chaotic movements across time, readers are often unsure of what will happen—that is, they don’t know whether the protagonist will be successful in finding his father.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID bce627d9

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: bce627d9

Mineralogical differences are detectable in samples collected from two locations on the near-Earth asteroid Ryugu, but such differences may not indicate substantial compositional variations in the asteroid. Cosmochemist Kazuhide Nagashima and colleagues note that at the small scale of the samples, the distribution of minerals is unlikely to be blank.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • neglected

  • redundant

  • ongoing

  • uniform

ID: bce627d9 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The text tells us that the samples are too "small scale" to reflect the composition of the asteroid, which probably doesn’t show the same variation on a large scale. This suggests that the mineral composition of the samples are unlikely to be exactly the same from sample to sample.

Choice A is incorrect. "Neglected" means "suffering a lack of proper care" or "abandoned," which doesn’t work here. The text never suggests that the distribution of minerals in the samples would be neglected, so this statement doesn’t logically follow. Choice B is incorrect. "Redundant" means "not or no longer useful or needed," which is too strong. The text doesn’t suggest that the variation between the samples isn’t a useful finding at all—just that we can’t assume that the large-scale composition of the asteroid will show the same variation. But the composition of the samples might be useful for something else. Choice C is incorrect. "Ongoing" means "still in progress," which doesn’t make sense: the distribution of minerals in a sample can’t be "ongoing."

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID f83f0aab

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: f83f0aab

Some scientists have suggested that mammals in the Mesozoic era were not a very blank group, but paleontologist Zhe-Xi Luo’s research suggests that early mammals living in the shadow of dinosaurs weren’t all ground-dwelling insectivores. Fossils of various plant-eating mammals have been found in China, including species like Vilevolodon diplomylos, which Luo says could glide like a flying squirrel.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • predatory

  • obscure

  • diverse

  • localized

ID: f83f0aab Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the kinds of mammals alive during the Mesozoic era. As used in this context, “diverse” means to have a significant amount of variety. The text indicates that some scientists have suggested that Mesozoic mammals can’t be characterized in a certain way, then contrasts the view put forward by those scientists with Luo’s research, which shows that Mesozoic mammals “weren’t all ground-dwelling insectivores” and instead were “various.” This context suggests that some scientists have viewed Mesozoic mammals as being all alike, or not a very diverse group. 

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that some scientists have suggested that Mesozoic mammals weren’t very “predatory,” or that they didn’t prey on other animals, since the text establishes a contrast between what some scientists have suggested and Luo’s research showing that Mesozoic mammals “weren’t all ground-dwelling insectivores.” This context suggests that some scientists have regarded Mesozoic mammals as all being insectivores, or animals that prey on insects, not that some scientists have suggested that Mesozoic mammals didn’t prey on other animals. Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that some scientists have suggested that Mesozoic mammals weren’t very “obscure,” or concealed or not well known, since the text establishes a contrast between what some scientists have suggested and Luo’s research showing that Mesozoic mammals were a varied group. There’s no contrast between saying that the mammals weren’t concealed or well known and the mammals being varied. Choice D is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that some scientists have suggested that Mesozoic mammals weren’t very “localized,” or confined to a particular area, since the text establishes a contrast between what some scientists have suggested and Luo’s research showing that Mesozoic mammals were a varied group. There’s no contrast between saying that the mammals weren’t localized and the mammals being varied. Although the text mentions mammal fossils found in China, nothing in the discussion of Luo’s research addresses the limits of Mesozoic mammal habitats. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID be947479

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: be947479

Jazz tap is a dance form that was first developed in African American communities. Jazz tap was heavily influenced by jazz music, which became widely popular in the United States in the 1920s. Tap dancers were inspired by jazz music’s quick rhythms and by the way jazz musicians would make up melodies as they played. As jazz music continued to develop in the 1930s and 1940s, jazz tap evolved with it. Because of jazz music’s influence, jazz tap quickly developed into a dance form that was very different from earlier kinds of tap dance.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • It explains why audiences prefer some kinds of music over others.

  • It discusses the development of a dance form.

  • It describes how to play a musical instrument.

  • It emphasizes the popularity of a famous dancer.

ID: be947479 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it best describes the main purpose of the text. The text indicates where and when jazz tap first developed (in African American communities in the 1920s) and what influenced it (the quick rhythms and improvisations in jazz music) and then explains that it evolved alongside jazz music in the 1930s and 1940s, resulting in a very different form of tap dance than had existed before. Therefore, the main purpose of the text is to discuss jazz tap’s development.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text indicates that jazz music became widely popular in the US in the 1920s and describes some of jazz music’s qualities, the text never explains why audiences prefer some kinds of music—jazz or otherwise—over others. Choice C is incorrect because the text never mentions any musical instruments and doesn’t describe how to play one. Choice D is incorrect because the text discusses jazz tap generally and never identifies a particular dancer, famous or otherwise.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID d5235d39

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: d5235d39

The Mule Bone, a 1930 play written by Zora Neale Hurston and Langston Hughes, is perhaps the best-known of the few examples of blank in literature. Most writers prefer working alone, and given that working together cost Hurston and Hughes their friendship, it is not hard to see why.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • characterization

  • interpretation

  • collaboration

  • commercialization

ID: d5235d39 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it logically and precisely completes the text’s discussion of The Mule Bone, a play that Zora Neale Hurston and Langston Hughes wrote together. In this context, “collaboration” means working together with someone to write a literary work. The text indicates that most writers prefer to work alone and that working together destroyed the friendship between Hurston and Hughes. This establishes that The Mule Bone is a relatively rare example of collaboration in literature.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, “characterization” would mean a literary work’s portrayal of characters’ psychological experiences and motivations, but the text doesn’t discuss characterization in The Mule Bone specifically or in collaborative works more generally. Choice B is incorrect because in this context, “interpretation” would mean the explanation of a literary work’s meaning or significance, but the text doesn’t discuss how readers or critics have interpreted The Mule Bone; instead, the text discusses how the play was written collaboratively and how the writing process affected the two authors. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, “commercialization” would mean writing a literary work in such a way as to ensure its commercial appeal, but the text never discusses commercial appeal as a factor in the writing of The Mule Bone specifically or the writing of collaborative works more generally.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 1fbf276a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 1fbf276a

Interruptions in the supply chain for microchips used in personal electronics have challenged an economist’s assertion that retailers can expect robust growth in sales of those devices in the coming months. The delays are unlikely to blank her projection entirely but will almost certainly extend its time frame.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • dispute

  • withdraw

  • underscore

  • invalidate

ID: 1fbf276a Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the economist’s claim about sales of personal electronic devices. In this context, “invalidate” most nearly means nullify or make invalid. The text indicates that interruptions in the supply of microchips for personal electronics “have challenged” the economist’s claim that sales of personal electronics will show strong growth in the coming months. The text goes on to clarify the effect of the delays on the economist’s projection, stating that the delays are very likely to extend the time frame over which the projected growth in sales will occur. This context suggests that the delays are unlikely to invalidate the economist’s projection entirely—the delays will probably alter the time frame of the projection, not nullify it or make it invalid.

Choice A is incorrect because saying that the delays are unlikely to “dispute,” or argue against, the economist’s projection wouldn’t make sense. Since the delays are an inanimate circumstance, they couldn’t argue against a prediction about the sales of personal electronics. Choice B is incorrect because saying that the delays are unlikely to “withdraw,” or remove from consideration, the economist’s projection wouldn’t make sense. Although the economist could withdraw her projection because of the delays, the delays themselves couldn’t withdraw her projection since they’re an inanimate circumstance and thus can’t choose to remove something from consideration. Choice C is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that the delays will “underscore,” or emphasize, the economist’s projection. Instead, the text suggests that the delays are likely to extend the time frame of the economist’s projection but not to undermine the projection entirely. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 1c6b1fa0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 1c6b1fa0

In 1801, a Blackfoot chief named Ac Ko Mok Ki drew a finely detailed map of the Upper Missouri region. This work demonstrates a vast amount of topographic knowledge, as the map features specific names of mountains and rivers, as well as the first-known sketch of the drainage network of the Missouri River. The map is especially notable because Ac Ko Mok Ki also included details about the numerous tribes that lived in the area.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • It emphasizes Ac Ko Mok Ki’s desire to represent other tribes on the map.

  • It explains how Ac Ko Mok Ki developed an interest in mapmaking.

  • It identifies some reasons why the map is impressive.

  • It details how the map was used for hunting and trading purposes.

ID: 1c6b1fa0 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it best describes how the underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. The text presents information about a map drawn by Blackfoot chief Ac Ko Mok Ki in 1801. The underlined sentence states that the map "demonstrates a vast amount of topographic knowledge" and mentions that it features the "specific names of mountains and rivers" and includes the first-known sketch of the Missouri River’s drainage network. These are all characteristics that indicate that the map was executed with remarkable skill. Thus, the underlined sentence identifies some reasons why the map is impressive.

Choice A is incorrect. Though the sentence after the underlined sentence in the text mentions that Ac Ko Mok Ki included information about other tribes on his map, the underlined sentence itself does not address this topic. Choice B is incorrect because nothing in the underlined sentence indicates how Ac Ko Mok Ki became interested in mapmaking, only that his mapmaking skills are impressive. Choice D is incorrect because though the underlined sentence describes several features of the map, it does not specifically describe how the map was used.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID f4166aae

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: f4166aae

In addition to being an accomplished psychologist himself, Francis Cecil Sumner was a blank increasing the opportunity for Black students to study psychology, helping to found the psychology department at Howard University, a historically Black university, in 1930.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • proponent of

  • supplement to

  • beneficiary of

  • distraction for

ID: f4166aae Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Francis Cecil Sumner. As used in this context, “proponent of” means supporter of. The text says that Sumner helped to found the psychology department at historically Black Howard University in 1930. This is evidence that Sumner supported increasing the opportunity for Black students to study psychology.

Choice B is incorrect because the phrase “supplement to,” or addition to, wouldn’t make sense in context. The text discusses Sumner’s efforts to increase the number of Black psychology students, but it doesn’t make sense to describe him as an addition to his efforts. Choice C is incorrect because Sumner was already an accomplished psychologist himself when he helped to found the Howard University psychology department. While Black students were the beneficiaries of his efforts—that is, they received help because of his efforts—it wouldn’t make sense in this context to describe Sumner as a “beneficiary of” opportunities, because he was the one doing the helping. Choice D is incorrect because founding a psychology department at Howard University wouldn’t be a “distraction for” Sumner’s aim to increase the opportunity for Black students to study psychology—that is, it wouldn’t be something that draws Sumner’s attention away from that goal, but rather the opposite.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 9b2fbb2e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 9b2fbb2e

Logically, a damaged fossil should provide less information than an intact one, but for paleontologist Brigitte Schoenemann, a broken area on a fossilized trilobite (a crustacean-like creature) blank fresh insight, allowing her to view the inner structure of the organism’s eye.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • resolved

  • adjusted

  • offered

  • directed

ID: 9b2fbb2e Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion about how, for Schoenemann, a damaged trilobite fossil was informative. In context, “offered” means provided or gave. The text suggests that although it may seem counterintuitive, a broken fossilized trilobite allowed Schoenemann to observe more details of the trilobite’s eye than an intact fossilized trilobite would. This context conveys the idea that a damaged fossil offered, or provided, fresh insight into the structure of a trilobite’s eye.

Choice A is incorrect because “resolved” means determined or figured out, which wouldn’t make sense in this context. The text focuses on how Schoenemann was able to get more information from a broken fossil than an intact one. Although the damaged fossil may have allowed her to determine certain information, as an inanimate object the fossil isn’t capable of resolving anything. Choice B is incorrect because saying that the broken part of a trilobite fossil “adjusted,” or changed or modified, fresh insight wouldn’t make sense in this context. The text focuses on how Schoenemann was able to get more information from a broken fossil than an intact one. This context suggests that the fossil offered fresh insight, or understanding, not that it adjusted fresh insight. Choice D is incorrect because “directed” means managed or instructed, which wouldn’t make sense in this context. The text focuses on how Schoenemann was able to get more information from a broken fossil than an intact one. This context suggests that the fossil offered fresh insight, or understanding, not that it directed fresh insight.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 1782cdd7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 1782cdd7

In many agricultural environments, the banks of streams are kept forested to protect water quality, but it’s been unclear what effects these forests may have on stream biodiversity. To investigate the issue, biologist Xingli Giam and colleagues studied an Indonesian oil palm plantation, comparing the species richness of forested streams with that of nonforested streams. Giam and colleagues found that species richness was significantly higher in forested streams, a finding the researchers attribute to the role leaf litter plays in sheltering fish from predators and providing food resources.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • It discusses research intended to settle a debate about how agricultural yields can be increased without negative effects on water quality.   

  • It explains the differences between stream-protection strategies used in oil palm plantations and stream-protection strategies used in other kinds of agricultural environments.

  • It describes findings that challenge a previously held view about how fish that inhabit streams in agricultural environments attempt to avoid predators. 

  • It presents a study that addresses an unresolved question about the presence of forests along streams in agricultural environments.

ID: 1782cdd7 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The author first describes an unresolved question: what effect do bank forests have on stream biodiversity? Then the author presents a study that answers the question: bank forests increase stream biodiversity.

Choice A is incorrect. This isn’t the main purpose of the text. The text never mentions agricultural yields. Choice B is incorrect. This isn’t the main purpose of the text. The text never mentions other kinds of agricultural environments. Choice C is incorrect. This isn’t the main purpose of the text. The text never mentions any previously held view about how fish in these streams try to avoid predators.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID d74788e1

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: d74788e1

British painter Peter Edwards has a blank painting portraits of notable figures from a variety of different fields. These characteristic works include his esteemed portraits of poet Wendy Cope and soccer player and coach Ryan Griggs.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • complaint about

  • reputation for

  • question about

  • requirement for

ID: d74788e1 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Peter Edwards as a portrait painter. In this context, having a "reputation for" something means that one is widely recognized for being associated with a particular activity. The text indicates that Edwards has created "characteristic works" including "esteemed portraits" of notable figures, suggesting he is known and respected for this type of painting. This choice clearly indicates that Edwards has established recognition or fame specifically in connection with painting portraits of well-known individuals.

Choice A is incorrect because the text presents Edwards’s portrait painting in a positive manner, describing his works as "esteemed." In this context, "complaint about" would mean dissatisfaction or grievance regarding the activity of painting portraits, which contradicts the positive characterization of Edwards’s work. Nothing in the text suggests that Edwards has expressed any dissatisfaction with or objection to painting portraits of notable figures. Choice C is incorrect because the text gives no indication that Edwards has a "question about" painting portraits, which in this context would mean uncertainty or doubt regarding this activity. Instead, the text presents Edwards as someone who has already created multiple portrait works described as "characteristic" and "esteemed," suggesting established practice rather than uncertainty. The mention of specific examples of his portrait work further demonstrates that he is not questioning his portrait painting. Choice D is incorrect because the text does not suggest that Edwards has a "requirement for" painting portraits, which in this context would mean a mandatory obligation or necessary condition. Instead, the text indicates that portrait painting is something Edwards is known for doing well, not something he is obligated to do. The text describes his portrait work as "characteristic," suggesting it’s a defining feature of his artistic practice rather than an externally imposed requirement.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 6d44060a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 6d44060a

Works of moral philosophy, such as Plato’s Republic or Aristotle’s Nicomachean Ethics, are partly concerned with how to live a morally good life. But philosopher Jonathan Barnes argues that works that present a method of living such a life without also supplying a motive are inherently useful only to those already wishing to be morally good—those with no desire for moral goodness will not choose to follow their rules. However, some works of moral philosophy attempt to describe what constitutes a morally good life while also proposing reasons for living one.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • It provides a characterization about a field of thought by noting two works in it and then details a way in which some works in that field are more comprehensive than others.

  • It mentions two renowned works and then claims that despite their popularity it is impossible for these works to serve the purpose their authors intended.

  • It summarizes the history of a field of thought by discussing two works and then proposes a topic of further research for specialists in that field.

  • It describes two influential works and then explains why one is more widely read than the other.

ID: 6d44060a Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The text starts by stating what moral philosophy is concerned with and naming two examples of works in the field. Then it describes a shortcoming of some works in that field (they say how but not why), and finally it states that other works try to avoid that shortcoming (by including both how and why to live a morally good life).

Choice B is incorrect. This is too extreme. The text never mentions whether the two works are popular or not, and it never argues that these works don’t serve their intended purpose of describing how to live a morally good life. Rather, the text claims that works of moral philosophy that don’t include both how and why to be moral are not useful to readers who don’t already want to be moral. Choice C is incorrect. This isn’t the overall structure. The text never discusses the history of moral philosophy at all, and it doesn’t propose any topic for further research. Choice D is incorrect. This isn’t the overall structure. The text never discusses which of the two works is more widely read.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 590f0ad2

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 590f0ad2

Industrial activity is often assumed to be a threat to wildlife, but that isn’t always so. Consider the silver-studded blue butterfly (Plebejus argus): as forest growth has reduced grasslands in northern Germany, many of these butterflies have left meadow habitats and are now thriving in active limestone quarries. In a survey of multiple active quarries and patches of maintained grassland, an ecologist found silver-studded blue butterflies in 100% of the quarries but only 57% of the grassland patches. Moreover, butterfly populations in the quarries were four times larger than those in the meadows.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?

  • It challenges a common assumption about the species under investigation in the research referred to in the text.

  • It introduces discussion of a specific example that supports the general claim made in the previous sentence.

  • It suggests that a certain species should be included in additional studies like the one mentioned later in the text.

  • It provides a definition for an unfamiliar term that is central to the main argument in the text.

ID: 590f0ad2 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined portion functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence presents the general claim that industrial activity is not always a threat to wildlife. The underlined portion of the sentence that follows suggests that the silver-studded blue butterfly is an example of wildlife thriving in areas of industrial activity: active limestone quarries. Thus, the function of the underlined portion is to introduce a specific example in support of the general claim in the previous sentence.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the first sentence indicates that “industrial activity is often assumed” to harm wildlife, in the case of the silver-studded blue butterfly the text mentions neither an assumption about this species nor any challenge to such an assumption. Choice C is incorrect because the text mentions only one study: the “survey.” Additional studies are not mentioned in the text. Choice D is incorrect because neither the underlined portion nor any other portion of the text provides a definition for any of the terms used in the text’s argument.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 19688783

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 19688783

The following text is from Lucy Maud Montgomery’s 1908 novel Anne of Green Gables. Anne, an eleven-year-old girl, has come to live on a farm with a woman named Marilla in Nova Scotia, Canada.

 Anne reveled in the world of color about her.

“Oh, Marilla,” she exclaimed one Saturday morning, coming dancing in with her arms full of gorgeous boughs, “I’m so glad I live in a world where there are Octobers. It would be terrible if we just skipped from September to November, wouldn’t it? Look at these maple branches. Don’t they give you a thrill—several thrills? I’m going to decorate my room with them.”

“Messy things,” said Marilla, whose aesthetic sense was not noticeably developed. “You clutter up your room entirely too much with out-of-doors stuff, Anne. Bedrooms were made to sleep in.”

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To demonstrate that Anne has a newly developed appreciation of nature

  • To describe an argument that Anne and Marilla often have

  • To emphasize Marilla’s disapproval of how Anne has decorated her room

  • To show that Anne and Marilla have very different personalities

ID: 19688783 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text. The text begins by noting that Anne “reveled in the world of color about her”—that is, she takes great delight in colorful things. It then relates a scene when she enthusiastically enters the house with autumn foliage and announces that she will decorate her room with it. The focus of the text then shifts to Marilla, who has an undeveloped “aesthetic sense,” or appreciation of beauty, as can be seen when she dismisses the maple leaves as “messy things” and criticizes Anne for cluttering her room with objects from outside. This episode thus illustrates that Anne and Marilla differ in their appreciation of beauty and, more generally, in their basic character: Anne is exuberant and joyful, while Marilla is stern and critical. Therefore, the purpose of the text is to show that Anne and Marilla have very different personalities.

Choice A is incorrect because the text presents Anne’s appreciation of nature as a basic personality trait, not as a newfound enthusiasm, and never indicates how recently she developed that appreciation. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text portrays Anne and Marilla as having different personalities and attitudes toward natural beauty and home decoration, it doesn’t show them engaging in an argument about this difference or suggest that they often argue about it. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text does indicate that Marilla disapproves of how Anne plans to decorate her room, Marilla’s disapproval is a supporting detail that serves to develop her personality, which the text as a whole contrasts with Anne’s personality.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 1107e7dc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 1107e7dc

Economists often assert that countries looking to increase their reliance on solar energy should expand their capacity for storage; having an ample reserve of stored energy can mitigate the effects of blank solar energy collection caused by unpredictable shifts in cloud cover and haze.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • developments of

  • fluctuations in

  • calibrations with

  • incentives for

ID: 1107e7dc Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of solar energy collection and storage. In this context, "fluctuations in" means irregular changes in. The text notes that economists recommend that countries that want to rely more on solar energy (energy captured from sunlight) should attempt to expand their storage capacity. The text goes on to explain that having a large amount of stored solar energy can lessen the negative effect of "unpredictable shifts in cloud cover and haze"—that is, unpredictable changes in environmental conditions that at times limit sunlight. This context suggests that having ample solar energy stored and ready to use can mitigate the issue of fluctuations in solar energy collection caused by irregular patterns of sunlight availability.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, "developments of solar energy collection" would most clearly refer to the creation of ways to collect solar energy (energy captured from sunlight). The text focuses on collection and the idea that having stored energy can mitigate, or make less bad, the effects of a problem caused by unpredictable changes that affect sunlight ("cloud cover and haze"); there’s no reason to think that the creation of new collection methods would be viewed as a problem that would need to be mitigated. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, "calibrations with" would most clearly refer to precise adjustments for a particular purpose. The text focuses on the collection of solar energy (energy captured from sunlight) and the idea that having stored energy can mitigate, or make less bad, the effects of a problem caused by unpredictable changes that affect sunlight ("cloud cover and haze"); there’s no reason to think that precision in something related to solar energy collection would be viewed as a problem that would need to be mitigated. Choice D is incorrect. The text focuses on the collection of solar energy (energy captured from sunlight) and the idea that having stored energy can mitigate, or make less bad, the effects of a problem caused by unpredictable changes that affect sunlight ("cloud cover and haze"); nothing in the text suggests that "incentives for," or rewards for, solar energy collection would be viewed as a problem that would need to be mitigated, especially in countries that want to rely more on solar energy than they already do.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID d7dccee7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: d7dccee7

In a 2019 study, Jeremy Gunawardena and colleagues found that the single-celled protozoan Stentor roeseli not only uses strategies to escape irritating stimuli but also switches strategies when one fails. This evidence of protozoans sophisticatedly “changing their minds” demonstrates that single-celled organisms may not be limited to blank behaviors.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • aggressive

  • rudimentary

  • evolving

  • advantageous

ID: d7dccee7 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of single-celled organism behavior. As used in this context, “rudimentary” means basic or unsophisticated. According to the text, a study of the single-celled protozoan Stentor roeseli showed that the organisms can switch strategies for escaping certain stimuli, “sophisticatedly ‘changing their minds’” and using new strategies should other strategies fail. This context suggests that single-celled organisms may not be limited to behaviors that are basic or rudimentary, since the study showed that single-celled protozoans can respond complexly to irritating stimuli.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that single-celled organisms may not be limited to behavior that is “aggressive,” or threatening. Rather, the text suggests that single-celled organisms may not be limited to behaviors that are basic, since the study of Stentor roeseli showed that single-celled protozoans can respond complexly to irritating stimuli. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that single-celled organisms may not be limited to behavior that is “evolving,” or advancing. Rather, the text suggests that single-celled organisms may not be limited to behaviors that are basic, since the study of Stentor roeseli showed that single-celled protozoans can respond complexly to irritating stimuli. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that single-celled organisms may not be limited to behavior that is “advantageous,” or helpful. Rather, the text suggests that single-celled organisms may not be limited to behaviors that are basic, since the study of Stentor roeseli showed that single-celled protozoans can respond complexly to irritating stimuli.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID d69bc408

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: d69bc408

The following text is adapted from Aphra Behn’s 1689 novel The Lucky Mistake. Atlante and Rinaldo are neighbors who have been secretly exchanging letters through Charlot, Atlante’s sister.

[Atlante] gave this letter to Charlot; who immediately ran into the balcony with it, where she still found Rinaldo in a melancholy posture, leaning his head on his hand: She showed him the letter, but was afraid to toss it to him, for fear it might fall to the ground; so he ran and fetched a long cane, which he cleft at one end, and held it while she put the letter into the cleft, and stayed not to hear what he said to it. But never was man so transported with joy, as he was at the reading of this letter; it gives him new wounds; for to the generous, nothing obliges love so much as love.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • It describes the delivery of a letter, and then portrays a character’s happiness at reading that letter.

  • It establishes that a character is desperate to receive a letter, and then explains why another character has not yet written that letter.

  • It presents a character’s concerns about delivering a letter, and then details the contents of that letter.

  • It reveals the inspiration behind a character’s letter, and then emphasizes the excitement that another character feels upon receiving that letter.

ID: d69bc408 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes the overall structure of the text. The narrator begins by explaining how Charlot carefully delivers Atlante’s letter to Rinaldo, and then relates that Rinaldo feels “transported with joy” after reading the letter. Therefore, the overall structure of the text is best described as a description of the delivery of a letter followed by the portrayal of a character’s happiness after reading the letter.

Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that the letter has been written; there’s no explanation why another character hasn’t written one. In addition, the text’s description of Rinaldo “in a melancholy posture” suggests that he’s sad and thoughtful, not that he’s desperate to receive the letter. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text states that Charlot won’t toss the letter to Rinaldo because she doesn’t want it to fall, the text doesn’t refer to the contents of the letter. Instead, the text describes how happy Rinaldo feels after reading it. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text does describe Rinaldo’s reaction to the letter, the text doesn’t begin by discussing Atlante’s inspiration for writing the letter. Instead, the text begins by discussing the delivery of the letter. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 22105871

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 22105871

Text 1

In a study of insect behavior, Samadi Galpayage and colleagues presented bumblebees with small wooden balls and observed many of the bees clinging to, rolling, and dragging the objects. The researchers provided no external rewards (such as food) to encourage these interactions. The bees simply appeared to be playing—and for no other reason than because they were having fun.

Text 2

Insects do not have cortexes or other brain areas associated with emotions in humans. Still, Galpayage and her team have shown that bumblebees may engage in play, possibly experiencing some kind of positive emotional state. Other studies have suggested that bees experience negative emotional states (for example, stress), but as Galpayage and her team have acknowledged, emotions in insects, if they do indeed exist, are likely very rudimentary.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely respond to the underlined portion of Text 1?

  • By objecting that the bees were actually experiencing a negative feeling akin to stress rather than a positive feeling

  • By arguing that some insects other than bumblebees may be capable of experiencing complex emotional states

  • By pointing out that even humans sometimes struggle to have fun while engaging in play

  • By noting that if the bees were truly playing, any positive feelings they may have experienced were probably quite basic

ID: 22105871 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The author of Text 2 agrees with the author of Text 1 that bumblebees may engage in play and possibly experience some kind of positive emotional state. However, the author of Text 2 also qualifies this claim by stating that emotions in insects, if they do exist, are “likely very rudimentary.”

Choice A is incorrect. While Text 2 states that other studies might indicate “negative emotional states” in bees, it does not contradict the findings from the Galpayage study—that the bees might have been having fun. Choice B is incorrect. The author of Text 2 does not mention or imply that any insects, including bumblebees, are capable of experiencing complex emotional states. The author of Text 2 states that if insects do feel emotions, those emotions are “likely very rudimentary.” Choice C is incorrect. The author of Text 2 does not compare or contrast the behavior or emotions of insects and humans, and neither does the author of Text 1.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID a1d2c4d0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: a1d2c4d0

Pteropods are small swimming snails with thin, delicate calcium carbonate shells. These animals are thought to be especially vulnerable to ocean acidification due to calcium carbonate’s susceptibility to dissolution at lower pH values. Victoria L. Peck and colleagues recently found that the periostracum (a protective coating on pteropods’ outer shells) prevents this dissolution when intact. Moreover, the team was surprised to discover that even when the periostracum is breached, pteropods can still mitigate damage by rebuilding the inner shell wall.

Which choice best describes the main purpose of the text?

  • To call for additional research on biological mechanisms that improve pteropod survival rates

  • To discuss a conclusion drawn in a study of calcium carbonate’s role in protecting the periostracum of pteropods

  • To address some of the ways ocean acidification has altered pteropod behavior over time

  • To present findings that suggest that a concern about the effects of ocean acidification on pteropod shells may be unwarranted 

ID: a1d2c4d0 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text, which is to present findings that suggest a previously held concern about the effects of ocean acidification on pteropod shells may be unwarranted. The text introduces the concern that pteropods are thought to be particularly vulnerable to ocean acidification, or lower pH levels, due to the susceptibility of their calcium carbonate shells to dissolution at lower pH levels. However, the text then describes findings from a recent study that suggest this concern may be unjustified, insofar as the protective periostracum coating on a pteropod’s shell prevents dissolution, and even when the coating is breached, a pteropod can rebuild the inner shell wall, reducing the damage.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t call for additional research or suggest that more research is needed on biological mechanisms that improve pteropod survival rates. Instead, the text discusses a recent study showing that pteropods may not be as vulnerable to ocean acidification as is feared. Choice B is incorrect because the study discussed in the text doesn’t address calcium carbonate’s role in protecting the periostracum of pteropods. According to the text, the study addresses the periostracum’s role in protecting pteropods’ calcium carbonate shells from dissolution due to ocean acidification. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t address how ocean acidification has altered pteropod behavior over time. Instead, the text focuses on the potential effects of ocean acidification on pteropods’ shells and the mechanisms protecting against those effects.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 02e49a0c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 02e49a0c

Genetic studies have led researchers to suggest that turtles are most closely related to the group that includes modern crocodiles. But studies of fossils have suggested instead that turtles are most closely related to other groups, such as the one that contains modern snakes. However, many of the fossil studies have relied on incomplete data sets. For a 2022 investigation, biologist Tiago R. Simões and colleagues examined more than 1,000 reptile fossils collected worldwide. From this large data set, they found clear agreement with the results of the genetic studies.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence?

  • It offers an overview of the tools scientists use to examine fossils.

  • It describes a limitation of some studies about the origin of turtles.

  • It summarizes previous research on the evolution of crocodiles.

  • It criticizes a widely held belief about genetic studies of reptiles.

ID: 02e49a0c Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The sentence mentions that some fossil studies have relied on incomplete data sets, suggesting that these studies are limited in what they can tell us about turtles’ origins.

Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the incompleteness of the data sets studied, it doesn’t mention any tools or techniques used to examine fossils. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence doesn’t mention anything about the evolution of crocodiles. Choice D is incorrect. This sentence doesn’t directly mention or criticize any "widely held belief," and it focuses on a limitation of fossil studies of reptiles, not genetic studies.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 27d9bb69

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 27d9bb69

Text 1

Many studies in psychology have shown that people seek out information even when they know in advance that they have no immediate use for it and that they won’t directly benefit from it. Such findings support the consensus view among researchers of curiosity: namely, that curiosity is not instrumental but instead represents a drive to acquire information for its own sake.

Text 2

While acknowledging that acquiring information is a powerful motivator, Rachit Dubey and colleagues ran an experiment to test whether emphasizing the usefulness of scientific information could increase curiosity about it. They found that when research involving rats and fruit flies was presented as having medical applications for humans, participants expressed greater interest in learning about it than when the research was not presented as useful.

Based on the texts, how would Dubey and colleagues (Text 2) most likely respond to the consensus view discussed in Text 1?

  • By suggesting that curiosity may not be exclusively motivated by the desire to merely acquire information   

  • By conceding that people may seek out information that serves no immediate purpose only because they think they can use it later     

  • By pointing out that it is challenging to determine when information-seeking serves no goal beyond acquiring information

  • By disputing the idea that curiosity can help explain apparently purposeless information-seeking behaviors

ID: 27d9bb69 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The researchers in Text 2 recognize that acquiring information is a powerful motivator, but showed that this motivation can still be affected by other factors, like whether or not the information is expected to be useful or not. This suggests that other desires may play a part in driving people to acquire information.

Choice B is incorrect. The consensus view in Text 1 is that people acquire information regardless of whether they think they can use it later. Dubey and colleagues acknowledge this fact (so they don’t claim people seek out information “only” because it might be useful later). Choice C is incorrect. This choice misreads the results of Dubey and colleagues’ study in Text 2. Neither text discusses the difficulty of determining the motivation for information-seeking. Choice D is incorrect. This choice contradicts Text 2, which starts with Dubey and colleagues “acknowledging that acquiring information is a powerful motivator” (i.e., agreeing that curiosity explains the seeking of apparently purposeless information). The research in Text 2 simply suggests that more than just curiosity can motivate information-seeking behavior when the information has a purpose.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID c885c38b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: c885c38b

 

Text 1

Conventional wisdom long held that human social systems evolved in stages, beginning with hunter-gatherers forming small bands of members with roughly equal status. The shift to agriculture about 12,000 years ago sparked population growth that led to the emergence of groups with hierarchical structures: associations of clans first, then chiefdoms, and finally, bureaucratic states.

 

Text 2

In a 2021 book, anthropologist David Graeber and archaeologist David Wengrow maintain that humans have always been socially flexible, alternately forming systems based on hierarchy and collective ones with decentralized leadership. The authors point to evidence that as far back as 50,000 years ago some hunter-gatherers adjusted their social structures seasonally, at times dispersing in small groups but also assembling into communities that included esteemed individuals.

Based on the texts, how would Graeber and Wengrow (Text 2) most likely respond to the “conventional wisdom” presented in Text 1?

  • By conceding the importance of hierarchical systems but asserting the greater significance of decentralized collective societies

  • By disputing the idea that developments in social structures have followed a linear progression through distinct stages

  • By acknowledging that hierarchical roles likely weren’t a part of social systems before the rise of agriculture

  • By challenging the assumption that groupings of hunter-gatherers were among the earliest forms of social structure

ID: c885c38b Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it describes the most likely way that Graeber and Wengrow (Text 2) would respond to the “conventional wisdom” presented in Text 1. According to Text 1, the conventional wisdom about human social systems is that they developed through stages, beginning with hunter-gatherer bands, then moving to clan associations, then chiefdoms, and finally arriving at states with bureaucratic structures. Text 2 indicates that Graeber and Wengrow believe that human social systems have been flexible, shifting between different types of structures, including both hierarchical and collective systems, and that these shifts may have even occurred seasonally. This suggests that Graeber and Wengrow would dispute the idea that developments in social structures have followed a linear progression through distinct stages. 

Choice A is incorrect because nothing in Text 2 suggests that Graeber and Wengrow believe that decentralized collective societies are more significant than hierarchical systems. Text 2 is focused on Graeber and Wengrow’s view that humans have flexibly shifted among various social structures, not on the importance of particular structures relative to others. Choice C is incorrect because Text 2 doesn’t include any information suggesting that Graeber and Wengrow believe that hierarchies didn’t emerge until after the rise of agriculture. In fact, Text 2 indicates that Graeber and Wengrow cite evidence suggesting that some hunter-gatherer groups formed social structures with hierarchical elements (“communities that included esteemed individuals”) 50,000 years ago, long before the rise of agriculture, which Text 1 says occurred around 12,000 years ago. Choice D is incorrect because there’s no information in Text 2 suggesting that Graeber and Wengrow would challenge the assumption that groupings of hunter-gatherers were among the earliest forms of social structure. Although Text 1 does indicate that hunter-gatherer groups are assumed to be the earliest human social system, Text 2 says only that Graeber and Wengrow believe that some hunter-gatherer groups made use of different social structures at different times. Text 2 doesn’t imply that Graeber and Wengrow doubt that hunter-gatherer groups preceded most other social structures.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID de2c2f57

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: de2c2f57

Text 1

The fossil record suggests that mammoths went extinct around 11 thousand years (kyr) ago. In a 2021 study of environmental DNA (eDNA)—genetic material shed into the environment by organisms—in the Arctic, Yucheng Wang and colleagues found mammoth eDNA in sedimentary layers formed millennia later, around 4 kyr ago. To account for this discrepancy, Joshua H. Miller and Carl Simpson proposed that arctic temperatures could preserve a mammoth carcass on the surface, allowing it to leach DNA into the environment, for several thousand years.

Text 2

Wang and colleagues concede that eDNA contains DNA from both living organisms and carcasses, but for DNA to leach from remains over several millennia requires that the remains be perpetually on the surface. Scavengers and weathering in the Arctic, however, are likely to break down surface remains well before a thousand years have passed.

Which choice best describes how Text 1 and Text 2 relate to each other?

  • Text 1 discusses two approaches to studying mammoth extinction without advocating for either, whereas Text 2 advocates for one approach over the other.

  • Text 1 presents findings by Wang and colleagues and gives another research team’s attempt to explain those findings, whereas Text 2 provides additional detail that calls that explanation into question.

  • Text 1 describes Wang and colleagues’ study and a critique of their methodology, whereas Text 2 offers additional details showing that methodology to be sound.

  • Text 1 argues that new research has undermined the standard view of when mammoths went extinct, whereas Text 2 suggests a way to reconcile the standard view with that new research.

ID: de2c2f57 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. Text 1 introduces Wang and colleagues’ study and its surprising results, and then mentions Miller and Simpson’s hypothesis as a possible way to explain them. Text 2, however, challenges Miller and Simpson’s hypothesis by pointing out the difficulties of preserving mammoth carcasses on the surface for thousands of years: “scavengers and weathering” are the additional details that complicate the Miller/Simpson hypothesis.

Choice A is incorrect. Neither text compares two different approaches for studying mammoth extinction. Text 1 describes one study and one hypothesis pertaining to it. Text 2 critiques that hypothesis. Choice C is incorrect. Text 1 does not describe a critique of Wang and colleagues’ methodology, but rather an interpretation of their results by Miller and Simpson. Text 2 does not offer additional details showing that methodology to be sound, but rather casts doubt on the Miller/Simpson explanation. Choice D is incorrect. Both components mentioned here (the new “undermining” research and the theory for reconciling this discovery) are contained in Text 1. Text 2 then shows how the attempt to reconcile the standard view and new research is flawed, and still fails to explain the discrepancy.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 3f753a8e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 3f753a8e

Investigating whether shared false visual memories—specific but inaccurate and widely held recollections of images such as product logos—are caused by people’s previous blank incorrect renditions of the images, researchers Deepasri Prasad and Wilma Bainbridge found that, in fact, such memories are often not explained by familiarity with erroneous versions of the images.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • compliance with

  • exposure to

  • criteria for

  • forfeiture of

ID: 3f753a8e Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. "Exposure to" means "having contact with." It makes sense that Prasad and Bainbridge were investigating whether seeing false versions of images was a cause of false visual memories. Notice how "exposure to incorrect renditions" matches the idea of "familiarity with erroneous versions," which appears later in the sentence.

Choice A is incorrect. "Compliance with" means "going along with a command or directive." False versions of images can’t give commands or directives, so this doesn’t apply. Choice C is incorrect. "Criteria" means "standards by which to judge something." It’s not clear how people would come to have standards for the wrong version of an image in the first place, let alone how those standards would cause them to falsely remember the correct version. In other words, this choice would result in a confusing, unclear sentence. Choice D is incorrect. "Forfeiture of" means "a giving up of something." It wouldn’t make sense to say that false memories of an image might be caused by giving up the wrong version of the image.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 53542eb5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 53542eb5

Shoppers can help keep money cycling within a community by making purchases at small local businesses instead of large retailers. Some cities are blank programs to encourage this behavior, establishing reward points and other incentives for shopping at small businesses.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • instituting

  • occupying

  • underestimating

  • encountering

ID: 53542eb5 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of programs that encourage money to cycle within a community. In this context, "instituting" means initiating. The text indicates that making purchases at small local businesses can help keep money cycling within a community. The text goes on to state that some cities are establishing incentives to promote small business shopping. This context supports the idea that some cities are instituting programs to encourage this consumer behavior.

Choice B is incorrect because saying that some cities are "occupying," or forcibly holding possession or control of, programs that encourage shoppers to make purchases at small local businesses wouldn’t make sense in context. The text doesn’t discuss who controls these programs but instead indicates that some cities are establishing incentives that encourage shoppers to make purchases at small local businesses. Furthermore, it wouldn’t make sense to say that a city is occupying a program. Choice C is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that cities are "underestimating," or failing to understand the value of, programs that encourage consumers to shop at small local businesses. The text indicates that some cities are establishing incentives to encourage small business shopping, which suggests that these cities understand the value of such programs. Choice D is incorrect because saying that some cities are "encountering," or coming into contact with, programs that encourage consumers to shop at small local businesses wouldn’t make sense in context. The text indicates that some cities are already establishing incentives to encourage shoppers to make purchases at small businesses. This context suggests that the cities are instituting the programs, not that they are encountering them.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 6c64a8f3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 6c64a8f3

Ecologist Exequiel Ezcurra and colleagues found that the inhabitants of the Mexica empire used natural landmarks to track time with a high degree of blank. By observing the sun’s position in relation to various points on the mountains surrounding the Basin of Mexico, the Mexica were able to precisely identify the dates when significant events such as solstices occurred.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • precariousness

  • exactitude

  • resilience

  • inconspicuousness

ID: 6c64a8f3 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the method the inhabitants of the Mexica empire used to track time. In this context, "exactitude" means precision. The text indicates that the Mexica used the sun’s position relative to various natural landmarks to track the passage of time, explaining that such methods allowed the Mexica to accurately determine the dates of important events such as solstices. This context supports the idea that the Mexica people were able to track time with a high degree of precision, or exactitude.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context "precariousness" would mean instability, and there’s nothing in the text to suggest that the method used by the Mexica people to track time was unstable or produced unstable results. Rather, the text indicates that the method yielded precise results, allowing the Mexica to accurately determine the dates of significant events. Choice C is incorrect because in this context "resilience" would mean persistence, and there’s nothing in the text to suggest that the Mexica worked stubbornly in spite of obstacles in order to track time. Choice D is incorrect because in this context "inconspicuousness" would mean discreetness, and there’s nothing in the text to suggest that the Mexica wanted to track time without being noticed.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 82b7c3b2

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 82b7c3b2

The following text is from Booth Tarkington’s 1921 novel Alice Adams.

Mrs. Adams had always been fond of vases, she said, and every year her husband’s Christmas present to her was a vase of one sort or another—whatever the clerk showed him, marked at about twelve or fourteen dollars.

As used in the text, what does the word “marked” most nearly mean?

  • Staged

  • Priced

  • Stained

  • Watched

ID: 82b7c3b2 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The text suggests that Mrs. Adam’s typical Christmas present from her husband was a vase that cost, or was "priced at," about twelve or fourteen dollars.

Choice A is incorrect. This isn’t the meaning of "marked" as used here. It wouldn’t make sense to say that a vase was "staged at twelve or fourteen dollars." Choice C is incorrect. This isn’t the meaning of "marked" as used here. It wouldn’t make sense to say that a vase was "stained at twelve or fourteen dollars." Choice D is incorrect. This isn’t the meaning of "marked" as used here. It wouldn’t make sense to say that a vase was "watched at twelve or fourteen dollars."

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 662892ad

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 662892ad

Wakako Yamauchi is best known for And the Soul Shall Dance, her 1977 play about a Japanese American family in Southern California. The play is based on a short story Yamauchi had published three years earlier. Adapting the story wasn’t easy. Theater relies on dialogue between characters, but the original story features little dialogue and instead describes its characters’ silent thoughts. To transform the story into a play, Yamauchi created situations where characters reveal their thoughts by speaking them aloud during conversations with each other.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • It offers information about how Yamauchi adapted her short story into a play.

  • It argues that Yamauchi’s play influenced later playwrights.

  • It explains why Yamauchi’s short story is better known than the play adaptation is.

  • It describes how Yamauchi chose the actors who performed in the play.

ID: 662892ad Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it best describes how the underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. According to the text, it was hard for Yamauchi to adapt her short story into the play And the Soul Shall Dance because the story had included little dialogue, instead describing the characters’ silent thoughts. The underlined sentence offers information about how Yamauchi ultimately succeeded in adapting the story into a play: it explains that Yamauchi created situations where the characters of the play could reveal their internal thoughts while speaking with each other.

Choice B is incorrect because neither the underlined sentence nor the text as a whole makes any mention of playwrights other than Yamauchi or how the play might have influenced them. Choice C is incorrect because the text states that Yamauchi is best known for her play And the Soul Shall Dance, which conveys that the play is better known than the short story it’s based on is. Choice D is incorrect because neither the underlined sentence nor the text as a whole mentions the actors who performed in the play or Yamauchi’s approach to choosing them.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID d563bf65

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: d563bf65

The following text is adapted from Jean Webster’s 1912 novel Daddy-Long-Legs. The narrator is a young college student writing letters detailing her weekly experiences.

[The college is] organizing the Freshman basket-ball team and there’s just a chance that I shall make it. I’m little of course, but terribly quick and wiry and tough. While the others are hopping about in the air, I can dodge under their feet and grab the ball. 

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To compare basketball with other sports

  • To provide details of how to play basketball

  • To state how players will be chosen for the basketball team

  • To explain why the narrator thinks she might make the basketball team

ID: d563bf65 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text. In the first sentence of the text, the narrator states that she thinks there’s a chance she will become part of the basketball team at her college. She goes on to explain that she is "quick" and "tough." Based on these characteristics, she thinks she has a chance to join the team. Thus, the main purpose of the text is to explain why the narrator thinks she might make the basketball team.

Choice A is incorrect because the text focuses solely on basketball and doesn’t mention any other kinds of sports. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t describe aspects of the game of basketball. Instead, it provides the narrator’s reasoning for thinking that she might make her school basketball team. Choice C is incorrect. Although the narrator explains why she thinks she will be chosen for the basketball team at her school, the text doesn’t go into the general decision-making process or the requirements for being picked for the team.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 159ef46d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 159ef46d

Text 1

Although food writing is one of the most widely read genres in the United States, literary scholars have long neglected it. And within this genre, cookbooks attract the least scholarly attention of all, regardless of how well written they may be. This is especially true of works dedicated to regional US cuisines, whose complexity and historical significance are often overlooked.

 

Text 2

With her 1976 cookbook The Taste of Country Cooking, Edna Lewis popularized the refined Southern cooking she had grown up with in Freetown, an all-Black community in Virginia. She also set a new standard for cookbook writing: the recipes and memoir passages interspersing them are written in prose more elegant than that of most novels. Yet despite its inarguable value as a piece of writing, Lewis’s masterpiece has received almost no attention from literary scholars.

Based on the two texts, how would the author of Text 1 most likely regard the situation presented in the underlined sentence in Text 2?

  • As typical, because scholars are dismissive of literary works that achieve popularity with the general public

  • As unsurprising, because scholars tend to overlook the literary value of food writing in general and of regional cookbooks in particular

  • As justifiable, because Lewis incorporated memoir into The Taste of Country Cooking, thus undermining its status as a cookbook

  • As inevitable, because The Taste of Country Cooking was marketed to readers of food writing and not to readers of other genres

ID: 159ef46d Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. Text 1 states that literary scholars ignore regional cookbooks most of all, even when they have historical significance and are well written. So the author of Text 1 wouldn’t be surprised that scholars ignored Edna Lewis’s cookbook.

Choice A is incorrect. We can’t infer that this is how the author of Text 1 would regard the situation. Text 1 never suggests that scholars are dismissive of popular works in general. Instead, Text 1 says that scholars ignore food writing specifically, despite its popularity—and despite the fact that it can be historically significant and complex. Choice C is incorrect. We can’t infer that this is how the author of Text 1 would regard the situation. Text 1 never suggests that elements of other genres should be kept out of cookbooks. Choice D is incorrect. We can’t infer that this is how the author of Text 1 would regard the situation. Text 1 never discusses how food writing is or should be marketed.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID d7807ec8

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: d7807ec8

Political blogs with conspicuous ideological alignments became an integral component of US media in the early 2000s. While some commentators lauded this development, asserting that such blogs had a welcome transparency missing from traditional news, less blank observers countered that such blogs tended to ideological extremes that exacerbated political polarization to problematic levels.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • sanguine

  • recalcitrant

  • misanthropic

  • earnest

ID: d7807ec8 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of political blogs. In this context, "sanguine" means optimistic. The text begins by noting the rise of political blogs with readily identifiable ideological alignments in the early 2000s. The text then indicates that some commentators saw this as a positive development, citing a reason why (their difference from traditional news). Finally, the text goes on to contrast those commentators with others who have a negative opinion of the rise of political blogs (because they increase political polarization among their readers). This context supports the idea that the second group of commentators is less positive than the first: thus, the second group of commentators is less optimistic, or sanguine.

Choice B is incorrect because it would not make sense in this context to describe those commentators who have a negative opinion of political blogs as less "recalcitrant," or obstinately uncooperative, than those commentators who supported political blogs. Choice C is incorrect because the text gives no indication that those commentators who have a negative opinion of political blogs are less "misanthropic," or less contemptuous of humankind, than those commentators who have a positive opinion of political blogs—there is no indication in the text that those commentators who like political blogs would be contemptuous of humankind at all. Choice D is incorrect because there is no evidence that those commentators who have a negative opinion of political blogs are less "earnest," or sincere, than those who have a positive opinion of such blogs—presumably, both groups of commentators hold their beliefs with equal conviction.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID e1e89221

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: e1e89221

The following text is from Frances Hodgson Burnett’s 1911 novel The Secret Garden. Mary, a young girl, is outside trying her new jump rope.

The sun was shining and a little wind was blowing—not a rough wind, but one which came in delightful little gusts and brought a fresh scent of newly turned earth with it. She skipped round the fountain garden, and up one walk and down another.

As used in the text, what does the word “rough” most nearly mean?

  • Harsh

  • Scratchy

  • Basic

  • Vague

ID: e1e89221 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because as used in the text, "rough" most nearly means harsh, or forceful and unpleasant. The text describes Mary’s surroundings as she plays: the sun is out and there’s "a little wind." To further illustrate the wind, the narrator contrasts the word "rough" with a description of the wind blowing in "delightful little gusts," suggesting that the wind is not unpleasant or harsh at all.

Choice B is incorrect. Although in some contexts "rough" objects, or objects with irregular surfaces, can sometimes be scratchy, rough doesn’t mean scratchy in this context. The text explains that the wind is not rough but rather gentle, "delightful little gusts," which suggests that the use of "rough" here is referring to the degree of force of the wind. Choice C is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that the wind wasn’t "basic," or simple and uncomplicated. Instead, the text describes the wind as blowing not roughly or harshly but in "delightful little gusts." Choice D is incorrect because the word "vague" means not clearly expressed or seen. Nothing in the text indicates that the wind was barely noticeable to Mary as she played outside, but rather the text states that it was delightful.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID b11bb2a3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: b11bb2a3

The following text is adapted from Amy Lowell’s 1912 poem “Summer.”

It is summer, glorious, deep-toned summer,

The very crown of nature’s changing year

When all her surging life is at its full.

To me alone it is a time of pause,

A void and silent space between two worlds,

When inspiration lags, and feeling sleeps,

Gathering strength for efforts yet to come.

As used in the text, what does the phrase “a void” most nearly mean?

  • A useless

  • An empty

  • A forgotten

  • An incomplete

ID: b11bb2a3 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because as used in the text, a span of time is described as "a void" space, which most nearly means an empty or vacant one. In the text, the speaker describes summertime in counterintuitive terms: although nature’s "surging life is at its full" during the season, the speaker feels summer to be "a time of pause, / A void and silent space between two worlds." The speaker says further that during summer, "feeling sleeps / Gathering strength" for future efforts. Thus, the speaker regards summer as an empty stretch of time, to be followed by a period of greater activity.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text does present summer as a time of inactivity, it doesn’t characterize that inactivity as useless, or as having no purpose; in fact, the speaker regards summer as a time when "feeling" gathers "strength for efforts yet to come." Choice C is incorrect. Although the text characterizes summer as a time "when inspiration lags, and feeling sleeps," it doesn’t discuss the season’s relationship to the speaker’s memory or suggest that summer can easily be forgotten. Choice D is incorrect. In some contexts, "void" can mean devoid of, or lacking, a particular element, and such a lack could be conceived of as incompleteness. However, the text doesn’t portray summer as not being complete or whole; instead, it characterizes vacancy or inactivity as being an essential quality of the season, as experienced by the speaker.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 97360a00

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 97360a00

The following text is adapted from Gwendolyn Bennett’s 1926 poem “Street Lamps in Early Spring.”

Night wears a garment
All velvet soft, all violet blue... 
And over her face she draws a veil
As shimmering fine as floating dew... 
And here and there
In the black of her hair
The subtle hands of Night
Move slowly with their gem-starred light.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • It presents alternating descriptions of night in a rural area and in a city.

  • It sketches an image of nightfall, then an image of sunrise.

  • It makes an extended comparison of night to a human being.

  • It portrays how night changes from one season of the year to the next.

ID: 97360a00 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes the overall structure of the text. Throughout the text, the speaker characterizes nighttime as if it were a person who wears clothing (“a garment” that is “velvet soft” and “violet blue”) and a veil “over her face” and who moves her hands “slowly with their gem-starred light” through her dark hair. Thus, the text is structured as an extended comparison of night to a human being.

Choice A is incorrect because the text never mentions any particular location; instead, it focuses on presenting a single description of night as a person with certain clothing and features. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t make any reference to the sun or sunrise; instead, it focuses on presenting a single image of night as a person with certain clothing and features. Choice D is incorrect. Rather than describing how nighttime changes seasonally (or in any other way), the text presents a single image of night as a person with certain clothing and features.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 9c35759f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 9c35759f

Novelist N. K. Jemisin declines to blank the conventions of the science fiction genre in which she writes, and she has suggested that her readers appreciate her work precisely because of this willingness to thwart expectations and avoid formulaic plots and themes.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • question

  • react to

  • perceive

  • conform to

ID: 9c35759f Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Jemisin’s writing. In this context, “conform to” means to act in accordance with something. The text suggests that in her science fiction writing, Jemisin’s willingness to go against expectations and not use plots and themes that seem to follow a formula reflects how she treats the standard practices of the genre. This context conveys that Jemisin chooses not to act in accordance with those conventions.

Choice A is incorrect. In this context, “question” would mean doubt or object to. The text indicates that Jemisin is willing to go against expectations and not use formulaic plots and themes in her science fiction writing, suggesting that she may actually object to those conventions of the genre, not that she chooses not to question them. Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that in her science fiction writing, Jemisin is willing to go against expectations and not use formulaic plots and themes. Rather than suggesting that Jemisin chooses not to “react to,” or act in response to, the standard practices of the genre, this context suggests that she is acting in response to such conventions by deliberately avoiding them. Choice C is incorrect. In this context, “perceive” would mean become aware of or understand. The text indicates that in her science fiction writing, Jemisin is willing to go against expectations and not use formulaic plots and themes. This context conveys that Jemisin is aware of and deliberately avoids those conventions of the genre, not that she chooses not to be aware of them.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 6a1194e8

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 6a1194e8

Rydra Wong, the protagonist of Samuel R. Delany’s 1966 novel Babel-17, is a poet, an occupation which, in Delany’s work, is not blank: nearly a dozen of the characters that populate his novels are poets or writers.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • infallible

  • atypical

  • lucrative

  • tedious

ID: 6a1194e8 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Samuel R. Delany’s character Rydra Wong. As used in this context, “atypical” would mean unrepresentative or not common. The text indicates that Wong is one of “nearly a dozen” characters in Delany’s novels who are poets or writers. This context conveys that being a poet isn’t an atypical occupation for a character in one of Delany’s works.  

Choice A is incorrect because “infallible” means to be accurate or without fault, which wouldn’t make sense in context. The text focuses on the fact that Delany has written many characters who are poets and writers. This context suggests that the occupation isn’t atypical for Delany, not that the occupation isn’t infallible, or problematic. Choice C is incorrect because “lucrative” means to be profitable, which wouldn’t make sense in context. If writing poet characters weren’t profitable, it wouldn’t be logical to explain this by citing that Delany gave many of his characters the same occupation. Choice D is incorrect because “tedious” means to be boring, which wouldn’t make sense in context. The text focuses on the fact that Delany has written many characters who are poets and writers. This context suggests that the occupation isn’t atypical for Delany, not that the occupation isn’t tedious.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 490b205f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 490b205f

In editor Lisa Yaszek’s introduction to her anthology The Future Is Female! More Classic Science Fiction Stories by Women, Yaszek identifies an increasing sense of blank feminist mode of writing in the 1970s, in contrast to many woman-authored science fiction stories of the 1920s to 1960s whose politics were less deliberately signaled.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • a prudently

  • an overtly

  • a cordially

  • an inadvertently

ID: 490b205f Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Yaszek’s introduction to her science fiction anthology. In this context "overtly" means openly or without concealment. The text draws a contrast between the lack of "deliberately signaled" political themes in woman-authored science fiction from the 1920s to the 1960s and what Yaszek notes about woman-authored science fiction from the 1970s. This contrast implies that the work from the 1970s did clearly reflect feminist political themes. In other words, the text indicates that unlike women who wrote science fiction in the 1920s to the 1960s, the women who wrote science fiction in the 1970s expressed overtly feminist themes.

Choice A is incorrect. In this context "prudently" would mean cautiously, which might plausibly describe the women who wrote science fiction from the 1920s to the 1960s, in that they tended to avoid revealing their political views; however, the text contrasts these authors with the women writing science fiction in the 1970s, thereby suggesting that the authors writing in the 1970s were not restrained in that way. Choice C is incorrect because in this context "cordially" would mean politely, and nothing in the text indicates that politeness was a significant factor for women writing science fiction either from the 1920s to the 1960s or in the 1970s. The text draws a contrast between the lack of "deliberately signaled" political themes in woman-authored science fiction from the 1920s to the 1960s and what Yaszek notes about woman-authored science fiction from the 1970s. It’s unclear how "less deliberately signaled" politics and an increasing sense of politeness toward feminism would constitute a meaningful contrast. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, "inadvertently" would mean unintentionally, and nothing in the text suggests that Yaszek thought the feminist elements of the woman-authored science fiction from the 1970s arose without deliberate effort.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 051d3065

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 051d3065

Kelp forests grow underwater along the eastern Pacific Coast. These underwater forests are important to fish and other marine animals. Ocean currents can be powerful and rough, making it difficult for animals to find safe places to hide from predators. The underwater forests slow down the currents. This creates a more blank environment with calmer waters where animals can take shelter.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • tranquil

  • dangerous

  • imaginative

  • surprising

ID: 051d3065 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of how kelp forests help marine animals. In this context, "tranquil" means free from disturbance, or calm. The text indicates that ocean currents are powerful and make it difficult for marine animals to hide from predators and that kelp forests slow currents down to create calmer areas. In other words, kelp forests create a more tranquil environment.

Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that kelp forests provide shelter for marine animals, meaning they create environments that are safer, not more "dangerous." Choice C is incorrect because the text discusses how kelp forests affect currents in the ocean, and it isn’t clear how an ocean environment could be "imaginative," or full of imagination. Choice D is incorrect because the text indicates that kelp forests create a calm and safe environment, and an environment that is "surprising" would be characterized by unexpected occurrences, not calmness.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 4fa7e50e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 4fa7e50e

According to a US tax policy expert, state taxes are blank other factors when considering an interstate move. Even significant differences in state taxation have almost no effect on most people’s decisions, while differences in employment opportunities, housing availability, and climate are strong influences.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • consistent with

  • representative of

  • overshadowed by

  • irrelevant to

ID: 4fa7e50e Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the factors that influence peoples’ decisions to move to a different state. As used in this context, “overshadowed by” means to be surpassed by or caused to seem less important than other factors affecting a move. The text indicates that, according to a US tax policy expert, when people think about an interstate move, state taxes have little effect on their decisions, while employment opportunities, housing availability, and climate have a very strong effect. This context suggests that people consider these other factors to be more important than state taxes. 

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that state taxes aren’t as important a consideration as other factors when people are thinking of moving to another state. The context doesn’t suggest that state taxes are “consistent with,” or in agreement with these other factors. Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context to say that state taxes are “representative of,” or typical of, other factors. Taxes aren’t an example of employment opportunities, housing availability, and climate, which are the other factors listed in the text. Choice D is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context to say that state taxes are “irrelevant to,” or unconnected or unimportant to other factors. State taxes are irrelevant to peoples’ decisions, not to other factors. In other words, although the text suggests that state taxes may be irrelevant to people considering a move to another state, the other factors mentioned in the text, such as employment opportunities, are unable to have an opinion about state taxes. Furthermore, the text indicates that significant differences in state taxes have almost no effect on peoples’ choices to move, but they aren’t completely unimportant.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID aa7fc89b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: aa7fc89b

The following text is adapted from Susan Glaspell’s 1912 short story “‘Out There.’” An elderly shop owner is looking at a picture that he recently acquired and hopes to sell.

It did seem that the picture failed to fit in with the rest of the shop. A persuasive young fellow who claimed he was closing out his stock let the old man have it for what he called a song. It was only a little out-of-the-way store which subsisted chiefly on the framing of pictures. The old man looked around at his views of the city, his pictures of cats and dogs, his flaming bits of landscape. “Don’t belong in here,” he fumed.

And yet the old man was secretly proud of his acquisition. There was a hidden dignity in his scowling as he shuffled about pondering the least ridiculous place for the picture.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To reveal the shop owner’s conflicted feelings about the new picture

  • To convey the shop owner’s resentment of the person he got the new picture from

  • To describe the items that the shop owner most highly prizes

  • To explain differences between the new picture and other pictures in the shop

ID: aa7fc89b Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text. The text begins by stating that the new picture “failed to fit in” with the other items that the shop owner has. The text goes on to illustrate that point by describing the other pictures the shop owner has, indicating that the shop owner is fuming because he doesn’t think the new picture belongs in the store. In the second paragraph, however, the text indicates that the shop owner is “secretly proud of his acquisition.” The main purpose of the text is thus to reveal the shop owner’s conflicted feelings about the new picture.

Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the shop owner resents the young man who sold him the new picture; in fact, the text gives no indication of the owner’s feelings about the young man at all. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text indicates that the new picture is different from the other items in the shop, there’s no suggestion that the shop owner prizes either the new picture or the pictures of the city, pets, and landscapes more than he prizes any other items. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t describe what the new picture looks like; rather, the text identifies some of the other kinds of images that the shop owner has and states that they’re different from the new picture without explaining how they’re different. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID e23f50b9

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: e23f50b9

The people of medieval Europe have traditionally been seen as uninterested in cleanliness and hygiene, but modern research has shown that this is largely a myth. According to historian Eleanor Janega, most medieval towns in Europe had at least one public bathhouse, which often offered both full-immersion baths and—more affordably—steam baths. While such amenities were available mainly to town dwellers, regular bathing in rivers and streams or daily sponge baths at home were common practices throughout medieval Europe.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion?

  • It asserts that in medieval Europe steam baths were more popular in rural areas than in urban ones.

  • It describes a limitation of earlier historians’ studies of medieval European bathing habits.

  • It concedes that not all people in medieval Europe had access to public bathhouses.

  • It explains why Janega decided to study the popularity of public bathhouses in medieval Europe.

ID: e23f50b9 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively describes the function of the underlined portion. The text discusses the long-standing misconception that people in medieval Europe were uninterested in cleanliness and hygiene. As evidence that this idea is false, the text cites historian Eleanor Janega’s assertion that in medieval Europe, towns usually had at least one bathhouse, where people could take immersion baths or steam baths for a fee. The underlined portion then notes that mainly town dwellers had access to these bathhouses. The remainder of the text explains that those who lacked such access were nonetheless able to bathe in outdoor waterways or take sponge baths at home. Therefore, the underlined portion concedes that some people in medieval Europe lacked access to public bathhouses.

Choice A is incorrect. The underlined portion establishes that amenities such as steam baths were mainly available to town dwellers, which suggests in turn that steam baths were largely unavailable to people in rural areas. Thus, the distinction made by the underlined portion is not between the popularity of steam baths in towns versus their lack of popularity in rural areas but instead between their presence in towns and absence in rural areas. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text does explain that recent historians have disproved the idea that medieval Europeans rarely bathed, it doesn’t attribute that misconception to earlier historians of medieval Europe or suggest that their research was subject to limitations. Moreover, the underlined portion addresses a limitation of life in medieval Europe, not of historical research. Choice D is incorrect because the underlined portion doesn’t address why historian Eleanor Janega decided to study the popularity of public bathhouses in medieval Europe—nor does any portion of the text. The text mentions Janega in passing, but it doesn’t go into detail about why she decided to study the popularity of public bathhouses in medieval Europe.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 359b891c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 359b891c

Painter Alma W. Thomas was fascinated by the colors and shapes found in nature. The flowers and trees in the garden at her home in Washington, DC, blank her work. For example, Thomas’s use of broken brushstrokes was inspired by the way that light would shine through the leaves of a tree in front of her house. 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • restricted

  • announced

  • distracted

  • influenced

ID: 359b891c Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of painter Alma W. Thomas’s work. In this context, "influenced" means to have had an effect on something’s development. The text indicates that there is a connection between Thomas’s work and the flowers and trees in her home’s garden, giving the example of Thomas’s brushstrokes being inspired by light shining through the leaves of a tree in front of her house. This context conveys that Thomas’s work was influenced by the flowers and trees in the garden.

Choice A is incorrect because the text conveys that Thomas drew inspiration for her work from the plants in her garden, which suggests that the flowers and trees contributed positively to her work, not that they "restricted," or limited, her work. Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to suggest that flowers and trees in a garden could have "announced," or made known, a painter’s work. Choice C is incorrect because the text conveys that Thomas drew inspiration for her work from the plants in her garden, which suggests that the flowers and trees contributed positively to her work, not that they were a distraction. Further, it’s not clear how an artist’s work could itself be "distracted."

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID aad56f2b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: aad56f2b

As a young photographer in the 1950s, William Klein blank the conventions of photography by creating images that were high contrast and included blurred and distorted elements—features generally seen as flaws. So unorthodox was Klein’s work that he had difficulty finding a publisher for his now-iconic 1956 photo book Life is Good & Good for You in New York.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • reviewed

  • defied

  • respected

  • prevented

ID: aad56f2b Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. "Defied" means "resisted" or "deliberately disobeyed," which matches the way Klein broke from the conventions of photography in his time by including features that were generally seen as flaws.

Choice A is incorrect. "Reviewed" means "analyzed" or "evaluated," but that doesn’t really fit the context here. Klein isn’t directly providing any thoughtful examination of the conventions of photography: he’s just breaking all the rules. Choice C is incorrect. "Respected" can mean "admired" or "followed" (as in the case of conventions). It’s clear that Klein didn’t respect conventions, given his use of photographic features that were generally considered "flaws." Choice D is incorrect. "Prevented" means "stopped," and Klein did not stop the conventions—they still existed. Instead, he made images that were seen as "flawed" under those conventions.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 48555763

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 48555763

The following text is from Herman Melville’s 1854 novel The Lightning-rod Man.

The stranger still stood in the exact middle of the cottage, where he had first planted himself. His singularity impelled a closer scrutiny. A lean, gloomy figure. Hair dark and lank, mattedly streaked over his brow. His sunken pitfalls of eyes were ringed by indigo halos, and played with an innocuous sort of lightning: the gleam without the bolt. The whole man was dripping. He stood in a puddle on the bare oak floor: his strange walking-stick vertically resting at his side.

Which choice best states the function of the underlined sentence in the overall structure of the text?

  • It elaborates on the previous sentence’s description of the character.

  • It introduces the setting that is described in the sentences that follow.

  • It establishes a contrast with the description in the previous sentence.

  • It sets up the character description presented in the sentences that follow.

ID: 48555763 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. This best states the function of the underlined sentence. The sentence basically says: “He stood out, so I looked more closely at him.” Then the rest of the text describes him in detail.  

Choice A is incorrect. This doesn’t state the function of the underlined sentence. The previous sentence basically says: “He was still standing in the middle of the cottage”—it doesn’t include any description of the character himself.  Choice B is incorrect. This doesn’t state the function of the underlined sentence. The following sentences describe the character, not the setting. Choice C is incorrect. This doesn’t state the function of the underlined sentence. The underlined sentence basically says: “He stood out, so I looked more closely at him.” The previous sentence basically says: “He was still standing in the middle of the cottage.” There’s no contrast between these two sentences. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID e7247766

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: e7247766

Horizontal gene transfer occurs when an organism of one species acquires genetic material from an organism of another species through nonreproductive means. The genetic material can then be transferred “vertically” in the second species—that is, through reproductive inheritance. Scientist Atma Ivancevic and her team have hypothesized infection by invertebrate parasites as a mechanism of horizontal gene transfer between vertebrate species: while feeding, a parasite could acquire a gene from one host, then relocate to a host from a different vertebrate species and transfer the gene to it in turn.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?

  • It explains why parasites are less susceptible to horizontal gene transfer than their hosts are.

  • It clarifies why some genes are more likely to be transferred horizontally than others are.

  • It contrasts how horizontal gene transfer occurs among vertebrates with how it occurs among invertebrates. 

  • It describes a means by which horizontal gene transfer might occur among vertebrates.

ID: e7247766 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The text defines horizontal gene transfer and then gives one possibility for how it happens in vertebrates (via infection by parasites). The underlined part describes how that mechanism could work.

Choice A is incorrect. The underlined portion doesn’t do this.  Parasites are only described as the mechanism that does the transferring, not the species that gives or receives the genes. Choice B is incorrect. The underlined portion doesn’t do this.  The text never discusses which genes are more likely to be transferred. Choice C is incorrect. The underlined portion doesn’t do this.  The text never discusses how horizontal gene transfer occurs among invertebrates.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID ae2b3112

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: ae2b3112

By combining Indigenous and classical music, Cree composer and cellist Cris Derksen creates works that reflect the diverse cultural landscape of Canada. For her album Orchestral Powwow, Derksen composed new songs in the style of traditional powwow music that were accompanied by classical arrangements played by an orchestra. But where an orchestra would normally follow the directions of a conductor, the musicians on Orchestral Powwow are led by the beat of a powwow drum.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To examine how Derksen’s musical compositions blend cultures

  • To argue that Derksen should be recognized for creating a new style of music

  • To describe the difficulties Derksen encountered when producing her album

  • To establish a contrast between Derksen’s classical training and her Cree heritage 

ID: ae2b3112 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text, which is to discuss how Derksen’s compositions incorporate elements from both Indigenous and classical music. After introducing Derksen, the text describes how the songs Derksen composed for her album Orchestral Powwow feature aspects of the two musical traditions. Specifically, the text notes that Derksen wrote songs in the style of traditional powwow music but accompanied them with classical arrangements played by an orchestra that followed the beat of a powwow drum rather than the directions of a conductor. In this way, Derksen’s compositions blend different cultures.

Choice B is incorrect because although the text suggests that Derksen’s songs contain innovative elements since they blend styles from two different musical traditions, it doesn’t discuss whether her compositions constitute a new style of music, let alone whether Derksen should be recognized for creating a new style of music. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention any difficulties Derksen encountered when producing her album. Rather, the text describes how the songs on the album exemplify how Derksen combines music from two different cultures.  Choice D is incorrect because although the text mentions Derksen’s Cree heritage and suggests that she relies on knowledge of both Indigenous and classical music when she composes her songs, it doesn’t discuss her musical training. Additionally, the text is primarily focused on how Derksen combines different cultural traditions, not on contrasting Derksen’s training with her heritage.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID e7b709fc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: e7b709fc

Archaeologists studying an ancient amphitheater in Switzerland believe that it dates back to the fourth century CE. Their discoveries of a coin made between 337 and 341 CE and era-appropriate building materials blank evidence for this theory.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • dismiss

  • provide

  • regulate

  • refuse

ID: e7b709fc Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the archaeologists’ study of the ancient amphitheater in Switzerland. In this context, “provide” means make available or supply. The text states that the archaeologists believe that the amphitheater dates to the fourth century CE. The text goes on to say that the archaeologists discovered a coin made between 337 and 341 CE (that is, made during the fourth century CE) and building materials appropriate to the era in question. This context suggests that these discoveries provide evidence for the archaeologists’ theory about the dating of the amphitheater. 

Choice A is incorrect because the archaeologists’ discoveries are presented as supplying evidence in favor of their theory about the dating of the amphitheater, not something that would “dismiss,” or reject serious consideration of, evidence for that theory. Choice C is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that the archaeologists’ discoveries would “regulate,” or govern or bring order to, evidence for the archaeologists’ theory about the dating of the amphitheater. The discoveries are presented as supplying evidence for the archaeologists’ theory, not as changing how evidence for the theory is controlled or ordered. Choice D is incorrect because the archaeologists’ discoveries are presented as supplying evidence in favor of their theory about the dating of the amphitheater, not something that would “refuse,” or be unwilling to accept, evidence for the archaeologists’ theory. 

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 94eb800d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 94eb800d

For a 2020 exhibition, photographer and neurobiologist Okunola Jeyifous blank a series of new images based on a series of alphabet posters from the 1970s known as the “Black ABCs,” which featured Black children from Chicago. Jeyifous photographed the now-adult models and layered the photos over magnified images of the models’ cells, resulting in what he called “micro and macro portraiture.”

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • validated

  • created

  • challenged

  • restored

ID: 94eb800d Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically and precisely completes the text’s discussion of Jeyifous’s series of images for the 2020 exhibition. In this context, “created” means produced. The text explains that Jeyifous, a photographer and neurobiologist, photographed adults who had appeared as children in posters from the 1970s, then combined those photographs with magnified images of the adults’ cells—a process that resulted in what he called “micro and macro portraiture.” This context suggests that Jeyifous drew on his dual interests in photography and neurobiology to produce the images for display in the exhibition.

Choice A is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that Jeyifous “validated,” or corroborated, the series of images. The text describes Jeyifous’s process for composing the images but doesn’t describe Jeyifous making an effort to evaluate the images for their artistic or scientific legitimacy. Choice C is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that Jeyifous “challenged,” or disputed, an aspect of the images; rather, the focus of the text is on the inspiration behind the images and the method Jeyifous used to achieve them. Choice D is incorrect because the text indicates that Jeyifous made the images himself using a combination of photography and magnified pictures of cells, not that he “restored,” or reconditioned, the images from a deteriorated state.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID dc0bca21

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: dc0bca21

It would be a mistake to blank the exhibit that artist and curator Joe Baker, who is a member of the Lenape (Delaware) people, has organized at the Brooklyn Public Library. The exhibit, which includes Lenape beadwork from the 1850s as well as modern works that use traditional patterns, is essential viewing.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • complicate

  • amplify

  • overlook

  • assemble

ID: dc0bca21 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of an exhibit at the Brooklyn Public Library. In this context, "overlook" means to ignore or to miss. The text states that artist and curator Joe Baker organized an exhibit that features Lenape beadwork in historical and modern works. The text describes the exhibit as "essential viewing," suggesting that it’s an important exhibit that people should make an effort to visit; this context conveys that it would be a mistake to overlook the exhibit.

Choice A is incorrect. In this context, "complicate" would mean to add difficulty, and there’s no reason to think the text would need to directly caution against complicating Baker’s exhibit; the text focuses on the idea that the exhibit is "essential viewing," not on the idea of a potential difficulty that could be raised. Choice B is incorrect. In this context, "amplify" means to increase, and there’s no reason to believe the text would indicate that it would be a mistake to increase an exhibit the text describes as "essential viewing." Choice D is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that it would be a mistake to "assemble," or put together, Baker’s exhibit: the text makes it clear that the exhibit has already been put together and, further, praises the exhibit as "essential viewing."

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID c218cd98

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: c218cd98

In 1776, the United States sent Benjamin Franklin to France to try to win the country’s support in the United States’ fight for independence from Great Britain. Franklin was very popular in France. This blank surely helped him to convince France to assist the United States.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • thoughtfulness

  • esteem

  • controversy

  • sincerity

ID: c218cd98 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Benjamin Franklin’s popularity in France. In this context, "esteem" means high regard. The text indicates that Franklin was very popular, or highly regarded, in France, where he sought the country’s support for the United States in its fight for independence, and indicates that his status helped him achieve his goal. The context therefore suggests that being held in high regard by the people likely helped Franklin convince France to help the United States.

Choice A is incorrect because the text directly indicates that it was Franklin’s popularity that likely helped him convince France to help the United States, not his "thoughtfulness" (which in this context would mean either his careful reasoning and attention or his kind consideration of others’ needs). Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that there was any "controversy," or dispute, about Franklin’s presence in France; instead, the text states that Franklin was very popular in France and directly indicates that this status likely helped him convince France to help the United States. Choice D is incorrect because the text directly indicates that it was Franklin’s popularity that likely helped him convince France to help the United States, not his "sincerity," or his honesty.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 7b55e895

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 7b55e895

Text 1

Some animal species, like the leopard, can be found in many kinds of areas. On the other hand, tropical mountain bird species tend to be limited in the types of spaces they can call home. This is because many mountain bird species are only able to survive at very specific elevations. Over time, these species have likely become used to living at a specific temperature. Therefore, these species struggle to survive at elevations that are warmer or colder than they are used to.

 

Text 2

A new study reviewed observations of nearly 3,000 bird species to understand why tropical mountain bird species live at specific elevations. They noted that when a mountain bird species was found in an area with many other bird species, it tended to inhabit much smaller geographic areas. It is thus likely that competition for resources with other species, not temperature, limits where these birds can live.

Based on the texts, both authors would most likely agree with which statement?

  • Tropical mountain bird species are restricted in where they can live.

  • Scientists have better tools to observe tropical mountain birds than they did in the past.

  • Little is known about how tropical mountain birds build their nests.

  • Tropical mountain bird species that live at high elevations tend to be genetically similar.

ID: 7b55e895 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. Both texts state that tropical mountain bird species have limited ranges or habitats, although they disagree on the reason for this. Text 1 claims that temperature is the main factor that determines where these birds can live, while Text 2 claims that competition with other species is the main factor. However, both texts agree that these birds are not able to survive in many kinds of areas.

Choice B is incorrect. Neither text mentions the tools or methods that scientists use to observe these birds, either now or in the past. Choice C is incorrect. Neither text mentions anything about how these birds build their nests. Choice D is incorrect. Neither text provides any information about the genetic similarity of these birds, so we have no evidence that either author would agree with this statement.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 8bc66f89

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 8bc66f89

Part of the Atacama Desert in Peru has surprisingly rich plant life despite receiving almost no rainfall. Moisture from winter fog sustains plants once they’re growing, but the soil’s tough crust makes it hard for seeds to germinate in the first place. Local birds that dig nests in the ground seem to be of help: they churn the soil, exposing buried seeds to moisture and nutrients. Indeed, in 2016 Cristina Rengifo Faiffer found that mounds of soil dug up by birds were far more fertile and supported more seedlings than soil in undisturbed areas.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?

  • It elaborates on the idea that the top layer of Atacama Desert soil forms a tough crust. 

  • It describes the process by which seeds are deposited into Atacama Desert soil.

  • It identifies the reason particular bird species dig nests in Atacama Desert soil.

  • It explains how certain birds promote seed germination in Atacama Desert soil.

ID: 8bc66f89 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined portion functions in the text as a whole. The first two sentences establish a natural phenomenon: there is a richness of plant life found in the Atacama Desert despite the hard soil that makes it challenging for seeds to germinate. The next sentence, which contains the underlined portion, offers a potential explanation for the phenomenon: local birds dig ground nests exposing seeds to moisture and materials in the soil necessary for germination. The last sentence summarizes a study that compared the fertileness of mounds of dirt dug up by birds to mounds that were undisturbed to support the explanation in the underlined portion. Thus, the underlined portion mainly functions to explain how certain birds promote seed germination in the Atacama Desert soil.

Choice A is incorrect because the underlined portion doesn’t address the topic of the soil’s tough crust or its formation. Instead, the text elaborates on the idea that local birds that build ground nests may help seeds germinate in the hard soil. Choice B is incorrect because the underlined portion describes how some birds may support seed germination in Atacama Desert soil but doesn’t describe how the seeds are deposited into the soil before germination begins.  Choice C is incorrect because neither the underlined portion nor the text as a whole identifies a reason that a particular bird species may choose to dig ground nests in the Atacama Desert soil.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 2c82068f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 2c82068f

The following text is from Mark Oshiro’s 2018 novel Anger Is a Gift. In the novel, Moss and his friends are on a subway train in Northern California. 

Lights from the outside world then filled the train car as it rose out of the ground and climbed the elevated track. As long as Moss had lived in West Oakland, he’d never tired of this specific view, so he pointed toward the windows. “Check it,” he said, and the Port of Oakland began to pass by them. 

©2018 by Mark Oshiro

As used in the text, what does the word “specific” most nearly mean?

  • Imaginary

  • Energetic

  • Correct

  • Particular

ID: 2c82068f Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because as used in the text, "specific" most nearly means particular. The text is referring to the particular view of the Port of Oakland as seen from a subway train as it rises from underground. This specific, or particular, view has always been special to Moss, a lifetime resident of West Oakland.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text itself is a work of fiction, the view is something Moss can point out to his companions on the train, so the view itself is presumably not imaginary. Choice B is incorrect. Although this view of the Port of Oakland is significant to Moss, nothing in the text describes the view as particularly energetic as opposed to calming, for example. Choice C is incorrect. The point of the text is that the view of the Port of Oakland from the subway train as it rises from underground is significant to Moss, not whether it is described as being correct, which the text does not address.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID b93428a6

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: b93428a6

Animal researcher Amalia P.M. Bastos led a 2021 study about a wild kea parrot that used small stones as tools to preen its feathers. Skeptical colleagues had initially suggested to Bastos that the kea’s interactions with the stones might simply be blank, but Bastos and her team showed that the kea was using the stones deliberately.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • intriguing

  • obvious

  • accidental

  • observable

ID: b93428a6 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Bastos’s study of a wild kea parrot. In this context, "accidental" means unplanned or unintentional. The text first describes Bastos’s study, which concerns a kea that is observed using small stones to preen its feathers. The text then mentions colleagues who are skeptical (that is, they have doubt) about Bastos’s findings, and finally describes how Bastos and her team responded to the skepticism of those colleagues. Given that the colleagues mentioned in the text expressed skepticism regarding Bastos’s findings, the best answer choice must be one that completes the text in a manner such that the skeptics’ opinion regarding the kea’s use of stones disagrees with that held by Bastos and her team. Since Bastos and her team showed that the kea’s use of stones was deliberate (that is, intentional), the skeptics’ opinion in this context must be that the kea’s use of stones was unintentional, or accidental.

Choice A is incorrect because the best answer choice is one that portrays skepticism, or doubt, of Bastos’s claim that the kea’s usage of stones was deliberate, or intentional. If the skeptics found the kea’s usage of stones "intriguing," or fascinating, this would not be at odds with the position of Bastos and her team; in fact, it is reasonable to believe that someone who agreed that the kea’s stone usage was deliberate would also find it intriguing. Choice B is incorrect because if the skeptics believed that the kea’s usage of small stones was "obvious," or evident, this would not be contrary to the observation of Bastos and her team that the kea’s usage of stones was deliberate: in fact, these opinions would be consistent with each other. Choice D is incorrect because if the skeptics believed that the kea’s usage of small stones was "observable," or visible, this would not conflict with the claim of Bastos and her team that the kea’s usage of stones was deliberate: instead, these positions would agree.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID c106b9f7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Easy
ID: c106b9f7

Text 1

American sculptor Edmonia Lewis is best known for her sculptures that represent figures from history and mythology, such as The Death of Cleopatra and Hagar. Although Lewis sculpted other subjects, her career as a sculptor is best represented by the works in which she depicted these historical and mythical themes. 

 

Text 2 

Art historians have typically ignored the many portrait busts Edmonia Lewis created. Lewis likely carved these busts (sculptures of a person’s head) frequently throughout her long career. She is known for her sculptures that represent historical figures, but Lewis likely supported herself financially by carving portrait busts for acquaintances who paid her to represent their features. Thus, Lewis’s portrait busts are a central aspect of her career as a sculptor.

Based on the texts, both authors would most likely agree with which statement? 

  • Lewis’s portrait busts have overshadowed her other work.

  • The Death of Cleopatra is Lewis’s most famous piece.

  • Sculpting representations of historical figures was a short-lived trend.

  • Lewis’s works are varied in the subjects they depict.

ID: c106b9f7 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. Author 1 acknowledges that Lewis sculpted other subjects besides historical and mythical figures, suggesting a variety of subjects depicted. Author 2 mentions that Lewis carved portrait busts as well as historical sculptures, which also implies variation among Lewis’s subjects.

Choice A is incorrect. Neither text suggests that Lewis’s portrait busts have received more attention or appreciation than her other work. Author 1 briefly mentions her “other works,” but mostly focuses on her historical and mythical works. Author 2 states that art historians have typically ignored her portrait busts, which suggests that they haven’t overshadowed her other work. Choice B is incorrect. Neither text explicitly states that The Death of Cleopatra is Lewis’s most famous piece. Author 1 mentions it as one example of her historical works, but does not single it out as being more important or influential than Hagar. Author 2 does not mention it at all, focusing instead on her portrait busts. Choice C is incorrect. This choice isn’t supported by the texts. Neither text suggests that sculpting historical figures was a trend that faded quickly.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 7a0e31ea

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 7a0e31ea

The following text is from Betty Smith’s 1943 novel A Tree Grows in Brooklyn. Francie, a young girl, visits the library often.

Francie thought that all the books in the world were in that library and she had a plan about reading all the books in the world. She was reading a book a day in alphabetical order and not skipping the dry ones. She remembered that the first author had been Abbott. She had been reading a book a day for a long time now and she was still in the B’s. Already she had read about bees and buffaloes, Bermuda vacations and Byzantine architecture. For all her enthusiasm, she had to admit that some of the B’s had been hard going. But Francie was a reader.

©1947 by Betty Smith

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To illustrate Francie’s enjoyment of an unusual topic

  • To explain why Francie prefers reading over other activities

  • To portray Francie’s determination to meet a goal

  • To describe a book that Francie greatly admires

ID: 7a0e31ea Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text, which is to portray Francie’s determination to reach her goal of reading all the books in the world. The text indicates that to achieve this aim, Francie works systematically and persistently: she reads all the books in the library in alphabetical order and devotes much time and effort to the project, finishing one book per day over a long period of time. The text then suggests that even though she progresses slowly ("she was still in the B’s") and that she struggled with some books ("some of the B’s had been hard going"), she doesn’t give up because she thinks of herself as "a reader." These details show Francie’s resolve.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text mentions several topics (bees and buffaloes, Bermuda vacations, and Byzantine architecture) that Francie has read about, it doesn’t indicate that any of these topics are unusual or that she especially enjoyed reading about one of these topics in particular. If anything, the text suggests that she may have found some of these topics to be dull, saying that she even read the "dry ones"—that is, the boring books—and that some of the books were "hard going," meaning they were difficult to get through. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss Francie’s involvement in other activities, only her dedication to reading. Although it’s possible that Francie dedicates herself to reading because she prefers it to other activities, the text doesn’t indicate whether this is the case. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text mentions one author (Abbott) whose book Francie has read as well as several topics (bees and buffaloes, Bermuda vacations, and Byzantine architecture) she has encountered, the text doesn’t say whether Francie admires any of the books she’s read so far. Instead, the text focuses on the time and effort she devotes to reaching her goal of reading all the books in the world—even ones she doesn’t enjoy.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID cce2f8dc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: cce2f8dc

In 2023 literary scholar Jeremy Douglass cautioned technology investors and enthusiasts who predict conventional books’ ultimate displacement by newer forms of media. Douglass observed that the concept of an “interactive” text is much older than technologists assume, extending back to the first time readers scratched notes into a text’s margins. In addition, newer media, such as video games, haven’t replaced older forms of entertainment, such as comic books, but rather exist alongside them. Douglass believes that rather than supplanting books, technology is simply making new forms of expression possible.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?

  • It challenges the stance of the investors and enthusiasts who are mentioned earlier in the text.

  • It explains the basis for the claim made by the technologists mentioned in the text.

  • It suggests that academics are better suited than investors to see the potential uses of contemporary interactive texts.

  • It provides a historical anecdote about the technological challenges involved in reading the earliest interactive texts.

ID: cce2f8dc Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined portion functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence of the text introduces literary scholar Jeremy Douglass’s warning to technology investors and enthusiasts against predicting the displacement of conventional books by newer media forms. The next sentence, which is underlined in part, presents Douglass’s observation that interactive texts are hardly new; they have been available for longer than technologists assume, beginning with the first time readers wrote notes in texts’ margins. Thus, the function of the underlined portion is to challenge the stance of the technology investors and enthusiasts mentioned earlier in the text. As the remainder of the text points out, newer media doesn’t necessarily replace older media, but rather, as Douglass believes, leads to new forms of expression.

Choice B is incorrect because the underlined portion challenges the position taken by investors and enthusiasts; it doesn’t provide context for their claims. Choice C is incorrect because the underlined portion doesn’t mention academics or compare them to investors regarding their ability to see potential in using contemporary interactive texts; instead, the underlined portion challenges the position of investors and enthusiasts who predict that conventional books will be replaced by newer forms of media. Choice D is incorrect because the underlined portion doesn’t address technological challenges; instead, it disputes the stance taken by investors and enthusiasts, suggesting that conventional books haven’t been displaced by traditional interactions with texts, such as writing in the margins, and won’t be supplanted by newer forms of media either.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 6977d22b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 6977d22b

 

Text 1

Ecologists have long wondered how thousands of microscopic phytoplankton species can live together near ocean surfaces competing for the same resources. According to conventional wisdom, one species should emerge after outcompeting the rest. So why do so many species remain? Ecologists’ many efforts to explain this phenomenon still haven’t uncovered a satisfactory explanation.

 

Text 2

Ecologist Michael Behrenfeld and colleagues have connected phytoplankton’s diversity to their microscopic size. Because these organisms are so tiny, they are spaced relatively far apart from each other in ocean water and, moreover, experience that water as a relatively dense substance. This in turn makes it hard for them to move around and interact with one another. Therefore, says Behrenfeld’s team, direct competition among phytoplankton probably happens much less than previously thought.

Based on the texts, how would Behrenfeld and colleagues (Text 2) most likely respond to the “conventional wisdom” discussed in Text 1?

  • By arguing that it is based on a misconception about phytoplankton species competing with one another

  • By asserting that it fails to recognize that routine replenishment of ocean nutrients prevents competition between phytoplankton species 

  • By suggesting that their own findings help clarify how phytoplankton species are able to compete with larger organisms

  • By recommending that more ecologists focus their research on how competition among phytoplankton species is increased with water density

ID: 6977d22b Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because based on Text 2, it represents how Behrenfeld and colleagues would most likely respond to the “conventional wisdom” discussed in Text 1. The conventional wisdom cited holds the opinion that when there is species diversity within a phytoplankton population, “one species should emerge after outcompeting the rest”—that is, after being so successful in competing for resources that the other species vanish from the population. However, Text 2 explains that according to Behrenfeld and colleagues, phytoplankton are so small and spaced so far apart in the water that there is “much less” direct competition for resources within phytoplankton populations than scientists had previously thought. 

Choice B is incorrect because Text 2 never discusses whether routine replenishment of ocean nutrients affects competition between phytoplankton species. Choice C is incorrect because the interspecies competition discussed in both texts is specifically between phytoplankton species, and neither text considers whether phytoplankton compete for resources with larger nonphytoplankton species. Choice D is incorrect because according to Text 2, Behrenfeld and colleagues argue that water density decreases, not increases, competition between phytoplankton species.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 213248f7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 213248f7

The following text is adapted from Lewis Carroll’s 1865 novel Alice’s Adventures in Wonderland.

“The second thing is to find my way into that lovely garden. I think that will be the best plan.” It sounded like an excellent plan, no doubt, and very neatly and simply arranged; the only difficulty was, that Alice had not the smallest idea how to set about it.

As used in the text, what does the word “simply” most nearly mean?

  • Faintly

  • Hastily

  • Easily

  • Foolishly

ID: 213248f7 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because as used in the text, “simply” most nearly means easily, or involving minimal difficulty or effort. The text first provides Alice’s reflections on her plan to gain access to a garden and then offers commentary on her plan by the novel’s narrator. The text indicates that a reason Alice likes her plan despite not being fully thought through is that she nonetheless believes it can be efficiently arranged. In other words, the text indicates that one of the supposed benefits of Alice’s plan is that it can be easily arranged.

Choice A is incorrect because the text describes how Alice’s plan can be arranged, and it wouldn’t make sense to say that it can be arranged “faintly,” or with little strength or not strongly. Instead, the text indicates that the plan can be arranged with little difficulty. Choice B is incorrect. Although in some contexts “simply” can mean quickly, hastily, or hurriedly, the word “hastily” indicates that something is done too quickly. Although it may be true that Alice’s plan was made in haste, the text doesn’t focus on this aspect of her plan. Instead, the text focuses on the plan’s seemingly good qualities, saying that Alice thinks of it as “the best,” and the narrator refers to it as “excellent” and “neatly,” or efficiently, arranged. Choice D is incorrect. Although in some contexts “simply” can mean foolishly, or lacking good sense, it doesn’t have this meaning in this context. Although the text says that Alice doesn’t know how to go about her plan, it begins by presenting her plan in a positive light: Alice describes her plan as “the best,” and the narrator refers to the plan as “excellent” and “neatly,” or efficiently, arranged.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 6bc0ba75

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 6bc0ba75

The mimosa tree evolved in East Asia, where the beetle Bruchidius terrenus preys on its seeds. In 1785, mimosa trees were introduced to North America, far from any B. terrenus. But evolutionary links between predators and their prey can persist across centuries and continents. Around 2001, B. terrenus was introduced in southeastern North America near where botanist Shu-Mei Chang and colleagues had been monitoring mimosa trees. Within a year, 93 percent of the trees had been attacked by the beetles.

Which choice best describes the function of the third sentence in the overall structure of the text?

  • It states the hypothesis that Chang and colleagues had set out to investigate using mimosa trees and B. terrenus.

  • It presents a generalization that is exemplified by the discussion of the mimosa trees and B. terrenus.

  • It provides context that clarifies why the species mentioned spread to new locations. 

  • It offers an alternative explanation for the findings of Chang and colleagues. 

ID: 6bc0ba75 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately describes the function of the third sentence within the overall structure of the text. The third sentence makes a generalization, asserting that evolutionary links between predators and prey can persist across great expanses of time and distance. This generalization is exemplified by the text’s discussion of the relationship between mimosa trees and B. terrenus beetles. When mimosa trees were introduced to North America in 1785, no B. terrenus beetles were present, so the relationship between the trees and the beetles that exists in their native East Asia was disrupted. When the beetles were introduced to North America more than 200 years later, however, they quickly attacked mimosa trees, illustrating the generalization that links between predators and prey "can persist across centuries and continents."

Choice A is incorrect because the third sentence doesn’t indicate that Chang and colleagues were investigating any hypothesis. According to the text, Chang and colleagues were simply monitoring mimosa trees when the beetles happened to be introduced to the area. Choice C is incorrect because the third sentence doesn’t discuss any particular species, let alone the species mentioned elsewhere in the text, nor does the sentence explain why species spread to new locations. Choice D is incorrect because the third sentence offers a generalization about the relationship between predators and prey, not an explanation for the findings by Chang and colleagues that’s an "alternative" to an explanation presented elsewhere in the text.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID b4d29611

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: b4d29611

Michelene Pesantubbee, a historian and citizen of the Choctaw Nation, has identified a dilemma inherent to research on the status of women in her tribe during the 1600s and 1700s: the primary sources from that era, travel narratives and other accounts by male European colonizers, underestimate the degree of power conferred on Choctaw women by their traditional roles in political, civic, and ceremonial life. Pesantubbee argues that the Choctaw oral tradition and findings from archaeological sites in the tribe’s homeland supplement the written record by providing crucial insights into those roles.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • It details the shortcomings of certain historical sources, then argues that research should avoid those sources altogether.

  • It describes a problem that arises in research on a particular topic, then sketches a historian’s approach to addressing that problem.

  • It lists the advantages of a particular research method, then acknowledges a historian’s criticism of that method.

  • It characterizes a particular topic as especially challenging to research, then suggests a related topic for historians to pursue instead.

ID: b4d29611 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The text begins by stating a problem with research on the status of Choctaw women in the 1600s and 1700s: written primary sources underestimate the power they had in their traditional roles. Then it presents one historian’s solution: looking to oral tradition and archeological findings for more insight into these roles.

Choice A is incorrect. This isn’t the overall structure. The text never says that research should avoid written primary sources, just that research should also use oral tradition and archeological sites as sources. Choice C is incorrect. This isn’t the overall structure. The text never mentions the advantages of using written primary sources. Choice D is incorrect. This isn’t the overall structure. The text never says that the status of Choctaw women during the 1600s and 1700s is too challenging to research. And it doesn’t mention any other topics to research instead.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID d3104a68

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: d3104a68

Birds sing to communicate over potentially great distances. For this reason, many researchers believe that birds in densely vegetated habitats generally sing at lower frequencies than birds living in comparatively sparse habitats, since dense vegetation tends to blank the distance that high-frequency sounds can travel.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • exceed

  • diminish

  • encompass

  • conceal

ID: d3104a68 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of birdsong. In this context, "diminish" means reduce or lessen. The text establishes that birds sing to communicate over potentially large distances and that researchers believe that birds that live in densely vegetated habitats sing at lower frequencies than birds that live in comparatively sparsely vegetated habitats. The text then explains that researchers hold this belief due to some effect of dense vegetation on the distance that high-frequency sounds can travel. If birds sing to communicate over long distances, it would be logical to conclude that researchers believe that birds in densely vegetated habitats sing at lower frequencies than birds in relatively sparse habitats do because dense vegetation diminishes the distance that high-frequency sounds can travel.

Choice A is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that dense vegetation can "exceed," or surpass or go beyond, the distance that high-frequency sounds can travel. The text suggests that dense vegetation reduces the distance that high-frequency sounds can travel, not that dense vegetation goes farther than that distance. Choice C is incorrect because it would not be sensible to say that dense vegetation can "encompass," or enclose or encircle, the distance that high-frequency sounds can travel. The distance that sounds can travel is not an object that can be enclosed or encircled by vegetation. Choice D is incorrect because there is no information in the text indicating that dense vegetation can "conceal," or hide or keep from being observed, the distance that high-frequency sounds travel. Instead, the text suggests that dense vegetation reduces the distance that high-frequency sounds can travel.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID f6352bd3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: f6352bd3

Many archaeologists assume that large-scale engineering projects in ancient societies required an elite class to plan and direct the necessary labor. However, recent discoveries, such as the excavation of an ancient canal near the Gulf Coast of Alabama, have complicated this picture. Using radiocarbon dating, a team of researchers concluded that the 1.39-kilometer-long canal was most likely constructed between 576 and 650 CE by an Indigenous society that was relatively free of social classes.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • It describes a common view among archaeologists, then discusses a recent finding that challenges that view.

  • It outlines a method used in some archaeological fieldwork, then explains why an alternative method is superior to it.

  • It presents contradictory conclusions drawn by archaeologists, then evaluates a study that has apparently resolved that contradiction.

  • It identifies a gap in scientific research, then presents a strategy used by some archaeologists to remedy that gap.

ID: f6352bd3 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The text starts by introducing a common view among archaeologists about the need for an elite class to direct large-scale engineering projects. Then, it discusses the discovery of a large canal most likely built by a society without an elite class, which challenges the first view.

Choice B is incorrect. Although the text discusses carbon dating as an archaeological method, it doesn’t compare it to any other alternative methods. Choice C is incorrect. The study doesn’t resolve any contradictions—rather, it introduces a contradiction to the one view presented at the beginning of the text. Choice D is incorrect. The text never identifies any gaps in scientific research.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 5fa165f7

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 5fa165f7

In the 1960s, Sam Gilliam, a Black painter from the southern United States, became the first artist to drape painted canvases into flowing shapes. He later explored a different style, blank quilt-like paintings inspired by the patchwork quilting tradition of Black communities in the South.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • predicting

  • refusing

  • hiding

  • creating

ID: 5fa165f7 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Sam Gilliam’s artworks. As used in this context, “creating” means producing or bringing something into existence. The text indicates that Gilliam is an artist who made draped canvases and, later, quilt-like paintings. This context supports the idea that Gilliam explored different styles in his art by creating special types of paintings.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that Gilliam actually explored and pursued the creation of quilt-like paintings; he wasn’t just “predicting,” or declaring in advance, the existence of these paintings. Choice B is incorrect because in this context “refusing” would mean rejecting, and there is nothing in the text to suggest that Gilliam rejected his quilt-like paintings. Instead, the text indicates that he was exploring and pursuing a new art style in these paintings. Choice C is incorrect because in this context “hiding” would mean concealing from view, and there is nothing in the text to suggest that Gilliam attempted to conceal his quilt-like paintings. Instead, the text indicates that he was exploring and pursuing a new art style in these paintings.  

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID d5600e74

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: d5600e74

The following text is adapted from Pam Muñoz Ryan’s 2020 novel Mañanaland. In the village where Max lives, there is an old fortress called La Reina. Children in the village say that the fortress is haunted.

For as long as he could remember, Max had begged Papá [his father] to take him to see La Reina and the ruins up close. He’d be a hero among his friends if he was the first boy to cross the haunted gates! Just because Papá didn’t believe in ghosts didn’t mean they weren’t there. Maybe this summer Papá would finally take him. He was almost twelve.

©2020 by Pam Muñoz Ryan

Which choice best describes the overall purpose of the text?

  • To portray how proud Max’s father is of Max

  • To explain why Max doesn’t want to grow up yet

  • To criticize Max for disliking summer

  • To show how much Max wants to visit La Reina

ID: d5600e74 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately describes the overall purpose of the text. The text indicates that "for as long as he could remember," Max had "begged" his father to take him to La Reina. This point is later emphasized in the text by indicating that "this summer" his father might "finally take" Max to visit La Reina. Thus, the purpose of the text as a whole is to show how much Max wants to visit La Reina.

Choice A is incorrect. The text does not discuss Papa’s feelings toward Max. Rather, it mentions that Max has long wanted Papa to take him to La Reina and that, unlike Max and some other children, Papa does not believe that La Reina is haunted. Choice B is incorrect. The text mentions that Max is "almost twelve" at the time, which suggests anticipation of growing up rather than refusal to. Choice C is incorrect. The text indicates that Max hopes to visit La Reina during the current summer, but nothing suggests that Max dislikes summer.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 86fbc64d

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 86fbc64d

Domesticated thousands of years ago by Indigenous people in South America, cacao, the plant from which chocolate is made, deviates structurally from the wild plant it is descended from. Maize (corn), another crop domesticated by Indigenous Americans, shows so little resemblance to any wild plant that genetic research was necessary to blank teosinte grass as its ancestor.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • acquire

  • develop

  • attract

  • confirm

ID: 86fbc64d Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the identification of maize’s wild ancestor. In this context, to "confirm" means to establish the truth or correctness of something. The text explains that maize "shows so little resemblance to any wild plant that genetic research was necessary" to establish its ancestry, which was ultimately traced to teosinte grass. This context conveys the idea that scientific verification was required to establish an ancestral relationship with certainty—that is, to confirm teosinte grass as maize’s ancestor.

Choice A is incorrect because to "acquire" means to obtain or gain possession of something. Although their research likely required scientists to acquire samples of maize and teosinte grass, the text does not suggest that this was the ultimate goal of their work, which instead probed the connection between the two plants. Choice B is incorrect because to "develop" means to create something or to promote the growth of something, and the ancestral relationship between teosinte grass and maize already existed as a biological fact in the deep past, which scientists then verified through research; because this relationship already existed, the scientists can’t be said to have either created it or encouraged its growth. Choice C is incorrect because to "attract" means to entice something or to bring about a relationship or connection between two things, while the ancestral relationship between teosinte grass and maize already existed as a biological fact; rather than bringing about the relationship between the two plants, the scientists instead verified the prior existence of it.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 5444db38

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 5444db38

To demonstrate that the integrity of underground metal pipes can be assessed without unearthing the pipes, engineer Aroba Saleem and colleagues blank the tendency of some metals’ internal magnetic fields to alter under stress: the team showed that such alterations can be measured from a distance and can reveal concentrations of stress in the pipes.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • hypothesized

  • discounted

  • redefined

  • exploited

ID: 5444db38 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of using magnetism to detect stress in buried metal pipes. In this context, "exploited" means made productive use of. The text indicates that the magnetic fields of some metals change under stress and that Saleem and colleagues showed that it is possible to measure those changes from a distance, thereby demonstrating that the integrity of underground metal pipes can be evaluated without having to unearth them. This context thus indicates that Saleem and colleagues made productive use of, or exploited, this tendency of the metals’ magnetic fields.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, "hypothesized" would mean made a tentative assumption to be evaluated in a study or experiment. Although Saleem and colleagues may have had one or more hypotheses for these experiments, the text presents the information about the tendency of some metals’ magnetic fields to change under stress as a known fact that the researchers made productive use of, not as a hypothesis to be evaluated. The text after the colon indicates that the researchers were not evaluating whether such changes occur but whether those changes can be measured at a distance. Choice B is incorrect because in this context, "discounted" would mean downplayed or ignored, but the text does not suggest that Saleem and colleagues minimized or ignored the tendency of the magnetic fields of some metals to change under stress. Rather, the text indicates that this tendency is the basis for Saleem and colleagues’ method of assessing the pipes’ integrity. Choice C is incorrect because nothing in the text indicates that Saleem and colleagues "redefined," or reevaluated or reformulated, the tendency of some metals’ magnetic fields to change under stress. Instead, the text indicates that the researchers made use of that tendency to demonstrate that it is possible to evaluate the integrity of underground pipes without unearthing them.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 6017ae31

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 6017ae31

In 2016, Gabriela González and team announced that a chirping sound captured by Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory antennas was direct evidence of gravitational waves, which skeptics had argued would be too faint for detection. Detailed statistical analysis helped preclude claims of the event’s blank, confirming the signal at a confidence level of over 99%.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • inconspicuousness

  • discretion

  • ambiguity

  • probability

ID: 6017ae31 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Gabriela González and team’s detection of gravitational waves. In this context, "ambiguity" means uncertainty or doubtfulness. The text explains that although skeptics had thought that direct evidence of gravitational waves would be too faint to be detected, researchers led by González claimed that a chirping sound captured by Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory antennas nevertheless provided such evidence. The text goes on to say that detailed statistical analysis confirmed the observation of gravitational waves with a high degree of confidence—that is, with near certainty—a finding that helped to preclude, or rule out, any claims that the signal’s attribution to gravitational waves might be ambiguous or doubtful.

Choice A is incorrect. In this context, "inconspicuousness" would mean the quality of being unnoticeable or difficult to detect. Although the text indicates that skeptics had doubted whether gravitational waves could be observed directly because of their presumed faintness (which suggests that gravitational waves were expected to be difficult to detect), the blank portion of the text isn’t referring to the possibility that gravitational waves are unnoticeable or undetectable. Instead, the focus of the last sentence is González’s team’s observation of a chirping sound that they attributed to gravitational waves, and it wouldn’t make sense to say that through statistical analysis, they ruled out the possibility that the sound they observed was undetectable. Rather, the skeptical view presented in the text suggests that there could be some ambiguity about the source of the chirping, but statistical analysis virtually eliminated this uncertainty. Choice B is incorrect because in this context, "discretion" would mean good judgment, and it wouldn’t make sense to say that an event, such as the detection of gravitational waves, would show judgment, much less that the event’s capacity to exercise good judgment would be precluded by statistical analysis confirming its attribution. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, "probability" would mean likelihood, and the text states that statistical analysis, which confirmed the signal with a high degree of confidence, suggests the likelihood that the chirping sound was produced by gravitational waves, not that the analysis helped to preclude this likelihood.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 571cf537

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 571cf537

The author’s claim about the relationship between Neanderthals and Homo sapiens is blank, as it fails to account for several recent archaeological discoveries. To be convincing, his argument would need to address recent finds of additional hominid fossils, such as the latest Denisovan specimens and Homo longi.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • disorienting

  • tenuous

  • nuanced

  • unoriginal

ID: 571cf537 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the author’s claim about the relationship between Neanderthals and Homo sapiens. As used in this context, “tenuous” means lacking substance. The end of the first sentence states that the author’s claim didn’t consider certain key pieces of evidence—“recent archaeological discoveries”—and is therefore weak.  

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context to refer to the author’s claim as “disorienting,” or confusing. The text suggests that the author’s claim is insubstantial, not that it’s difficult to grasp. Choice C is incorrect because referring to the claim as “nuanced,” or subtle, wouldn’t make sense in context. According to the text, the claim is incomplete because it didn’t consider certain key information about recent archaeological finds; it doesn’t suggest that what’s in the claim lacks precision. Choice D is incorrect because saying that the claim is “unoriginal,” or imitative, wouldn’t make sense in context. The text faults the claim because it doesn’t consider certain key information about recent archaeological finds; it doesn’t suggest that the author’s claim lacks originality.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 764331f8

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 764331f8

The following text is from Louise Erdrich’s 1986 novel The Beet Queen. The narrator discusses her relationship with her young niece, Dot. Celestine, the narrator’s sister-in-law, is Dot’s mother.

Dot was as impatient with babyhood as I. She tried at once to grow out of it. Celestine never saw that, because she, and only she, took pleasure in Dot’s helpless softness. Only Celestine was saddened by her daughter’s fierce progress. Day by day, Dot grew stronger. In her shopping-cart stroller she exercised to exhaustion, bouncing for hours to develop her leg muscles.

©1986 by Louise Erdrich

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • It offers a detail that shows how Dot is growing stronger.

  • It expresses hope that Celestine will mature psychologically.

  • It explores some of the narrator’s psychological characteristics.

  • It indicates how sad Celestine is by describing a behavior she engages in.

ID: 764331f8 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. In the text, the narrator makes observations about her young niece, Dot, noting that Dot is making progress toward outgrowing babyhood and is growing stronger "day by day." The description of Dot purposefully exercising by "bouncing for hours" reinforces the narrator’s earlier characterization of Dot. The underlined sentence thus offers a detail that shows how Dot is growing stronger.

Choice B is incorrect. While a sentence earlier in the text mentions Celestine’s psychological state (sadness because Dot is growing fast), the underlined sentence doesn’t focus on Celestine at all. Instead, the sentence focuses on Dot’s physical activities to show that she is getting stronger. Choice C is incorrect because the underlined sentence describes Dot’s behavior, not the narrator’s psychological characteristics. While a sentence earlier in the text establishes that the narrator, like Dot, was "impatient with babyhood," the underlined sentence specifically addresses Dot’s physical activities in her stroller. Choice D is incorrect. While an earlier sentence in the text mentions that Celestine is sad, the underlined sentence doesn’t focus on how Celestine feels nor does it describe a behavior that Celestine engages in. The sentence focuses entirely on Dot’s actions, describing her as "bouncing for hours" to show that she is growing stronger.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID dba9eaf8

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: dba9eaf8

Within baleen whale species, some individuals develop an accessory spleen—a seemingly functionless formation of splenetic tissue outside the normal spleen. Given the formation’s greater prevalence among whales known to make deeper dives, some researchers hypothesize that its role isn’t blank; rather, the accessory spleen may actively support diving mechanisms.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • replicable

  • predetermined

  • operative

  • latent

ID: dba9eaf8 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of baleen whale accessory spleens. In this context, “latent” means dormant or functionless. The text sets up a contrast between the idea that baleen whale accessory spleens appear not to have a function and the research indicating that the accessory spleen may actually have a role in supporting the whales’ diving mechanisms. This context therefore conveys the idea that the assumption that baleen whale accessory spleens are latent may be incorrect.

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that the role of the accessory spleen is “replicable,” or capable of being reproduced. The text indicates that the role of the accessory spleen seems to have no function, but some researchers think it does have a role; the text doesn’t address whether the role of the accessory spleen could or couldn’t be reproduced. Choice B is incorrect because suggesting that the role of the accessory spleen is “predetermined,” or decided in advance, wouldn’t make sense in context. Although the researchers may agree that the role of the accessory spleen or any other organ hasn’t been determined in advance, the text focuses on the idea that the accessory spleen was thought to have been functionless but may in fact serve an active role for baleen whales. Choice C is incorrect because it’s the opposite of what the context of the text is conveying. The second sentence of the text indicates that baleen whale accessory spleens may not be useless, not that they aren’t “operative,” or functional.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID a756aa95

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: a756aa95

The province of Xoconochco was situated on the Pacific coast, hundreds of kilometers southeast of Tenochtitlan, the capital of the Aztec Empire. Because Xoconochco’s location within the empire was so blank, cacao and other trade goods produced there could reach the capital only after a long overland journey.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • unobtrusive

  • concealed

  • approximate

  • peripheral

ID: a756aa95 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the location of the province of Xoconochco within the Aztec Empire. As used in this context, “peripheral” means situated toward the outer bounds rather than the center. The text indicates that Xoconochco was located on a coast, hundreds of kilometers away from the capital of the Aztec Empire. The text also states that trade between the province and the capital required “a long overland journey.” This context suggests that Xoconochco was situated toward an edge of the empire’s territory rather than near its center.

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context to refer to Xoconochco’s location within the Aztec Empire as “unobtrusive,” or not blatant or undesirably prominent; it’s not clear how a province’s physical location would or wouldn’t be blatant. Instead of focusing on how noticeable Xoconochco’s location was, the text emphasizes the province’s distance from the capital of the empire, pointing out that because of this distance trade between the two required “a long overland journey.” Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that the province of Xoconochco was located on a coast far from the capital of the Aztec Empire, not that it was “concealed,” or kept out of sight or hidden from view. Nothing in the text suggests that Xoconochco was actually hidden such that people couldn’t see it, and being hidden wouldn’t necessarily result in trade between the province and the capital requiring “a long overland journey.” Choice C is incorrect because to say that Xoconochco’s location within the Aztec Empire was “approximate” would mean that the location either wasn’t precisely correct or was close to some other location. Neither of these meanings would make sense in context because the text indicates that Xoconochco’s location is known and that it was far from the empire’s capital, so there’s no reason to characterize the location as either not precisely correct or close to another location.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 0ed8f24f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 0ed8f24f

K.D. Leka and colleagues found that the Sun’s corona provides an advance indication of solar flares—intense eruptions of electromagnetic radiation that emanate from active regions in the Sun’s photosphere and can interfere with telecommunications on Earth. Preceding a flare, the corona temporarily exhibits increased brightness above the region where the flare is blank.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • antecedent

  • impending

  • innocuous

  • perpetual

ID: 0ed8f24f Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of advance indications of solar flares. In this context the word "impending" means imminent or approaching. The text mentions a study by Leka and colleagues that found that the Sun’s corona provides an advance indication of solar flares. The text then points out why such an advance indication would be useful—solar flares can interfere with communications on Earth—and concludes by describing the characteristic of the corona that gives warning of a solar flare. The text indicates that this characteristic—increased brightness in a particular region of the corona—comes before the appearance of the flare. Therefore, in context, the best answer would indicate that the flare is approaching, or impending.

Choice A is incorrect. The best answer would be one that indicates that the increased brightness of the Sun’s corona precedes the appearance of the flare. But if the flare were "antecedent," or previous, then the flare would instead precede the appearance of the increased brightness of the corona, a statement that is logically inconsistent. Choice C is incorrect. The word "innocuous," or harmless, does not logically complete the text; since solar flares can interfere with communications on Earth, they cannot reasonably be described as innocuous. Choice D is incorrect. If the solar flares have an advance indication of their appearance, then there must therefore be a time before the appearance of the flares when they do not exist. But the word "perpetual," or never-ending, would in context indicate that the flare exists at the same time as the advance indication provided by the Sun’s corona, which would not make logical sense.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 8889d6e2

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 8889d6e2

Text 1

An excavation in Chiquihuite Cave in central Mexico has upended the belief that approximately 13,000 years ago, a group known as the Clovis people were the first human inhabitants of North America. More than 200 crude stone tools were found embedded in a layer of earth that is up to 33,150 years old, revealing that humans occupied the cave thousands of years before the Clovis people reached the continent.

 

Text 2

The objects uncovered in Chiquihuite Cave are intriguing, but it is premature to characterize them as tools. The stone pieces are so roughly shaped that they may have simply fractured from rocks during natural geological activity in the cave. Moreover, their unearthing has thus far not been accompanied by discoveries of other signs of human activity or even traces of human DNA from surfaces.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely respond to the underlined claim in Text 1?

  • By suggesting that it draws a plausible connection between two groups of people but will need to be confirmed with further study

  • By asserting that it rests on an assumption about the stone pieces that is not sufficiently supported by available evidence

  • By acknowledging that it will most likely be proved correct when the stone pieces undergo more detailed analysis

  • By pointing out that it fails to account for evidence that the Clovis people were active on the continent as early as is commonly thought

ID: 8889d6e2 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it reflects how the author of Text 2 would most likely respond to the underlined claim about the Clovis people in Text 1. Text 1 explains that the idea that the Clovis people were the first human inhabitants of North America has been overturned by the unearthing of stone tools in Chiquihuite Cave in Mexico. The tools were found in a layer of earth that is over 33,000 years old—much older than the Clovis people’s arrival 13,000 years ago. The text ends with the claim that the tools reveal that humans lived in the cave long before the Clovis people reached the continent. Text 2, on the other hand, disputes the idea that the stone pieces are definitely tools. Text 2 states that the pieces are so roughly shaped that they may have simply naturally broken off from rocks and, moreover, that no other signs of human activity have been found in the cave. In other words, Text 2 argues that there is no proof yet that humans made the pieces as tools or were even present in the cave. Therefore, the author of Text 2 would most likely say that the claim that humans occupied Chiquihuite Cave long before the Clovis people reached North America rests on an assumption about the stone pieces—that they are human-made tools—that is not sufficiently supported by available evidence.

Choice A is incorrect because Text 1 doesn’t claim that human inhabitants of Chiquihuite Cave and the Clovis people had any connection; the author of Text 1 focuses only on the timing of each group’s presence in North America. Further, the author of Text 2 makes no mention of the Clovis people and indicates that it isn’t clear yet that any human group did inhabit Chiquihuite Cave. Choice C is incorrect because nothing in Text 2 suggests that the author believes the stone pieces probably are human-made tools and will be confirmed as such by further analysis; instead, the author of Text 2 emphasizes the current lack of evidence of human activity in the cave. Choice D is incorrect because Text 2 focuses on the issue of characterizing the stone pieces as tools made by humans, not on the timing of any particular group’s activity in North America; further, Text 1 seems to support the common belief that the Clovis people reached North America 13,000 years ago and challenges only the idea that they were the continent’s first inhabitants. Therefore, there’s no reason to think the author of Text 2 would say that the author of Text 1 overlooks evidence that the Clovis people were active as early as is commonly thought.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 03eeecf3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 03eeecf3

The following text is from H.D.’s 1916 poem “Mid-Day.” In the poem, the speaker is on a path in an outdoor setting.

A slight wind shakes the seed-pods—

my thoughts are spent

as the black seeds.

My thoughts tear me,

I dread their fever.

I am scattered in its whirl.

I am scattered like

the hot shrivelled seeds.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?

  • It illustrates a change in the natural environment that the speaker implies is responsible for the growing misgivings described in the text.

  • It establishes an example of consistency in the natural landscape that the speaker then contrasts with the unpredictability of human emotions.

  • It presents an observation of an occurrence in the natural world that the speaker then expands on to convey a sense of a turbulent interior state.

  • It evokes the ordinariness of an event in nature to suggest that the critical self-evaluation the speaker engages in is a common pursuit.

ID: 03eeecf3 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole. In the text, the speaker mentions the occurrence in nature of seedpods being shaken by a slight wind. The speaker then goes on to compare the black seeds to thoughts, using language that indicates that the speaker’s state of mind is unsettled (e.g., "my thoughts are spent"; "My thoughts tear me, I dread their fever"). The text concludes with a comparison between the speaker’s "scattered" state of mind and the "hot shrivelled seeds." Thus, the underlined portion of the text presents an observation of an occurrence in the natural world that the speaker then expands on to convey a sense of a turbulent interior state.

Choice A is incorrect because the text does not indicate that the seedpods are the cause of the speaker’s state of mind; thus, they could not be responsible for any misgivings the speaker has. Choice B is incorrect because the text does not contrast the natural landscape with the speaker’s state of mind or describe the wind shaking the seedpods as consistent; rather, the text suggests that the state of the natural world and the speaker’s state of mind are similar in that both are unsettled. Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication in the text that the speaker regularly engages in critical self-evaluation, only that in this particular instance the speaker’s state of mind is turbulent.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 441e2b9e

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 441e2b9e

Researchers and conservationists stress that biodiversity loss due to invasive species is blank. For example, people can take simple steps such as washing their footwear after travel to avoid introducing potentially invasive organisms into new environments.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • preventable

  • undeniable

  • common

  • concerning

ID: 441e2b9e Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of how biodiversity loss due to invasive species can be avoided. As used in this context, “preventable” means able to be stopped or kept from happening. The text indicates that “people can take simple steps” to avoid bringing possible invasive species into new environments. It presents these steps as an example of how biodiversity loss due to invasive species is preventable.

Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that a simple step like washing your shoes after traveling is an example of biodiversity loss due to invasive species being “undeniable,” or something that can’t be proved to be wrong. Although the text may suggest that biodiversity loss due to invasive species is something that really happens, the word that completes the text must make the first sentence into an assertion that is illustrated by the second sentence, and the second sentence illustrates the idea that biodiversity loss due to invasive species is preventable, not undeniable. Choice C is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that a simple step like washing your shoes after traveling is an example of biodiversity loss due to invasive species being “common,” or something that happens regularly. Additionally, the text doesn’t provide any information about how frequently invasive species cause biodiversity loss. Choice D is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that a simple step like washing your shoes after traveling is an example of biodiversity loss due to invasive species being “concerning,” or something that is troubling or causes worry. Although the text implies that the phenomenon of biodiversity loss due to invasive species is itself a concerning phenomenon, the word that completes the text must make the first sentence into an assertion that is illustrated by the second sentence, and the second sentence illustrates the idea that biodiversity loss due to invasive species is preventable, not concerning.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 88bb0f6f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 88bb0f6f

Text 1

A team led by Bernardo Strassburg has found that rewilding farmland (returning the land to its natural state) could help preserve biodiversity and offset carbon emissions. The amount of farmland that would need to be restored, they found, is remarkably low. Rewilding a mere 15% of the world’s current farmland would prevent 60% of expected species extinctions and help absorb nearly 299 gigatons of carbon dioxide—a clear win in the fight against the biodiversity and climate crises.

 

Text 2

While Strassburg’s team’s findings certainly offer encouraging insight into the potential benefits of rewilding, it’s important to consider potential effects on global food supplies. The researchers suggest that to compensate for the loss of food-producing land, remaining farmland would need to produce even more food. Thus, policies focused on rewilding farmland must also address strategies for higher-yield farming.

Which choice best describes a difference in how the author of Text 1 and the author of Text 2 view Strassburg’s team’s study?

  • The author of Text 2 approaches the study’s findings with some caution, whereas the author of Text 1 is optimistic about the reported potential environmental benefits.

  • The author of Text 2 claims that the percentage of farmland identified by Strassburg’s team is too low for rewilding to achieve meaningful results, whereas the author of Text 1 thinks the percentage is sufficient.

  • The author of Text 2 believes that the results described by Strassburg’s team are achievable in the near future, whereas the author of Text 1 argues that they likely aren’t.

  • The author of Text 2 focuses on rewilding’s effect on carbon emissions, whereas the author of Text 1 focuses on its effect on biodiversity.

ID: 88bb0f6f Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. Text 1 is extremely positive about Strassburg’s team’s findings, calling the potential results "a clear win in the fight against the biodiversity and climate crises." Text 2 is not as positive, arguing that while the findings point to "potential benefits," we also need to consider the "potential effects on global food supplies."

Choice B is incorrect. This isn’t a difference between the two views. Text 1 does present the 15% number as enough to achieve meaningful results, but that’s not what Text 2 takes issue with: rather, Text 2 argues that we need to consider the effect that rewilding this much farmland would have on food supplies. Choice C is incorrect. This isn’t a difference between the two views. Neither text mentions the timeline for achieving the results described by Strassburg’s team. Choice D is incorrect. This isn’t a difference between the two views. Text 1 focuses on rewilding’s effects on both carbon emissions and biodiversity. Text 2 doesn’t focus on rewilding’s effect on carbon emissions at all. Instead, it focuses on a third factor: global food supplies.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID f878693b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: f878693b

Text 1

In 1954 George Balanchine choreographed a production of The Nutcracker, a ballet by Pyotr Ilyich Tchaikovsky. It has since become a tradition for hundreds of dance companies in North America to stage The Nutcracker each year. But the show is stuck in the past, with an old-fashioned story and references, so it should no longer be produced. Ballet needs to create new traditions if it wants to stay relevant to contemporary audiences.

 

Text 2

The Nutcracker is outdated, but it should be kept because it’s a holiday favorite and provides substantial income for some dance companies. Although it can be behind the times, there are creative ways to update the show. For example, Debbie Allen successfully modernized the story. Her show Hot Chocolate Nutcracker combines ballet, tap, hip-hop, and other styles, and it has been gaining in popularity since it opened in 2009.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely respond to the underlined claim in Text 1?

  • By questioning the idea that the story of The Nutcracker is stuck in the past and by rejecting the suggestion that contemporary audiences would enjoy an updated version

  • By agreeing that contemporary audiences have largely stopped going to see performances of The Nutcracker because it’s so old-fashioned

  • By pointing out that most dance companies could increase their incomes by offering modernized versions of The Nutcracker

  • By suggesting that dance companies should consider offering revised versions of The Nutcracker instead of completely rejecting the show

ID: f878693b Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it reflects how the author of Text 2 would most likely respond to the underlined claim in Text 1. Text 1 begins by noting the success of The Nutcracker but then claims that the ballet is "stuck in the past" and should "no longer be produced." Text 2 begins by conceding that The Nutcracker is indeed outdated but argues that it should continue to be performed, states that the show can be updated to include more contemporary dance styles, and provides an example of one such modernized version, Hot Chocolate Nutcracker. Hence, the author of Text 2 would most likely respond to the underlined claim in Text 1 by suggesting that dance companies should consider offering revised versions of The Nutcracker instead of completely rejecting the show.

Choice A is incorrect because the author of Text 2 advocates for using creative ways to update The Nutcracker and therefore wouldn’t respond to the underlined claim by rejecting the suggestion that contemporary audiences would enjoy an updated version. Choice B is incorrect because although the authors of both texts claim that The Nutcracker is outdated, neither text suggests that contemporary audiences have largely stopped attending productions of the show. On the contrary, Text 2 states that The Nutcracker is a holiday favorite and generates substantial income for some dance companies. Choice C is incorrect because although Text 2 provides an example of a contemporized version of The Nutcracker, the text doesn’t suggest that offering modernized versions is a way to increase income for most dance companies. Rather, the author of Text 2 suggests that offering modernized versions is a way to make the ballet discussed in Text 1 feel less outdated.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID ad4f7362

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: ad4f7362

The following text is from John Dryden’s 1697 translation of Virgil’s poem the Aeneid, written in the first century BCE. Queen Dido has just heard the Trojan hero Aeneas recount a sad tale.

But anxious cares already seiz’d the queen:

She fed within her veins a flame unseen;

The hero’s valor, acts, and birth inspire

Her soul with love, and fan the secret fire.

His words, his looks, imprinted in her heart,

Improve the passion, and increase the smart.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To indicate that Dido is hiding her skepticism of Aeneas’s account

  • To emphasize that Dido has been deeply affected by Aeneas’s story

  • To imply that Dido engages both emotionally and intellectually with Aeneas

  • To suggest that Dido is worried that Aeneas might discover a secret she is keeping from him

ID: ad4f7362 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text, which is to foreground Queen Dido’s strong emotional response to Aeneas’s story. Throughout, the text emphasizes how deeply the queen is affected by both Aeneas’s tale and persona. At the outset, the speaker explicitly states that "anxious cares...seiz’d the queen" and then uses the metaphor of fire ("within her veins a flame unseen" and "secret fire") to evoke the warmth of Dido’s feelings for Aeneas. In addition, the line "His words, his looks, imprinted in her heart" suggests the deep impression that Aeneas’s story makes on Dido, eliciting passion for him ("improv[ing] the passion") and empathy for his suffering ("increas[ing] the smart").

Choice A is incorrect because there’s no indication in the text that Dido is skeptical of Aeneas’s account, much less that she’s trying to conceal that skepticism. On the contrary, the text shows her being moved by his words and developing feelings for him. Choice C is incorrect. While the text mentions that Dido is impressed by Aeneas’s "valor, acts, and birth," which might suggest (but doesn’t necessarily entail) intellectual engagement, the text doesn’t represent Dido’s engagement with Aeneas in a manner that suggests a balance between emotion and intellect. Rather, the text primarily emphasizes her emotional response—specifically her attraction to Aeneas and her emotional investment in his story, indicating that his "valor, acts, and birth inspire / Her soul with love, and fan the secret fire" and that his words and looks elicit passion and empathy. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that Dido is worried about Aeneas discovering a secret she is concealing from him. Though the text begins by mentioning Dido’s "anxious cares," this refers to her growing passion for Aeneas and pity for his suffering, not to worry about a secret she is concealing. The text’s reference to a "flame unseen" and "secret fire" points to Dido’s growing feelings for Aeneas that develop as he recounts his tale, not to a secret that existed before their encounter; moreover, the text provides no indication that Dido is worried Aeneas might discover these feelings.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 35e21b06

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 35e21b06

Text 1

Dominique Potvin and colleagues captured five Australian magpies (Gymnorhina tibicen) to test a new design for attaching tracking devices to birds. As the researchers fitted each magpie with a tracker attached by a small harness, they noticed some magpies without trackers pecking at another magpie’s tracker until it broke off. The researchers suggest that this behavior could be evidence of magpies attempting to help another magpie without benefiting themselves.

 

Text 2

It can be tempting to think that animals are deliberately providing help when we see them removing trackers and other equipment from one another, especially when a species is known to exhibit other cooperative behaviors. At the same time, it can be difficult to exclude the possibility that individuals are simply interested in the equipment because of its novelty, curiously pawing or pecking at it until it detaches.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely respond to the researchers’ perspective in Text 1 on the behavior of the magpies without trackers?

  • That behavior might have been due to the novelty of the magpies’ captive setting rather than to the novelty of the tracker.

  • That behavior likely indicates that the magpies were deliberately attempting to benefit themselves by obtaining the tracker.

  • That behavior may not be evidence of selflessness in Gymnorhina tibicen because not all the captured magpies demonstrated it.

  • That behavior might be adequately explained without suggesting that the magpies were attempting to assist the other magpie.

ID: 35e21b06 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it reflects how the author of Text 2 would most likely respond to the researchers’ perspective in Text 1 on the behavior of the magpies without trackers. According to Text 1, Dominique Potvin and colleagues observed magpies without trackers pecking at a tracker on another magpie until the device fell off. The researchers suggested that the birds might have been attempting to help the other bird, with no benefit to themselves. Text 2 generally discusses scenarios in which animals have been observed removing trackers from each other. The text cautions that it shouldn’t be assumed that these animals are helping one another deliberately, since they might simply be pecking at trackers out of curiosity, causing them to fall off eventually. Therefore, the author of Text 2 would most likely respond to Potvin and colleagues’ perspective in Text 1 by saying that the behavior of the magpies without trackers could be adequately explained without suggesting that they were attempting to assist the other magpie.

Choice A is incorrect because Text 2 never discusses the novelty, or the newness and unusual quality, of the captive settings in which animals have been observed to remove trackers from other animals, nor does it suggest that such novelty might account for this behavior. Instead, the text suggests that it’s the novelty of the tracking equipment itself that might cause the behavior: interested in the trackers because they’re unusual, animals might paw or peck at them until they fall off. Choice B is incorrect because Text 2 never suggests that when animals remove trackers from other animals, they do so because they wish to obtain the trackers for themselves. Instead, Text 2 argues that animals paw or peck at trackers because they are merely curious about them. Choice C is incorrect because Text 2 doesn’t argue that when captured animals are observed removing trackers from each other, their behavior should be regarded as selfless only if all of them participate in it. Instead, the text argues that the behavior may not be selfless at all and may instead be attributed to animals’ curiosity about the new and unusual trackers.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 9b01bcf4

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 9b01bcf4

The 1967 release of Harold Cruse’s book The Crisis of the Negro Intellectual isolated him from almost all other scholars and activists of the American Civil Rights Movement—though many of those thinkers disagreed with each other, he nonetheless found ways to disagree with them all. He thought that activists who believed that Black people such as himself should culturally assimilate were naïve. But he also sharply criticized Black nationalists such as Marcus Garvey who wanted to establish independent, self-contained Black economies and societies, even though Cruse himself identified as a Black nationalist.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • It describes a direction that Cruse felt the Civil Rights Movement ought to take.

  • It indicates that Cruse’s reputation as a persistent antagonist of other scholars is undeserved.

  • It describes a controversy that Cruse’s work caused within the Black nationalist movement.

  • It helps explain Cruse’s position with respect to the community of civil rights thinkers.

ID: 9b01bcf4 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. The text as a whole claims that Cruse disagreed with virtually all other Civil Rights scholars and activists. The underlined sentence describes one way that Cruse both did and didn’t fit in with those thinkers: he criticized Black nationalists, even though he identified as one.

Choice A is incorrect. The underlined sentence doesn’t do this. It describes Cruse’s criticisms—it never mentions what Cruse did want the movement to do instead. Choice B is incorrect. This conflicts with the text, which argues that Cruse did disagree with almost all other scholars of the Civil Rights Movement. Choice C is incorrect. This is a step too far. The text never says that Cruse’s work caused controversy within the Black nationalist movement.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID f52cc78c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Cross-Text Connections
Difficulty
Medium
ID: f52cc78c

Text 1

Polar bears sustain themselves primarily by hunting seals on the Arctic sea ice, but rising ocean temperatures are causing the ice to diminish, raising concerns about polar bear population declines as these large predators’ seal-hunting habitats continue to shrink. A 2020 study examining polar bear populations across the Arctic concluded that populations affected by sea-ice loss are at great risk of extinction by the end of the twenty-first century.

Text 2

Monitoring carried out by researchers from the Norwegian Polar Institute shows that the polar bear population on the Arctic archipelago of Svalbard remains stable and well nourished despite rapidly declining sea ice in recent years. The researchers attribute this population’s resilience in part to a shift in feeding strategies: in addition to hunting seals, the Svalbard polar bears have begun relying on a diet of reindeer meat and birds’ eggs.

Based on the texts, how would the researchers in Text 2 most likely respond to the conclusion presented in the underlined portion of Text 1?

  • By noting that it neglects the possibility of some polar bear populations adapting to changes in their environment

  • By suggesting that it is likely incorrect about the rates at which warming ocean temperatures have caused sea ice to melt in the Arctic

  • By asserting that it overlooks polar bear populations that have not yet been affected by loss of seal-hunting habitats

  • By arguing that it fails to account for polar bears’ reliance on a single seal-hunting strategy

ID: f52cc78c Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. Text 2 describes how the Svalbard polar bears have adapted to the loss of sea ice by diversifying their diet and feeding on reindeer and seabird eggs, resulting in a “stable and well nourished” population despite environmental challenges. This counters the underlined claim that polar bears facing a loss of sea ice are at “great risk of extinction” by the end of the century.

Choice B is incorrect. Text 2 does not challenge the fact that sea ice is rapidly declining in the Arctic due to warming ocean temperatures. In fact, it states that the Svalbard polar bears have faced “rapidly declining sea ice in recent years.” Choice C is incorrect. The claim in Text 1 is specific to polar bear populations affected by the loss of seal hunting habitats, so unaffected populations are irrelevant to the claim. Also, Text 2 doesn’t mention any polar bear populations that haven’t yet been affected by loss of seal hunting habitats. It focuses on a population that has been affected by sea-ice loss but has managed to survive and thrive nevertheless. Choice D is incorrect. Text 2 doesn’t imply that polar bears rely on a single seal-hunting strategy. In fact, the researcher in Text 2 would say that Text 1 fails to account for polar bears’ ability to develop other hunting strategies and food sources.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 8634bf4a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 8634bf4a

Diego Velázquez was the leading artist in the court of King Philip IV of Spain during the seventeenth century, but his influence was hardly blank Spain: realist and impressionist painters around the world employed his techniques and echoed elements of his style.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • derived from

  • recognized in

  • confined to

  • repressed by

ID: 8634bf4a Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the discussion of the artist Diego Velázquez’s influence outside Spain. As used in this context, “confined to” means restricted to. The text says that Velázquez was the leading artist in the Spanish court during the seventeenth century, but it also notes that other painters around the world were influenced by his techniques and style. Thus, Velázquez’s influence was hardly (or almost not) confined to, or restricted to, Spain.

Choice A is incorrect because if Velázquez was a leading artist in Spain, it doesn’t make logical sense to claim that his influence was hardly (or almost not) derived from, or obtained from, Spain. Moreover, the other painters around the world who employed Velázquez’s techniques would by definition be influenced by Spanish style. Choice B is incorrect because if Velázquez was a leading artist in the court of King Philip IV of Spain, then his influence must have been widely recognized, or acknowledged, rather than being hardly (or almost not) recognized. Choice D is incorrect because the text gives no indication that deliberately limiting Velázquez’s influence outside Spain was ever considered by anyone. Thus, even if it is true that his influence was not repressed, or restrained, it doesn’t make logical sense to say so in this context.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 1090b367

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 1090b367

Today composer Scott Joplin is mainly celebrated for his catchy ragtime pieces “Maple Leaf Rag” and “The Entertainer.” However, by overlooking his less famous works, listeners will miss the full range of Joplin’s creativity. For instance, his waltz “Pleasant Moments” and his opera Treemonisha skillfully blend ragtime and classical music. These masterpieces deserve as much fame as Joplin’s biggest hits.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

  • To describe the similarities and differences between ragtime music and opera

  • To argue that more attention should be given to Joplin’s lesser-known works

  • To encourage music lovers to listen to music by many different composers

  • To explain how Joplin learned to compose and perform ragtime music

ID: 1090b367 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it best states the main purpose of the text, which is to make a case for the importance of Scott Joplin’s less famous works. The text begins by introducing Joplin’s most popular works and then goes on to assert that gaining a full understanding of Joplin’s creativity requires a consideration of his lesser-known pieces as well. The text concludes by characterizing the lesser-known works "Pleasant Moments" and Treemonisha as masterpieces that deserve to be famous. These details indicate that the text’s main purpose is to argue that more attention should be given to Joplin’s lesser-known works.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text discusses some of the ragtime music and an opera that Joplin composed, it does not compare the two types of music in general. Instead, the text argues that Joplin’s lesser-known works, including his opera, deserve as much attention as his more famous ragtime pieces receive. Choice C is incorrect because the text discusses only Joplin’s music and does not ask music lovers to listen to a variety of composers. Instead, the text encourages listeners to pay attention to Joplin’s lesser-known works in order to gain a full understanding of his creativity. Choice D is incorrect because the text does not discuss how Joplin learned to compose and perform ragtime music. Instead, the text focuses on Joplin’s less famous works and makes a case for their importance.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 40270820

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 40270820

Catherine L. Cardelús is a researcher who studies canopy soil. Canopy soil is formed in a tree’s branches (its canopy) when dead leaves and other falling things collect. This material breaks down, becoming canopy soil. Canopy soil helps preserve a healthy water cycle (how water moves through the environment) in rainforests. This benefit is one reason Cardelús is interested in the canopy soils in large choibá trees in rainforests in Costa Rica.

Which choice best describes the text’s overall structure?

  • It explains a disagreement between researchers and how it was resolved.

  • It presents an idea and mentions a researcher who disagrees with that idea.

  • It compares the sizes of two types of trees over several years.

  • It introduces a researcher and gives information about what she researches.

ID: 40270820 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately describes the overall structure of the text. The text begins by mentioning Catherine L. Cardelús, "a researcher who studies canopy soil." The text then provides information about her chosen research topic: the formation of canopy soil in tree branches, the role of canopy soil in preserving a healthy water cycle in rainforests, and Cardelús’s specific interest in "the canopy soils in large choibá trees in rainforests in Costa Rica." Thus, the text introduces a researcher and then gives information about what she researches.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention any disagreement between researchers, nor does it describe how such a disagreement was resolved. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t present an idea that Cardelús disagrees with; rather, it describes her research interests and the significance of canopy soil. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t compare the sizes of different types of trees over time. While the text mentions "large choibá trees," it doesn’t compare them to any other tree type or discuss changes in tree size over several years.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID b507f90f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: b507f90f

Latro, the main character of Gene Wolfe’s novel Soldier of the Mist, is a man in ancient Greece. He completely loses his memory whenever he sleeps. So, before sleeping, Latro records the important experiences of each day on a scroll, carefully choosing which ones to blank.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • suspect

  • preserve

  • suggest

  • imagine

ID: b507f90f Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text about Latro, the main character in Gene Wolfe’s novel Soldier of the Mist. In this context, "preserve" means save or keep from destruction or loss. The text describes Latro as a character who loses his memory whenever he sleeps. The text goes on to explain that before going to sleep, Latro records his most important memories to prevent him from forgetting, or losing, them. The context therefore supports the idea that Latro records his most important experiences in an effort to save, or preserve, his memory of them from loss.

Choice A is incorrect because "suspect" would mean mistrust, which wouldn’t make sense in this context. The text emphasizes that in writing down his experiences, Latro carefully chooses those which are most important to him and thus worth remembering later, not that he is mistrustful or has reason to doubt the experiences he records. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, "suggest" would mean propose for consideration. The text emphasizes the fact that Latro actually records those experiences that he has decided are most important to him, not that he merely proposes which experiences to consider for inclusion in his scroll. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, "imagine" would either mean form a mental image of or fabricate, neither of which would logically complete the text. Although it’s possible that reviewing records from previous days might enable Latro to reconstruct mental images of what has happened to him in the past, the text emphasizes the fact that Latro carefully selects and writes down his experiences so he will remember them in the future, not so that he can form mental pictures of them as he writes them down. In a similar vein, the text emphasizes that Latro is recording experiences that have actually happened to him, not that he’s fabricating the experiences he records.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID dcd9ad50

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: dcd9ad50

The following text is adapted from George Eliot’s 1857 short story “The Sad Fortunes of the Rev. Amos Barton.” Mr. Ely is a clergyman in the town of Milby. 

By the laity of Milby and its neighbourhood [Mr. Ely] was regarded as a man of quite remarkable powers and learning, who must make a considerable sensation in London pulpits and drawing-rooms on his occasional visit to the metropolis; and by his brother clergy he was regarded as a discreet and agreeable fellow. Mr. Ely never got into a warm discussion; he suggested what might be thought, but rarely said what he thought himself; he never let either men or women see that he was laughing at them, and he never gave any one an opportunity of laughing at him.

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  • It shows that Mr. Ely had originally been held in high regard by his friends and then details the events that caused their regard for him to subside.

  • It implies that Mr. Ely’s neighbors are more naïve in their estimation of him than people in London are and then explains why his neighbors have been so easily misled.

  • It stresses the discrepancy between Mr. Ely’s public and private conduct and then alludes to his motivation for hiding his true personality.

  • It presents the favorable opinion of Mr. Ely that other people hold and then describes the behaviors of Mr. Ely that enable him to maintain that favorable opinion.

ID: dcd9ad50 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer because it best describes the overall structure of the text. The first part of the text presents the favorable opinions that others hold of Mr. Ely: the laity of Milby regard him as having "remarkable powers and learning" and assume that he also impresses people in London, while his fellow clergy see him as "a discreet and agreeable fellow." The text then goes on to describe Mr. Ely’s behaviors that enable him to cultivate and preserve his positive reputation. The text conveys that he avoids confrontations, abstaining from "warm discussion[s]" (that is, heated or contentious ones); that he avoids offending anyone by "rarely [saying] what he thought himself" and by refraining from openly ridiculing anyone; and that he doesn’t give anyone any reason to ridicule or belittle his own character ("he never gave any one an opportunity of laughing at him"). In other words, these are all behaviors that suggest that Mr. Ely avoids doing anything that might make people dislike him or think poorly of him. Thus, the text begins by presenting the favorable view that people have of Mr. Ely and then describes the behaviors that enable him to maintain that favorable view.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t describe any events that caused people’s regard for Mr. Ely to diminish. Instead, the text explains that the people of Milby hold him in high regard and describes behaviors that suggest how he cultivates that regard. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that Mr. Ely’s neighbors are more naïve than Londoners are or that they’ve been misled. Although the text suggests that Mr. Ely is very guarded in his outward behavior and conceals from people when he may be internally mocking them, which might suggest that people know him less well than they think they do, there’s nothing in the text to suggest that Londoners are less naïve and therefore less easily misled than Mr. Ely’s neighbors are. The text states that the people of Milby believe Mr. Ely to be "remarkable" and that they assume that people in London must find him so, too; it doesn’t say anything about what Londoners actually think of him. Choice C is incorrect. While the text discusses Mr. Ely’s public conduct at length, describing the ways in which he carefully cultivates an agreeable public persona, the text doesn’t discuss how Mr. Ely behaves in private at all; it therefore wouldn’t be accurate to say that the text begins by emphasizing a discrepancy between his public and private conduct. Furthermore, although the text concludes with examples illustrating that Mr. Ely typically doesn’t share his true thoughts, indicating that he may be hiding aspects of his true personality when in public, and although the text as a whole conveys the idea that Mr. Ely benefits from this behavior, which might hint at his motives for doing so, the text doesn’t conclude by alluding to those motives. Instead, the text merely concludes with a description of the behaviors he engages in to win his neighbors’ and colleagues’ approval.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 5d48f889

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 5d48f889

The following text is adapted from Mercedes de Acosta’s 1921 poem “Spring and You.”

Now, Love and April, and the gold of your

    hair,

Are all mingled together

Like the blending of an exotic dream plant

With the fragrant perfume of a strange, frail

    flower.

As used in the text, what does the word “mingled” most nearly mean?

  • Identified

  • Combined

  • Remembered

  • Celebrated

ID: 5d48f889 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because as used in the text, "mingled" most nearly means combined. In the text, the speaker refers to several concepts mingling together and then compares this to "the blending of" two other things (an exotic plant and the fragrance of a strange flower). This comparison conveys that the speaker views the concepts of love, April, and the gold of someone’s hair as being blended together, or combined.

Choice A is incorrect because "mingled" means combined, not identified. The speaker names several concepts (love, April, and the gold color of someone’s hair) and then moves to a comparison of their mingling together to "the blending of" a plant and the scent of a flower, conveying the idea that the speaker views the concepts as blended together, or combined. Choice C is incorrect. The text as a whole may refer to a memory, but the comparison of the mingling of several concepts (love, April, and the gold color of someone’s hair) to "the blending of" a plant and the scent of a flower conveys that the speaker views those concepts as actually blended together, or combined, and not simply remembered at the same time. Choice D is incorrect. The speaker refers to several concepts (love, April, and the gold color of someone’s hair) and then compares the mingling together of those concepts to "the blending of" a plant and the scent of a flower; rather than suggesting that the concepts are celebrated, this comparison conveys that the speaker views the concepts as blended together, or combined.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID d168e7c5

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Text Structure and Purpose
Difficulty
Medium
ID: d168e7c5

The following text is from Annie Dillard’s 1987 autobiographical novel An American Childhood. The narrator is a young girl living in Pittsburgh.

I walked. My mother had given me the freedom of the streets as soon as I could say our telephone number. I walked and memorized the neighborhood. I made a mental map and located myself upon it. At night in bed I rehearsed the small world’s scheme and set challenges: Find the store using backyards only. Imagine a route from the school to my friend’s house.

©1987 by Annie Dillard

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?

  • It describes the narrator trying to memorize her telephone number.

  • It provides examples of what the narrator thinks about at night.

  • It gives directions to the narrator’s favorite local store.

  • It portrays the narrator’s relationship with her mother.

ID: d168e7c5 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it accurately describes how the underlined portion functions in the text as a whole. In the text, the narrator explains that she walks around her neighborhood, making a "mental map" of the area that she imagines herself navigating through. She then states that she rehearses "the small world’s scheme"—that is, imagines moving through her mental map—and challenges herself to use the map in her mind while lying in bed at night. The underlined portion presents two such challenges (getting to the store through backyards and traveling from school to a friend’s house) and thus provides examples of what the narrator thinks about at night.

Choice A is incorrect because the underlined portion makes no mention of memorizing a telephone number. Although the narrator mentions that she had to learn the home telephone number before her mother would give her permission to walk around the neighborhood, there is nothing in the underlined portion or the rest of the text about memorizing the telephone number. Choice C is incorrect. Although the underlined portion refers to navigation tasks like finding a route to a store only through backyards, the text contains no specific directions to any store, nor is any store identified as the narrator’s favorite. Choice D is incorrect because the underlined portion makes no mention of the narrator’s mother and doesn’t address the narrator’s relationship with her. Although the narrator mentions that her mother gave her permission as a child to walk around the neighborhood, there is nothing in the underlined portion or the rest of the text about the mother or her relationship to her child.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID e8fb0744

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Hard
ID: e8fb0744

As an undergraduate researcher in anthropology, Jennifer C. Chen contributed to a groundbreaking study challenging the accepted view that among prehistoric peoples, female participation in hunting was blank. The research team’s review of data from late Pleistocene and early Holocene burials in the Americas revealed that, in fact, as many as half of the hunters in those populations were female.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • inevitable

  • satisfactory

  • negligible

  • commonplace

ID: e8fb0744 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the study of female participation in hunting among prehistoric peoples. In this context, “negligible” means not significant enough to be worth considering. The text says that the study challenged the accepted view of female participation in hunting among prehistoric peoples. The text goes on to say that the researchers found that “in fact, as many as half” the hunters in the groups studied were female. The phrase “in fact” establishes a contrast indicating that the finding that as many as half the hunters were female differs from the accepted view. This context suggests, then, that the accepted view is that female participation in hunting was negligible. 

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that the study challenged the accepted view by showing that as many as half of hunters among prehistoric peoples were female, which suggests that the accepted view is that female participation was low, not that female participation was “inevitable,” or unavoidable. Nothing in the text suggests that the accepted view is that prehistoric peoples could not avoid female participation in hunting. Choice B is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that the accepted view of female participation in hunting among prehistoric peoples is that such participation was “satisfactory,” or sufficient to meet a requirement or demand. There is no information in the text about any demands or requirements regarding female participation in hunting, let alone any information about how much female participation in hunting would be enough to satisfy those demands or requirements. Instead, the text indicates that the study challenged the accepted view by showing that as many as half the hunters in the groups studied were female, suggesting that the accepted view is that female participation in hunting was low. Choice D is incorrect because the text indicates that the study challenged the accepted view by showing that as many as half of hunters among the prehistoric peoples studied were female, which suggests that the accepted view is that female participation was low, not that female participation was “commonplace,” or ordinary or unremarkable. Although the study under discussion suggests that female participation may have been commonplace, that study is presented as challenging the accepted view, not as reinforcing the accepted view. 

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID c843d63c

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Medium
ID: c843d63c

The artisans of the Igun Eronmwon guild in Benin City, Nigeria, typically blank the bronze- and brass-casting techniques that have been passed down through their families since the thirteenth century, but they don’t strictly observe every tradition; for example, guild members now use air-conditioning motors instead of handheld bellows to help heat their forges.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • experiment with

  • adhere to

  • improve on

  • grapple with

ID: c843d63c Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of bronze- and brass-casting techniques used by the Igun Eronmwon guild. In this context “adhere to” would mean to act in accordance with. The text states that although members of the Igun Eronmwon guild typically do something with techniques that have been passed down since the thirteenth century, they “don’t strictly observe every tradition.” By establishing a contrast with not always following traditions, the context suggests that guild members do typically adhere to traditional techniques.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context “experiment with” would mean to do something new with. Although using motors rather than manual bellows is presented as a new approach, the text establishes a contrast between what the guild members typically do with techniques that have been passed down over centuries and the idea that the members “don’t strictly observe every tradition.” The phrase “experiment with” wouldn’t support the contrast because regularly trying new things with the techniques would be an example of not strictly following all traditions. Choice C is incorrect because in this context “improve on” would mean to make better. Although using motors rather than manual bellows might be an improved approach, the text establishes a contrast between what the guild members typically do with techniques that have been passed down over centuries and the idea that the members “don’t strictly observe every tradition.” The phrase “improve on” wouldn’t support the contrast because regularly making changes to the techniques would be an example of not strictly following all traditions. Choice D is incorrect because in this context “grapple with” would mean to try hard to solve a difficult problem. Although bronze- and brass-casting are likely challenging tasks, nothing in the text suggests that the guild members have any particular difficulties with the techniques passed down since the thirteenth century. 

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 2390e956

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Craft and Structure
Skill
Words in Context
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 2390e956

Ronyoung Kim creatively captures the Korean American immigrant experience in her novel Clay Walls by writing about a family from three blank perspectives. The first section of the novel is from the mother Haesu’s perspective, the second is from the father Chun’s perspective, and the last is from the daughter Faye’s perspective.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word?

  • distinct

  • required

  • unintended

  • unknown

ID: 2390e956 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Ronyoung Kim’s novel Clay Walls. In this context, "distinct" means clearly separate and different. The text indicates that the novel consists of three sections and that each section is narrated from the perspective of a different character. This context supports the idea that Kim’s novel features three distinct perspectives.

Choice B is incorrect because describing the three perspectives in Kim’s novel as "required," or demanded as necessary to be done or provided, wouldn’t make sense in context. When writing a novel, a novelist is free to choose to narrate the story from any number of perspectives. There’s nothing in the text to indicate that providing three perspectives was demanded of Kim. Instead, the text focuses on identifying the three different perspectives featured in Kim’s novel. Choice C is incorrect because describing the three perspectives in Kim’s novel as "unintended," or not planned as a purpose or goal, wouldn’t make sense in context. Authors make deliberate choices about the perspectives they feature in their works, and the text indicates that Kim chose to incorporate three different perspectives in her novel. Choice D is incorrect because describing the three perspectives in Kim’s novel as "unknown," or not revealed, wouldn’t make sense in context. The text directly identifies the three perspectives that appear in her novel as those of Faye and her two parents, Haesu and Chun, which indicates that the novel’s perspectives are in fact known.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 2b08f514

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Expression of Ideas
Skill
Transitions
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 2b08f514

The prime meridian, the global indicator of zero degrees longitude established in 1884, was originally determined using astronomically derived coordinates. blank as decades passed, new calculations would reveal increasingly precise coordinates, yet the prime meridian remained unchanged; it wasn’t until the 1980s that, spurred by improved geodetic data, the prime meridian was officially moved—roughly one hundred meters east.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

  • Specifically,

  • To that end,   

  • Again and again,

  • Granted,

ID: 2b08f514 Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. "Again and again" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that new calculations revealed increasingly precise coordinates for the location of the prime meridian—refers to events that occurred multiple times in the decades after the establishment of the prime meridian in 1884 (which is described in the preceding sentence).

Choice A is incorrect because "specifically" illogically signals that the information in this sentence provides specific, precise details elaborating on the description of the prime meridian’s establishment in the previous sentence. Instead, the sentence indicates that increasingly precise coordinates were revealed on multiple occasions in the decades following the meridian’s establishment. Choice B is incorrect because "to that end" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a means of accomplishing a goal established in the previous sentence about the prime meridian’s establishment. Instead, the sentence indicates that increasingly precise coordinates were revealed on multiple occasions in the decades following the meridian’s establishment. Choice D is incorrect because "granted" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is in opposition to the information about the prime meridian’s establishment in the previous sentence. Instead, the sentence indicates that increasingly precise coordinates were revealed on multiple occasions in the decades following the meridian’s establishment.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID afec1a70

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Expression of Ideas
Skill
Rhetorical Synthesis
Difficulty
Hard
ID: afec1a70

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

  • As engineered structures, many bird nests are uniquely flexible yet cohesive.
  • A research team led by Yashraj Bhosale wanted to better understand the mechanics behind these structural properties.
  • Bhosale’s team used laboratory models that simulated the arrangement of flexible sticks into nest-like structures.
  • The researchers analyzed the points where sticks touched one another.
  • When pressure was applied to the model nests, the number of contact points between the sticks increased, making the structures stiffer.

The student wants to present the primary aim of the research study. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

  • Bhosale’s team wanted to better understand the mechanics behind bird nests’ uniquely flexible yet cohesive structural properties.

  • The researchers used laboratory models that simulated the arrangement of flexible sticks and analyzed the points where sticks touched one another.

  • After analyzing the points where sticks touched, the researchers found that the structures became stiffer when pressure was applied.

  • As analyzed by Bhosale’s team, bird nests are uniquely flexible yet cohesive engineered structures.

ID: afec1a70 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. It describes the reason Bhosale’s team wanted to study the structures of bird nests—that is to say, the study’s primary aim.

Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t present the primary aim of the research study. It describes how the study worked, but not why it was done. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t present the primary aim of the research study. It describes a result of the experiment, but not why it was carried out. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t present the primary aim of the research study.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID e0bd4f8a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Expression of Ideas
Skill
Transitions
Difficulty
Easy
ID: e0bd4f8a

In 1942, the 1,500-mile Alaska Highway was constructed in under nine months, largely due to the skilled work of nearly 4,000 African American soldiers from US Army engineering regiments. The soldiers’ contribution was overlooked for decades. blank in 2017, lawmakers declared October 25 a day of recognition—“Alaska Highway Day”—for the troops who helped build this critical roadway.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

  • Lastly,

  • Then,

  • Similarly,

  • For example,

ID: e0bd4f8a Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. "Then" logically signals that the event described in this sentence—lawmakers’ 2017 declaration of Alaska Highway Day—is part of a chronological sequence of events, occurring after the decades-long period in which the soldiers’ contribution was overlooked.

Choice A is incorrect because "lastly" illogically signals that this sentence presents the last of a series of points or reasons. Instead, it describes a later event occurring in a chronological sequence of events. Choice C is incorrect because "similarly" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is similar to the previous information about the soldiers’ contribution being overlooked for decades. Instead, it describes an event occurring after that decades-long period. Choice D is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that this sentence provides an example illustrating the previous information about the soldiers’ contribution being overlooked for decades. Instead, it describes an event occurring after that decades-long period.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 660d50dc

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Expression of Ideas
Skill
Transitions
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 660d50dc

Samuel Coleridge-Taylor was a prominent classical music composer from England who toured the US three times in the early 1900s. The child of a West African father and an English mother, Coleridge-Taylor emphasized his mixed-race ancestry. For example, he referred to himself as Anglo-African. blank he incorporated the sounds of traditional African music into his classical music compositions.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

  • In addition,

  • Actually,

  • However,

  • Regardless,

ID: 660d50dc Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. “In addition” logically signals that the detail in this sentence—that Coleridge-Taylor included traditional African music in his classical compositions—adds to the information in the previous sentence. Specifically, the previous sentence indicates one way in which Coleridge-Taylor emphasized his mixed-race ancestry, and the claim that follows indicates a second, additional way.

Choice B is incorrect because “actually” illogically signals that the detail in this sentence is surprising in light of the information in the previous sentence. Instead, the detail adds to the information, indicating a second, additional way in which Coleridge-Taylor emphasized his mixed-race ancestry. Choice C is incorrect because “however” illogically signals that the detail in this sentence contrasts with the information in the previous sentence. Instead, the detail adds to the information, indicating a second, additional way in which Coleridge-Taylor emphasized his mixed-race ancestry. Choice D is incorrect because “regardless” illogically signals that the detail in this sentence is true despite the information in the previous sentence. Instead, the detail adds to the information, indicating a second, additional way in which Coleridge-Taylor emphasized his mixed-race ancestry.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 4d2736f0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Expression of Ideas
Skill
Transitions
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 4d2736f0

In her poetry collection Thomas and Beulah, Rita Dove interweaves the titular characters’ personal stories with broader historical narratives. She places Thomas’s journey from the American South to the Midwest in the early 1900s within the larger context of the Great Migration. blank Dove sets events from Beulah’s personal life against the backdrop of the US Civil Rights Movement.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

  • Specifically,

  • Thus,

  • Regardless,

  • Similarly,

ID: 4d2736f0 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. “Similarly” logically signals that the information in the sentence—that Dove situates Beulah’s life in the context of the US Civil Rights Movement—is similar to the previous information about Thomas and the Great Migration. Both sentences support the first sentence’s claim that Dove portrays her characters in the context of broader historical narratives. 

Choice A is incorrect because “specifically” illogically signals that the information about Beulah in this sentence provides specific details elaborating on the previous information about Thomas. Instead, it’s similar to the previous information about Thomas. Choice B is incorrect because “thus” illogically signals that the information about Beulah in this sentence is a result or consequence of the previous information about Thomas. Instead, it’s similar to the previous information about Thomas. Choice C is incorrect because “regardless” illogically signals that the information about Beulah in this sentence is true despite the previous information about Thomas. Instead, it’s similar to the previous information about Thomas.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID 39ccb463

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Expression of Ideas
Skill
Rhetorical Synthesis
Difficulty
Hard
ID: 39ccb463

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

  • The Atlantic Monthly magazine was first published in 1857.
  • The magazine focused on politics, art, and literature.
  • In 2019, historian Cathryn Halverson published the book Faraway Women and the “Atlantic Monthly.”
  • Its subject is female authors whose autobiographies appeared in the magazine in the early 1900s.
  • One of the authors discussed is Juanita Harrison.

The student wants to introduce Cathryn Halverson’s book to an audience already familiar with the Atlantic Monthly. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

  • Cathryn Halverson’s Faraway Women and the “Atlantic Monthly”  discusses female authors whose autobiographies appeared in the magazine in the early 1900s.

  • A magazine called the Atlantic Monthly, referred to in Cathryn Halverson’s book title, was first published in 1857.

  • Faraway Women and the “Atlantic Monthly”  features contributors to the Atlantic Monthly, first published in 1857 as a magazine focusing on politics, art, and literature. 

  • An author discussed by Cathryn Halverson is Juanita Harrison, whose autobiography appeared in the Atlantic Monthly in the early 1900s.

ID: 39ccb463 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The sentence effectively introduces Cathryn Halverson’s book to an audience already familiar with the Atlantic Monthly, noting the title of Halverson’s book and describing its content without providing background information about the Atlantic Monthly.

Choice B is incorrect. The sentence introduces the Atlantic Monthly and mentions that it’s referred to in Cathryn Halverson’s book title; it doesn’t effectively introduce Halverson’s book. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence assumes that the audience is unfamiliar with the Atlantic Monthly, providing background information about the magazine; it doesn’t effectively introduce Halverson’s book to an audience already familiar with the Atlantic Monthly. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence assumes that the audience is familiar with the Atlantic Monthly, it doesn’t effectively introduce Cathryn Halverson’s book.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID af76771f

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Expression of Ideas
Skill
Rhetorical Synthesis
Difficulty
Easy
ID: af76771f

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

  • Sue is the nickname of a dinosaur fossil specimen housed at the Field Museum of Natural History.
  • The Field Museum of Natural History is located in Chicago, Illinois.
  • Sue is a member of the genus Tyrannosaurus.
  • Big Mike is the nickname of a dinosaur fossil specimen housed at the Museum of the Rockies. 
  • The Museum of the Rockies is located in Bozeman, Montana.
  • Big Mike is a member of the genus Tyrannosaurus.

The student wants to emphasize a similarity between the two specimens. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

  • The Field Museum of Natural History, where Sue is housed, is located in Chicago, Illinois.

  • Big Mike is the nickname of a Tyrannosaurus fossil specimen housed at the Museum of the Rockies in Bozeman, Montana. 

  • The dinosaur fossil specimens Sue and Big Mike are both members of the genus Tyrannosaurus.

  • While Sue is housed at the Field Museum of Natural History, Big Mike is housed at the Museum of the Rockies.

ID: af76771f Answer
Correct Answer:

C

Rationale

Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between the two specimens, noting that Sue and Big Mike are members of the same genus: Tyrannosaurus.

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence only provides information about where one of the specimens (Sue) can be found; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two specimens. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence only provides information about one specimen (Big Mike); it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two specimens. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence contrasts the locations of Sue and Big Mike; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two specimens.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 064c8999

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Expression of Ideas
Skill
Rhetorical Synthesis
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 064c8999

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

  • The Haber-Bosch process is an industrial process used to manufacture ammonia (NH3).
  • It was invented by chemists Fritz Haber and Carl Bosch in 1910.
  • The process’s primary reaction combines nitrogen (N2) from the air with hydrogen (H2).
  • It requires an iron catalyst and high temperatures and pressures.
  • Most of the ammonia produced by this process is used in fertilizers.

The student wants to provide an overview of the Haber-Bosch process. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

  • The Haber-Bosch process needs nitrogen, hydrogen, and an iron catalyst.

  • The Haber-Bosch process uses an iron catalyst along with high temperatures and pressures to manufacture ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen.

  • Chemists Fritz Haber and Carl Bosch invented an industrial process to manufacture ammonia to be used in fertilizers.

  • In 1910, chemists Fritz Haber and Carl Bosch invented the Haber-Bosch process, which requires high temperatures and pressures.

ID: 064c8999 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The sentence provides an overview of the Haber-Bosch process, explaining that it uses an iron catalyst, high temperatures, and high pressures to manufacture ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen.

Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence identifies some of the process’s required components (nitrogen, hydrogen, and an iron catalyst), the overview is incomplete; it doesn’t explain what the process does (produces ammonia) or mention the conditions needed for it to function (high temperatures and pressures). Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence indicates who invented the process (Fritz Haber and Carl Bosch) and that it produces ammonia, the overview is incomplete; it doesn’t mention any of the necessary ingredients or conditions. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the inventors of the process along with the required conditions (high temperatures and pressures), it doesn’t explain that the process produces ammonia or indicate what components are needed.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID b46e0c8a

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Expression of Ideas
Skill
Rhetorical Synthesis
Difficulty
Medium
ID: b46e0c8a

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

  • Organisms release cellular material into their environment by shedding substances such as hair or skin.
  • The DNA in these substances is known as environmental DNA, or eDNA.
  • Researchers collect and analyze eDNA to detect the presence of species that are difficult to observe.
  • Geneticist Sara Oyler-McCance’s research team analyzed eDNA in water samples from the Florida Everglades to detect invasive constrictor snake species in the area.
  • The study determined a 91% probability of detecting Burmese python eDNA in a given location.

The student wants to present the study to an audience already familiar with environmental DNA. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

  • Sara Oyler-McCance’s researchers analyzed eDNA in water samples from the Florida Everglades for evidence of invasive constrictor snakes, which are difficult to observe.

  • An analysis of eDNA can detect the presence of invasive species that are difficult to observe, such as constrictor snakes.

  • Researchers found Burmese python eDNA, or environmental DNA, in water samples; eDNA is the DNA in released cellular materials, such as shed skin cells.

  • Sara Oyler-McCance’s researchers analyzed environmental DNA (eDNA)—that is, DNA from cellular materials released by organisms—in water samples from the Florida Everglades.

ID: b46e0c8a Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. This choice presents the study in a way that assumes the audience is already familiar with eDNA.

Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t present the study. It only states a general fact about eDNA analysis. Choice C is incorrect. This choice isn’t suited for an audience already familiar with eDNA. A familiar audience wouldn’t need to have the term defined or explained. Choice D is incorrect. This choice isn’t suited for an audience already familiar with eDNA. A familiar audience wouldn’t need to have the term defined or explained. It also doesn’t present the study.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 48d0bb34

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Expression of Ideas
Skill
Rhetorical Synthesis
Difficulty
Medium
ID: 48d0bb34

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

  • Sam Maloof (1916–2009) was an American woodworker and furniture designer.
  • He was the son of Lebanese immigrants.
  • He received a “genius grant” from the John D. and Catherine T. MacArthur Foundation in 1985.
  • The Museum of Fine Arts in Boston, Massachusetts, owns a rocking chair that Maloof made from walnut wood.
  • The armrests and the seat of the chair are sleek and contoured, and the back consists of seven spindle-like slats.

The student wants to describe the rocking chair to an audience unfamiliar with Sam Maloof. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

  • With its sleek, contoured armrests and seat, the walnut rocking chair in Boston’s Museum of Fine Arts is just one piece of furniture created by American woodworker Sam Maloof.

  • Sam Maloof was born in 1916 and died in 2009, and during his life, he made a chair that you can see if you visit the Museum of Fine Arts in Boston.

  • Furniture designer Sam Maloof was a recipient of one of the John D. and Catherine T. MacArthur Foundation’s “genius grants.”

  • The rocking chair is made from walnut, and it has been shaped such that its armrests and seat are sleek and contoured.

ID: 48d0bb34 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The sentence effectively describes the rocking chair to an audience unfamiliar with Sam Maloof, noting its sleek, contoured armrests and seat and explaining that Sam Maloof (the walnut chair’s creator) was an American woodworker.

Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence explains who Sam Maloof was and mentions a chair, it doesn’t describe the chair. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence explains who Sam Maloof was, it doesn’t describe the rocking chair. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence describes the rocking chair, it doesn’t explain who Sam Maloof was.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID aa7e10d0

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Expression of Ideas
Skill
Rhetorical Synthesis
Difficulty
Medium
ID: aa7e10d0

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

  • Species belonging to the Orchidaceae (orchid) family can be found in both tropical and temperate environments.
  • Orchidaceae species diversity has not been well studied in temperate forests, such as those in Oaxaca, Mexico.
  • Arelee Estefanía Muñoz-Hernández led a study to determine how many different Orchidaceae species are present in the forests of Oaxaca.
  • Muñoz-Hernández and her team collected orchids each month for a year at a site in Oaxaca.
  • Seventy-four Orchidaceae species were present at the site.

The student wants to present the study and its findings. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

  • A study led by Arelee Estefanía Muñoz-Hernández identified a total of 74 Orchidaceae species in the temperate forests of Oaxaca, Mexico. 

  • There are orchids in many environments, but there are 74 Orchidaceae species in Oaxaca, Mexico.

  • Oaxaca, Mexico, is home to temperate forests containing 74 Orchidaceae species.

  • Arelee Estefanía Muñoz-Hernández and her team wanted to know how many different Orchidaceae species are present in the forests of Oaxaca, Mexico, so they conducted a study to collect orchids.

ID: aa7e10d0 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. This choice most effectively presents the study and its findings. It opens with the study and names its lead researcher, then tells us its finding: that they identified 74 Orchidaceae species in the temperate forests of Oaxaca, Mexico. 

Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t include the study’s findings, so it fails to achieve the goal. It doesn’t mention that there was a study at all.  Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t present the study, so it fails to achieve the goal. It doesn’t mention that there was a study at all.  Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t include the study’s findings, so it fails to achieve the goal.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID 264e7415

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Expression of Ideas
Skill
Rhetorical Synthesis
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 264e7415

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

  • The Philadelphia and Lancaster Turnpike was a road built between 1792 and 1794.
  • It was the first private turnpike in the United States.
  • It connected the cities of Philadelphia and Lancaster in the state of Pennsylvania.
  • It was sixty-two miles long.

The student wants to emphasize the distance covered by the Philadelphia and Lancaster Turnpike. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

  • The sixty-two-mile-long Philadelphia and Lancaster Turnpike connected the Pennsylvania cities of Philadelphia and Lancaster.

  • The Philadelphia and Lancaster Turnpike was the first private turnpike in the United States.

  • The Philadelphia and Lancaster Turnpike, which connected two Pennsylvania cities, was built between 1792 and 1794.

  • A historic Pennsylvania road, the Philadelphia and Lancaster Turnpike was completed in 1794.

ID: 264e7415 Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the distance covered by the Philadelphia and Lancaster Turnpike, noting that the turnpike, which connected the two Pennsylvania cities in its name, was sixty-two miles long.

Choice B is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the significance of the turnpike; it doesn’t emphasize the distance that the turnpike covered. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence mentions that the turnpike connected two Pennsylvania cities, it doesn’t emphasize the specific distance covered by the turnpike. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes when the turnpike was built; it doesn’t emphasize the distance that the turnpike covered.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID 25a197dd

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Expression of Ideas
Skill
Rhetorical Synthesis
Difficulty
Easy
ID: 25a197dd

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

  • The human body requires magnesium for over 300 essential processes.
  • Magnesium is a mineral present in many foods.
  • Peanuts contain 49 milligrams per ounce (mg/oz) of magnesium.
  • Almonds contain 80 mg/oz.
  • Chia seeds contain 150 mg/oz.

The student wants to identify which of the three foods has the highest magnesium content. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

  • At 80 mg/oz, almonds contain more magnesium than peanuts (49 mg/oz).

  • Chia seeds contain 150 mg/oz of magnesium, which is more than peanuts and almonds.

  • Magnesium is present in many foods, including peanuts, almonds, and chia seeds.

  • Peanuts contain 49 mg/oz of magnesium, a mineral the human body requires for over 300 essential processes.

ID: 25a197dd Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The sentence identifies chia seeds as having the highest magnesium content of the three foods, noting that they contain 150 mg/oz, which is more than both peanuts and almonds.

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence compares the magnesium content of almonds and peanuts; it doesn’t identify which of the three foods has the highest magnesium content. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence merely mentions the three foods; it doesn’t identify which one has the highest magnesium content. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence identifies the magnesium content of peanuts; it doesn’t identify which of the three foods has the highest magnesium content.

Question Difficulty:

Easy

Question ID e3edc138

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Expression of Ideas
Skill
Transitions
Difficulty
Hard
ID: e3edc138

In a heated debate in biogeography, the field is divided between dispersalists and vicariancists. blank there are those who argue that dispersal is the most crucial determining factor in a species’ distribution, and those who insist that vicariance (separation due to geographic barriers) is. Biogeographer Isabel Sanmartín counts herself among neither.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

  • Furthermore,

  • By contrast,

  • Similarly,

  • That is,

ID: e3edc138 Answer
Correct Answer:

D

Rationale

Choice D is the best answer. “That is” logically signals that this sentence clarifies the terms of the scientific debate introduced in the previous sentence by explaining the difference between dispersalists and vicariancists.

Choice A is incorrect because “furthermore” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is merely additional to (and separate from) the information in the previous sentence about the scientific debate. Instead, the information about dispersalists and vicariancists clarifies the terms of that debate. Choice B is incorrect because “by contrast” illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the information in the previous sentence about the scientific debate. Instead, the information about dispersalists and vicariancists clarifies the terms of that debate. Choice C is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is merely similar to the information in the previous sentence about the scientific debate. Instead, the information about dispersalists and vicariancists clarifies the terms of that debate.

Question Difficulty:

Hard

Question ID cf11282b

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Expression of Ideas
Skill
Transitions
Difficulty
Medium
ID: cf11282b

Scientists were able to isolate a relatively pure sample of selenium in 1817, the same year they first discovered the element’s existence. blank the isolation process took longer for molybdenum, which was isolated in its pure form three years after scientists first discovered it.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

  • By contrast,

  • Thus,

  • Similarly,

  • For instance,

ID: cf11282b Answer
Correct Answer:

A

Rationale

Choice A is the best answer. "By contrast" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that isolating molybdenum was a relatively long process—contrasts with the previous information that isolating selenium was a short process.

Choice B is incorrect because "thus" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a result of the previous information about selenium’s short isolation process. Instead, the sentence presents contrasting information about molybdenum’s longer isolation process. Choice C is incorrect because "similarly" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is similar to the previous information about selenium’s short isolation process. Instead, the sentence presents contrasting information about molybdenum’s longer isolation process. Choice D is incorrect because "for instance" illogically signals that the information in this sentence exemplifies the previous information about selenium’s short isolation process. Instead, the sentence presents contrasting information about molybdenum’s longer isolation process.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID a40c7aa3

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Expression of Ideas
Skill
Transitions
Difficulty
Medium
ID: a40c7aa3

Most of the planets that have been discovered outside our solar system orbit G-type stars, like our Sun. In 2014, blank researchers identified a planet orbiting KELT-9, a B-type star more than twice as massive and nearly twice as hot as the Sun. Called KELT-9b, it is one of the hottest planets ever discovered.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

  • likewise,

  • however,

  • therefore,

  • for example,

ID: a40c7aa3 Answer
Correct Answer:

B

Rationale

Choice B is the best answer. The word “however” logically signals that the information in this sentence about the planet KELT-9b—that it orbits a B-type star—contrasts with the previous information about planets discovered outside our solar system. Most of these planets orbit G-type stars, not B-type stars.

Choice A is incorrect because “likewise” illogically signals that the information about the planet KELT-9b is similar to the previous information about most planets outside our solar system. Instead, it contrasts with that information. Choice C is incorrect because “therefore” illogically signals that the information about the planet KELT-9b is a result of the previous information about most planets outside our solar system. Instead, it contrasts with that information. Choice D is incorrect because “for example” illogically signals that the information about the planet KELT-9b is an example of the previous information about most planets outside our solar system. Instead, it contrasts with that information.

Question Difficulty:

Medium

Question ID e3bbf2bf

Assessment
SAT
Test
Reading and Writing
Domain
Expression of Ideas
Skill
Rhetorical Synthesis
Difficulty
Easy
ID: e3bbf2bf

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

  • In World War I, US soldiers who were members of the Choctaw Nation in Oklahoma participated in the Choctaw Code Talkers program.
  • The Choctaw Code Talkers were trained to relay coded military information in their native language.
  • In World War II, the US Army recruited Navajo (Diné) soldiers to transmit coded messages in their native language.
  • These soldiers were known as the Navajo Code Talkers.

The student wants to emphasize a similarity between the Choctaw Code Talkers and the Navajo Code Talkers. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

  • US soldiers who were members of the Choctaw Nation in Oklahoma used their native language to relay coded information.

  • In World War II, one group of Navajo (Diné) soldiers was known as the Navajo Code Talkers.

  • Both the Choctaw Code Talkers and the Navajo Code Talkers transmitted coded military messages in the soldiers’ native languages.

    • The Choctaw Code Talkers, not the Navajo Code Talkers, served in World War I.

    ID: e3bbf2bf Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between the Choctaw Code Talkers and the Navajo Code Talkers by explaining that both groups used their native languages to transmit coded messages for the military.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence describes the Choctaw Code Talkers; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the Choctaw Code Talkers and the Navajo Code Talkers. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence introduces the Navajo Code Talkers; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the Choctaw Code Talkers and the Navajo Code Talkers. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a difference between the Choctaw Code Talkers and the Navajo Code Talkers; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 00221c00

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 00221c00

    In 1815, while in exile in Jamaica, Venezuelan revolutionary Simón Bolívar penned a letter praising England’s republican government and expressing hope that Latin American nations seeking independence from Spain might achieve something similar. The letter was addressed to a local merchant, Henry Cullen; blank though, Bolívar’s goal was to persuade political leaders from England and Europe to support his cause.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • additionally,

    • ultimately,

    • accordingly,

    • consequently,

    ID: 00221c00 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. “Ultimately” means “in the long run” or “at the highest level.” Although Bolívar wrote to a local merchant, his ultimate goal was to send a message to political leaders in Europe. Therefore, “ultimately” fits perfectly in this context.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates the addition of an agreeing idea. However, the second part of the sentence actually disagrees with the first part. Bolívar addressed the letter to Cullen, but he was really sending a message to someone else. Notice how the contrast word “though” also acts as a transition between these ideas. Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses a cause-and-effect transition. Bolívar’s writing of the letter to Cullen would not cause him to have a goal of persuading European powers to support him. Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses a cause-and-effect transition. Bolívar’s writing of the letter to Cullen would not cause him to have a goal of persuading European powers to support him.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID af89fa02

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: af89fa02

    The Babylonian king Hammurabi achieved much during his forty-year reign. He conquered all of Mesopotamia and built Babylon into one of the most powerful cities of the ancient world. Today, blank he is mainly remembered for a code of laws inscribed on a seven-foot-tall block of stone: the Code of Hammurabi.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • therefore,

    • likewise,

    • however,

    • for instance,

    ID: af89fa02 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. “However” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that Hammurabi is mainly remembered for just a single achievement, the Code of Hammurabi—is contrary to what might be assumed from the previous information about Hammurabi’s many achievements. 

    Choice A is incorrect because “therefore” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a result of the previous information about Hammurabi’s many achievements. Instead, this sentence makes a point that is contrary to what might be assumed from the previous information. Choice B is incorrect because “likewise” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is similar to the previous information about Hammurabi’s many achievements. Instead, this sentence makes a point that is contrary to what might be assumed from the previous information. Choice D is incorrect because “for instance” illogically signals that this sentence exemplifies the previous information about Hammurabi’s many achievements. Instead, this sentence makes a point that is contrary to what might be assumed from the previous information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 4c43bf61

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 4c43bf61

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The International Center for the Arts of the Americas (ICAA) is directed by Mari Carmen Ramírez.
    • Ramírez oversaw an initiative to create an online archive of historical documents related to the history of Latin American and Latino visual art.
    • The ICAA digitized over 10,000 documents, including the writings of Latin American and Latino artists and critics.
    • The creation of the archive didn’t require historical documents to be removed from their countries of origin.
    • Scholars now have more access to these documents.

    The student wants to explain an advantage of the ICAA’s archive being digital. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Over 10,000 documents related to the history of Latin American and Latino visual art are part of the ICAA archive.

    • By offering online versions of historical documents, the ICAA’s archive provides more access to these materials without removing them from their countries of origin.

    • Among the historical documents in the ICAA’s archive are the writings of Latin American and Latino artists and critics.

    • The ICAA’s director, Mari Carmen Ramírez, oversaw the creation of an online archive of historical documents related to Latin American and Latino visual art.

    ID: 4c43bf61 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence explains an advantage of the ICAA’s archive being digital, noting that the archive provides more access to historical documents since they don’t have to be removed from their countries of origin.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the number of documents in the ICAA archive; it doesn’t explain an advantage of the archive being digital. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence notes the types of historical documents the ICAA’s archive contains; it doesn’t explain an advantage of the archive being digital. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence identifies who oversaw the creation of the ICAA’s online archive; it doesn’t explain an advantage of the archive being digital.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 16631d34

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 16631d34

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The Million Song Dataset (MSD) includes main audio features and descriptive tags for popular songs.
    • Audio features include acoustic traits such as loudness and pitch intervals.
    • Many algorithms use these audio features to predict a new song’s popularity.
    • These algorithms may fail to accurately identify main audio features of a song with varying acoustic traits.
    • Algorithms based on descriptive tags that describe fixed traits such as genre are more reliable predictors of song popularity.

    The student wants to explain a disadvantage of relying on audio features to predict a song’s popularity. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Many popularity-predicting algorithms are based on a song’s audio features, such as loudness and pitch intervals.

    • Algorithms based on audio features may misidentify the main features of a song with varying acoustic traits, making such algorithms less reliable predictors of popularity than those based on fixed traits.

    • Audio features describe acoustic traits such as pitch intervals, which may vary within a song, whereas descriptive tags describe fixed traits such as genre, which are reliable predictors of popularity.

    • The MSD’s descriptive tags are reliable predictors of a song’s popularity, as the traits they describe are fixed.

    ID: 16631d34 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. This choice uses relevant information from the notes to explain a disadvantage of relying on audio features to predict a song’s popularity—namely, that it may misidentify features of certain songs. It also contrasts audio features with descriptive tags, which are more reliable predictors.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice only states a fact about the algorithms without evaluating their reliability or accuracy. Choice C is incorrect. This choice only describes the difference between audio features and descriptive tags without indicating why this difference matters for predicting popularity. Choice D is incorrect. This choice only mentions descriptive tags, which are not the focus of the student’s rhetorical goal.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID d9dad012

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: d9dad012

    The Inca of South America used intricately knotted string devices called quipus to record countable information, like population data and payments. blank they may have used quipus to record more complex information, like stories and myths, according to researchers.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • As a result,

    • In other words,

    • In addition,

    • For example,

    ID: d9dad012 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. "In addition" logically signals that the claim in this sentence—that the Inca of South America may have used quipus to record more complex information—is an additional point related to the previous statement about the Inca using quipus to record countable information.

    Choice A is incorrect because "as a result" illogically signals that the claim in the sentence is a consequence or result of the previous statement about the Inca using quipus to record countable information. Instead, the possibility that the Inca used quipus to record more complex information is an additional point about how the quipus were used. Choice B is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that the claim in the sentence is merely a paraphrase or restatement of the previous statement about the Inca using quipus to record countable information. Instead, the possibility that the Inca used quipus to record more complex information is an additional point about how the quipus were used. Choice D is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the claim in the sentence exemplifies the previous statement about the Inca using quipus to record countable information. Instead, the possibility that the Inca used quipus to record more complex information is an additional point about how the quipus were used.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID e2693197

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: e2693197

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Oracles of the Pink Universe was a 2021 exhibition at the Denver Museum of Art in Colorado.
    • It featured eight artworks by South African artist Simphiwe Ndzube.
    • One of these works is a painting titled Assertion of Will.
    • Assertion of Will depicts three standing figures.
    • The figures wear clothing made of fabric pieces stitched to the painting’s canvas.

    The student wants to describe how fabric is used in Assertion of Will. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • In Assertion of Will, the figures’ clothing is made of fabric pieces stitched to the painting’s canvas.

    • The exhibition Oracles of the Pink Universe featured artworks by artist Simphiwe Ndzube.

    • Depicting three standing, clothed figures, Assertion of Will is a painting by Simphiwe Ndzube.

    • Simphiwe Ndzube’s Assertion of Will was one of eight artworks exhibited in Oracles of the Pink Universe at the Denver Museum of Art.

    ID: e2693197 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. This choice directly describes how fabric is used in Assertion of Will, by explaining that the fabric pieces are part of the painting itself. 

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice provides contextual information about the exhibition, but it doesn’t mention anything about the painting or the fabric. Choice C is incorrect. This choice mentions that the figures are clothed, but it doesn’t explain how the fabric is integrated into the painting. Choice D is incorrect. This choice provides contextual information about the painting, but it doesn’t mention anything about the fabric or how it is used. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 601b9d18

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 601b9d18

    Some members of the US Supreme Court have resisted calls to televise the court’s oral arguments, concerned that the participants would be tempted to perform for the cameras (and thus lower the quality of the discourse). blank the justices worry that most viewers would not even watch the full deliberations, only short clips that could be misinterpreted and mischaracterized.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • However,

    • Additionally,

    • In comparison,

    • For example,

    ID: 601b9d18 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. “Additionally” logically signals that the claim in this sentence—that some Supreme Court justices worry that viewers (of televised court arguments) would watch only short, misleading clips—adds to the information in the previous sentence. Specifically, the previous sentence indicates one concern raised by those opposed to televising the court’s oral arguments, and the claim that follows indicates a second, additional concern.

    Choice A is incorrect because “however” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence contrasts with the information in the previous sentence. Instead, the claim adds to the information, indicating a second, additional concern that some Supreme Court justices have about televising the court’s arguments. Choice C is incorrect because “in comparison” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is being compared to the information in the previous sentence. Instead, the claim adds to the information, indicating a second, additional concern that some Supreme Court justices have about televising the court’s arguments. Choice D is incorrect because “for example” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence exemplifies the information in the previous sentence. Instead, the claim adds to the information, indicating a second, additional concern that some Supreme Court justices have about televising the court’s arguments.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 60917233

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 60917233

    In the 1880s, inventor Lewis Latimer improved upon Thomas Edison’s design for the electric light bulb. blank Latimer made the light bulb more durable by placing cardboard around its carbon filament. With this innovation, Latimer became the first Black inventor to contribute to the electrification of the world.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Soon, 

    • Regardless, 

    • However,

    • Specifically,

    ID: 60917233 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "Specifically" logically signals that the information in this sentence—Latimer making the light bulb more durable—provides a specific detail elaborating on the more general claim in the previous sentence that Latimer improved the light bulb.

    Choice A is incorrect because "soon" illogically signals that the information in this sentence occurred shortly after Latimer improved the light bulb. Instead, Latimer making the bulb more durable was the specific improvement. Choice B is incorrect because "regardless" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is true despite the previous claim about Latimer. Instead, the information about Latimer making the bulb more durable provides a specific detail elaborating on that claim. Choice C is incorrect because "however" illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the previous claim about Latimer. Instead, the information about Latimer making the bulb more durable provides a specific detail elaborating on that claim.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID ec3d7605

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: ec3d7605

    Award-winning travel writer Linda Watanabe McFerrin considers the background research she conducts on destinations featured in her travel books to be its own reward. blank McFerrin admits to finding the research phase of her work just as fascinating and engaging as exploring a location in person.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • By contrast,

    • Likewise,

    • Besides,

    • In fact,

    ID: ec3d7605 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. “In fact” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that McFerrin finds the research phase of her work to be just as fascinating as travel—emphasizes and elaborates on the previous sentence’s point that McFerrin regards background research as a rewarding activity.

    Choice A is incorrect because “by contrast” illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the previous sentence’s point about McFerrin’s attitude toward background research. Instead, it emphasizes and elaborates on that point. Choice B is incorrect because “likewise” illogically signals that this sentence merely adds a second, similar point to the previous sentence’s point about McFerrin’s attitude toward background research. Instead, it emphasizes and elaborates on that point. Choice C is incorrect because “besides” illogically signals that this sentence provides a separate point in addition to, or apart from, the previous sentence’s point about McFerrin’s attitude toward background research. Instead, it emphasizes and elaborates on that point. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 54227b8e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 54227b8e

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The mountain pygmy possum is a mammal species.
    • Up until 1966, it was believed to be extinct.
    • That year, a live mountain pygmy possum was identified in the wild in Australia.
    • The mountain pygmy possum is considered a Lazarus species.
    • “Lazarus species” is a term for living species of organisms that were once believed to be extinct.

    The student wants to define the term “Lazarus species” and provide an example of one. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish these goals?

    • The term “Lazarus species” describes a living species of organism, such as the mountain pygmy possum, that was once believed to be extinct.

    • One example of a Lazarus species is the mountain pygmy possum, a mammal species that was identified in the wild in Australia in 1966.

    • The mountain pygmy possum, a species of mammal, was identified in the wild in 1966.

    • Sometimes, a species once believed to be extinct is later found living in the wild.

    ID: 54227b8e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence defines the term "Lazarus species" and provides an example of one, explaining that a Lazarus species is a living organism that was once believed to be extinct and providing the mountain pygmy possum as an example.

    Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence provides an example of a Lazarus species, it doesn’t define the term "Lazarus species." Choice C is incorrect. The sentence provides information about the mountain pygmy possum; it doesn’t define the term "Lazarus species" or explicitly identify the mountain pygmy possum as a Lazarus species. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence describes the concept of a Lazarus species, it doesn’t define the term or provide an example of a Lazarus species.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID a819d8b6

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: a819d8b6

    In 1873, Spanish scientist Santiago Ramón y Cajal observed that brain fibers have distinct boundaries with clear end points, a finding that went against earlier assumptions about the brain. blank scientists had assumed that the brain was a continuous web of fused fibers, not a vast network of distinct, individual cells. 

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • However,

    • Previously,

    • As a result,

    • Likewise,

    ID: a819d8b6 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. “Previously” logically signals that the fused fiber theory came before Ramón y Cajal’s discovery.

    Choice A is incorrect. “However” illogically signals that the fused fiber theory in this sentence contrasts with the information in the previous sentence. While this theory does contrast with Ramón y Cajal’s discovery, the previous sentence concludes by stating that his discovery went against prior assumptions about the brain. The fact that the fused fiber theory was one of those earlier assumptions makes “however” an illogical choice. Choice C is incorrect because “as a result” illogically signals that the fused fiber theory in this sentence was a result of the discovery in the previous sentence. Instead, the fused fiber theory came before Ramón y Cajal’s discovery. Choice D is incorrect because “likewise” illogically signals that the fused fiber theory in this sentence was similar to the discovery in the previous sentence. Instead, the fused fiber theory, which came before Ramón y Cajal’s discovery, was very different from it.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 84e108cf

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 84e108cf

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Platinum is a rare and expensive metal.
    • It is used as a catalyst for chemical reactions.
    • Platinum catalysts typically require a large amount of platinum to be effective.
    • Researcher Jianbo Tang and his colleagues created a platinum catalyst that combines platinum with liquid gallium.
    • Their catalyst was highly effective and required only trace amounts of platinum (0.0001% of the atoms in the mixture).

    The student wants to explain an advantage of the new platinum catalyst developed by Jianbo Tang and his colleagues. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Researcher Jianbo Tang and his colleagues created a platinum catalyst that combines platinum, a rare and expensive metal, with liquid gallium.

    • Like other platinum catalysts, the new platinum catalyst requires a particular amount of the metal to be effective. 

    • Platinum is a rare and expensive metal that is used as a catalyst for chemical reactions; however, platinum catalysts typically require a large amount of platinum to be effective.

    • While still highly effective, the new platinum catalyst requires far less of the rare and expensive metal than do other platinum catalysts.

    ID: 84e108cf Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence explains an advantage of Tang and his colleagues’ platinum catalyst, noting that it requires far less platinum (which is rare and expensive) than other platinum catalysts do.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence describes the platinum catalyst that Tang and his colleagues created; it doesn’t explain an advantage of their platinum catalyst. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between the new platinum catalyst and other platinum catalysts; it doesn’t explain an advantage of the new platinum catalyst. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence connects the metal platinum to the functioning of platinum catalysts, noting that large amounts of platinum are typically required for platinum catalysts to be effective; it doesn’t explain an advantage of Tang and his colleagues’ platinum catalyst.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 42e6cc83

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 42e6cc83

    In hindsight, given the ideas about the natural world circulating among British scientists in the 1800s, the theory of natural selection was an obvious next step. It may not have been a coincidence, blank that Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace arrived at the concept independently. Indeed, contrary to the popular myth of the lone genius, theirs is not the first paradigm-shifting theory to have emerged from multiple scholars working in parallel. 

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • however,

    • then,

    • moreover,

    • for example,

    ID: 42e6cc83 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "Then" signals that this sentence’s claim about Darwin and Wallace follows logically from the previous information. In other words, both scientists independently arriving at the theory of natural selection was, arguably, an expected outcome of the circumstances mentioned in the previous sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because "however" illogically signals that the claim in this sentence contrasts with the previous information about the ideas circulating among British scientists in the 1800s. Instead, this claim follows logically from that information. Choice C is incorrect because "moreover" illogically signals that the claim in this sentence merely adds to the previous information about the ideas circulating among British scientists in the 1800s. Instead, this claim follows logically from that information. Choice D is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that this sentence provides an example supporting the previous information about the ideas circulating among British scientists in the 1800s. Instead, it presents a claim that follows logically from that information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 326017ce

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 326017ce

    For years, biologists have experimented with using grime-eating bacteria rather than harsh chemicals to clean artworks, and results have been impressive overall. blank these bacterial strains—which can metabolize centuries’ worth of oil, glue, dirt, and other surface impurities without creating harmful byproducts—have proven more effective than traditional chemical cleaning methods.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • However,

    • In many cases,

    • As a result,

    • Additionally,

    ID: 326017ce Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The first sentence makes the claim that using grime-eating bacteria has led to “impressive results.” This sentence supports that claim by describing the specific findings of the biologists’ experimentation. The transition “in many cases” fits the context perfectly.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice uses a disagreement transition. But this sentence actually agrees with the previous sentence. Both claim that grime-eating bacteria are better at cleaning artworks than chemicals. Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses a cause-and-effect transition, which doesn’t make sense in context. The fact that the results of the experimentation have been impressive overall doesn’t cause the bacteria to have proven more effective. Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates the addition of a new idea. But this sentence doesn’t introduce a new idea. Instead, it elaborates on the same idea laid out in the previous sentence by describing the “impressive results” in more detail.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID c78620ba

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: c78620ba

    In 1968, US Congressman John Conyers introduced a bill to establish a national holiday in honor of Dr. Martin Luther King Jr. The bill didn’t make it to a vote, but Conyers was determined. He teamed up with Shirley Chisholm, the first Black woman to be elected to Congress, and they resubmitted the bill every session for the next fifteen years. blank in 1983, the bill passed.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Instead,

    • Likewise,

    • Finally,

    • Additionally,

    ID: c78620ba Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. “Finally” logically signals that the bill passing—following many attempts between 1968 and 1983—is the final, concluding event in the sequence described in the previous sentences. 

    Choice A is incorrect because “instead” illogically signals that the bill passing is an alternative to one of the events described in the previous sentences. Instead, it is the final event in the sequence. Choice B is incorrect because “likewise” illogically signals that the bill passing is similar to one of the events described in the previous sentences. Instead, it is the final event in the sequence. Choice D is incorrect because “additionally” illogically signals that the bill passing is merely another event described along with the events of the previous sentences. Instead, it is the final, concluding event in the sequence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 20733eac

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 20733eac

    It has long been thought that humans first crossed a land bridge into the Americas approximately 13,000 years ago. blank based on radiocarbon dating of samples uncovered in Mexico, a research team recently suggested that humans may have arrived more than 30,000 years ago—much earlier than previously thought.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • As a result,

    • Similarly,

    • However,

    • In conclusion, 

    ID: 20733eac Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. “However” logically signals that the theory discussed in this sentence—that humans may have arrived in the Americas over 30,000 years ago—contrasts with the previously discussed theory that humans arrived around 13,000 years ago.

    Choice A is incorrect because “as a result” illogically signals that the theory in this sentence is the result of the theory discussed in the previous sentence. Instead, this theory contrasts with the previous one. Choice B is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals that the theory in this sentence is similar to the theory discussed in the previous sentence. Instead, this theory contrasts with the previous one. Choice D is incorrect because “in conclusion” illogically signals that the theory in this sentence concludes or summarizes the discussion of the previous theory. Instead, this theory contrasts with the previous one.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID ca4ff52d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: ca4ff52d

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Muslins are woven cotton fabrics with a variety of uses.
    • Dhaka muslin is a handmade fabric produced in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
    • It has an extremely fine weave and is primarily used to make luxury clothing.
    • Sheeting muslin is a machine-made fabric produced in factories.
    • It has a coarse weave and is primarily used to upholster furniture and create backdrops for theater sets.

    The student wants to emphasize a difference between the two muslins. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Dhaka muslin is a handmade fabric with an extremely fine weave, while sheeting muslin is machine made with a coarse weave.

    • Dhaka muslin and sheeting muslin are two different types of woven cotton fabrics.

    • Muslins can be used in a variety of ways, from making luxury clothing to upholstering furniture and creating backdrops for theater sets.

    • Sheeting muslin is machine made, has a coarse weave, and is used for furniture and theater sets.

    ID: ca4ff52d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The difference between the two different kinds of muslin is emphasized.

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice lists two kinds of muslins, but does not say how they are different from one another. Choice C is incorrect. This choice does not emphasize a difference between the two muslins. Choice D is incorrect. This choice does not emphasize a difference between the two muslins. It only describes sheeting muslin.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 7298633c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 7298633c

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Grimanesa Amoros is a Peruvian American artist well known for her LED light sculptures.
    • Her sculpture Uros Island is made of smooth multicolored LED domes.
    • It occupies 335 cubic feet of space.
    • Her sculpture Fortuna is made of entangled blue and white LED tubes.
    • It occupies 19,950 cubic feet of space.

    The student wants to emphasize a similarity between Uros Island and Fortuna. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The smooth LED domes of Grimanesa Amoros’s Uros Island stand in contrast to the tangled LED tubes of Fortuna.

    • At 19,950 cubic feet in size, Grimanesa Amoros’s Fortuna cuts a larger figure than the 335-cubic-foot Uros Island.

    • Grimanesa Amoros is the artist behind Uros Island—a sculpture made of smooth multicolored LED domes.

    • Uros Island is an LED light sculpture made by Grimanesa Amoros, as is Fortuna.

    ID: 7298633c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between the sculptures, noting that both Uros Island and Fortuna are LED light sculptures created by Grimanesa Amoros.

    Choice A is incorrect. Noting that Uros Island’s smooth LED domes contrast with Fortuna’s tangled LED tubes, the sentence emphasizes a difference between the two sculptures rather than a similarity. Choice B is incorrect. Contrasting the respective sizes of Uros Island and Fortuna, the sentence emphasizes a difference between the two sculptures rather than a similarity. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence describes Uros Island, it doesn’t mention Fortuna or emphasize any similarity between the two sculptures.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 441f0505

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 441f0505

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • A lever is a simple machine consisting of a rigid beam and a fulcrum.
    • The fulcrum is the point about which the beam pivots.
    • The input force (effort) is the force applied to the lever.
    • The output force (load) is the force that the lever exerts on another object.
    • In first-class levers, the fulcrum is located between the effort and the load.
    • In second-class levers, the load is located between the effort and the fulcrum.

    The student wants to contrast first-class levers and second-class levers. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • In levers, the effort is the force applied to the lever; the load, in contrast, is the force that the lever exerts on another object.

    • In first-class and second-class levers, the fulcrum and the load are in different locations.

    • First-class levers are simple machines consisting of a rigid beam and a fulcrum, but then again, the same is true of second-class levers.

    • In first-class levers, the fulcrum is located between the effort and the load, but in second-class levers, the load is located between the effort and the fulcrum.

    ID: 441f0505 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence contrasts first-class levers and second-class levers, explaining that the fulcrum in a first-class lever is between the effort and the load, whereas in a second-class lever the load is between the effort and the fulcrum.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence defines two terms associated with levers; it doesn’t contrast first-class levers and second-class levers. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence seems to acknowledge a general difference in fulcrum and load locations between first-class and second-class levers, it does not specify what this difference is. Moreover, the sentence could be read as emphasizing a similarity—that in both types of levers, the fulcrum and load are in different locations. The sentence thus fails to effectively contrast the two types of levers. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence describes a similarity between first-class and second-class levers; it doesn’t contrast them.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 6c9df5d1

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 6c9df5d1

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Some powerful works of literature have so influenced readers that new legislation has been passed as a result.
    • The Interesting Narrative of the Life of Olaudah Equiano (1789) is the autobiography of a man who endured slavery on both sides of the Atlantic.
    • Equiano’s book contributed to the passage of the Slave Trade Act of 1807.
    • The Jungle (1906) is a fictional work by Upton Sinclair that describes unsanitary conditions in US meatpacking plants.
    • Sinclair’s book contributed to the passage of the Pure Food and Drug Act in 1906.

    The student wants to emphasize a difference between the two books. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Although both are powerful works of literature that contributed to new legislation, Equiano’s book is an autobiography, while Sinclair’s is fictional.

    • They may have written about different topics, but Equiano and Sinclair both influenced readers.

    • The 1807 Slave Trade Act resulted in part from a book by Equiano, while the 1906 Pure Food and Drug Act resulted in part from a book by Sinclair. 

    • The Interesting Narrative of the Life of Olaudah Equiano and The Jungle are two works of literature that contributed to new legislation (concerning the slave trade and food safety, respectively). 

    ID: 6c9df5d1 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. This choice emphasizes a difference between the two books by using relevant information from the notes to contrast their genres. 

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice mentions a difference between the books (their different topics), but it emphasizes a similarity between the books (their influence on readers). Choice C is incorrect. This choice provides information about the books that reflects both a similarity (both resulted in new laws) and a difference (the specific laws that resulted), without emphasizing either. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t emphasize a difference between the two books. Instead, it emphasizes a similarity.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID f07570bb

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: f07570bb

    Researchers believe that pieces of hull found off Oregon’s coast are from a Spanish cargo ship that was lost in 1697. Stories passed down among the area’s Confederated Tribes of Siletz Indians support this belief. blank Siletz stories describe how blocks of beeswax, an item the ship had been carrying, began washing ashore after the ship was lost. 

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • For this reason,

    • For example,

    • However,

    • Likewise,

    ID: f07570bb Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. “For example” logically signals that the Siletz beeswax stories mentioned in this sentence are examples consistent with the previous claim that Siletz stories support the shipwreck theory.

    Choice A is incorrect because “for this reason” illogically signals that the Siletz stories about the beeswax were caused by the previous claim that Siletz stories support the shipwreck theory. Instead, the beeswax stories are examples consistent with the claim. Choice C is incorrect because “however” illogically signals that the Siletz stories about the beeswax contrast with the previous claim that Siletz stories support the shipwreck theory. Instead, the beeswax stories are examples consistent with the claim. Choice D is incorrect because “likewise” illogically signals that the Siletz stories about the beeswax are similar to the previous claim that Siletz stories support the shipwreck theory. Instead, the beeswax stories are examples consistent with the claim.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 4b99b481

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 4b99b481

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Scientists have developed a “freeze-thaw” battery that can retain 92% of its charge after twelve weeks.
    • The battery contains molten salt (a type of salt that liquifies when heated and solidifies at room temperature).
    • When the salt is in a liquid state, energy flows through the battery.
    • When the salt is in a solid state, energy stops flowing and is stored in the battery.
    • The stored (frozen) energy can be used by reheating (thawing) the battery.

    The student wants to specify how the salt enables energy storage. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Scientists have developed a freeze-thaw battery that contains molten salt, which liquifies when heated and solidifies at room temperature.

    • The stored energy in a freeze-thaw battery, which contains molten salt, can be used by reheating the battery.

    • When the molten salt in a freeze-thaw battery solidifies at room temperature, energy stops flowing and can be stored in the battery.

    • Molten salt allows a freeze-thaw battery to retain 92% of its charge after twelve weeks.

    ID: 4b99b481 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence specifies how the salt in a freeze-thaw battery enables energy storage, explaining that energy stops flowing and can be stored when the salt solidifies at room temperature.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence explains some properties of molten salt; it doesn’t specify how that salt enables energy storage. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence indicates how the energy in a freeze-thaw battery can be released; it doesn’t specify how the salt in the battery enables energy storage. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence specifies how much charge the freeze-thaw battery retains when storing energy; it doesn’t specify how the salt in the battery enables energy storage.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 221ecf0f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 221ecf0f

    Alexander Lawrence Posey (1873–1908) varied his focus and tone depending on the genre in which he was writing. In his poetry, he used heartfelt language to evoke the beauty and peacefulness of his natural surroundings; in his journalism, blank he employed humor and satire to comment on political issues affecting his Muskogee Creek community.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • that is,

    • granted,

    • similarly,

    • by contrast,

    ID: 221ecf0f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. This sentence compares two examples of Posey’s tone: the “heartfelt language” he used in his poetry versus the “humor and satire” he used in his journalism. We know from these descriptions and from the claim in the previous sentence that the two tones are very different from each other. So the transition “by contrast” fits the context perfectly.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates a restatement of the same idea in other words. But the text isn’t restating the first example here. Instead, it’s offering a second, totally different example. Choice B is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that means “admittedly.” But the text isn’t admitting or conceding anything here. Instead, these two examples work together to support the claim made in the first sentence. Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates the addition of an agreeing idea. But these two examples are intentionally very different from each other, so “similarly” doesn’t make sense here.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID a4366255

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: a4366255

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Musicians around the world have used protest songs to raise awareness about human rights violations.
    • US folk singer Aunt Molly Jackson released the protest song “Poor Miner’s Farewell” in 1932.
    • It exposed the unlivable wages and dangerous working conditions coal miners faced in Kentucky during the 1920s and 1930s.
    • South African singer-songwriter Hugh Masekela released the protest song “Bring Him Back Home” in 1987.
    • It called on the South African government to free Nelson Mandela, an anti-apartheid leader who’d been unjustly imprisoned.

    The student wants to contrast the song “Poor Miner’s Farewell” with the song “Bring Him Back Home.” Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The songs “Poor Miner’s Farewell” and “Bring Him Back Home” both raised awareness about human rights violations.

    • While both are protest songs, “Poor Miner’s Farewell” is about coal miners in Kentucky, whereas “Bring Him Back Home” is about the anti-apartheid leader Nelson Mandela.

    • Hugh Masekela’s song “Bring Him Back Home,” released in 1987, called on the South African government to free Nelson Mandela.

    • Released in 1932 by Aunt Molly Jackson, the song “Poor Miner’s Farewell” was a protest against the unlivable wages and dangerous working conditions faced by Kentucky coal miners.

    ID: a4366255 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence contrasts the two songs, noting that "Poor Miner’s Farewell" is about coal miners in Kentucky, whereas "Bring Him Back Home" is about Nelson Mandela.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between "Poor Miner’s Farewell" and "Bring Him Back Home"; it doesn’t contrast the two songs. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence provides a description of the song "Bring Him Back Home," it doesn’t mention "Poor Miner’s Farewell" or contrast the two songs. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence provides a description of the song "Poor Miner’s Farewell," it doesn’t mention "Bring Him Back Home" or contrast the two songs.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 296801d2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 296801d2

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The Azores is a group of islands about 870 miles off the coast of Portugal.
    • Historians have long believed that in the fifteenth century Portuguese mariners were the first humans to populate the Azores.
    • A 2015 study coauthored by Sofia Gabriel and Maria da Luz Mathias found that Vikings from Scandinavia may have populated the Azores as early as the ninth century.
    • The researchers found a genetic connection between house mice in the Azores and house mice in Scandinavia.
    • House mice may have traveled from Scandinavia to the Azores on Viking ships.

    The student wants to specify who may have first populated the Azores, according to the 2015 study. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Historians have long believed that the first humans to populate the Azores, a group of islands about 870 miles off the coast of Portugal, arrived in the fifteenth century.

    • Portuguese mariners may not have been the first humans to populate the Azores.

    • In their 2015 study, the researchers found a genetic connection between house mice in the Azores and those in Scandinavia.

    • According to a 2015 study, the first humans to populate the Azores may have been Vikings from Scandinavia, not mariners from Portugal as previously believed.

    ID: 296801d2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. This choice effectively specifies who may have first populated the Azores, according to the 2015 study: the Vikings. 

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t effectively specify who may have first populated the Azores, according to the 2015 study. It only mentions the historical belief that the Portuguese were first. The 2015 study drew a different conclusion. Choice B is incorrect. This choice casts doubt on the Portuguese claim but doesn’t name the group of people who may have arrived before the Portuguese. Choice C is incorrect. This choice mentions the evidence that the researchers found but not the conclusion they drew from it. It doesn’t name the possible group of people who may have arrived before the Portuguese.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 92fe0ed7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 92fe0ed7

    Geoscientists have long considered Hawaii’s Mauna Loa volcano to be Earth’s largest shield volcano by volume, measuring approximately 74,000 cubic kilometers. blank according to a 2020 study by local geoscientist Michael Garcia, Hawaii’s Pūhāhonu shield volcano is significantly larger, boasting a volume of about 148,000 cubic kilometers.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Secondly,

    • Consequently,

    • Moreover,

    • However,

    ID: 92fe0ed7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. “However” logically signals that this sentence, which indicates that the Pūhāhonu volcano may be larger than the Mauna Loa volcano, offers a contrast to or refutation of the previous assumption that Mauna Loa is the largest shield volcano.

    Choice A is incorrect because “secondly” illogically signals that this sentence merely offers an additional or secondary point concerning the previous assumption that Mauna Loa is the largest shield volcano. Instead, the sentence offers a contrast to or refutation of that assumption. Choice B is incorrect because “consequently” illogically signals that this sentence offers a result or consequence of the previous assumption that Mauna Loa is the largest shield volcano. Instead, the sentence offers a contrast to or refutation of that assumption. Choice C is incorrect because “moreover” illogically signals that this sentence merely adds to the previous assumption that Mauna Loa is the largest shield volcano. Instead, the sentence offers a contrast to or refutation of that assumption.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID a965c6ed

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: a965c6ed

    A turtle shell appears external to the animal, protecting its body like armor. blank the shell is often incorrectly assumed to be an exoskeleton, a rigid outer casing like that of a crustacean or an insect, when in fact it is an endoskeleton, a part of the turtle’s internal bone structure, more akin to a spine or a pair of ribs.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • That being said,

    • However,

    • For instance,

    • Hence,

    ID: a965c6ed Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "Hence" logically signals that the information in this sentence about turtle shells—that people incorrectly assume they are exoskeletons—is a consequence of the shells appearing external to the animal.

    Choice A is incorrect because "that being said" illogically signals that this sentence qualifies or contrasts with the previous information about turtle shells appearing external to the animal. Instead, it presents a consequence of that information. Choice B is incorrect because "however" illogically signals that this sentence contrasts with the previous information about turtle shells appearing external to the animal. Instead, it presents a consequence of that information. Choice C is incorrect because "for instance" illogically signals that this sentence provides an example supporting the previous information about turtle shells appearing external to the animal. Instead, it presents a consequence of that information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 97e2e364

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 97e2e364

    Okot p’Bitek’s poem Song of Lawino (1966) explores postcolonial Ugandan life through the eyes of a woman living in a rural village. With its vibrant imagery, bitingly satiric tone, and dexterous use of traditional Acholi song and phraseology, the poem inspired a generation of East African writers. blank those who adopted its style are often referred to as Okot School poets.  

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Nevertheless,

    • Fittingly,

    • By comparison, 

    • Instead,

    ID: 97e2e364 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. “Fittingly” is a transition that means “appropriately” or “suitably,” and it is appropriate that writers who adopted their style from Okot p’Bitek would be known as the Okot School poets.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice uses a disagreement transition. But this sentence is not disagreeing with anything—rather, it’s discussing how it makes sense for those writers who adopted Okot’s style to be known as the Okot School poets. Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that compares two ideas. But this sentence is not comparing the Okot School poets and their style to Okot’s style. Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses a disagreement transition. But this sentence is not disagreeing with anything—rather, it’s discussing how it makes sense for those writers who adopted Okot’s style to be known as the Okot School poets.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 7d5c32e6

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 7d5c32e6

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The fifth Solvay Conference on Physics was held in 1927.
    • It brought together twenty-nine of the era’s preeminent scientists to discuss the emerging field of quantum theory.
    • The conference famously featured a debate between physicists Albert Einstein and Niels Bohr.
    • Bohr proposed that subatomic entities like electrons had only probable realities until they were observed.
    • Einstein argued that subatomic entities like electrons had a reality independent of observation.
    • Bohr’s position, later called the Copenhagen interpretation, remains the most widely accepted theory of quantum mechanics. 

    The student wants to place Einstein’s argument within its historical context. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • During the dawn of quantum theory, Einstein maintained the independent reality of some subatomic entities, although Bohr’s opposing interpretation would become the widely accepted view.

    • At the 1927 Solvay Conference on Physics, Einstein disagreed with Bohr’s argument that subatomic entities like electrons had a reality independent of observation.

    • The attendees of the 1927 Solvay Conference were among the preeminent scientists of their era, including Einstein, who opposed Bohr’s proposal.

    • In 1927, Einstein and Bohr engaged in a famous debate; Bohr’s argument, later called the Copenhagen interpretation, would remain popular decades after.

    ID: 7d5c32e6 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence places Einstein’s argument within the historical context of the development of quantum theory, noting that his argument—made during the dawn of the field—conflicted with Bohr’s argument, which became the widely accepted view.

    Choice B is incorrect. The sentence misrepresents information from the notes, attributing the argument that electrons had a reality independent of observation to Bohr, not Einstein. In addition, while the sentence provides the date of the conference, it doesn’t place Einstein’s argument in the context of the development of quantum theory. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence indicates that Einstein attended the 1927 Solvay Conference; it doesn’t identify Einstein’s argument or place it in the historical context of the development of quantum theory. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence explains that Einstein and Bohr had a famous debate in 1927 and that Bohr’s argument remained popular decades afterward; it doesn’t identify Einstein’s argument or place it in the context of the development of quantum theory.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 01c8c433

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 01c8c433

    Before the 1847 introduction of the US postage stamp, the cost of postage was usually paid by the recipient of a letter rather than the sender, and recipients were not always able or willing to pay promptly. blank collecting this fee could be slow and arduous, and heaps of unpaid-for, undeliverable mail piled up in post offices.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Regardless,

    • On the contrary,

    • Consequently,

    • For example,

    ID: 01c8c433 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. “Consequently” logically signals that the postal problems described in this sentence (slow fee collection, heaps of undeliverable mail) were a consequence of the fee system described in the previous sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because “regardless” illogically signals that the postal problems described in this sentence occurred despite the fee system described in the previous sentence. Instead, they were a consequence of that system. Choice B is incorrect because “on the contrary” illogically signals that the postal problems described in this sentence contrast with the fee system described in the previous sentence. Instead, they were a consequence of that system. Choice D is incorrect because “for example” illogically signals that the postal problems described in this sentence are an example of the fee system described in the previous sentence. Instead, they were a consequence of that system.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 883493d5

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 883493d5

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Allan Houser was a Chiricahua Warm Springs Apache sculptor, illustrator, and painter.
    • Many of his sculptures featured Native American figures.
    • He depicted this subject matter using abstract, modernist forms, developing a distinctive style that influenced many other artists.
    • His well-known sculpture Sacred Rain Arrow was pictured on the State of Oklahoma license plate.

    The student wants to describe the distinctive style of Houser’s sculptures. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • A sculptor, illustrator, and painter, Houser developed a distinctive style for portraying Native American figures.

    • Houser’s sculptures employ abstract, modernist forms to depict Native American figures.

    • Many other artists have been influenced by the style of Houser’s sculptures.

    • The sculpture Sacred Rain Arrow is a well-known example of Houser’s style.

    ID: 883493d5 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence describes the distinctive style of Houser’s sculptures, explaining that the sculptures use abstract, modernist forms to depict Native American figures.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence indicates that Houser developed a distinctive style for portraying Native American figures, it doesn’t describe this style. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence states that other artists have been influenced by the style of Houser’s sculptures, it doesn’t describe this style. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the name of a sculpture that’s a well-known example of Houser’s style, it doesn’t describe the sculpture’s style.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID b07a7634

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: b07a7634

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Digital Light Synthesis (DLS) is a form of additive manufacturing that utilizes light to rapidly cure liquid resin into high-quality, 3D objects.
    • Step 1: Ultraviolet (UV) light images are projected up into a pool of liquid resin, where the object’s first layer takes shape.
    • Step 2: The partially cured resin object is raised, leaving a thin space (a “dead zone”) beneath it for oxygen and liquid resin to flow through.
    • Step 3: The UV light passes through the dead zone—maintaining the flow of resin—and partially cures additional layers of the object.
    • Step 4: When the resin object is complete, it is baked in an oven to complete the curing.

    The student wants to describe how DLS cures 3D objects. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • DLS is a form of additive manufacturing that creates a “dead zone” in which UV light solidifies layer by layer before being baked in an oven, creating a high-quality, 3D object.

    • DLS cures 3D objects by passing through a “dead zone,” adding layers to the object, then curing the object in an oven.

    • In DLS, UV light images are projected into a liquid resin pool to cure a 3D object layer by layer; once solidified, the object is baked in an oven.

    • In DLS, UV light is projected into layers of liquid resin until the resin solidifies and passes through a “dead zone,” wherein the curing is completed.

    ID: b07a7634 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence describes how DLS cures 3D objects, noting that UV light is projected into resin to cure the object in layers, after which the object is baked to complete the curing process.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence does describe some elements of the curing process, the description misrepresents information in the notes; this sentence suggests that the UV light, rather than the 3D object, is baked in an oven. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence does describe some elements of the curing process, the description misrepresents information in the notes: the UV light, not DLS, passes through the dead zone. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence does describe some elements of the curing process, the description misrepresents information in the notes. This sentence suggests that curing is complete when the already-solidified resin passes through the dead zone; rather, liquid resin passes through the dead zone and is solidified in layers, after which curing is completed in the oven.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID db8fe023

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: db8fe023

    A potter choosing which type of clay to use for a piece considers two key factors: the desired look of the piece and its intended use. blank earthenware clay is often used for decorative pieces because of its rustic look. This type of clay is not often used in industrial settings, though, because it is less durable than other clays.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • In other words,

    • Regardless,

    • In conclusion,

    • For example,

    ID: db8fe023 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The previous sentence tells us that potters think about the look and use of a piece when selecting clay. This sentence provides a specific example of a type of clay selected for its appearance, so the transition "for example" fits perfectly.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates a restatement of the same idea. But this sentence does more than just restate the previous idea. Instead, it provides a more specific example of the idea presented in the first sentence. Choice B is incorrect. This choice uses a disagreement transition. But this sentence actually agrees with the previous sentence. Both sentences suggest that desired look plays a role in the selection of clay types for pottery pieces. Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses a concluding transition. But this sentence doesn’t sum up the previous sentence. Instead, it gives a specific example of the idea presented in the previous sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 04ad68ca

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 04ad68ca

    In Gothic architecture, flying buttresses are large arches that help support a building’s exterior walls. Before the Gothic era, cathedrals’ heavy ceilings had to be supported by thick, short walls, but the invention of flying buttresses eliminated this need. blank Gothic cathedrals could be built with thinner, higher walls.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Similarly,

    • For instance,

    • Nevertheless,

    • As a result,

    ID: 04ad68ca Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. “As a result” logically signals that the thinner, higher walls in this sentence were a result of the invention of flying buttresses in the previous sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals that the thinner, higher walls in this sentence are similar to the invention of flying buttresses in the previous sentence. Instead, the walls were a result of that invention. Choice B is incorrect because “for instance” illogically signals that the thinner, higher walls in this sentence are an example supporting the statement about the invention of flying buttresses in the previous sentence. Instead, the walls were a result of that invention. Choice C is incorrect because “nevertheless” illogically signals that the thinner, higher walls in this sentence occurred despite the invention of flying buttresses in the previous sentence. Instead, the walls were a result of that invention.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID fc2bcc79

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: fc2bcc79

    Tyrian purple was a highly prized dye among the Phoenicians (an ancient civilization located in present-day Lebanon). The Phoenicians were famous for using this natural dye to color their clothes a distinctive purple. blank the name “Phoenicia” itself, some historians claim, may have originally meant “land of purple.”

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • In fact,

    • Regardless,

    • Lastly,

    • On the contrary,

    ID: fc2bcc79 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. “In fact” logically signals that the claim in this sentence—Phoenicia being named after the color purple—emphasizes and supports the previous claim that Phoenicians were famous for using purple dye.

    Choice B is incorrect because “regardless” illogically signals that the claim about Phoenicia’s name contrasts with the previous claim that Phoenicians were famous for using purple dye. Instead, the naming emphasizes and supports this claim. Choice C is incorrect because “lastly” illogically signals that the claim about Phoenicia’s name is the final step in a process or sequence. Instead, the naming emphasizes and supports the previous claim that Phoenicians were famous for using purple dye. Choice D is incorrect because “on the contrary” illogically signals that the claim about Phoenicia’s name directly opposes the previous claim that Phoenicians were famous for using purple dye. Instead, the naming emphasizes and supports this claim.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID f735493e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: f735493e

    Celebrated Tewa potter Maria Martinez (1887–1980) made her signature all-black ceramic vessels using a heating technique called reduction firing. This technique involves smothering the flame surrounding the clay vessel. blank the vessel takes on a shiny, black hue.  

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • On the contrary,

    • For example,

    • Previously,

    • As a result,   

    ID: f735493e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "As a result" logically signals that the information in this sentence—the vessel turning black—is a result of the heating technique discussed in the previous sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because "on the contrary" illogically signals that the information in this sentence directly opposes the heating technique in the previous sentence. Instead, the vessel turns black as a result of that technique. Choice B is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is an example of the heating technique in the previous sentence. Instead, the vessel turns black as a result of that technique. Choice C is incorrect because "previously" illogically signals that the information in this sentence occurs earlier in a chronological series of events than does the heating technique discussed in the first two sentences. Instead, the vessel turns black as a result of that technique.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 57bcd0d6

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 57bcd0d6

    Etched into Peru’s Nazca Desert are line drawings so large that they can only be fully seen from high above. Archaeologists have known of the lines since the 1920s, when a researcher spotted some from a nearby foothill, and they have been studying the markings ever since. blank archaeologists’ efforts are aided by drones that capture high-resolution aerial photographs of the lines.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Currently,

    • In comparison,

    • Still,

    • However,

    ID: 57bcd0d6 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. “Currently” logically signals that the archaeologists’ use of drones (a current technology) to photograph the lines is the present-day continuation of the ongoing archaeological research described in the previous sentence.

    Choice B is incorrect because “in comparison” illogically signals that the action described in this sentence offers a comparison to the ongoing archaeological research described in the previous sentence. Instead, the use of drones is the present-day continuation of that research. Choice C is incorrect because “still” illogically signals that the action described in this sentence occurs despite the ongoing archaeological research described in the previous sentence. Instead, the use of drones is the present-day continuation of that research. Choice D is incorrect because “however” illogically signals that the action described in this sentence occurs either despite or in contrast to the ongoing archaeological research described in the previous sentence. Instead, the use of drones is the present-day continuation of that research.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 11df9b99

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 11df9b99

    Because an achiral molecule is symmetrical, flipping it yields a structurally identical molecule. A flipped chiral molecule, blank can be compared to a glove that has been turned inside out: it produces a structurally inverted molecule rather than an identical one.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • in other words,

    • by contrast,

    • for example,

    • similarly,

    ID: 11df9b99 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. This sentence compares a chiral molecule to an achiral one. It discusses how when a chiral molecule is flipped, it results in something very different than when an achiral molecule is flipped. So the transition "by contrast" fits the context perfectly.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates a restatement of the same idea in different words. But this sentence doesn’t restate the same idea as the previous sentence. Instead, it makes a new point about a different type of molecule (chiral instead of achiral). Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that introduces an example, which doesn’t make sense here. The second sentence isn’t an example of the first sentence’s claim about achiral molecules: it actually introduces an entirely different idea that focuses on chiral molecules. Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates the addition of an agreeing idea. But this sentence shows a contrast with the first sentence—namely, that a chiral molecule acts very differently from an achiral molecule when flipped.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 3fa48bf3

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 3fa48bf3

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • British scholar Robert Plot described fossilized dinosaur bones in his 1676 book The Natural History of Oxfordshire.
    • Plot earned a reputation for being the first person to have discovered dinosaur remains.
    • In 1990, archaeologists in Lesotho, in southern Africa, discovered a fossilized phalanx of a Massospondylus carinatus dinosaur in a cave once inhabited by humans.
    • Indigenous Khoesan and Basotho peoples had inhabited the cave beginning around 1100 CE.
    • According to paleontologist Julien Benoit, these peoples may have found the phalanx and brought it to the cave centuries before Plot’s descriptions.

    The student wants to emphasize the significance of the 1990 discovery to Plot’s reputation. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Benoit challenged Plot’s reputation for being the first person to have discovered M. carinatus remains.

    • Evidence that Khoesan and Basotho peoples may have found an M. carinatus phalanx as long ago as 1100 CE suggests that Plot may not have been the first person to have discovered dinosaur remains.

    • According to Benoit’s analysis of the 1990 discovery, Indigenous peoples in southern Africa may have brought the fossilized phalanx to the cave as long ago as 1100 CE.

    • In 1990, more than three centuries after Plot claimed in his book that he had found fossilized dinosaur bones, archaeologists uncovered evidence in southern Africa that disproved his claims.   

    ID: 3fa48bf3 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. Noting that the evidence suggests Indigenous peoples may have found dinosaur remains in 1100 CE, the sentence emphasizes how the 1990 discovery challenged Plot’s reputation as the first person to discover dinosaur remains.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence does emphasize that Benoit challenged Plot’s reputation, it misrepresents information in the notes; Plot was reputed to be the first person to discover dinosaur remains in general, not the first person to discover M. carinatus remains specifically. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence only partially explains the significance of the 1990 discovery, noting that it suggests Indigenous people brought dinosaur remains to the cave in 1100 CE; it doesn’t explain the discovery’s significance to Plot’s reputation. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence does emphasize that the discovery challenged Plot’s reputation, it misrepresents information in the notes. The notes don’t indicate that the 1990 discovery cast any doubt on Plot’s claims to have found fossilized dinosaur bones; rather, the discovery challenged Plot’s reputation for being the first to discover dinosaur bones.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 2bf05ae9

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 2bf05ae9

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In the midst of the US Civil War, Susie Taylor escaped slavery and fled to Union-army-occupied St. Simons Island off the Georgia coast.
    • She began working for an all-Black army regiment as a nurse and teacher.
    • In 1902, she published a book about the time she spent with the regiment.
    • Her book was the only Civil War memoir to be published by a Black woman.
    • It is still available to readers in print and online.

    The student wants to emphasize the uniqueness of Taylor’s accomplishment. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Taylor fled to St. Simons Island, which was then occupied by the Union army, for whom she began working.

    • After escaping slavery, Taylor began working for an all-Black army regiment as a nurse and teacher.

    • The book Taylor wrote about the time she spent with the regiment is still available to readers in print and online.

    • Taylor was the only Black woman to publish a Civil War memoir.

    ID: 2bf05ae9 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. By indicating that Taylor’s book was the only Civil War memoir published by a Black woman, this sentence emphasizes the uniqueness, or one-of-a-kind nature, of Taylor’s accomplishment.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence describes some of Taylor’s accomplishments, it doesn’t emphasize the uniqueness of them. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence describes some of Taylor’s accomplishments, it doesn’t emphasize that they were unique. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence provides information about Taylor’s book, it doesn’t emphasize what made the book unique.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 335bbe3e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 335bbe3e

    In his painting At the Cycle-Race Track, Jean Metzinger aims to depict a bike race in four-dimensional space. Of course, Metzinger’s painting doesn’t technically represent a fourth dimension; humans can only see in three dimensions. blank by depicting the race through multiple, simultaneous perspectives, Metzinger offers a fascinating glimpse at what this other universe might look like.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Moreover,

    • That said,

    • In other words,

    • For example,

    ID: 335bbe3e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "That said" logically signals that the statement in this sentence—that Metzinger offers a glimpse of four-dimensional space by depicting multiple, simultaneous perspectives—is true despite the point in the previous sentence (that Metzinger’s painting doesn’t technically represent a fourth dimension because humans can only see in three dimensions).

    Choice A is incorrect because "moreover" illogically signals that the information in this sentence merely adds to the previous point about Metzinger’s painting. Instead, it provides information that is true despite that previous point. Choice C is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a paraphrase or restatement of the previous point about Metzinger’s painting. Instead, it provides information that is true despite that previous point. Choice D is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the information in this sentence provides an example that supports the previous point about Metzinger’s painting. Instead, it provides information that is true despite that previous point.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 827afb27

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 827afb27

    Most conifers (trees belonging to the phylum Coniferophyta) are evergreen. That is, they keep their green leaves or needles year-round. However, not all conifer species are evergreen. Larch trees, blank lose their needles every fall.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • for instance,

    • nevertheless,

    • meanwhile,

    • in addition,

    ID: 827afb27 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. “For instance” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that larch trees lose their needles every fall—is an example supporting the claim in the previous sentence (that not all conifer species keep their leaves or needles year-round). 

    Choice B is incorrect because “nevertheless” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is true in spite of the claim about conifer species in the previous sentence. Instead, it’s an example supporting that claim. Choice C is incorrect because “meanwhile” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is separate from (while occurring simultaneously with) the claim about conifer species in the previous sentence. Instead, it’s an example supporting that claim. Choice D is incorrect because “in addition” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is merely an additional fact related to the claim about conifer species in the previous sentence. Instead, it’s an example supporting that claim.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID e876e395

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: e876e395

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The melting rate of glaciers varies based on air temperature.
    • In the warm summer months, massive glaciers on the coast of Greenland melt into the surrounding water.
    • The melting glaciers contribute to rising sea levels each summer.
    • Huge icebergs also break off Greenland’s glaciers into the water and melt.
    • In 2017, geoscientist Twila Moon found that the iceberg melting rate depends not on air temperature but on water temperature.
    • Because water temperature is consistent, melting icebergs contribute to rising sea levels all year.

    The student wants to emphasize a similarity between glaciers and icebergs in Greenland. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Because icebergs break off Greenland’s glaciers into the water, their melting rate depends on water temperature.

    • Greenland’s glaciers and icebergs both melt during the year, contributing to rising sea levels.

    • Geoscientist Twila Moon found that the melting rate of Greenland’s icebergs, unlike that of glaciers, does not depend on air temperature.

    • Glaciers on the coast of Greenland melt during the warm summer months into the surrounding water, the temperature of which remains consistent throughout the year.

    ID: e876e395 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between glaciers and icebergs in Greenland, noting that both melt and thereby contribute to rising sea levels.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence provides information about the melting rate of icebergs in Greenland; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between glaciers and icebergs in Greenland. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a difference between glaciers and icebergs in Greenland, noting that their melting rates depend on different factors; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence explains the conditions under which glaciers in Greenland melt; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between glaciers and icebergs in Greenland.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 8fe4f4ab

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 8fe4f4ab

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • One of history’s greatest libraries was the House of Wisdom in Baghdad, Iraq.
    • It was founded in the eighth century with the goal of preserving all the world’s knowledge.
    • Scholars at the House of Wisdom collected ancient and contemporary texts from Greece, India, and elsewhere and translated them into Arabic.
    • Writings included those of the Greek philosopher Aristotle and the Indian mathematician Aryabhata.
    • The House of Wisdom used Chinese papermaking technology to create paper versions to be studied and shared.

    The student wants to explain how the House of Wisdom preserved the world’s knowledge. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The House of Wisdom was known for bringing together knowledge from around the world, including from Greece, India, and China.

    • Founded in Iraq in the eighth century, the House of Wisdom employed many scholars as translators.

    • Writings from the Greek philosopher Aristotle and the Indian mathematician Aryabhata were preserved at the House of Wisdom.

    • The House of Wisdom collected writings from different countries and created paper versions in Arabic to be studied and shared.

    ID: 8fe4f4ab Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence explains how the House of Wisdom preserved the world’s knowledge, noting that the library collected, translated, and printed writings from different countries.   

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence indicates that the House of Wisdom was known for bringing together knowledge from around the world, it doesn’t explain how the library preserved this knowledge. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence makes a generalization about the scholars who were employed by the House of Wisdom; it doesn’t explain how the library preserved the world’s knowledge. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence identifies two authors whose writings were preserved at the House of Wisdom; it doesn’t explain how the library preserved the world’s knowledge.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID bb275f0d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: bb275f0d

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Cities tend to have a wide range of flowering vegetation in parks, yards, and gardens.
    • This vegetation provides a varied diet for honeybees, strengthening bees’ immune systems.
    • On average, 62.5 percent of bees in an urban area will survive a harsh winter.
    • Rural areas are often dominated by monoculture crops such as corn or wheat.
    • On average, only 40 percent of honeybees in a rural area will survive a harsh winter.

    The student wants to make and support a generalization about honeybees. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Cities tend to have a wider range of flowering vegetation than do rural areas, which are often dominated by monoculture crops.

    • In urban areas, over 60 percent of honeybees, on average, will survive a harsh winter, whereas in rural areas, only 40 percent will. 

    • The strength of honeybees’ immune systems depends on what the bees eat, and a varied diet is more available to bees in an urban area than to those in a rural area.

    • Honeybees are more likely to thrive in cities than in rural areas because the varied diet available in urban areas strengthens the bees’ immune systems.

    ID: bb275f0d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer because the sentence makes and supports a generalization about honeybees. It claims that honeybees living in urban areas are more likely to thrive than rural bees, and it supports the claim with information about the effect of a varied diet on urban bees’ immune systems. 

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence makes a generalization, it doesn’t mention honeybees. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence provides data about honeybee survival, it doesn’t make a generalization about honeybees based on this information. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence makes a generalization about honeybees’ diets and immune systems, it doesn’t provide adequate support for this generalization.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 30438650

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 30438650

    Jhumpa Lahiri’s story collection Interpreter of Maladies features multiple stories about romantic relationships. In “This Blessed House,” newlyweds argue over whether to replace items left by the previous owners of their new home. blank in “A Temporary Matter,” a husband and wife attempt to rekindle their relationship during a four-night blackout.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Granted,

    • For example,

    • Likewise,

    • Hence,

    ID: 30438650 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. "Likewise" is a transition that indicates the addition of a new but related idea. In this sentence, the author is providing another similar example to that discussed in the previous sentence. Therefore, "likewise" works best in this context.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that means "admittedly." But the text isn’t admitting or conceding anything here. Instead, these two examples work together to support the claim made in the first sentence. Choice B is incorrect. This choice uses an exemplification transition, which doesn’t make sense here. The second story is not an example of the story in the previous sentence—it’s another, similar story. And while both stories exemplify the first sentence in the text, the transition we’re looking for isn’t actually connected to that sentence. Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses a cause-and-effect transition, which doesn’t make sense here. The first story didn’t result in the events of the second story.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID a773f069

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: a773f069

    Small, flat structures called spatulae are found at the tips of the hairs on a spider’s leg. These spatulae temporarily bond with the atoms of whatever they touch. blank spiders are able to cling to and climb almost any surface.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • For instance,

    • However,

    • Similarly,

    • As a result,

    ID: a773f069 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. “As a result” logically signals that the claim in this sentence—that spiders can cling to and climb almost any surface—is because of the previous information about the bonding properties of spiders’ spatulae.

    Choice A is incorrect because “for instance” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence exemplifies the information in the previous sentences. Instead, the claim is because of the previous information about the bonding properties of spiders’ spatulae. Choice B is incorrect because “however” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence contrasts with the information in the previous sentences. Instead, the claim is because of the previous information about the bonding properties of spiders’ spatulae. Choice C is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is similar to, but separate from, the information in the previous sentences. Instead, the claim is because of the previous information about the bonding properties of spiders’ spatulae.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 6249b173

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 6249b173

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In 2018 researchers Adwait Deshpande, Shreejata Gupta, and Anindya Sinha were observing wild macaques in India’s Bandipur National Park.
    • They saw macaques calling out to and gesturing at humans who were eating or carrying food.
    • They designed a study to find out if the macaques were intentionally communicating to try to persuade the humans to share their food.
    • In the study trials, macaques frequently called out to and gestured at humans holding food.
    • In the study trials, macaques called out to and gestured at empty-handed humans less frequently.

    The student wants to present the study’s results. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Macaques in the study called out to and gestured more frequently at humans holding food than at empty-handed humans.

    • In 2018, researchers who had observed macaques in India’s Bandipur National Park calling out to and gesturing at humans designed a study.

    • The researchers hoped to find out if the macaques were intentionally communicating to try to persuade humans to share their food.

    • The researchers studied how macaques behaved around both humans holding food and empty-handed humans.

    ID: 6249b173 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. This choice presents the study’s results from the last two bullet points.

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice describes the background and motivation of the study but not the outcome or findings. Choice C is incorrect. This choice describes the research question or hypothesis of the study but not the evidence or conclusion. Choice D is incorrect. This choice describes the method or design of the study but not the actual results.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 1b219d14

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 1b219d14

    As a young historian in the 1950s, Alixa Naff began interviewing fellow Arab American immigrants about their experiences straddling two cultures. Over the next few decades, Naff conducted more than 450 such interviews, also known as oral histories. blank she collected photographs and other artifacts that represented her subjects’ experiences.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • In other words,

    • On the contrary,

    • In addition,

    • Today,

    ID: 1b219d14 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. "In addition" logically signals that Naff’s artifact collecting was separate from, and in addition to, her interviewing.

    Choice A is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that the information about Naff’s artifact collecting restates the previous information about her interviewing. Instead, Naff collected artifacts in addition to conducting interviews. Choice B is incorrect because "on the contrary" illogically signals that Naff’s artifact collecting was contrary to her interviewing. Instead, Naff collected artifacts in addition to conducting interviews. Choice D is incorrect because "today" illogically signals that Naff’s artifact collecting is occurring in the present day. Instead, this activity occurred in the past, as indicated by the past tense verb "collected."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID a3204ab0

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: a3204ab0

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Yellowstone is a national park in the northwest United States.
    • In 1995, gray wolves were reintroduced into the park.
    • Since then, the number of gray wolves in the park has stabilized at roughly 100.
    • This number is believed to be the park’s carrying capacity.
    • Carrying capacity describes the maximum number of a species that a specific environment’s resources can sustain over time.

    The student wants to specify the number of gray wolves in Yellowstone. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Gray wolves were reintroduced into Yellowstone, a national park in the northwest United States, in 1995.

    • As of 1995, there were gray wolves living in Yellowstone, a national park in the northwest United States.

    • The carrying capacity of an environment, such as Yellowstone, describes the maximum number of species that the environment can sustain over time.

    • Yellowstone is a national park that has roughly 100 gray wolves living in it.

    ID: a3204ab0 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. This choice uses relevant information from the third bullet point to state the approximate number of gray wolves in Yellowstone.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice mentions the year gray wolves in Yellowstone were reintroduced but not how many there are currently. Choice B is incorrect. This choice mentions the year gray wolves in Yellowstone were reintroduced but not how many there are currently. Choice C is incorrect. This choice defines the term carrying capacity but doesn’t connect it to the specific number of gray wolves currently living in Yellowstone.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 6a5939c2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 6a5939c2

    Paleontologists once thought that early apes lived in tropical forests, but recent research suggests that they may have actually lived in savannas. Tropical forests are humid and have many trees spaced close together. blank savannas are drier, and their trees are spaced further apart.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • For instance,

    • In comparison,

    • Firstly,

    • In conclusion,

    ID: 6a5939c2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "In comparison" logically signals that the description of savannas in this sentence—that they are drier and their trees are spaced further apart—forms a comparison with the description of tropical forests in the previous sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because "for instance" illogically signals that the description of savannas in this sentence exemplifies the description of tropical forests in the previous sentence. Instead, this description forms a comparison with the description of tropical forests. Choice C is incorrect because "firstly" illogically signals that the description of savannas in this sentence indicates the first in a series of things. Instead, this description forms a comparison with the description of tropical forests in the previous sentence. Choice D is incorrect because "in conclusion" illogically signals that the description of savannas in this sentence concludes or summarizes information in the previous sentences. Instead, this description forms a comparison with the description of tropical forests in the previous sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 3b02e88a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 3b02e88a

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The ancient Arab dhow was a sailing vessel distinguishable by its triangular sails and stitched hull construction.
    • Dhows were used primarily for trade along the coasts of Arab, South Asian, and East African countries.
    • Contemporary shipbuilders in Oman use a mix of modern and traditional materials to build replicas of ancient dhows.
    • Most of the materials used are traditional.
    • Replica hulls are stitched together using the same traditional coconut palm fiber rope used on the hulls of ancient dhows. 

    The student wants to make a generalization about the materials used in dhow replicas. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • A traditional material that was used to stitch together the hulls of ancient dhows, coconut palm fiber rope is still used by shipbuilders. 

    • The ancient Arab dhow was a sailing vessel used primarily for trade and distinguishable by its triangular sails.

    • Although most materials used in dhow replicas are traditional, some modern materials are used.

    • Contemporary shipbuilders in Oman build replicas of the dhow, which was an ancient sailing vessel with a stitched hull construction.

    ID: 3b02e88a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence makes a generalization about the materials used in dhow replicas, noting that while some modern materials are used, most of the materials are traditional.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence provides an example of a traditional material used in ancient dhows; it doesn’t indicate that the material is used in dhow replicas or make any other generalization about materials used in those replicas. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence explains what an ancient dhow was; it doesn’t make a generalization about materials used to make dhow replicas. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence introduces the construction of dhow replicas to an audience unfamiliar with the vessel; it doesn’t make a generalization about the materials used in those replicas.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID fd24f48f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: fd24f48f

    Before California’s 1911 election to approve a proposition granting women the right to vote, activists across the state sold tea to promote the cause of suffrage. In San Francisco, the Woman’s Suffrage Party sold Equality Tea at local fairs. blank in Los Angeles, activist Nancy Tuttle Craig, who ran one of California’s largest grocery store firms, distributed Votes for Women Tea.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • For example,

    • To conclude,

    • Similarly,

    • In other words,

    ID: fd24f48f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. “Similarly” logically signals that the activity described in this sentence (Nancy Tuttle Craig distributing Votes for Women Tea in her Los Angeles grocery stores) is like the activity described in the previous sentence (the Woman’s Suffrage Party selling Equality Tea at fairs in San Francisco). Together, the two examples support the preceding claim that “activists across the state sold tea to promote the cause of suffrage.”

    Choice A is incorrect because “for example” illogically signals that the activity described in this sentence exemplifies the activity described in the previous sentence. Instead, the two activities are similar, and both support the preceding claim about selling tea to promote women’s right to vote. Choice B is incorrect because “to conclude” illogically signals that the activity described in this sentence concludes or summarizes the information in the previous sentences. Instead, the activity is similar to the one described in the previous sentence, and both support the preceding claim about selling tea to promote women’s right to vote. Choice D is incorrect because “in other words” illogically signals that the activity described in this sentence paraphrases the activity described in the previous sentence. Instead, the two activities are similar, and both support the preceding claim about selling tea to promote women’s right to vote.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID bc930940

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: bc930940

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Chiura Obata was a Japanese American artist who lived in California.
    • Yosemite Falls is a notable painting by Obata.  
    • It uses a Japanese method of black ink painting called sumi-e.
    • This painting was completed in 1930.

    The student wants to indicate the year Yosemite Falls was completed.  Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • While living in California, Obata created black ink paintings. 

    • Obata, a Japanese American artist, created a notable painting.

    • Yosemite Falls was completed in 1930.

    • Obata used a Japanese painting method called sumi-e.

    ID: bc930940 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence indicates the year Yosemite Falls was completed, stating that it was completed in 1930.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence indicates where Obata created black ink paintings; it doesn’t indicate when the painting was completed. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence identifies Obata as an artist who created a notable painting, it doesn’t indicate when that painting was completed. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence identifies the method Obata used; it doesn’t indicate when the painting was completed.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID c6645cab

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: c6645cab

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Dr. Sunil Bajpai studies dinosaurs at the Indian Institute of Technology.
    • Bajpai’s research team recently found a 167-million-year-old dicraeosaurid fossil.
    • It is the oldest fossil from the dicraeosaurid dinosaur group ever recovered.
    • It was found in the Thar Desert in western India.

    The student wants to indicate where the dicraeosaurid fossil was found. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The dicraeosaurid fossil was found in western India’s Thar Desert.

    • Bajpai’s team recently found the oldest dicraeosaurid fossil ever recovered.

    • Dr. Sunil Bajpai, of the Indian Institute of Technology, is part of a research team.

    • The fossil, which is from the dicraeosaurid dinosaur group, is 167 million years old.

    ID: c6645cab Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence indicates where the dicraeosaurid fossil was found: western India’s Thar Desert.

    Choice B is incorrect. The sentence states that Bajpai’s team discovered the dicraeosaurid fossil; it doesn’t specify where they found it. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence provides information about Dr. Sunil Bajpai; it doesn’t indicate where the fossil was found. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence provides information about the fossil, it doesn’t indicate where the fossil was found.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 1a8126aa

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 1a8126aa

    In 2019, researcher Patricia Jurado Gonzalez and food historian Nawal Nasrallah prepared a stew from a 4,000-year-old recipe found on a Mesopotamian clay tablet. When they tasted the dish, known as pašrūtum (“unwinding”), they found that it had a mild taste and inspired a sense of calm. blank the researchers, knowing that dishes were sometimes named after their intended effects, theorized that the dish’s name, “unwinding,” referred to its function: to help ancient diners relax.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Therefore,

    • Alternately,

    • Nevertheless,

    • Likewise,

    ID: 1a8126aa Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. "Therefore" logically signals that the action described in this sentence—the researchers theorizing that the dish was named for its effect on diners—is a result or consequence of the previous observation that the dish had a calming effect.

    Choice B is incorrect because "alternately" illogically signals that the action described in this sentence offers an alternative or contrast to the previous observation that the dish had a calming effect. Instead, the action is a result or consequence of that observation. Choice C is incorrect because "nevertheless" illogically signals that the action described in this sentence occurs despite the previous observation that the dish had a calming effect. Instead, the action is a result or consequence of that observation. Choice D is incorrect because "likewise" illogically signals that this sentence merely adds a second, similar detail to the previous observation that the dish had a calming effect. Instead, this sentence describes an action that is a result or consequence of that observation.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 63a4fa29

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 63a4fa29

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In 2013, archaeologists studied cat bone fragments they had found in the ruins of Quanhucun, a Chinese farming village.
    • The fragments were estimated to be 5,300 years old.
    • A chemical analysis of the fragments revealed that the cats had consumed large amounts of grain.
    • The grain consumption is evidence that the Quanhucun cats may have been domesticated.

    The student wants to present the Quanhucun study and its conclusions. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • As part of a 2013 study of cat domestication, a chemical analysis was conducted on cat bone fragments found in Quanhucun, China.

    • A 2013 analysis of cat bone fragments found in Quanhucun, China, suggests that cats there may have been domesticated 5,300 years ago. 

    • In 2013, archaeologists studied what cats in Quanhucun, China, had eaten more than 5,000 years ago.

    • Cat bone fragments estimated to be 5,300 years old were found in Quanhucun, China, in 2013.

    ID: 63a4fa29 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence presents the study, describing it as a 2013 analysis of Quanhucun cat bone fragments, and its conclusions, indicating what the analysis suggests about cat domestication in Quanhucun.   

    Choice A is incorrect because the sentence focuses on the study’s methodology; it doesn’t present conclusions from the study. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence provides a general overview of the study, it doesn’t present conclusions from the study. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence describes a finding from the study; it doesn’t present conclusions from the study.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 42301836

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 42301836

    In her 2012 analysis of tree rings from Japan’s Yaku Island, cosmic ray physicist Fusa Miyake noted an anomalous carbon-14 spike dating to 774–775 CE, indicating that a massive burst of radiation reached Earth during that time. blank this unprecedented radiocarbon surge was dubbed a “Miyake event” in honor of its discoverer.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Fittingly,

    • Similarly,

    • However, 

    • In other words,

    ID: 42301836 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. "Fittingly" logically signals that the naming of an unprecedented radiocarbon surge for Fusa Miyake is appropriate to the situation, since Miyake is the person who identified the surge (through her Yaku Island tree-ring analysis).

    Choice B is incorrect because "similarly" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is similar to the previous information about Miyake’s identification of a massive radiation burst through tree-ring analysis. Instead, the naming of the event for its discoverer is a fitting and appropriate outcome. Choice C is incorrect because "however" illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the previous information about Miyake’s identification of a massive radiation burst through tree-ring analysis. Instead, the naming of the event for its discoverer is a fitting and appropriate outcome. Choice D is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a paraphrase or restatement of the previous information about Miyake’s identification of a massive radiation burst through tree-ring analysis. Instead, the naming of the event for its discoverer is a fitting and appropriate outcome.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 0d3ebdce

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 0d3ebdce

    Neuroscientist Karen Konkoly wanted to determine whether individuals can understand and respond to questions during REM sleep. She first taught volunteers eye movements they would use to respond to basic math problems while asleep (a single left-right eye movement indicated the number one). blank she attached electrodes to the volunteers’ faces to record their eye movements during sleep.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Specifically,

    • Next,

    • For instance,

    • In sum, 

    ID: 0d3ebdce Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. “Next” logically signals that the action described in this sentence—Konkoly recording participants’ eye movements—is the next step in Konkoly’s experiment.

    Choice A is incorrect because “specifically” illogically signals that this sentence specifies or elaborates on an aspect of the action described in the previous sentence. Instead, it describes the next step in Konkoly’s experiment. Choice C is incorrect because “for instance” illogically signals that the action described in this sentence is an example of the action described in the previous sentence. Instead, it is the next step in Konkoly’s experiment. Choice D is incorrect because “in sum” illogically signals that this sentence summarizes or concludes the action described in the previous sentence. Instead, it describes the next step in Konkoly’s experiment.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 00460c13

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 00460c13

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Novelist Willa Cather grew up in Nebraska and attended the University of Nebraska-Lincoln.
    • Some of Cather’s best-known novels are set in Nebraska.
    • Two such novels are O Pioneers! (1913) and My Ántonia (1918).
    • Cather’s novels describe the experiences of immigrants who settled in the Great Plains.

    The student wants to identify the setting of Cather’s novel My Ántonia. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • My Ántonia is set in Nebraska, where Cather grew up.

    • Cather, author of My Ántonia, described the experiences of immigrants in her novels. 

    • Among Cather’s best-known novels are O Pioneers! (1913) and My Ántonia (1918).

    • Cather attended the University of Nebraska-Lincoln and set some of her novels in Nebraska.

    ID: 00460c13 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. This choice directly identifies the setting of Cather’s novel My Ántonia as Nebraska.

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice mentions that Cather wrote about immigrants, but it doesn’t indicate where they lived. Choice C is incorrect. This choice mentions that My Ántonia is one of Cather’s best-known novels but doesn’t state where it takes place. Choice D is incorrect. This choice mentions that some of Cather’s novels are set in Nebraska, but it doesn’t specify which ones, so we can’t be certain that My Ántonia is one of them. It also includes irrelevant information about Cather’s education.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID dd11e5ab

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: dd11e5ab

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Muckrakers were journalists who sought to expose corruption in US institutions during the Progressive Era (1897–1920).
    • Ida Tarbell was a muckraker who investigated the Standard Oil Company.
    • She interviewed Standard Oil Company executives, oil industry workers, and public officials.
    • She examined thousands of pages of the company’s internal communications, including letters and financial records.
    • Her book The History of the Standard Oil Company (1904) exposed the company’s unfair business practices.

    The student wants to emphasize the thoroughness of Ida Tarbell’s investigation of the Standard Oil Company. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Ida Tarbell not only interviewed Standard Oil executives, oil industry workers, and public officials but also examined thousands of pages of the company’s internal communications.

    • Ida Tarbell, who investigated the Standard Oil Company, was a muckraker (a journalist who sought to expose corruption in US institutions during the Progressive Era, 1897–1920).

    • As part of her investigation of the Standard Oil Company, muckraker Ida Tarbell conducted interviews. 

    • Published in 1904, muckraker Ida Tarbell’s book The History of the Standard Oil Company exposed the company’s unfair business practices. 

    ID: dd11e5ab Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. It describes Tarbell’s investigation and the lengths she went to complete it.

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t describe how thorough Tarbell was. Instead, it gives a biographical sketch. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t describe how thorough Tarbell was. Tarbell didn’t only conduct interviews—she also “examined thousands of pages of the company’s internal communications.” Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t describe how thorough Tarbell was. It describes her book but doesn’t include anything about her investigation.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 8112b7e3

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 8112b7e3

    Ugandan American professor Peter Nazareth believed that Elvis Presley’s music is best understood not as a homogeneous collection but as an anthology (because Elvis showcased the contributions of a wide range of gospel, blues, and rock artists). blank Nazareth entitled his college course on Elvis and his music, which focused on Elvis’s many musical influences, “Elvis as Anthology.”

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • To that end,

    • In sum,

    • That is,

    • In addition,

    ID: 8112b7e3 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. "To that end" logically signals that the activity described in this sentence—Nazareth titling his course "Elvis as Anthology"—is meant to further Nazareth’s goal of helping others understand Presley’s music as an anthology with a wide range of influences.

    Choice B is incorrect. "In sum" illogically signals that the activity described in this sentence summarizes Nazareth’s view of Presley’s music as an anthology. Instead, titling his course "Elvis as Anthology" is a way for him to promote this view. Choice C is incorrect. "That is" illogically signals that the activity described in this sentence is a clarification or interpretation of Nazareth’s view of Presley’s music as an anthology. Instead, titling his course "Elvis as Anthology" is a way for him to promote this view. Choice D is incorrect. "In addition" illogically signals that the activity described in this sentence is merely an additional fact about Nazareth. Instead, titling his course "Elvis as Anthology" is a way for him to promote his view of Presley’s music as an anthology.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 964c6055

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 964c6055

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Two opposing theories of vision divided scholars for many centuries.
    • The ancient Greek mathematician Euclid (circa 300 BCE) supported the extramission theory.
    • This theory held that the eyes emit a form of radiation that illuminates objects in its range.
    • The ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle (384–322 BCE) supported the intromission theory.
    • This theory held that objects emit a form of radiation that reaches the eyes.
    • In the eleventh century, Arab mathematician Ibn al-Haytham (965–1040 CE) largely settled the debate with the first conclusive experiments supporting intromission.

    The student wants to provide a historical overview of the two theories. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Scholars were divided between the extramission and intromission theories of vision until Ibn al-Haytham’s eleventh-century experiments largely settled the debate in support of intromission.

    • Through two opposing theories of vision—extramission and intromission—Euclid, Aristotle, and Ibn al-Haytham held that a form of radiation is emitted either from objects or from the eyes.

    • While Ibn al-Haytham largely settled the debate in the eleventh century, Aristotle supported the theory of intromission centuries before.

    • Before the eleventh century, the ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle supported the intromission theory, which held that objects emit a form of radiation that reaches the eyes.

    ID: 964c6055 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence provides a historical overview of the two theories, noting that scholars were divided between them before Ibn al-Haytham’s experiments supporting intromission largely settled the debate in the eleventh century.

    Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence identifies the two theories and the scholars that supported them, it doesn’t provide a historical overview of the theories. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence indicates Aristotle supported intromission theory centuries before Ibn al-Haytham settled the debate, it doesn’t mention extramission theory or provide a historical overview of both theories. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence provides information about intromission theory but doesn’t mention extramission theory or provide a historical overview of both theories.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 74149724

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 74149724

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • John Carver was one of the 41 signatories of the Mayflower Compact.
    • The Mayflower Compact was a legal agreement among the pilgrims that immigrated to Plymouth Colony.
    • It was created in 1620 to establish a common government.
    • It states that the pilgrims who signed it wanted to “plant the first colony in the northern parts of Virginia” under King James.
    • Carver became the first governor of Plymouth Colony.

    The student wants to specify the reason the Mayflower Compact was created. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Stating that its signatories wanted to “plant the first colony in the northern parts of Virginia,” the Mayflower Compact was a legal agreement among the pilgrims that immigrated to Plymouth Colony.

    • Created in 1620, the Mayflower Compact states that the pilgrims wanted to “plant the first colony in the northern parts of Virginia.”

    • The Mayflower Compact was created to establish a common government among the pilgrims that immigrated to Plymouth Colony.

    • The Mayflower Compact had 41 signatories, including John Carver, the first governor of Plymouth Colony.

    ID: 74149724 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence specifies the reason the Mayflower Compact was created, noting that it was created to establish a common government among the pilgrims that immigrated to Plymouth Colony.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence provides background information about the Mayflower Compact and notes the signatories’ goal for the colony, it doesn’t specify why the compact was created. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence provides background information about the Mayflower Compact and notes the signatories’ goal for the colony, it doesn’t specify why the compact was created. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence specifies the number of pilgrims that signed the Mayflower Compact; it doesn’t specify the reason the compact was created.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 25361ec6

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 25361ec6

    Scientists long debated the origins of chondrules, tiny glass beads that formed in meteors billions of years ago. For decades, different theories were proposed, from lightning strikes to powerful rock collisions, but none had sufficient evidentiary support. blank scientists found strong evidence that chondrules were formed by shock waves in nearby nebulae.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • For example,

    • Therefore,

    • Similarly,

    • Finally,

    ID: 25361ec6 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "Finally" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that scientists found evidence that chondrules were formed by shock waves in nearby nebulae—indicates a conclusion to the scientific debate mentioned in the previous sentences.

    Choice A is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the information about the evidence for chondrule formation in this sentence exemplifies the information about the scientific debate regarding chondrule formation in the previous sentences. Instead, it indicates a conclusion to the debate. Choice B is incorrect because "therefore" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a result of the previous information about the scientific debate regarding chondrule formation. Instead, it indicates a conclusion to the debate. Choice C is incorrect because "similarly" illogically signals that the information that follows is similar to the information about the scientific debate regarding chondrule formation in the previous sentences. Instead, it indicates a conclusion to the debate.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 7ce14583

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 7ce14583

    In Asiya Wadud’s 2022 poem “Shorn, Treaded Red,” the poet contemplates a painting that has inspired her: Etel Adnan’s 2020 work Satellites 27. The painting, which features overlapping geometric shapes, fuels the poem’s exploration of temporality and identity. blank in responding to Adnan’s artwork, Wadud’s poem reflects on the relationship between poetry and other art forms.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • In other words, 

    • For instance,

    • What’s more,

    • Conversely, 

    ID: 7ce14583 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. "What’s more" logically signals that this sentence introduces an additional aspect of Wadud’s poem beyond what was previously discussed. While the previous sentence establishes that Adnan’s painting has inspired "the poem’s exploration of temporality and identity," this sentence provides a separate, additional claim about the poem: that it reflects on poetry’s relationship to other art forms.

    Choice A is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a paraphrase or restatement of the previous point about how Adnan’s painting has inspired "the poem’s exploration of temporality and identity." Instead, the sentence provides a separate, additional claim about the poem. Choice B is incorrect because "for instance" illogically signals that the information in this sentence supports the previous point about "the poem’s exploration of temporality and identity" by providing an example. Instead, the sentence provides a separate, additional claim about the poem. Choice D is incorrect because "conversely" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is contrary to the previous point about how Adnan’s painting has inspired "the poem’s exploration of temporality and identity." Instead, the sentence provides a separate, additional claim about the poem.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 3fd0ab63

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 3fd0ab63

    Voting members of the 2002 Latin Grammys were impressed by Banda Cuisillos’s album Puras Rancheras Con Cuisillos and its contribution to the banda genre, a form of regional Mexican music featuring large ensembles of wind instruments and drums that first developed in southern and central Mexico in the mid-nineteenth century. blank they awarded the group the Best Banda Album award.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • In contrast,

    • Meanwhile,

    • Nevertheless,

    • Accordingly,

    ID: 3fd0ab63 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "Accordingly" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that the voting members awarded Banda Cuisillos the Best Banda Album award—is in accordance with, or results from, the previous information about the voters being impressed by Banda Cuisillos’s album.

    Choice A is incorrect because "in contrast" illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the previous information about voting members being impressed by Banda Cuisillos’s album. Instead, the voters’ decision to give the group the Best Banda Album award is in accordance with, or results from, that information. Choice B is incorrect because "meanwhile" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is separate from (while occurring simultaneously with) the previous information about the voting members being impressed by Banda Cuisillos’s album. Instead, the voters’ decision to give the group the Best Banda Album award is in accordance with, or results from, that information. Choice C is incorrect because "nevertheless" illogically signals that the information that follows is despite the information about the voting members being impressed by Banda Cuisillos’s album. Instead, the voters’ decision to give the group the Best Banda Album award is in accordance with, or results from, that information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID f1d8550e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: f1d8550e

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Jordan Bennett is a Mi’Kmaq visual artist.
    • The Mi’Kmaq are a First Nations people in North America.
    • Bennett’s paintings pay homage to traditional Mi’Kmaq craftsmanship and have been displayed in over 75 exhibitions.
    • His 2017 exhibition Wije’wi was held at the Grenfell Art Gallery.
    • His 2018 exhibition Ketu’elmita’jik was held at the Art Gallery of Nova Scotia.

    The student wants to emphasize the order in which two of Jordan Bennett’s exhibitions were held. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?  

    • Jordan Bennett’s 2017 exhibition Wije’wi was followed a year later by his exhibition Ketu’elmita’jik.

    • Jordan Bennett’s paintings, some of which appeared in 2017 and 2018 exhibitions, pay homage to traditional Mi’Kmaq craftsmanship. 

    • Mi’Kmaq visual artist Jordan Bennett has displayed his work in over 75 exhibitions, including Wije’wi and Ketu’elmita’jik.

    • Jordan Bennett’s 2018 exhibition Ketu’elmita’jik was held at the Art Gallery of Nova Scotia; another was held at the Grenfell Art Gallery.

    ID: f1d8550e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the order in which two of Jordan Bennett’s exhibitions were held, indicating that Wije’wi took place in 2017 and Ketu’elmita’jik took place a year later (2018).

    Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence mentions that exhibitions of Jordan Bennett’s paintings took place in 2017 and 2018, it doesn’t identify the exhibitions or emphasize the order in which they were held. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence mentions two of Jordan Bennett’s exhibitions, it doesn’t indicate the order in which they were held. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence mentions two of Jordan Bennett’s exhibitions and specifies when one of them was held, it doesn’t state when the exhibition at the Grenfell Art Gallery occurred. Thus, the order in which the two exhibitions were held isn’t clearly established in the sentence. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID ff8d2125

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: ff8d2125

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Crown shyness is a phenomenon in which the tops (crowns) of neighboring trees grow close together but don’t overlap.
    • To explain how this happens, Australian forester M.R. Jacobs proposes the mutual abrasion theory.
    • According to Jacobs’s theory, when trees brush against one another, branches break off.
    • Malaysian scholar Francis S.P. Ng posits the mutual shade avoidance theory.
    • According to Ng’s theory, when tree branches detect shade from nearby trees’ branches, they stop growing.

    The student wants to compare the causes of crown shyness proposed in the two theories. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • While Jacobs proposes that crown shyness is caused by neighboring tree branches brushing against one another, Ng posits that it occurs when branches detect shade from nearby trees’ branches.

    • Both Jacobs and Ng have proposed theories to explain what causes crown shyness.

    • Ng posits the mutual shade avoidance theory, whereas Jacobs proposes an alternative theory.

    • Jacobs’s mutual abrasion theory proposes that when neighboring trees brush against one another, branches break off, resulting in a phenomenon in which the tops of trees grow close together but don’t overlap.

    ID: ff8d2125 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence compares the two proposed causes of crown shyness, noting the theories’ differences: Jacobs cites branches brushing against one another as the cause, while Ng cites branches detecting shade from other branches as the cause.

    Choice B is incorrect. The sentence merely identifies the existence of two theories for crown shyness; it doesn’t compare the causes proposed by each theory. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence merely indicates that there are two different theories for crown shyness; it doesn’t compare the causes proposed by each theory. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence merely explains one theory for crown shyness; it doesn’t compare two theories.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 5a2a4b36

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 5a2a4b36

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Pauline Hopkins (1859-1930) was an African American writer.
    • In her career, she created many genre-defining stories.
    • Her serialized novel Hagar’s Daughter was published from 1901 to 1902 in The Colored American Magazine.
    • It is considered the first African American mystery novel.

    The student wants to introduce Pauline Hopkins to an audience unfamiliar with her career. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Pauline Hopkins is the author of Hagar’s Daughter, a serialized novel published from 1901 to 1902.

    • African American writer Pauline Hopkins created many genre-defining stories during her career, including the first African American mystery novel, Hagar’s Daughter.

    • Published in The Colored American Magazine from 1901 to 1902, Hagar’s Daughter is a serialized novel by Pauline Hopkins.

    • Hagar’s Daughter by Pauline Hopkins is considered the first African American mystery novel.

    ID: 5a2a4b36 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence introduces Pauline Hopkins to an audience unfamiliar with her career, identifying her as a genre-defining African American writer and noting a career accomplishment.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes that Pauline Hopkins wrote a serialized novel but doesn’t introduce Hopkins to an audience unfamiliar with her career. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence introduces Hopkins’s novel; it doesn’t introduce Hopkins. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence explains that a novel written by Hopkins is considered the first African American mystery novel; it doesn’t introduce Hopkins to an audience unfamiliar with her career.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 8b2636ee

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 8b2636ee

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Angana Chaudhuri is a scientist.
    • Chaudhuri studies sedimentary rocks.
    • A scientist who studies sedimentary rocks is called a sedimentologist.
    • Shale, chalk, and sandstone are examples of sedimentary rocks.

    The student wants to identify what type of scientist Chaudhuri is. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Chalk is a type of sedimentary rock.

    • Some scientists study shale, chalk, and sandstone.

    • There are scientists who study sedimentary rocks.

    • Chaudhuri is a sedimentologist.

    ID: 8b2636ee Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence identifies the type of scientist Chaudhuri is, noting that she is a sedimentologist.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence provides an example of a type of sedimentary rock; it doesn’t identify what type of scientist Chaudhuri is. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence indicates types of rock that some scientists study; it doesn’t identify what type of scientist Chaudhuri is. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence states that some scientists study sedimentary rocks, it doesn’t identify Chaudhuri as this type of scientist.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 47547d07

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 47547d07

    In June, female loggerhead sea turtles will swim back to the sandy beaches where they were born to lay eggs of their own. First, the turtle will dig her nest in the sand. blank she will lay up to 100 eggs in the nest. Finally, she will cover it all with sand, before returning to the ocean.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • By contrast,

    • Similarly,

    • Next,

    • For example,

    ID: 47547d07 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. “Next” logically signals that the egg laying in this sentence is the next step in the sequence of events described in the other sentences.

    Choice A is incorrect because “by contrast” illogically signals that the egg laying in this sentence contrasts with the nest digging in the previous sentence. Instead, the egg laying follows the nest digging as the next step in the sequence of events. Choice B is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals that the egg laying in this sentence is similar to the nest digging in the previous sentence. Though the two actions are related, they are not similar. Instead, the egg laying follows the nest digging as the next step in the sequence of events. Choice D is incorrect because “for example” illogically signals that the egg laying in this sentence is an example of the nest digging in the previous sentence. Instead, the egg laying follows the nest digging as the next step in the sequence of events.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 79c6a01e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 79c6a01e

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The engineer Robert Fulton designed the Clermont steamboat in 1807.
    • He designed it in New York City.
    • Clermont was the world’s first commercially successful steamboat.
    • The city of Fulton, Missouri, is named after Robert Fulton.
    • New York City’s Fulton Street is named after him.

    The student wants to indicate how Fulton, Missouri, got its name. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Fulton, Missouri, shares its name with Fulton Street in New York City.

    • Fulton Street is in New York City, where the steamboat Clermont was designed in 1807.

    • Designed in 1807 in New York City, Clermont was the first commercially successful steamboat.

    • Fulton, Missouri, is named after Robert Fulton, designer of the first commercially successful steamboat.

    ID: 79c6a01e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence indicates how Fulton, Missouri, got its name, noting that the city was named after the designer of the first commercially successful steamboat, Robert Fulton.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence indicates that Fulton, Missouri, has the same name as a street in New York City; it doesn’t indicate how the city of Fulton got its name. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence indicates that Fulton Street is in New York City; it doesn’t indicate how Fulton, Missouri, got its name. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence provides details about Fulton’s steamboat; it doesn’t indicate how Fulton, Missouri, got its name.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 23da9791

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 23da9791

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Scientists have long sought to determine the origin of glass in Chile’s Atacama Desert.
    • A 2017 study concluded that ancient grass fires had melted the area’s sandy soil into glass.
    • In 2021, a different study revealed that the mineral signatures of glass samples were consistent with the mineral signatures of comet samples collected by NASA.
    • That study concluded that the glass had formed as a result of a cometary explosion close to the desert’s surface.

    The student wants to describe how scientific understanding about the glass’s origin has evolved. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Scientists have long sought to determine the origin of the glass, with one study concluding that it formed when ancient grass fires melted the area’s sandy soil.

    • Studies in 2017 and 2021 offered different explanations for the origin of the glass. 

    • Mineral signatures of glass samples are consistent with those of comet samples collected by NASA, according to new research.

    • A 2017 study concluded that ancient grass fires had caused the glass’s formation, but new research suggests that the glass formed as a result of a cometary explosion close to the desert’s surface.

    ID: 23da9791 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence describes how scientific understanding of the glass’s origin has evolved, explaining that new research suggests the glass formed as a result of a cometary explosion instead of being caused by grass fires (as was previously believed).

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence explains the conclusion of the older study; it doesn’t describe how scientific understanding of the glass’s origin has evolved. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence indicates that the two studies provided different explanations, it doesn’t describe how scientific understanding of the glass’s origin has evolved. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence references a recent finding but doesn’t effectively describe how scientific understanding of the glass’s origin has evolved.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 878f835a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 878f835a

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes: 

    • Some atoms contain an excess of neutrons.
    • Often, these neutrons form a “skin” on the atom’s surface.
    • An atom of lead-208 has a neutron skin.
    • The thickness of its neutron skin is approximately 0.28 trillionths of a millimeter.

    The student wants to emphasize the thickness of lead-208’s neutron skin. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The neutron skin surrounding an atom of lead-208 measures about 0.28 trillionths of a millimeter.

    • Atoms with excess neutrons will often acquire a neutron skin.

    • An atom of lead-208, like some other atoms, is surrounded by a neutron skin.

    • Neutrons surround the surface of an atom of lead-208.

    ID: 878f835a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the thickness of lead-208’s neutron skin, noting that it is about 0.28 trillionths of a millimeter thick.

    Choice B is incorrect. The sentence makes a generalization about atoms, stating that atoms with excess neutrons will often acquire a neutron skin; it doesn’t emphasize the thickness of lead-208’s neutron skin. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence states that lead-208 has a neutron skin; it doesn’t emphasize the thickness of that skin. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence indicates that lead-208 is surrounded by neutrons; it doesn’t emphasize the thickness of lead-208’s neutron skin.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 8e9677e6

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 8e9677e6

    In 2009, the Craft and Folk Art Museum in Los Angeles hosted a special exhibition, Sueños/Yume, showcasing the works of local sculptor Dora de Larios. As suggested by the show’s title (sueños and yume mean “dreams” in Spanish and Japanese, respectively), de Larios’s art reflects a mix of cultural influences. blank her work is grounded in the artistic traditions of both Mexico and Japan.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • In addition,

    • In contrast,

    • Specifically,

    • Therefore,

    ID: 8e9677e6 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. “Specifically” logically signals that this sentence provides specific, precise details elaborating on the previous sentence’s claim that de Larios’s art reflects a mix of cultures. This sentence specifies which cultures the previous sentence is referring to: the artistic traditions of both Mexico and Japan. 

    Choice A is incorrect because “in addition” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a separate point that follows the previous claim about de Larios’s art. Instead, it provides specific details elaborating on that claim. Choice B is incorrect because “in contrast” illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the previous claim about de Larios’s art. Instead, it provides specific details elaborating on that claim. Choice D is incorrect because “therefore” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a result of the previous claim about de Larios’s art. Instead, it provides specific details elaborating on that claim.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 31ac4d2c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 31ac4d2c

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Hina Hanta is an online archive curated by the Choctaw Nation of Oklahoma.
    • Hina Hanta means “bright path” in Choctaw.
    • It features images of cultural artifacts relevant to the history of the Choctaw people.
    • It includes a fanner basket (ufko tapushik in Choctaw) made from cane.
    • It includes a robe (nita anchi) made from bear fur.

    The student wants to specify the fanner basket’s name in Choctaw. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The Hina Hanta archive features cultural artifacts, such as a fanner basket and a robe, that are relevant to the history of the Choctaw people.

    • The cane fanner basket, which is included in the Hina Hanta online archive, is called an ufko tapushik in Choctaw.

    • Hina Hanta, which means “bright path” in Choctaw, includes a fanner basket in its archive.

    • The name of the online archive Hina Hanta means “bright path” in Choctaw.

    ID: 31ac4d2c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence specifies the fanner basket’s name in Choctaw, noting that it’s called ufko tapushik.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the fanner basket, it doesn’t specify its name in Choctaw. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the fanner basket, it doesn’t specify its name in Choctaw. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence doesn’t mention the fanner basket or specify its name in Choctaw.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 8432a140

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 8432a140

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Marine biologist Camille Jazmin Gaynus studies coral reefs.
    • Coral reefs are vital underwater ecosystems that provide habitats to 25% of all marine species.
    • Reefs can include up to 8,000 species of fish, such as toadfish, seahorses, and clown triggerfish.
    • The Amazon Reef is a coral reef in Brazil.
    • It is one of the largest known reefs in the world.

    The student wants to introduce the scientist and her field of study to a new audience. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Located in Brazil, the Amazon Reef is one of the largest known coral reefs in the world.

    • Marine biologist Camille Jazmin Gaynus studies coral reefs, vital underwater ecosystems that provide homes to 25% of all marine species. 

    • Providing homes to 25% of all marine species, including up to 8,000 species of fish, coral reefs are vital underwater ecosystems and thus of great interest to marine biologists.

    • As Camille Jazmin Gaynus knows well, coral reefs are vital underwater ecosystems, providing homes to thousands of species of fish.

    ID: 8432a140 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. We’re asked to select the sentence that "introduce[s] the scientist and her field of study." This choice introduces scientist Camille Jazmin Gaynus as a marine biologist and explains what marine life she studies.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t mention Camille Jazmin Gaynus, so it fails to "introduce the scientist." Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t mention Camille Jazmin Gaynus, so it fails to "introduce the scientist." Choice D is incorrect. This choice mentions Camille Jazmin Gaynus, but it doesn’t identify her as a marine biologist. It says she "knows well" about coral reefs, but doesn’t identify her expertise as a "field of study."

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 4b7a84b0

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 4b7a84b0

    Mountain climbing routes that incorporate metal rungs and cables are known as via ferratas, from the Italian phrase for “iron path.” As climbing these routes has shifted from a mode of travel to a sporting activity, modern via ferratas are rarely designed to simply reach a summit. blank new routes favor recreation over utility, aiming to provide a challenging climb or showcase dramatic scenery.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Additionally,

    • On the other hand,

    • More often,

    • Nonetheless,

    ID: 4b7a84b0 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. "More often" logically signals that the claim in this sentence—that new via ferratas favor recreation over utility—explains a difference between the new "sporting activity" routes and the older "mode of travel" routes. In so doing, it emphasizes and reinforces the previous claim ("modern via ferratas are rarely designed to simply reach a summit").

    Choice A is incorrect because "additionally" illogically signals that this sentence’s claim about new via ferratas adds a new, separate point to the previous claim ("modern via ferratas are rarely designed to simply reach a summit"). Instead, the second claim—that new routes favor recreation over utility—emphasizes and reinforces the previous one. Choice B is incorrect because "on the other hand" illogically signals that this sentence’s claim about new via ferratas contrasts with or opposes the previous claim ("modern via ferratas are rarely designed to simply reach a summit"). Instead, the second claim—that new routes favor recreation over utility—emphasizes and reinforces the previous one. Choice D is incorrect because "nonetheless" illogically signals that this sentence’s claim about new via ferratas is true despite the previous claim ("modern via ferratas are rarely designed to simply reach a summit"). Instead, the second claim—that new routes favor recreation over utility—emphasizes and reinforces the previous one.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID f5959727

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: f5959727

    Modernista architects championed nature in their designs. blank the wavy staircase and ornate floral tilework of Hospital de Sant Pau, a Modernista hospital designed by Lluís Domènech i Montaner, couldn’t exactly grow in a forest. Still, one sees natural influences in Domènech i Montaner’s penchant for curves (rather than right angles) and plant- and animal-inspired flourishes.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Furthermore,

    • Similarly,

    • Of course,

    • Thus,

    ID: f5959727 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. "Of course" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that "the wavy staircase and ornate floral tilework" of the Modernista hospital couldn’t actually grow in a forest—acknowledges an obvious limitation of, or qualification to, the previous claim that Modernista architects championed nature in their designs.

    Choice A is incorrect because "furthermore" illogically signals that the information in this sentence merely adds to the previous claim that Modernista architects championed nature in their designs. Instead, the sentence acknowledges an obvious limitation in how literally that natural influence was expressed in the hospital’s features. Choice B is incorrect because "similarly" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is similar to the previous claim that Modernista architects championed nature in their designs. Instead, the sentence acknowledges an obvious limitation in how literally that natural influence was expressed in the hospital’s features. Choice D is incorrect because "thus" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a result of the previous claim that Modernista architects championed nature in their designs. Instead, the sentence acknowledges an obvious limitation in how literally that natural influence was expressed in the hospital’s features.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 6e0c60da

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 6e0c60da

    When one looks at the dark craggy vistas in Hitoshi Fugo’s evocative photo series, one’s mind might wander off to the cratered surfaces of faraway planets. blank it’s the series’ title, Flying Frying Pan, that brings one back to Earth, reminding the viewer that each photo is actually a close-up view of a familiar household object: a frying pan.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Consequently,

    • Alternatively,

    • Ultimately,

    • Additionally,

    ID: 6e0c60da Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The first sentence describes an experience that the viewer has when they’re looking at the photos: they imagine other planets. This sentence describes an experience that the viewer has afterward: the title reminds them that the photos are of frying pans, bringing them back to reality. “Ultimately” is a transition that means “eventually” or “in the end,” so it fits the context perfectly.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice uses a cause-and-effect transition, which doesn’t make sense here. The viewer imagining other planets when they’re looking at the photos doesn’t cause the title to bring them back to reality. Choice B is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates another option or possibility, which doesn’t make sense here. Rather, the viewer has both experiences: first the viewer imagines that they’re looking at another planet, and then the title reminds them that it’s just a frying pan. Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates the addition of an agreeing idea. But the viewer’s experience in the second sentence is actually the opposite of the viewer’s experience in the first sentence. In the first sentence, the viewer is imagining that they’re seeing a landscape from another planet. In the second sentence, the viewer is reminded that they’re looking at a frying pan.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 94f48106

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 94f48106

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In 2022, University of Miami researchers discovered brine pools in the Gulf of Aqaba.
    • A brine pool is an underwater lake that sits on the ocean floor.
    • The water in brine pools is three to eight times saltier than the surrounding ocean.
    • The extreme saltiness of this water makes it toxic to most sea life.
    • Some forms of bacteria are able to survive in brine pools.

    The student wants to explain why brine pools are toxic to most sea life. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Though brine pools are toxic to most sea life, some bacteria can survive there.

    • The water in brine pools is toxic to most sea life because it is three to eight times saltier than the surrounding ocean.

    • The brine pools in the Gulf of Aqaba are toxic to most sea life and were discovered by researchers in 2022.

    • Brine pools are salty underwater lakes that sit on the ocean floor.

    ID: 94f48106 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence explains why brine pools are toxic to most sea life, noting that the water in the pools is three to eight times saltier than the surrounding ocean.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence states that brine pools are toxic to most sea life, it doesn’t explain why the pools are toxic. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence states that brine pools are toxic to most sea life, it doesn’t explain why the pools are toxic. Choice D is incorrect because the sentence describes brine pools, mentioning that they are salty, but doesn’t explain why they are toxic to most sea life.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 146233fc

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 146233fc

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Lighthouses send out crucial light signals to help ships and other watercraft navigate at night.
    • Before automation, lighthouses were run by lighthouse keepers.
    • Maria Younghans was the lighthouse keeper at Biloxi Light in Mississippi.
    • She held this position from 1867 to 1918.
    • Flora McNeil was the lighthouse keeper at Bridgeport Breakwater Light in Connecticut.
    • She held this position from 1904 to 1920.

    The student wants to emphasize the order in which the two lighthouse keepers began their careers. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • From 1867 to 1918, the nighttime waters of Mississippi were more navigable thanks to lighthouse keepers Flora McNeil and Maria Younghans.

    • Before automation, lighthouse keepers like Maria Younghans and Flora McNeil were crucial to ensuring safe navigation for watercraft.

    • Flora McNeil began her career as a lighthouse keeper years after Maria Younghans did.

    • Maria Younghans’s career as a lighthouse keeper ended in 1918, whereas Flora McNeil’s ended in 1920.

    ID: 146233fc Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the order in which the two lighthouse keepers began their careers, noting that McNeil, who became the keeper at Bridgeport Breakwater Light in 1904, began her career years after Younghans, who became the keeper at Biloxi Light in 1867.

    Choice A is incorrect because it makes a generalization about the effects of McNeil’s and Younghans’s work; it doesn’t emphasize the order in which the two keepers began their careers. In addition, the sentence misrepresents information from the notes; McNeil was the keeper at a lighthouse in Connecticut from 1904 to 1920, not at a lighthouse in Mississippi from 1867 to 1918. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence claims that Younghans and McNeil were crucial to ensuring the safety of watercraft before lighthouses became automated; it doesn’t emphasize the order in which the two keepers began their careers. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes when the lighthouse keepers’ respective careers ended; it doesn’t emphasize the order in which the two keepers began their careers.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 7f20374f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 7f20374f

    The 435 state districts in the US House of Representatives are designed to be roughly equal in population. These districts average around 760,000 people in size. However, only about 730,000 people live in the state of Alaska. blank Alaska has just one House district, encompassing the entire state. 

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • As a result,

    • Instead,

    • Finally,

    • For instance,

    ID: 7f20374f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. "As a result" logically signals that the information in the sentence—that, in the US House of Representatives, the entire state of Alaska has just one district—is the result or consequence of Alaska having only about 730,000 people. This is slightly below the average for House districts, which are designed to have roughly equal populations.

    Choice B is incorrect because "instead" illogically signals that Alaska having just one state district is an alternative to the information about the state’s population in the previous sentence. Rather, the fact that Alaska has just one district is a result or consequence of the entire state having slightly fewer people than an average-sized district. Choice C is incorrect because "finally" illogically signals that the information in this sentence about Alaska having just one district indicates a last step in a process or a concluding summary. Instead, the fact that Alaska has just one district is a result or consequence of the entire state having slightly fewer people than an average-sized district. Choice D is incorrect because "for instance" illogically signals that the information in this sentence about Alaska having just one district exemplifies the information about the state’s population in the previous sentence. Instead, the fact that Alaska has just one district is a result or consequence of the entire state having slightly fewer people than an average-sized district.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 64e88c58

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 64e88c58

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In 1971, experimental musician Pauline Oliveros created Sonic Meditations.
    • Sonic Meditations is not music but rather a series of sound-based exercises called meditations.
    • Each meditation consists of instructions for participants to make, imagine, listen to, or remember sounds.
    • The instructions for Meditation V state, “walk so silently that the bottoms of your feet become ears.”
    • Those for Meditation XVIII state, “listen to a sound until you no longer recognize it.”

    The student wants to provide an explanation and an example of Oliveros’s Sonic Meditations. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Sonic Meditations is not music but rather a series of sound-based meditations that consist of instructions; Meditation XVIII, for instance, instructs participants to “listen to a sound until you no longer recognize it.”

    • In 1971, Oliveros created Sonic Meditations, a series of meditations that consist of instructions for participants to make, imagine, listen to, or remember sounds.

    • “Walk so silently that the bottoms of your feet become ears” is one example of the instructions found in Oliveros’s Sonic Meditations.

    • While both meditations consist of instructions, Meditation XVIII instructs participants to “listen,” whereas Meditation V instructs participants to “walk.”

    ID: 64e88c58 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. It describes what a “Sonic Meditation” is, and then gives an example in the form of Meditation XVIII.

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice describes what a “Sonic Meditation” is, but doesn’t give an example of one. Choice C is incorrect. This choice gives an example of a “Sonic Meditation,” but doesn’t explain what the meditations are. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t describe what a “Sonic Meditation” is.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 2c61e0b9

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 2c61e0b9

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • British musicians John Lennon and Paul McCartney shared writing credit for numerous Beatles songs.
    • Many Lennon-McCartney songs were actually written by either Lennon or McCartney, not by both.
    • The exact authorship of specific parts of many Beatles songs, such as the verse for “In My Life,” is disputed.
    • Mark Glickman, Jason Brown, and Ryan Song used statistical methods to analyze the musical content of Beatles songs.
    • They concluded that there is 18.9% probability that McCartney wrote the verse for “In My Life,” stating that the verse is “consistent with Lennon’s songwriting style.”

    The student wants to make a generalization about the kind of study conducted by Glickman, Brown, and Song. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Based on statistical analysis, Glickman, Brown, and Song claim that John Lennon wrote the verse of “In My Life.”

    • There is only an 18.9% probability that Paul McCartney wrote the verse for “In My Life”; John Lennon is the more likely author.

    • It is likely that John Lennon, not Paul McCartney, wrote the verse for “In My Life.”

    • Researchers have used statistical methods to address questions of authorship within the field of music.

    ID: 2c61e0b9 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence uses information from the notes to make a generalization about the kind of study Glickman, Brown, and Song conducted. Specifically, the sentence indicates that the study was of a kind that used statistical methods to address questions of authorship within the field of music.

    Choice A is incorrect because the sentence summarizes the methodology and findings of a particular analysis of a single song; it doesn’t make a generalization about the kind of study conducted. Choice B is incorrect because the sentence mentions the data and conclusion of a particular analysis of a single song; it doesn’t make a generalization about the kind of study conducted. Choice C is incorrect because the sentence focuses on a specific conclusion from a particular analysis of a single song; it doesn’t make a generalization about the kind of study conducted.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 14037904

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 14037904

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The Heartbeat of Wounded Knee: Native America from 1890 to the Present is a history book by Ojibwe author David Treuer.
    • In a review, a critic for The Economist noted that “Treuer’s storytelling skills shine” and that the book is an “elegant handling of [a] complex narrative.”
    • A critic for O, The Oprah Magazine called it “a marvel of research and storytelling.”
    • A critic for the Missoulian dubbed it “a monumental achievement.”

    The student wants to emphasize a similarity in how critics responded to Treuer’s book. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Treuer’s book, which was widely reviewed, focuses on Native American history from 1890 to the present.

    • Dubbed “a monumental achievement” by the Missoulian, Treuer’s book documents over a century of Native American history.

    • Critics praised Treuer’s book for its compelling narrative, with O, The Oprah Magazine calling it “a marvel of research and storytelling” and The Economist likewise writing that “Treuer’s storytelling skills shine” and that the book is an “elegant handling of [a] complex narrative.”

    • While the Missoulian focused on the book’s broader achievement, The Economist zeroed in on Treuer’s storytelling skills.

    ID: 14037904 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a similarity in how critics responded to Treuer’s book, noting that the critics for O, The Oprah Magazine and The Economist both praised the book’s storytelling.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence provides background information about Treuer’s book; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity in how critics responded to it. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence cites a single critic’s response to Treuer’s book; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity in the responses of multiple critics. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a difference, not a similarity, in how two critics responded to Treuer’s book.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 9d4f331c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 9d4f331c

    When sculptor Frédéric Auguste Bartholdi was designing the Statue of Liberty, he sought the advice of engineer Gustave Eiffel. Eiffel suggested that he make the statue’s arm thick and position it straight above the figure’s head. blank Bartholdi decided to slim the arm and tilt it out at an angle.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Additionally,

    • Instead,

    • Thus,

    • For example,

    ID: 9d4f331c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "Instead" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that Bartholdi decided to slim and tilt out the arm of the Statue of Liberty—contrasts with Eiffel’s design suggestions for the statue.

    Choice A is incorrect because "additionally" illogically suggests that the information in this sentence is merely an additional fact related to Eiffel’s design suggestions in the previous sentence. Instead, it contrasts with those suggestions. Choice C is incorrect because "thus" illogically signals that the information that follows is a result of Eiffel’s design suggestions in the previous sentence. Instead, it contrasts with those suggestions. Choice D is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the information about Bartholdi’s design decisions in this sentence exemplifies Eiffel’s design suggestions in the previous sentence. Instead, it contrasts with those suggestions.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 29ae4d48

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 29ae4d48

    In the early 1970s, Albert Popa took up graffiti art, spraying his work onto what was at the time an unconventional surface: concrete. blank Albert’s son David has chosen an unusual canvas for his new art project, Fractured. In this remarkable work, the artist draws charcoal faces onto fragmented ice floes in Finland, creating the visual effect of a face slowly fracturing.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • However,

    • Indeed,

    • Second,

    • Likewise,

    ID: 29ae4d48 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "Likewise" logically signals that the information about Albert’s son David is similar to the previous information about Albert Popa. Both artists have used unconventional surfaces for their work: Albert used concrete, and David is using ice floes.

    Choice A is incorrect because "however" illogically signals that the information about David contrasts with the previous information about Albert Popa. Instead, it is similar to the previous information about Albert Popa. Choice B is incorrect because "indeed" illogically signals that the information about David emphasizes or strengthens the previous point about Albert Popa. Instead, it is similar to the previous information; it highlights a similarity between father and son. Choice C is incorrect because "second" illogically signals that the information about David is a second point or reason separate from the previous information about Albert Popa. Instead, it is similar to the previous information; it highlights a similarity between father and son.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 9dc4e640

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 9dc4e640

    The mineral mtorolite is most commonly found in Zimbabwe. Mtorolite is cryptocrystalline, meaning that its crystalline structure is so fine that the individual crystals cannot be distinguished by the naked eye or even under a microscope. The crystals in microcrystalline minerals are also not visible to the naked eye; blank they can usually be seen under a microscope.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • thus,

    • for example,

    • that said,

    • similarly,

    ID: 9dc4e640 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer because "that said" logically signals that the information that follows—that the crystals of microcrystalline minerals can be seen with a microscope—is an exception to the previous information about the crystalline structure of minerals not being visible under a microscope.

    Choice A is incorrect because "thus" illogically signals that the information that follows is a direct result or consequence of the fact that the crystals of microcrystalline minerals aren’t visible to the naked eye. Instead, the fact that they can be seen under a microscope is an exception to the previous information about crystalline minerals. Choice B is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the information that follows exemplifies the fact that the crystals of microcrystalline minerals aren’t visible to the naked eye. Instead, the fact that they can be seen under a microscope is an exception to the previous information about crystalline minerals. Choice D is incorrect because "similarly" illogically signals that the information that follows is similar or comparable to the fact that the crystals of microcrystalline minerals aren’t visible to the naked eye. Instead, the fact that they can be seen under a microscope is an exception to the previous information about crystalline minerals.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 113f16da

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 113f16da

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Some animals have evolved to physically resemble another animal, plant, or object.
    • This is known as mimicry.
    • Crab spiders mimic the appearance of flowers.
    • This helps crab spiders ambush their prey.
    • Katydids mimic the appearance of leaves.
    • This helps katydids hide from their predators.

    The student wants to emphasize a difference in how katydids and crab spiders use mimicry. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Katydids mimic the appearance of flowers, and crab spiders mimic that of leaves. 

    • Katydids and crab spiders are two examples of animals that use mimicry.

    • Unlike crab spiders, which use mimicry to ambush prey, katydids use mimicry to hide from predators.

    • Animals that use mimicry have evolved to resemble another animal, plant, or object.

    ID: 113f16da Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence uses "unlike" to emphasize a difference in how katydids and crab spiders use mimicry, noting that crab spiders use mimicry to ambush prey while katydids use it to hide from predators.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence does contrast katydids and crab spiders, it misrepresents the information in the notes. Katydids mimic the appearance of leaves (not flowers), whereas crab spiders mimic the appearance of flowers (not leaves). Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence indicates that katydids and crab spiders use mimicry, it doesn’t emphasize a difference in how they use it. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence describes what mimicry is; it doesn’t emphasize a difference in how katydids and crab spiders specifically use mimicry.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 6081831f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 6081831f

    When Chinese director Chloé Zhao accepted the Oscar in 2021 for her film Nomadland, she made Academy Award history. blank only one other woman, Kathryn Bigelow of the United States, had been named best director at the Oscars, making Zhao the second woman and the first Asian woman to win the award.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • As a result,

    • Previously,

    • However,

    • Likewise,

    ID: 6081831f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. “Previously” logically signals that the event described in this sentence—Bigelow being named best director—occurred before Zhao’s win. The fact that only one other woman had won the award before puts Zhao’s win in perspective.

    Choice A is incorrect because “as a result” illogically signals that the event described in this sentence occurred as a result or consequence of Zhao’s win. Instead, it occurred before Zhao was named best director and puts Zhao’s win in perspective. Choice C is incorrect because “however” illogically signals that the event described in this sentence occurred in spite of or in contrast to Zhao’s win. Instead, it occurred before Zhao was named best director and puts Zhao’s win in perspective. Choice D is incorrect because “likewise” illogically signals that this sentence merely adds a second, similar piece of information to the information about Zhao’s win. Instead, the fact that only one other woman had won the award before puts Zhao’s win in perspective.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 0c0d50e1

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 0c0d50e1

    The Coastal Virginia Offshore Wind project is anticipated to generate 2.6 gigawatts of energy, enough to power almost one million homes. As its name indicates, the project—currently in development—consists of wind turbines located off the Virginia coast. blank the project plan calls for 176 large turbines to be placed at a site 27 miles east of Virginia Beach.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • To be exact,

    • In conclusion,

    • As a result,

    • In contrast,

    ID: 0c0d50e1 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. "To be exact" logically signals that this sentence about the Coastal Virginia Offshore Wind project plan provides specific, precise details—number of turbines, location of site—elaborating on the more general information about the project in the previous sentence.

    Choice B is incorrect because "in conclusion" illogically signals that the information in this sentence about the Coastal Virginia Offshore Wind project plan concludes or summarizes the discussion of the project in the previous sentences. Instead, the sentence provides specific, precise details elaborating on the previous information. Choice C is incorrect because "as a result" illogically signals that the information in this sentence about the Coastal Virginia Offshore Wind project plan is caused by, or occurs as a result of, the information about the project in the previous sentence. Instead, the sentence provides specific, precise details elaborating on the previous information. Choice D is incorrect because "in contrast" illogically signals that the information in this sentence about the Coastal Virginia Offshore Wind project plan contrasts with information about the project in the previous sentence. Instead, the sentence provides specific, precise details elaborating on the previous information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID d436a2b2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: d436a2b2

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Komodo dragons are the largest lizards in the world.
    • They live on four islands in Komodo National Park, Indonesia.
    • The park has a total of twenty-nine islands.

    The student wants to emphasize how many islands in Komodo National Park have Komodo dragons living on them. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Komodo dragons, the world’s largest lizards, live on islands in Komodo National Park, Indonesia.

    • The largest lizards in the world are found in Komodo National Park.

    • Only four of the twenty-nine islands in Komodo National Park have Komodo dragons living on them.

    • There are twenty-nine islands in Indonesia’s Komodo National Park.

    ID: d436a2b2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the number of islands in Komodo National Park that have Komodo dragons living on them, noting that four of the park’s twenty-nine islands have Komodo dragons.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence does explain that Komodo dragons live on the islands of Komodo National Park, it doesn’t emphasize how many of those islands Komodo dragons live on. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence explains that Komodo National Park contains the world’s largest lizards; it doesn’t identify these lizards as Komodo dragons or emphasize how many of the park’s islands the lizards live on. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence specifies the total number of islands in Komodo National Park; it doesn’t emphasize how many of those islands have Komodo dragons.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 20e4ff59

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 20e4ff59

    Famous for its four-degree tilt, the leaning Garisenda Tower is a popular attraction in Bologna’s city center. However, measurements taken in 2023 showed that the tower was rotating in a concerning way. blank city officials closed the area around the tower so experts could explore solutions to stabilize the historical twelfth-century structure.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Similarly,

    • As a result,

    • For example,

    • In comparison,

    ID: 20e4ff59 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "As a result" logically signals that the action described in this sentence—closing the area around Garisenda Tower to explore stabilization solutions—occurred as a consequence or result of measurements revealing the tower’s concerning rotation.

    Choice A is incorrect because "similarly" illogically signals that the action of closing the tower area is similar to the discovery of concerning rotation described in the previous sentence. Instead, closing the area around the tower to explore solutions occurred as a result of the measurements revealing the rotation. Choice C is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the action of closing the tower area serves as an example of the tower’s concerning rotation described in the previous sentence. Instead, closing the area around the tower to explore solutions occurred as a result of the measurements revealing the rotation. Choice D is incorrect because "in comparison" illogically signals that the action of closing the tower area is being compared to the discovery of concerning rotation described in the previous sentence. Instead, closing the area around the tower to explore solutions occurred as a result of the measurements revealing the rotation.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 129089b5

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 129089b5

    In 1933, the Twentieth Amendment to the US Constitution was ratified. The amendment mandates that presidential inaugurations be held on January 20, approximately ten weeks after the November election. blank this amendment requires newly elected US senators and representatives to be sworn into their respective offices on January 3.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Instead,

    • For instance,

    • Specifically,

    • In addition,

    ID: 129089b5 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. “In addition” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that the Twentieth Amendment requires newly elected US senators and representatives to be sworn in on January 3—is separate from and additional to the amendment’s mandate concerning presidential inaugurations.

    Choice A is incorrect because “instead” illogically signals that the information in the sentence presents an alternative to or substitute for the Twentieth Amendment’s mandate concerning presidential inaugurations. Rather, the sentence presents a separate requirement in addition to that one. Choice B is incorrect because “for instance” illogically signals that the information in the sentence exemplifies the Twentieth Amendment’s mandate concerning presidential inaugurations. Instead, the sentence presents a separate requirement in addition to that one. Choice C is incorrect because “specifically” illogically signals that the sentence provides specific, precise details elaborating on the Twentieth Amendment’s mandate concerning presidential inaugurations. Instead, the sentence presents a separate requirement in addition to that one.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID f4b63a04

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: f4b63a04

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes: 

    • In 2013, paleontology professor Hesham Sallam and his students from Mansoura University in Egypt made a discovery.
    • The team found a partial dinosaur skeleton at a site in Egypt’s Dakhla Oasis.
    • The skeleton belonged to a dinosaur species that lived approximately 80 million years ago.
    • The new species was named Mansourasaurus to recognize the team that discovered it.

    The student wants to explain the origin of the species’ name. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Mansourasaurus, a new species discovered in Egypt in 2013, lived approximately 80 million years ago.

    • A partial dinosaur skeleton found in Egypt’s Dakhla Oasis belonged to a species named Mansourasaurus.

    • Mansourasaurus, a species that lived approximately 80 million years ago, was discovered in 2013 by Egyptian paleontologist Hesham Sallam and a team of university students.

    • The new species was named Mansourasaurus to recognize the team that discovered it, a professor and students from Mansoura University.

    ID: f4b63a04 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. It explains where the dinosaur’s name came from.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice does not explain the origin of the dinosaur’s name. Choice B is incorrect. This choice does not explain the origin of the dinosaur’s name. Choice C is incorrect. This choice does not explain the origin of the dinosaur’s name.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID af88c47a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: af88c47a

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Freddie Wong (born 1985) is a director and special effects artist from the United States.
    • He is best known for the action-comedy web series Video Game High School (VGHS).
    • VGHS premiered in 2012 on RocketJump, a YouTube channel that Wong cocreated.
    • The series was celebrated for its inventive video game–centric world and high-quality special effects.
    • VGHS was nominated for a Producers Guild Award for Outstanding Digital Series.

    The student wants to begin a narrative about Wong’s award-nominated web series. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • In 2012, director and visual effects artist Freddie Wong launched a new action-comedy web series: Video Game High School.

    • Video Game High School was celebrated for its inventive video game–centric world and high-quality special effects, and it was nominated for a Producer’s Guild Award for Outstanding Digital Series.

    • Wong, cocreator of the YouTube channel RocketJump, would go on to see his web series be nominated for a Producers Guild Award.

    • In 2012, Video Game High School premiered on RocketJump; it would later be nominated for an award.

    ID: af88c47a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. This choice introduces Wong and VGHS in an active and specific way, as if to an audience unfamiliar with the series. It also sets up the time and genre of the web series, which are useful ways to introduce the series of events in a narrative.

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice isn’t suited for beginning a narrative. A narrative is a story that follows a sequence of events and creates interest and suspense for the reader. This choice jumps to the end, explaining the success of VGHS without explaining what it is. Choice C is incorrect. This choice isn’t suited for beginning a narrative. It doesn’t actually introduce the web series by name. It just jumps to later in the story without sufficient explanation. Choice D is incorrect. This choice is not very effective for beginning a narrative. It doesn’t explain what VGHS is, and it doesn’t mention Wong.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID d6dec50e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: d6dec50e

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In 2019, Emily Shepard and colleagues in the UK and Germany studied the effect of wind on auks’ success in landing at cliffside nesting sites.
    • They found as wind conditions intensified, the birds needed more attempts in order to make a successful landing.
    • When the wind was still, almost 100% of landing attempts were successful.
    • In a strong breeze, approximately 40% of attempts were successful.
    • In near-gale conditions, only around 20% of attempts were successful.

    The student wants to summarize the study. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • For a 2019 study, researchers from the UK and Germany collected data on auks’ attempts to land at cliffside nesting sites in different wind conditions.

    • Emily Shepard and her colleagues wanted to know the extent to which wind affected auks’ success in landing at cliffside nesting sites, so they conducted a study.

    • Knowing that auks often need multiple attempts to land at their cliffside nesting sites, Emily Shepard studied the birds’ success rate, which was only around 20% in some conditions.

    • Emily Shepard’s 2019 study of auks’ success in landing at cliffside nesting sites showed that as wind conditions intensified, the birds’ success rate decreased.

    ID: d6dec50e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence effectively summarizes the study, noting who conducted it, when it was conducted, and what its results showed: that auks’ landing success rate decreased as wind conditions intensified.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence presents the methodology of the study—that is, the approach taken by the researchers—it fails to summarize the study as a whole. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence presents the aim, or goal, of the study, it fails to summarize the study as a whole. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence indicates what Shepard studied, it fails to mention a key factor: the effect of wind. It thus fails to summarize the study as a whole.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 94cb8720

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 94cb8720

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In 2020, theater students at Radford and Virginia Tech chose an interactive, online format to present a play about woman suffrage activists.
    • Their “Women and the Vote” website featured an interactive digital drawing of a Victorian-style house.
    • Audiences were asked to focus on a room of their choice and select from that room an artifact related to the suffrage movement.
    • One click took them to video clips, songs, artwork, and texts associated with the artifact.
    • The play was popular with audiences because the format allowed them to control the experience.

    The student wants to explain an advantage of the “Women and the Vote” format. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • “Women and the Vote” featured a drawing of a Victorian-style house with several rooms, each containing suffrage artifacts.

    • To access video clips, songs, artwork, and texts, audiences had to first click on an artifact.

    • The “Women and the Vote” format appealed to audiences because it allowed them to control the experience.   

    • Using an interactive format, theater students at Radford and Virginia Tech created “Women and the Vote,” a play about woman suffrage activists. 

    ID: 94cb8720 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence explains an advantage of the “Women and the Vote” format, noting that the format appealed to audiences because it allowed them to control the experience.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence describes a digital drawing on the “Women and the Vote” website; it doesn’t explain an advantage of the play’s format. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence explains how audiences interacted with the “Women and the Vote” website; it doesn’t explain an advantage of the play’s format. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence mentions that “Women and the Vote” had an interactive format, it doesn’t explain what advantage this format might have. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID ddb77846

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: ddb77846

    My interest in old public libraries has led me to seek them out whenever I visit a new part of the United States. blank I could visit every state in the US and still not find the oldest public library in the Western Hemisphere. That library, the Biblioteca Palafoxiana, is located in Puebla, Mexico.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • As a result,

    • Nevertheless,

    • Earlier,

    • In other words,

    ID: ddb77846 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "Nevertheless" logically signals that the claim in the sentence—that the speaker could visit every state in the US and not find the oldest public library in the Western Hemisphere—is true despite the previous claim about the speaker seeking out old public libraries.

    Choice A is incorrect because "as a result" illogically signals that the claim in the sentence is a consequence of the previous claim about the speaker seeking out old public libraries. Instead, the claim is true despite the previous claim. Choice C is incorrect because "earlier" illogically signals that the claim in the sentence occurs earlier in a chronological sequence of events than the previous claim about the speaker seeking out old public libraries. Instead, the claim is true despite the previous claim. Choice D is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that the claim in the sentence is merely a paraphrase or restatement of the previous claim about the speaker seeking out old public libraries. Instead, the claim is true despite the previous claim.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 9551ef8b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 9551ef8b

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The magnificent frigatebird (fregata magnificens) is a species of seabird that feeds mainly on fish, tuna, squid, and other small sea animals.
    • It is unusual among seabirds in that it doesn’t dive into the water for prey.
    • One way it acquires food is by using its hook-tipped bill to snatch prey from the surface of the water.
    • Another way it acquires food is by taking it from weaker birds by force.
    • This behavior is known as kleptoparasitism.

    The student wants to emphasize a similarity between the two ways a magnificent frigatebird acquires food. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • A magnificent frigatebird never dives into the water, instead using its hook-tipped bill to snatch prey from the surface.

    • Neither of a magnificent frigatebird’s two ways of acquiring food requires the bird to dive into the water.

    • Of the magnificent frigatebird’s two ways of acquiring food, only one is known as kleptoparasitism.

    • In addition to snatching prey from the water with its hook-tipped bill, a magnificent frigatebird takes food from other birds by force. 

    ID: 9551ef8b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between the two ways a magnificent frigatebird acquires food, noting that neither way requires the seabird to dive into the water.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence describes how a magnificent frigatebird captures prey without diving into water; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two ways the seabird acquires food. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence notes the term used to describe one of the two ways that magnificent frigatebirds acquire food; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two ways. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence describes the two ways that a magnificent frigatebird acquires food; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two ways.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 9fe7315b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 9fe7315b

    Few New Yorkers have heard Thelma Pollard’s name. blank many have seen her work in the famous Broadway musical The Phantom of the Opera. As the musical’s longtime makeup supervisor, Pollard put the iconic makeup on the face of the Phantom himself.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Similarly,

    • Therefore,

    • For example,

    • However,

    ID: 9fe7315b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "However" logically signals that the claim in this sentence—that many New Yorkers have seen Pollard’s work in a famous Broadway musical—is true despite the previous information that few New Yorkers have heard Pollard’s name.

    Choice A is incorrect because "similarly" illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is similar to the previous information that few New Yorkers have heard Pollard’s name. Instead, the claim that many New Yorkers have seen Pollard’s work is true despite the previous information. Choice B is incorrect because "therefore" illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is a result of the previous information that few New Yorkers have heard Pollard’s name. Instead, the claim that many New Yorkers have seen Pollard’s work is true despite the previous information. Choice C is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the claim in this sentence exemplifies the previous information that few New Yorkers have heard Pollard’s name. Instead, the claim that many New Yorkers have seen Pollard’s work is true despite the previous information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID fc5e83cc

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: fc5e83cc

    When following musical scores, professional opera singers like soprano Ana María Martínez take vocal directions from descriptive notations, typically in Italian, that appear alongside the musical notes. blank these descriptive terms might guide the performer to sing giocoso (playfully) or lento (at a slow tempo).

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • On the other hand,

    • All the same,

    • For example,

    • In the second place,

    ID: fc5e83cc Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. "For example" logically signals that this sentence supports the previous information about the descriptive notations opera singers use by providing specific examples of these notations: giocoso (playfully) and lento (at a slow tempo).

    Choice A is incorrect because "on the other hand" illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the previous information about the descriptive notations opera singers use. Instead, the sentence provides examples of these notations. Choice B is incorrect because "all the same" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is true despite the previous information about the descriptive notations opera singers use. Instead, the sentence provides examples of these notations. Choice D is incorrect because "in the second place" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a second point that is separate from the previous information about the descriptive notations opera singers use. Instead, the sentence provides examples of these notations.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 911c7a87

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 911c7a87

    After appropriate permissions are granted, a typical archaeological dig begins with a surveyor making a detailed grid of the excavation site. Then, the site is carefully dug, and any artifacts found are recorded and mapped onto the site grid. blank the artifacts are removed, cataloged, and analyzed in a laboratory.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • For instance,

    • On the contrary,

    • Earlier,

    • Finally,

    ID: 911c7a87 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "Finally" logically signals that the actions in this sentence—the removal, cataloging, and analysis of artifacts—are the next and final steps in a process, following the previous actions of surveying, digging, recording, and mapping.

    Choice A is incorrect because "for instance" illogically signals that the actions in this sentence are an example of the actions in the previous sentence. Instead, the removal, cataloging, and analysis of artifacts are the next and final steps in a process. Choice B is incorrect because "on the contrary" illogically signals that the actions in this sentence are directly opposed to the actions in the previous sentence. Instead, the removal, cataloging, and analysis of artifacts are the next and final steps in a process. Choice C is incorrect because "earlier" illogically signals that the actions in this sentence occur before the actions in the previous sentence. Instead, the removal, cataloging, and analysis of artifacts are the next and final steps in a process.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 9502ec65

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 9502ec65

    When soil becomes contaminated by toxic metals, it can be removed from the ground and disposed of in a landfill. blank contaminated soil can be detoxified via phytoremediation: plants that can withstand high concentrations of metals absorb the pollutants and store them in their shoots, which are then cut off and safely disposed of, preserving the health of the plants.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Alternatively,

    • Specifically,

    • For example,

    • As a result,

    ID: 9502ec65 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. “Alternatively” logically signals that the soil decontamination method described in this sentence—removing toxic metals from the soil via phytoremediation—offers an alternative to the previously described method (removing the contaminated soil from the ground).

    Choice B is incorrect because “specifically” illogically signals that the soil decontamination method described in this sentence specifies or elaborates on an aspect of the previously described method (removing the contaminated soil from the ground). Instead, phytoremediation is an alternative to that method. Choice C is incorrect because “for example” illogically signals that the soil decontamination method described in this sentence is an example of the previously described method (removing the contaminated soil from the ground). Instead, phytoremediation is an alternative to that method. Choice D is incorrect because “as a result” illogically signals that the soil decontamination method described in this sentence is a result or consequence of the previously described method (removing the contaminated soil from the ground). Instead, phytoremediation is an alternative to that method.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 6de02dfa

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 6de02dfa

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:​

    • Thailand’s annual Songkran Water Festival is held each April.
    • It marks Songkran, the traditional Thai New Year.
    • People splash and spray each other for fun at the festival’s community-wide water fights.
    • In Bangkok, thousands gather along Silom Road for the city’s largest water fight.
    • In Chiang Mai, thousands gather at a historical monument called the Tha Phae Gate for the city’s largest water fight.

    The student wants to emphasize a similarity in how people in Bangkok and Chiang Mai celebrate Songkran. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The largest water fight in Bangkok takes place along a city street, whereas the largest water fight in Chiang Mai takes place at a historical monument. 

    • In both Bangkok and Chiang Mai, thousands gather to celebrate Songkran with water fights.

    • People in both Bangkok and Chiang Mai celebrate Songkran, but they don’t do so in exactly the same way.

    • Each April, people in Thailand celebrate Songkran, the traditional Thai New Year.

    ID: 6de02dfa Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a similarity in how people in Bangkok and Chiang Mai celebrate Songkran, indicating that people in both cities gather to celebrate with water fights.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence notes the different locations of the largest water fight in Bangkok and the largest water fight in Chiang Mai; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity in how people in Bangkok and Chiang Mai celebrate Songkran. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence indicates that people in Bangkok and Chiang Mai don’t celebrate Songkran in exactly the same way; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity in how people in the two cities celebrate Songkran. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence explains when people in Thailand celebrate Songkran; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity in how people in Bangkok and Chiang Mai celebrate Songkran.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID c92ea686

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: c92ea686

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The Ramayana is a Sanskrit epic poem from ancient India.
    • In The Ramayana, the character Kaikeyi is often portrayed as a villain.
    • Kaikeyi is a 2022 novel by Vaishnavi Patel.
    • The novel is a retelling of the epic poem from Kaikeyi’s point of view.
    • It often portrays Kaikeyi as heroic.

    The student wants to emphasize whose point of view the novel is told from. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • From the point of view of The Ramayana, the character Kaikeyi is often a villain.

    • Vaishnavi Patel often portrays the character as heroic.

    • Kaikeyi is a retelling of The Ramayana from the character Kaikeyi’s point of view.

    • The Ramayana is an epic poem that features the character Kaikeyi.

    ID: c92ea686 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes whose point of view the novel Kaikeyi is told from: the character Kaikeyi’s.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence does discuss point of view, it focuses on that of the epic poem rather than the novel. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence seems to be referring to Patel’s novel, it doesn’t establish whose point of view the novel is told from. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence discusses the character Kaikeyi in the context of the epic poem; it doesn’t discuss the novel’s point of view.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 2df7b582

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 2df7b582

    Plato believed material objects to be crude representations of unseen ideal forms. In his view, such abstract, nonmaterial forms are the ultimate source of knowledge. Aristotle disagreed, positing that knowledge is best obtained through direct engagement with the material world; blank sensory experience of the material is the ultimate source of knowledge.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • regardless,

    • admittedly,

    • in other words,

    • meanwhile,

    ID: 2df7b582 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. “In other words” logically signals that the claim about sensory experience that follows—that sensory experience is the source of knowledge—is a restatement of Aristotle’s theory from earlier in the sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because “regardless” illogically signals that the claim about sensory experience that follows is true in spite of Aristotle’s theory from earlier in the sentence. Instead, this claim is a restatement of his theory. Choice B is incorrect because “admittedly” illogically signals that the claim about sensory experience that follows is an exception to Aristotle’s theory from earlier in the sentence. Instead, this claim is a restatement of his theory. Choice D is incorrect because “meanwhile” illogically signals that the claim about sensory experience that follows is separate from (while occurring simultaneously with) Aristotle’s theory from earlier in the sentence. Instead, this claim is a restatement of his theory.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID f8c4591b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: f8c4591b

    With their distinctive cone shapes and steeply sloping sides, the volcanoes Hverfjall (Iceland) and Toliman (Guatemala) may look similar from afar. Tehnuka Ilanko and other volcanologists, blank can tell by how each was formed that Hverfjall is a cinder cone volcano, while Toliman is a composite volcano.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • for example,

    • in addition,

    • therefore,

    • though,

    ID: f8c4591b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "Though" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that volcanologists can distinguish the two volcanoes by how they were formed—presents a qualification or exception to the previous statement that the volcanoes look similar. The volcanoes are actually of two different types.

    Choice A is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the information in this sentence exemplifies the previous information about the volcanoes looking similar. Instead, the sentence presents a qualification to that apparent similarity—the volcanoes are actually of two different types. Choice B is incorrect because "in addition" illogically signals that the information in this sentence merely adds to the previous information about the volcanoes looking similar. Instead, the sentence presents a qualification to that apparent similarity—the volcanoes are actually of two different types. Choice C is incorrect because "therefore" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a result of the previous information about the volcanoes looking similar. Instead, the sentence presents a qualification to that apparent similarity—the volcanoes are actually of two different types.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 42870a4e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 42870a4e

    Marcel Duchamp intended his 1917 so-called ready-made sculpture Fountain to challenge then-prevailing conceptions about the nature of art. blank Duchamp’s Fountain did just that, raising the question of whether displaying any object in an art gallery could be said to transform the object—even, as Duchamp’s sculpture was, a urinal—into a legitimate work of art.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Similarly,

    • Indeed,

    • Instead,

    • In addition,

    ID: 42870a4e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "Indeed" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that the sculpture raised the question of whether displaying any object in an art gallery transforms the object into a work of art—offers emphasis in support of the claim in the previous sentence that the sculpture was intended to challenge conceptions about the nature of art.

    Choice A is incorrect because "similarly" illogically signals that information in this sentence is similar to the claim about the sculptor’s intention in the previous sentence. Instead, the information about the question raised by the sculpture offers emphasis in support of that claim. Choice C is incorrect because "instead" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is an alternative to the claim about the sculptor’s intention in the previous sentence. Rather, the information about the question raised by the sculpture offers emphasis in support of that claim. Choice D is incorrect because "in addition" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is merely an additional fact related to the claim about the sculptor’s intention in the previous sentence. Instead, the information about the question raised by the sculpture offers emphasis in support of that claim.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 49ecf985

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 49ecf985

    On March 3, 1991, Switzerland’s government lowered the minimum voting age for its citizens from 20 to 18 years old. blank many people in Switzerland gained a new opportunity to participate in their country’s political process. 

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Nevertheless,

    • As a result,

    • By contrast,

    • Similarly,

    ID: 49ecf985 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "As a result" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that many people in Switzerland gained a new opportunity to participate in their country’s political process—is a result or consequence of the previous information about the Swiss government lowering the voting age.

    Choice A is incorrect because "nevertheless" illogically signals that the information that follows is despite the information in the previous sentence about the Swiss government lowering the voting age. Instead, people gained a new opportunity to participate in Switzerland’s political process as a result or consequence of that change. Choice C is incorrect because "by contrast" illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the information in the previous sentence about the Swiss government lowering the voting age. Instead, people gained a new opportunity to participate in Switzerland’s political process as a result or consequence of that change. Choice D is incorrect because "similarly" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is similar to the information about the Swiss government lowering the voting age in the previous sentence. Instead, people gained a new opportunity to participate in Switzerland’s political process as a result or consequence of that change.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 1bb4aec8

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 1bb4aec8

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Meteorites found on Earth are divided into two categories.
    • A meteorite that was observed falling to Earth before being recovered is known as a meteorite fall.
    • All other meteorites found on Earth are known as meteorite finds.
    • There have been about 1,200 recorded meteorite falls. 
    • There have been over 60,000 recorded meteorite finds.

    The student wants to contrast the number of meteorite falls with the number of meteorite finds. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • A meteorite that was observed falling to Earth before being recovered is known as a meteorite fall; all others are known as meteorite finds.

    • Meteorites found on Earth are divided into two categories: meteorite falls and meteorite finds.

    • There have been about 1,200 recorded meteorite falls, or meteorites observed falling to Earth. 

    • While there have been only about 1,200 recorded meteorite falls, there have been over 60,000 meteorite finds.

    ID: 1bb4aec8 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence contrasts the number of meteorite falls with the number of meteorite finds, noting that there have been over 60,000 meteorite finds but only about 1,200 recorded meteorite falls.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence explains the difference between meteorite falls and meteorite finds, it doesn’t contrast the number of meteorite falls and meteorite finds. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence indicates the two categories of meteorites found on Earth; it doesn’t contrast the number of meteorite falls and meteorite finds. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence notes the number of recorded meteorite falls, it doesn’t contrast this with the number of meteorite finds.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID c7e85c0a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: c7e85c0a

    The envelope-shaped paper bags common in the US 150 years ago were impractical for carrying goods. blank because they were the only paper bags that could be mass-produced, these bags dominated the market. That all changed in the 1870s, when industrial designer Margaret Knight patented a machine to make flat-bottomed, foldable paper bags.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • However,

    • For instance,

    • Thus,

    • In other words,

    ID: c7e85c0a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. “However” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that envelope-shaped bags dominated the market—contrasts with the previous claim that these bags were impractical for carrying goods.

    Choice B is incorrect because “for instance” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is an example supporting the previous claim that envelope-shaped bags were impractical for carrying goods. Instead, the sentence contrasts with the previous claim about the bags. Choice C is incorrect because “thus” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a result of the previous claim that envelope-shaped bags were impractical for carrying goods. Instead, the sentence contrasts with the previous claim about the bags. Choice D is incorrect because “in other words” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a paraphrase of the previous claim that envelope-shaped bags were impractical for carrying goods. Instead, the sentence contrasts with the previous claim about the bags.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 85c0c0f0

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 85c0c0f0

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Texture analysis and historical analysis are two approaches to art criticism.
    • Texture analysis examines how surfaces are visually represented in an artwork.
    • Such an analysis of Giorgione’s Youth Holding an Arrow might consider how the painting’s blended colors make the subject’s skin appear smooth in texture.
    • Historical analysis considers the historical context in which a work was created.
    • Such an analysis of Diego Velázquez’s Las Meninas might consider how the painting’s depiction of the artist with King Philip IV symbolizes art’s historical ties to power.

    The student wants to present historical analysis to an audience unfamiliar with the concept. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • A texture analysis of Youth Holding an Arrow might consider how the painting’s blended colors make the subject’s skin appear smooth in texture.

    • Texture analysis differs from historical analysis in that texture analysis examines how surfaces are visually represented in an artwork.

    • An approach to art criticism, historical analysis considers the historical context in which a work was created.

    • Las Meninas’s depiction of the artist with King Philip IV symbolizes art’s historical ties to power.

    ID: 85c0c0f0 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence presents historical analysis to an audience unfamiliar with the concept by defining it as an approach to art criticism that considers the historical context in which a work was created.

    Choice A is incorrect because it provides an example of texture analysis; it doesn’t present historical analysis to an audience unfamiliar with the concept. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence explains a difference between texture analysis and historical analysis; it doesn’t present historical analysis to an audience unfamiliar with the concept. Choice D is incorrect. It provides an example of historical analysis; it doesn’t present historical analysis to an audience unfamiliar with the concept.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 1792fa73

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 1792fa73

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The tundra is a type of environment characterized by especially harsh winter conditions.
    • Winter temperatures in the tundra average a frigid negative 30 degrees Fahrenheit.
    • Animals that have adapted to these conditions can survive tundra winters.
    • During the tundra’s short growing season, average temperatures can reach a relatively mild 54 degrees Fahrenheit.
    • Around 1,700 different kinds of plants are able to grow in the tundra.

    The student wants to emphasize how harsh the conditions can be in the tundra. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Winters in the tundra are especially harsh, with temperatures averaging a frigid negative 30 degrees Fahrenheit.

    • Animals that have adapted to harsh winter conditions can survive tundra winters.

    • There are around 1,700 different kinds of plants that can live in the tundra, where average temperatures can reach a mild 54 degrees Fahrenheit.

    • Along with animals that have adapted to the tundra’s conditions, around 1,700 different kinds of plants can live in the tundra.

    ID: 1792fa73 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes how harsh the conditions in the tundra can be, noting that the winters are especially harsh and describing the average temperatures as “frigid.”

    Choice B is incorrect because the sentence explains that some animals can survive harsh tundra winters; it doesn’t emphasize how harsh the conditions can be. Choice C is incorrect because the sentence specifies how many different kinds of plants can live in the tundra; it doesn’t emphasize how harsh the conditions in the tundra can be. Choice D is incorrect because the sentence explains that both plants and animals can survive in the tundra; it doesn’t emphasize how harsh the conditions in the tundra can be.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID f33f0892

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: f33f0892

    Although novels and poems are considered distinct literary forms, many authors have created hybrid works that incorporate elements of both. Bernardine Evaristo’s The Emperor’s Babe, blank is a verse novel, a book-length narrative complete with characters and a plot but conveyed in short, crisp lines of poetry rather than prose.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • by contrast,

    • consequently,

    • secondly,

    • for example,

    ID: f33f0892 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. “For example” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that The Emperor’s Babe is a novel conveyed in lines of poetry—exemplifies the claim in the previous sentence about hybrid works that incorporate elements of both novels and poems.

    Choice A is incorrect because “by contrast” illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the claim about hybrid works in the previous sentence. Instead, the information demonstrates that Evaristo’s novel is an example of a hybrid work. Choice B is incorrect because “consequently” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a consequence, or result, of the claim about hybrid works in the previous sentence. Instead, the information demonstrates that Evaristo’s novel is an example of a hybrid work. Choice C is incorrect because “secondly” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a second, separate claim from the previous sentence’s claim about hybrid works. Instead, the information demonstrates that Evaristo’s novel is an example of a hybrid work.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 7d56630a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 7d56630a

    In studying whether jellyfish sleep, researchers Michael Abrams, Claire Bedbrook, and Ravi Nath attempted to answer three questions. blank is there a period each day when the pulse rates of jellyfish decline? Second, do jellyfish respond more slowly to stimuli during that period? Finally, if prevented from sleeping, are jellyfish adversely affected?

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • As a result,

    • First,

    • Additionally,

    • However,

    ID: 7d56630a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. “First” logically signals that the question in this sentence—whether there is a daily period during which jellyfish pulse rates decline—is the first in a sequence of three questions the researchers attempted to answer about jellyfish sleep behavior.

    Choice A is incorrect because “as a result” illogically signals that the question in this sentence is a result of the three questions the researchers attempted to answer. Instead, it is the first of those three questions. Choice C is incorrect because “additionally” illogically signals that the question in this sentence is an additional question related to the three questions the researchers attempted to answer. Instead, it is the first of those three questions. Choice D is incorrect because “however” illogically signals that the question in this sentence contrasts with the three questions the researchers attempted to answer. Instead, it is the first of those three questions.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 58281fc4

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 58281fc4

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Soo Sunny Park is a Korean American artist who uses light as her primary medium of expression.
    • She created her work Unwoven Light in 2013.
    • Unwoven Light featured a chain-link fence fitted with iridescent plexiglass tiles.
    • When light passed through the fence, colorful prisms formed.

    The student wants to describe Unwoven Light to an audience unfamiliar with Soo Sunny Park. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Park’s 2013 installation Unwoven Light, which included a chain-link fence and iridescent tiles made from plexiglass, featured light as its primary medium of expression.

    • Korean American light artist Soo Sunny Park created Unwoven Light in 2013.

    • The chain-link fence in Soo Sunny Park’s Unwoven Light was fitted with tiles made from iridescent plexiglass.

    • In Unwoven Light, a 2013 work by Korean American artist Soo Sunny Park, light formed colorful prisms as it passed through a fence Park had fitted with iridescent tiles. 

    ID: 58281fc4 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence effectively describes Unwoven Light to an audience unfamiliar with Park, noting that Soo Sunny Park is a Korean American artist and that the 2013 work consists of colorful prisms formed by light passing through iridescent tiles.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence describes aspects of Unwoven Light but doesn’t mention who Park is; it thus doesn’t effectively describe the work to an audience unfamiliar with Park. Choice B is incorrect. Although the sentence indicates when the work was created and who Park is, it lacks descriptive details and thus doesn’t effectively describe Unwoven Light. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence mentions Park and describes an aspect of Unwoven Light—the chain-link fence—but doesn’t effectively describe the overall work to an audience unfamiliar with the artist.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID a6155e60

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: a6155e60

    Every chemical compound has a spectroscopic fingerprint, a pattern of reflected light unique to that compound. blank upon analyzing the light reflected by the bright regions on the surface of the dwarf planet Ceres, Maria Cristina De Sanctis of Rome’s National Institute of Astrophysics was able to determine that the regions contain large amounts of the compound sodium carbonate.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Regardless,

    • Meanwhile,

    • Thus,

    • In comparison,

    ID: a6155e60 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. “Thus” logically signals that the action described in this sentence—the researcher being able to determine the chemical makeup of the planet’s bright regions based on how they reflect light—is a result or consequence of the previous information about spectroscopic fingerprints.

    Choice A is incorrect because “regardless” illogically signals that the action described in this sentence occurs despite the previous information about spectroscopic fingerprints. Instead, the finding in this sentence is a result or consequence of that information. Choice B is incorrect because “meanwhile” illogically signals that the action described in this sentence either occurs at the same time as or offers an alternative to the previous information about spectroscopic fingerprints. Instead, the finding in this sentence is a result or consequence of that information. Choice D is incorrect because “in comparison” illogically signals that the action described in this sentence is being compared with the previous information about spectroscopic fingerprints. Instead, the finding in this sentence is a result or consequence of that information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 17ec916d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 17ec916d

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Bharati Mukherjee was an Indian-born author of novels and short stories.
    • She published the novel The Holder of the World in 1993.
    • A central character in the novel is a woman living in twentieth-century United States.
    • Another central character is a woman living in seventeenth-century India.

    The student wants to introduce the novel The Holder of the World to an audience already familiar with Bharati Mukherjee. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal? 

    • Bharati Mukherjee’s settings include both twentieth-century United States and seventeenth-century India.

    • In addition to her novel The Holder of the World, which was published in 1993, Indian-born author Bharati Mukherjee wrote other novels and short stories.

    • Bharati Mukherjee’s novel The Holder of the World centers around two women, one living in twentieth-century United States and the other in seventeenth-century India.

    • The Holder of the World was not the only novel written by Indian-born author Bharati Mukherjee.

    ID: 17ec916d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence effectively introduces The Holder of the World to an audience already familiar with Mukherjee, explaining that the novel centers around two women and mentioning the author without providing any other identifying information.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence provides a detail about Mukherjee’s settings; it doesn’t introduce, or even mention, the novel. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence provides introductory information about Mukherjee; it doesn’t effectively introduce her novel to an audience already familiar with the author. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence provides introductory information about Mukherjee; it doesn’t effectively introduce her novel to an audience already familiar with the author.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID d8aa8ba2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: d8aa8ba2

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In astronomy, the mass of stars can be described in units called solar masses.
    • One solar mass is roughly equal to the mass of the Sun.
    • The mass of the star Proxima Centauri is 0.122 solar masses.
    • The mass of the star Sirius A is 2.063 solar masses.

    The student wants to emphasize the mass of Sirius A. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The mass of stars, like Proxima Centauri, can be described in units called solar masses.

    • In astronomy, the mass of stars can be described in units called solar masses, and one solar mass is roughly equal to the mass of the Sun.

    • The Sun is more massive than Proxima Centauri, which has a mass of 0.122 solar masses.

    • With a mass of 2.063 solar masses, Sirius A is more massive than the Sun.

    ID: d8aa8ba2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the mass of Sirius A, noting that it has a mass of 2.063 solar masses and that it is larger than the Sun.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence makes a generalization about how the mass of stars can be measured; it doesn’t emphasize the mass of Sirius A. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence introduces solar masses as a unit of measurement; it doesn’t emphasize the mass of Sirius A. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the mass of Proxima Centauri, not the mass of Sirius A.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 24014c3f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 24014c3f

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Severo Ochoa discovered the enzyme PNPase in 1955.
    • PNPase is involved in both the creation and degradation of mRNA.
    • Ochoa incorrectly hypothesized that PNPase provides the genetic blueprints for mRNA.
    • The discovery of PNPase proved critical to deciphering the human genetic code.
    • Deciphering the genetic code has led to a better understanding of how genetic variations affect human health.

    The student wants to emphasize the significance of Ochoa’s discovery. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Ochoa’s 1955 discovery of PNPase proved critical to deciphering the human genetic code, leading to a better understanding of how genetic variations affect human health.

    • Ochoa first discovered PNPase, an enzyme that he hypothesized contained the genetic blueprints for mRNA, in 1955. 

    • In 1955, Ochoa discovered the PNPase enzyme, which is involved in both the creation and degradation of mRNA.

    • Though his discovery of PNPase was critical to deciphering the human genetic code, Ochoa incorrectly hypothesized that the enzyme was the source of mRNA’s genetic blueprints.

    ID: 24014c3f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the significance of Ochoa’s discovery, noting that it proved critical to deciphering the human genetic code, which resulted in a better understanding of how genetic variations affect human health.

    Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence explains what Ochoa discovered, it doesn’t emphasize the significance of the discovery. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence explains what Ochoa discovered, it doesn’t emphasize the significance of the discovery. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence mentions that Ochoa’s discovery was crucial, it emphasizes Ochoa’s incorrect hypothesis, not the significance of the discovery.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 3067723b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 3067723b

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The Seikan Tunnel is a rail tunnel in Japan.
    • It connects the island of Honshu to the island of Hokkaido.
    • It is roughly 33 miles long.
    • The Channel Tunnel is a rail tunnel in Europe.
    • It connects Folkestone, England, to Coquelles, France.
    • It is about 31 miles long.

    The student wants to compare the lengths of the two rail tunnels. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Some of the world’s rail tunnels, including one tunnel that extends from Folkestone, England, to Coquelles, France, are longer than 30 miles.

    • The Seikan Tunnel is roughly 33 miles long, while the slightly shorter Channel Tunnel is about 31 miles long.

    • The Seikan Tunnel, which is roughly 33 miles long, connects the Japanese islands of Honshu and Hokkaido.

    • Both the Seikan Tunnel, which is located in Japan, and the Channel Tunnel, which is located in Europe, are examples of rail tunnels.

    ID: 3067723b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence compares the lengths of the two rail tunnels, noting that the Channel Tunnel (about 31 miles long) is slightly shorter than the Seikan Tunnel (roughly 33 miles long). 

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence makes a generalization about the length of some rail tunnels; it doesn’t compare the lengths of the two rail tunnels. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence describes a single rail tunnel; it doesn’t compare the lengths of the two rail tunnels. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the two rail tunnels, it doesn’t compare their lengths.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 07456405

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 07456405

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Malapportionment is the over- or underrepresentation (relative to population size) of electoral districts in a governing body.
    • It is a common feature of representative governments.
    • There are 169 seats in Norway’s supreme legislature (the Storting).
    • Seats are distributed by a formula that awards 1 point per resident and 1.8 points per unit of land.
    • Less populated rural districts with large tracts of land receive a disproportionate number of seats compared to smaller but more populated urban districts.

    The student wants to refute a claim that malapportionment in the Storting favors small urban districts. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Less populated rural districts are disproportionally underrepresented in the Storting, creating an unfair advantage for smaller but more populated urban districts. 

    • It’s untrue that malapportionment in the 169-seat Storting favors small urban districts; rather, the formula for distributing seats overrepresents more populated districts.

    • A common feature of representative governments, malapportionment occurs when electoral districts are over- or underrepresented.

    • Awarding more points per unit of land than points per resident, the formula for distributing Storting seats overrepresents less populated rural districts with large tracts of land.

    ID: 07456405 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. By noting that the formula for distributing Storting seats overrepresents less populated rural districts, the sentence effectively refutes a claim that malapportionment in the Storting favors small urban districts.

    Choice A is incorrect because the sentence claims that malapportionment in the Storting favors small urban districts; it doesn’t refute such a claim. Moreover, it misrepresents information in the notes. According to the notes, the formula for distributing seats overrepresents less populated, not more populated, districts. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence appears to refute a claim that malapportionment in the Storting favors small urban districts, it misrepresents information in the notes. According to the notes, the formula for distributing seats overrepresents less populated, not more populated, districts. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence explains what malapportionment is but doesn’t address malapportionment in the Storting specifically.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID e2d97f10

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: e2d97f10

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Pterosaurs were flying reptiles that existed millions of years ago.
    • In a 2021 study, Anusuya Chinsamy-Turan analyzed fragments of pterosaur jawbones located in the Sahara Desert.
    • She was initially unsure if the bones belonged to juvenile or adult pterosaurs.
    • She used advanced microscope techniques to determine that the bones had few growth lines relative to the bones of fully grown pterosaurs.
    • She concluded that the bones belonged to juveniles.

    The student wants to present the study and its findings. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • In 2021, Chinsamy-Turan studied pterosaur jawbones and was initially unsure if the bones belonged to juveniles or adults. 

    • Pterosaur jawbones located in the Sahara Desert were the focus of a 2021 study.

    • In a 2021 study, Chinsamy-Turan used advanced microscope techniques to analyze the jawbones of pterosaurs, flying reptiles that existed millions of years ago.

    • In a 2021 study, Chinsamy-Turan determined that pterosaur jawbones located in the Sahara Desert had few growth lines relative to the bones of fully grown pterosaurs and thus belonged to juveniles.

    ID: e2d97f10 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence presents both the study and its findings, noting the study’s date and the researcher’s name as well as describing what the researcher determined about the jawbones and how she determined it.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence describes the study and the researcher’s initial assessment, it doesn’t present the study’s findings. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence describes the study and its focus, it doesn’t present the study’s findings or the name of the researcher who conducted it. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the study’s methodology and provides information about pterosaurs, it doesn’t present the study’s findings.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID e1b00a70

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: e1b00a70

    The more diverse and wide ranging an animal’s behaviors, the larger and more energy demanding the animal’s brain tends to be. blank from an evolutionary perspective, animals that perform only basic actions should allocate fewer resources to growing and maintaining brain tissue. The specialized subtypes of ants within colonies provide an opportunity to explore this hypothesis. 

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Subsequently,

    • Besides,

    • Nevertheless,

    • Thus,

    ID: e1b00a70 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. “Thus” logically signals that the claim in this sentence—that animals performing only basic actions should allocate relatively few resources to their brain tissue—is a consequence of the previous sentence’s claim about the energy demands of animal brains (namely, that the more diverse an animal’s behaviors, the more energy its brain needs). 

    Choice A is incorrect because “subsequently” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence occurs later in a chronological sequence of events than the previous sentence’s claim about the energy demands of animal brains. Instead, the second claim is a consequence of the first. Choice B is incorrect because “besides” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence provides a separate point in addition to, or apart from, the previous sentence’s claim about the energy demands of animal brains. Instead, the second claim is a consequence of the first. Choice C is incorrect because “nevertheless” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is true in spite of the previous sentence’s claim about the energy demands of animal brains. Instead, the second claim is a consequence of the first.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID bce57278

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: bce57278

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Some US reformers sought to improve society in the 1800s by building utopias.
    • A utopia is a community intended to represent a perfect society based on a specific set of principles.
    • One such community was Brook Farm near Boston, Massachusetts.
    • It was founded in 1841 by writer George Ripley.
    • Ripley wrote in a letter that his goal for Brook Farm was “to guarantee the highest mental freedom, by providing all with labor, adapted to their tastes and talents, and securing to them the fruits of their industry.”

    The student wants to explain the goal of Brook Farm using a quotation from George Ripley. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • In a letter, writer George Ripley explained his goal to “guarantee the highest mental freedom.”

    • Utopias, such as Brook Farm, founded by George Ripley in 1841, were based on a specific set of principles intended to create a perfect society.

    • Founded by George Ripley near Boston, Massachusetts, Brook Farm was part of a trend in the 1800s, when reformers in the United States built utopias.

    • Established in 1841, Brook Farm was a utopian community created to “guarantee the highest mental freedom, by providing all with labor... [and] the fruits of their industry,” according to founder George Ripley.

    ID: bce57278 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. This choice explains the goal of Brook Farm—to provide mental freedom to all by engaging individuals in labor suited to their interests—using a quotation from George Ripley.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice only mentions part of Ripley’s goal, and it doesn’t mention Brook Farm at all. Choice B is incorrect. This choice defines what a utopia is but doesn’t use Ripley’s words to describe his vision for Brook Farm. Choice C is incorrect. This choice provides some background information about Brook Farm, but it doesn’t explain its goals or include Ripley’s words.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 2b89bfe5

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 2b89bfe5

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In 1999, astronomer Todd Henry studied the differences in surface temperature between the Sun and nearby stars.
    • His team mapped all stars within 10 parsecs (approximately 200 trillion miles) of the Sun.
    • The surface temperature of the Sun is around 9,800°F, which classifies it as a G star.
    • 327 of the 357 stars in the study were classified as K or M stars, with surface temperatures under 8,900°F (cooler than the Sun).
    • 11 of the 357 stars in the study were classified as A or F stars, with surface temperatures greater than 10,300°F (hotter than the Sun).

    The student wants to emphasize how hot the Sun is relative to nearby stars. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • At around 9,800°F, which classifies it as a G star, the Sun is hotter than most but not all of the stars within 10 parsecs of it.

    • Astronomer Todd Henry determined that the Sun, at around 9,800°F, is a G star, and several other stars within a 10-parsec range are A or F stars.

    • Of the 357 stars within ten parsecs of the Sun, 327 are classified as K or M stars, with surface temperatures under 8,900°F.

    • While most of the stars within 10 parsecs of the Sun are classified as K, M, A, or F stars, the Sun is classified as a G star due to its surface temperature of 9,800°F.

    ID: 2b89bfe5 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. Noting that the Sun (9,800°F) is hotter than most stars within 10 parsecs of it, the sentence emphasizes how hot the Sun is relative to nearby stars.

    Choice B is incorrect. The sentence explains that astronomer Todd Henry determined the classifications for the Sun and several other stars nearby; it doesn’t emphasize how hot the Sun is relative to nearby stars. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence explains that the majority of stars near the Sun are classified as K or M stars; it doesn’t indicate the Sun’s temperature or emphasize how hot it is relative to nearby stars. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence indicates that the Sun is classified differently than most nearby stars due to its surface temperature, it doesn’t emphasize how hot the Sun is relative to nearby stars.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 7572131d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 7572131d

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Elizabeth Catlett’s sculpture Recognition (1970) shows two African American figures with rounded, indistinct features.
    • The figures reach out to each other in a pose that symbolizes a close, supportive relationship.
    • Her sculpture Students Aspire (1978) shows two African American figures with sharply defined features.
    • The figures hold an equal sign above their heads with one hand and embrace each other with the other hand.
    • This pose symbolizes their support for each other in the pursuit of equality.

    The student wants to emphasize a similarity between the two sculptures. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Catlett’s Students Aspire depicts two figures supporting each other in the pursuit of equality.

    • Recognition and Students Aspire both show African American figures in poses that symbolize supportive relationships.

    • Catlett completed Recognition in 1970 and Students Aspire in 1978.

    • The figures in Recognition have features that are rounded and indistinct, while the figures in Students Aspire have sharply defined features.

    ID: 7572131d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between the sculptures Recognition and Students Aspire, noting that both sculptures show African American figures in poses that symbolize supportive relationships.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence describes one of the sculptures; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two sculptures. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence specifies the different years the sculptures were completed in; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two sculptures. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a difference between the two sculptures, noting that the figures in the sculptures have different feature definition; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two sculptures.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 54c1b2dd

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 54c1b2dd

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In 1851, German American artist Emanuel Leutze painted Washington Crossing the Delaware.
    • His huge painting (149 × 255 inches) depicts the first US president crossing a river with soldiers in the Revolutionary War.
    • In 2019, Cree artist Kent Monkman painted mistikôsiwak (Wooden Boat People): Resurgence of the People.
    • Monkman’s huge painting (132 × 264 inches) was inspired by Leutze’s.
    • It portrays Indigenous people in a boat rescuing refugees.

    The student wants to emphasize a similarity between the two paintings. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Monkman, a Cree artist, finished his painting in 2019; Leutze, a German American artist, completed his in 1851. 

    • Although Monkman’s painting was inspired by Leutze’s, the people and actions the two paintings portray are very different.

    • Leutze’s and Monkman’s paintings are both huge, measuring 149 × 255 inches and 132 × 264 inches, respectively.

    • Leutze’s painting depicts Revolutionary War soldiers, while Monkman’s depicts Indigenous people and refugees.

    ID: 54c1b2dd Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between the two paintings, noting that Leutze’s painting (which measures 149 × 255 inches) and Monkman’s painting (which measures 132 × 264 inches) are both very large.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence mentions that Monkman’s painting was completed in 2019 and Leutze’s was completed in 1851; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two paintings. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence acknowledges that one painting was inspired by the other, it emphasizes differences between the two paintings; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between them. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence mentions a difference between the two paintings; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between them.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 5fa51c86

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 5fa51c86

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Ulaanbaatar is the capital of Mongolia.
    • The city’s population is 907,802.
    • Ulaanbaatar contains 31.98 percent of Mongolia’s population.
    • Hanoi is the capital of Vietnam.
    • The city’s population is 7,781,631.
    • Hanoi contains 8.14 percent of Vietnam’s population.

    The student wants to emphasize the relative sizes of the two capitals’ populations. Which choice most effectively uses information from the given sentences to emphasize the relative sizes of the two capitals’ populations?

    • Mongolia’s capital is Ulaanbaatar, which has 907,802 people, and Vietnam’s capital is Hanoi, which has 7,781,631 people.

    • Comparing Vietnam and Mongolia, 7,781,631 is 8.14 percent of Vietnam’s population, and 907,802 is 31.98 percent of Mongolia’s.

    • Even though Hanoi (population 7,781,631) is larger than Ulaanbaatar (population 907,802), Ulaanbaatar accounts for more of its country’s population.

    • The populations of the capitals of Mongolia and Vietnam are 907,802 (Ulaanbaatar) and 7,781,631 (Hanoi), respectively.

    ID: 5fa51c86 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the relative sizes of the capital cities’ populations, noting that even though Hanoi has more people overall, Ulaanbaatar accounts for a larger percentage of the people in its country.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence indicates the population size of each capital, it fails to emphasize their sizes relative to each other or to their countries’ overall population sizes. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the population sizes of the two countries; it fails to mention the capitals. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence indicates the population size of each capital, it fails to emphasize their sizes relative to each other or to their countries’ overall population sizes.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 4e063114

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 4e063114

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:       

    • Georeferencing is the process of assigning geographic coordinates to an image.
    • This process enables mapping software to place the image in its real-world location.
    • A 2017 project by Tania López Marrero and colleagues georeferenced a set of aerial photographs of Puerto Rico’s coastline taken in 1930.
    • These photographs are the earliest known aerial photographs of Puerto Rico.
    • López Marrero’s project provided data that can help researchers analyze changes in Puerto Rico’s coastline.

    The student wants to define the term “georeferencing.” Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • A 2017 project by Tania López Marrero and colleagues assigned geographic coordinates to photographs of Puerto Rico’s coastline and also used georeferencing. 

    • Tania López Marrero and colleagues used georeferencing in their analysis of the earliest known aerial photographs of Puerto Rico.

    • Georeferenced aerial photographs from 1930 can help researchers analyze changes in Puerto Rico’s coastline. 

    • Georeferencing is the process of assigning geographic coordinates to an image so that mapping software can place it in its real-world location. 

    ID: 4e063114 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence defines the term "georeferencing," stating that it is the process of assigning geographic coordinates to an image so that mapping software can place the image in its real-world location.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence describes López Marrero’s team’s 2017 project; it doesn’t provide a definition of the term "georeferencing." Moreover, it misrepresents the information in the notes by characterizing the team’s assignment of geographic coordinates to photographs as a process distinct from georeferencing. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence states that López Marrero’s team used georeferencing, but it doesn’t provide a definition of the term. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence explains why a particular group of georeferenced aerial photographs is potentially useful for researchers; it doesn’t provide a definition of the term "georeferencing."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 08be6347

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 08be6347

    In his 1925 book The Morphology of Landscape, US geographer Carl Sauer challenged prevailing views about how natural landscapes influence human cultures. blank Sauer argued that instead of being shaped entirely by their natural surroundings, cultures play an active role in their own development by virtue of their interactions with the environment.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Similarly,

    • Finally,

    • Therefore,

    • Specifically,

    ID: 08be6347 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. “Specifically” logically signals that the information in this sentence about Sauer’s argument—that, according to Sauer, cultures play a role in their own development, as opposed to being shaped solely by natural surroundings—provides specific, precise details elaborating on the more general information in the previous sentence about how Sauer challenged prevailing views about how natural landscapes influence human cultures.

    Choice A is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals that the information in this sentence about Sauer’s argument is similar to, but separate from, the more general information in the previous sentence. Instead, it provides specific, precise details elaborating on that information. Choice B is incorrect because “finally” illogically signals that the information in this sentence about Sauer’s argument indicates a last step in a process or a concluding summary. Instead, it provides specific, precise details elaborating on the general information in the previous sentence. Choice C is incorrect because “therefore” illogically signals that the information in this sentence about Sauer’s argument is a result of the more general information in the previous sentence. Instead, it provides specific, precise details elaborating on that information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 5d3177aa

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 5d3177aa

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In the early 1960s, the US had a strict national-origins quota system for immigrants.
    • The number of new immigrants allowed from a country each year was based on how many people from that country lived in the US in 1890.
    • This system favored immigrants from northern Europe.
    • Almost 70% of slots were reserved for immigrants from Great Britain, Ireland, and Germany.
    • The 1965 Hart-Celler Act abolished the national-origins quota system.

    The student wants to present the significance of the Hart-Celler Act to an audience unfamiliar with the history of US immigration. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Almost 70% of slots were reserved for immigrants from Great Britain, Ireland, and Germany at the time the Hart-Celler Act was proposed.

    • Prior to the Hart-Celler Act, new immigration quotas were based on how many people from each country lived in the US in 1890.

    • The quota system in place in the early 1960s was abolished by the 1965 Hart-Celler Act. 

    • The 1965 Hart-Celler Act abolished the national-origins quota system, which favored immigrants from northern Europe.

    ID: 5d3177aa Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence presents the significance of the Hart-Celler Act to an audience unfamiliar with the history of US immigration, noting that the 1965 act abolished the national-origins quota system and explaining why that mattered, historically: because the old quota system had favored immigrants from northern Europe.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence describes an aspect of immigration policy at the time the Hart-Celler Act was proposed; it doesn’t present the significance of the Hart-Celler Act to an audience unfamiliar with the history of US immigration. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence describes an aspect of immigration policy before the Hart-Celler Act; it doesn’t describe or present the significance of the act to an audience unfamiliar with the history of US immigration. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence indicates that the Hart-Celler Act abolished the old quota system, it doesn’t explain the act or the quota system to an audience unfamiliar with the history of US immigration.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 7c9d0e38

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 7c9d0e38

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Roughly 96% of Australia’s estimated 200,000 animal species are invertebrates.
    • Invertebrates of the order Hymenoptera, which consists of sawflies, wasps, bees, and ants, are estimated to total 14,800 species in Australia.
    • Invertebrates of the order Coleoptera, which consists of beetles and weevils, are estimated to total 28,200 species in Australia.
    • Some of these invertebrates’ populations are threatened by invasive bird and fish species.

    The student wants to emphasize the different orders in which Australia’s invertebrate animals are classified. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • In Australia, 28,200 species are estimated to be beetles and weevils, both classified as invertebrates of the order Coleoptera.

    • Among Australia’s many invertebrates, sawflies, wasps, bees, and ants belong to the order Hymenoptera, while beetles and weevils belong to the order Coleoptera.

    • Many sawflies, wasps, bees, and ants of the order Hymenoptera are threatened by some of Australia’s invasive bird and fish species.

    • The order Hymenoptera is estimated to make up 14,800 of Australia’s 200,000 animal species.

    ID: 7c9d0e38 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the different orders that Australia’s invertebrates belong to, specifying that sawflies, wasps, bees, and ants belong to the order Hymenoptera, whereas beetles and weevils belong to the order Coleoptera.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence only mentions one order, Coleoptera; it doesn’t emphasize the different orders that Australia’s invertebrates belong to. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence only mentions one order, Hymenoptera; it doesn’t emphasize the different orders that Australia’s invertebrates belong to. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence only mentions one order, Hymenoptera; it doesn’t emphasize the different orders that Australia’s invertebrates belong to.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID ff3865b3

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: ff3865b3

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • A wok is a cooking pan that originated in China during the Han dynasty (206 BCE–220 CE).
    • The wok’s round, wide base helps to cook food evenly.
    • The wok’s high, angled sides help to contain oil splatters.
    • Grace Young is a cook and culinary historian.
    • Her book The Breath of a Wok (2004) traces the history of the wok.

    The student wants to describe the wok’s shape. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Grace Young’s 2004 book, The Breath of a Wok, traces the history of the cooking pan.

    • Able to cook food evenly and contain oil splatters, the wok is the subject of Grace Young’s 2004 book.

    • A wok is a cooking pan with a round, wide base and high, angled sides.

    • The design of a wok, a type of cooking pan that originated in China during the Han dynasty, helps the pan cook food evenly and contain oil splatters.

    ID: ff3865b3 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. It summarizes the information that describes the wok’s shape from the second and third bullet points.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t describe the shape of a wok. Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t describe the shape of a wok, just some of its features. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t describe the shape of a wok, only some of its benefits or functions.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 35507eba

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 35507eba

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Pointillism is a painting technique in which small, distinct dots of color are applied in patterns to form an image.
    • Betty Acquah is an artist from Ghana who uses pointillism in her work.
    • “By extending dabs of color in the subject matter into the background and vice-versa, an illusion of movement is created,” she says about pointillism.
    • Her work often portrays Ghanaian women, whom she sees as the “unsung heroines of the Ghanaian Republic.”
    • Her pointillist painting “Exquisite” (2016) features five dancing women twirling their skirts.

    The student wants to provide a quotation from Acquah that explains why she used pointillism in “Exquisite.” Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • In painting “Exquisite,” Acquah applied pointillism to create what she called an “illusion of movement” within the painting’s five dancing women and their twirling skirts.

    • Pointillism, the technique used in Acquah’s “Exquisite,” involves the application of small, distinct dots of color.

    • In “Exquisite,” Acquah uses a technique that she says involves “extending dabs of color in the subject matter into the background and vice-versa.”

    • “Exquisite” portrays Acquah’s fellow Ghanaian women as she sees them: the “unsung heroes of the Ghanaian Republic.”

    ID: 35507eba Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence provides Acquah’s quotation about pointillism’s "illusion of movement" to explain that she used pointillism to create the illusion of movement in her painting of women dancing.

    Choice B is incorrect. The sentence explains pointillism and indicates that Acquah used the technique in her painting, but it doesn’t provide a quotation or explain why. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence provides a quotation from Acquah about pointillism, the quotation merely describes a specific aspect of the technique; the sentence doesn’t explain why Acquah used pointillism in her painting. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence provides a quotation from Acquah, the quotation illustrates Acquah’s views on Ghanaian women; the sentence doesn’t explain why Acquah used pointillism in her painting.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 3a715eca

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 3a715eca

    In retrospect, one of the lessons of the 2003 Human Genome Project is that a gene is affected by many factors, not the least of which is its interactions with the protein products of other genes. blank rather than just focusing on the human genome, efforts to better understand gene mutations related to disease have begun to consider the human proteome, the complete set of proteins expressed by human genes.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • In other words,

    • That said,

    • For example,

    • Accordingly,

    ID: 3a715eca Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "Accordingly" logically signals that this sentence states a result or consequence of the previous information about the 2003 Human Genome Project. Taking into account an important lesson of the 2003 project (that a gene is affected by interactions with the protein products of other genes), research has begun to consider the human proteome instead of just the genome.

    Choice A is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a paraphrase or restatement of the previous information about the 2003 Human Genome Project. Instead, this sentence states a result or consequence of that information. Choice B is incorrect because "that said" illogically signals that the information in this sentence qualifies or contrasts with the previous information about the 2003 Human Genome Project. Instead, this sentence states a result or consequence of that information. Choice C is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that this sentence provides an example supporting the previous information about the 2003 Human Genome Project. Instead, this sentence states a result or consequence of that information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID f1631638

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: f1631638

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Gaspar Enriquez is an artist.
    • He specializes in portraits of Mexican Americans.
    • A portrait is an artistic representation of a person.
    • Enriquez completed a painting of the sculptor Luis Jimenez in 2003.
    • He completed a drawing of the writer Rudolfo Anaya in 2016.

    The student wants to emphasize a difference between the two portraits. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The portraits, or artistic representations, of Luis Jimenez and Rudolfo Anaya were both completed by Enriquez in the early 2000s.

    • Enriquez has completed portraits of numerous Mexican Americans, including sculptor Luis Jimenez and writer Rudolfo Anaya. 

    • While both are by Enriquez, the 2003 portrait of Luis Jimenez is a painting, and the 2016 portrait of Rudolfo Anaya is a drawing. 

    • Luis Jimenez was a Mexican American sculptor, and Rudolfo Anaya was a Mexican American writer.

    ID: f1631638 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a difference between the portraits, noting that one is a painting and the other is a drawing.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between the two portraits rather than a difference. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence makes a generalization about Enriquez’s portraits; it doesn’t emphasize a difference between the portraits of Jimenez and Anaya. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence notes a difference between Jimenez and Anaya, it doesn’t emphasize a difference between, or even mention, their portraits.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID d10e46a2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: d10e46a2

    The ancient Spartans were known for their bitingly concise—or laconic—wit, a quality they maintained even in the face of great peril. blank when Philip II of Macedon threatened Laconia (the region of Greece containing Sparta), he said, “If I invade Laconia, I shall turn you out.” The Spartans replied with a single word: “If.”

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Rather,

    • In other words,

    • That said,

    • For instance,

    ID: d10e46a2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "For instance" logically signals that the concise, witty exchange between Philip II and the Spartans is an example supporting the previous claim—that the Spartans employed wit even in the face of peril.

    Choice A is incorrect because "rather" illogically signals that the exchange between Philip II and the Spartans contrasts with the previous claim about the Spartans’ wit. Instead, the exchange is an example of their wit. Choice B is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that the exchange between Philip II and the Spartans is a restatement of the previous claim about the Spartans’ wit. Instead, the exchange is an example of their wit. Choice C is incorrect because "that said" illogically signals that the exchange between Philip II and the Spartans is an exception to the previous claim about the Spartans’ wit. Instead, the exchange is an example of their wit.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID fdd9a360

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: fdd9a360

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The popular wood-wide web theory posits that trees can communicate and exchange resources with one another via common mycorrhizal networks (CMNs) of fungi.
    • Ecologist Dr. Suzanne Simard first suggested this theory in 1997.
    • She described trees as “super-cooperators.”
    • In the 2022 study “The Decay of the Wood-Wide Web?,” mycologist Dr. Justine Karst and colleagues evaluated dozens of CMN studies.
    • They write that CMNs “have captured the interest of broad audiences. We are concerned, however, that recent claims about CMNs in forests are disconnected from evidence.”

    The student wants to use a quotation to emphasize a potential problem with the wood-wide web theory. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Describing trees as “super-cooperators,” Simard first suggested that trees can exchange resources with one another in 1997.

    • In “The Decay of the Wood-Wide Web?,” Karst and colleagues note that common mycorrhizal networks “have captured the interest of broad audiences.”

    • After evaluating dozens of CMN studies, Karst and colleagues expressed concern that recent claims about common mycorrhizal networks are “disconnected from evidence.”

    • Despite the concerns expressed in the 2022 study “The Decay of the Wood-Wide Web?,” the wood-wide web theory remains popular.

    ID: fdd9a360 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. This choice uses a quotation to convey the authors’ criticism and challenge to the wood-wide web theory due to an absence of evidence.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t emphasize a potential problem with the wood-wide web theory. It uses a quotation to introduce the theory and its originator. It doesn’t mention any criticism or challenge to the theory. Choice B is incorrect. This choice uses a quotation, but it doesn’t emphasize a potential problem with the wood-wide web theory. It uses a quotation to describe the appeal and interest of the theory, but it doesn’t indicate why the authors are concerned or what evidence they have. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t use a quotation at all. It paraphrases the main idea of the 2022 study, but it doesn’t include any specific words or phrases from the notes. It also doesn’t emphasize a potential problem with the theory, but rather its popularity.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 1b94a80a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 1b94a80a

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Wool is a natural—and economically important—fiber that is obtained from animals like sheep.
    • Australia is a leading producer of wool.
    • The thickness of wool fibers varies across sheep breeds.
    • Merino sheep produce fine wool that is used for apparel.
    • Rambouillet sheep produce fine wool that is used for apparel.
    • Romney sheep produce thick wool that is used for rugs and blankets.

    The student wants to emphasize how Romney wool differs from Merino and Rambouillet wool. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Romney wool is just one of the many kinds of wools, each originating from a different breed of sheep.

    • Sheep wool varies from breed to breed, so Romney wool will be different than other kinds of wool.

    • The fine wool produced by Merino and Rambouillet sheep is used for apparel, whereas the thicker wool of Romney sheep is used in rugs and blankets.

    • Wool is an economically important fiber—especially in Australia—that can be used to make apparel or even rugs and blankets.

    ID: 1b94a80a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. This choice most effectively emphasizes how Romney wool differs from Merino and Rambouillet wool. It describes the difference in thickness and the difference in what they’re used for. 

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t emphasize how Romney wool differs from Merino and Rambouillet wool. It doesn’t mention Merino or Rambouillet wool at all. Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t emphasize how Romney wool differs from Merino and Rambouillet wool. It doesn’t mention Merino or Rambouillet wool at all. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t emphasize how Romney wool differs from Merino and Rambouillet wool. It doesn’t mention Romney, Merino or Rambouillet wool at all. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 88308a39

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 88308a39

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Shaun Tan is an Australian author.
    • In 2008, he published Tales from Outer Suburbia, a book of fifteen short stories.
    • The stories describe surreal events occurring in otherwise ordinary suburban neighborhoods.
    • In 2018, he published Tales from the Inner City, a book of twenty-five short stories.
    • The stories describe surreal events occurring in otherwise ordinary urban settings.

    The student wants to emphasize a similarity between the two books by Shaun Tan. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Shaun Tan’s book Tales from Outer Suburbia, which describes surreal events occurring in otherwise ordinary places, contains fewer short stories than Tales from the Inner City does.

    • Tales from Outer Suburbia was published in 2008, and Tales from the Inner City was published in 2018.

    • Unlike Tales from the Inner City, Shaun Tan’s book Tales from Outer Suburbia is set in suburban neighborhoods.

    • Shaun Tan’s books Tales from Outer Suburbia and Tales from the Inner City both describe surreal events occurring in otherwise ordinary places.

    ID: 88308a39 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence uses “both” to emphasize a thematic similarity between Tan’s two books, noting that both Tales from Outer Suburbia and Tales from the Inner City describe surreal events occurring in otherwise ordinary places.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a difference (one contains fewer stories than the other), not a similarity, between the two books. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence indicates that Tan’s books were published ten years apart; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two books. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence uses “unlike” to emphasize a difference between Tales from Outer Suburbia and Tales from the Inner City; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two books.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID a0da8114

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: a0da8114

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Tibetan mastiffs are large dogs native to the Himalayas.
    • A mutation in their EPAS1 gene prevents excess hemoglobin production.
    • A mutation in their HBB gene boosts hemoglobin’s oxygen-carrying ability.
    • These mutations enable the dogs to withstand hypoxic (low-oxygen) conditions at high altitudes.
    • In a 2016 study, Zhen Wang and colleagues noted that Tibetan wolves’ DNA has the same EPAS1 and HBB mutations.  
    • Wang and colleagues determined that the dogs first acquired these mutations by interbreeding with Tibetan wolves around 24,000 years ago.

    The student wants to present the conclusion of Zhen Wang and colleagues’ 2016 study. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Like Tibetan mastiffs, Tibetan wolves can withstand hypoxic conditions at high altitudes. 

    • Both Tibetan mastiffs and Tibetan wolves have mutations in their EPAS1 and HBB genes, which prevent excess hemoglobin production and boost hemoglobin’s oxygen-carrying ability, respectively.

    • In addition to preventing excess hemoglobin production, a mutation in Tibetan mastiffs’ HBB gene boosts hemoglobin’s oxygen-carrying ability. 

    • By interbreeding with Tibetan wolves around 24,000 years ago, Tibetan mastiffs acquired the genetic mutations that enable them to withstand hypoxic conditions.

    ID: a0da8114 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence presents the conclusion of Zhen Wang and colleagues’ 2016 study: Tibetan mastiffs are able to withstand hypoxic conditions due to their interbreeding with Tibetan wolves 24,000 years ago (which allowed the mastiffs to acquire the necessary genetic mutations).

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between Tibetan mastiffs and Tibetan wolves; it doesn’t present the conclusions of the 2016 study. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between the genes of Tibetan mastiffs and Tibetan wolves; it doesn’t present the conclusions of the 2016 study. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence misrepresents information from the notes by indicating that a mutation in mastiffs’ HBB gene prevents excess hemoglobin production; moreover, it doesn’t present the conclusions of the 2016 study.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 0fab0c90

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 0fab0c90

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The Gullah are a group of African Americans who have lived in parts of the southeastern United States since the 18th century.
    • Gullah culture is influenced by West African and Central African traditions.
    • Louise Miller Cohen is a Gullah historian, storyteller, and preservationist.
    • She founded the Gullah Museum of Hilton Head Island, South Carolina, in 2003.
    • Vermelle Rodrigues is a Gullah historian, artist, and preservationist.
    • She founded the Gullah Museum of Georgetown, South Carolina, in 2003.

    The student wants to emphasize the duration and purpose of Cohen’s and Rodrigues’s work. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • At the Gullah Museums in Hilton Head Island and Georgetown, South Carolina, visitors can learn more about the Gullah people who have lived in the region for centuries.

    • Louise Miller Cohen and Vermelle Rodrigues have worked to preserve the culture of the Gullah people, who have lived in the United States since the 18th century.

    • Since 2003, Louise Miller Cohen and Vermelle Rodrigues have worked to preserve Gullah culture through their museums.

    • Influenced by the traditions of West and Central Africa, Gullah culture developed in parts of the southeastern United States in the 18th century.

    ID: 0fab0c90 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes both the duration (the length of time) and the purpose of Cohen’s and Rodrigues’s work by noting that the women have been working since 2003 to preserve Gullah culture. 

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence emphasizes what visitors to Cohen’s and Rodrigues’s museums can learn, it doesn’t mention the duration or purpose of the women’s work. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence emphasizes the purpose of Cohen’s and Rodrigues’s work, it doesn’t mention the duration of that work (the length of time the women have been working to preserve Gullah culture). Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence emphasizes where and when Gullah culture developed, it doesn’t mention the duration or purpose of Cohen’s and Rodrigues’s work.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 00e0170f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 00e0170f

    Magnetic levitation (maglev) trains are suspended above a track by powerful electromagnets, reducing friction and thus allowing for much faster speeds. Though maglev advocates in the US have long imagined these trains crisscrossing the country, their dream remains unrealized. blank of the handful of maglev trains currently in operation, all are in Asia.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • In fact,

    • To that end,

    • Nevertheless,

    • That said,

    ID: 00e0170f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. This sentence emphasizes just how far maglev advocates’ dreams are from coming true. “In fact” is a transition used to emphasize the truth of a statement that modifies the previous statement and therefore fits perfectly in this context.

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice uses a cause-and-effect transition, which doesn’t make sense here. Maglev advocates’ dream remaining unrealized would not cause there to be only a few maglev trains, all located in Asia. Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses a disagreement transition, which doesn’t make sense here. In fact, this sentence agrees with the previous sentence—both talk about how maglev trains are far from becoming common in the US. Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses a disagreement transition, which doesn’t make sense here. In fact, this sentence agrees with the previous sentence—both talk about how maglev trains are far from becoming common in the US.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 56cad44a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 56cad44a

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Mexican tetras are a fish species with two distinct populations.
    • Surface-dwelling tetras live on the surface and are able to see.
    • Cave-dwelling tetras live in total darkness and have lost the ability to see.
    • Cave-dwelling tetras have asymmetrical skulls with more sensory receptors on one side than the other.
    • These receptors help cave-dwelling tetras navigate in darkness.

    The student wants to emphasize a difference between surface-dwelling and cave-dwelling tetras. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Surface-dwelling and cave-dwelling tetras may belong to the same species, but they are quite different.

    • Cave-dwelling tetras can no longer see but use sensory receptors on their skulls to navigate.

    • Mexican tetras are a fish species with two distinct populations: surface-dwelling tetras and cave-dwelling tetras.

    • Surface-dwelling tetras can see, whereas cave-dwelling tetras cannot.

    ID: 56cad44a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a difference between surface-dwelling and cave-dwelling tetras, noting that while surface-dwelling tetras can see, cave-dwelling tetras can’t.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence notes that surface-dwelling and cave-dwelling tetras are different, it doesn’t emphasize any difference between the two populations of tetras. Choice B is incorrect because the sentence explains that cave-dwelling tetras use sensory receptors on their skulls to navigate; it doesn’t emphasize a difference between surface-dwelling and cave-dwelling tetras. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence notes that there are two different populations of Mexican tetras, it doesn’t emphasize any difference between the two populations.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID c071eca2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: c071eca2

    Iraqi artist Nazik Al-Malaika, celebrated as the first Arabic poet to write in free verse, didn’t reject traditional forms entirely; her poem “Elegy for a Woman of No Importance” consists of two ten-line stanzas and a standard number of syllables. Even in this superficially traditional work, blank Al-Malaika was breaking new ground by memorializing an anonymous woman rather than a famous man.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • therefore,

    • in fact,

    • moreover,

    • though,

    ID: c071eca2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The first sentence tells us that Al-Malaika sometimes used "traditional forms". The second tells us that even when she used traditional forms, Al-Malaika was "breaking new ground". To connect these ideas, we need a contrast word like "but." "Though" is a contrast word similar to "but."

    Choice A is incorrect. This isn’t a logical transition. The first sentence tells us that Al-Malaika sometimes used "traditional forms". The second tells us that even when she used traditional forms, Al-Malaika was "breaking new ground". To connect these ideas, we need a contrast word like "but." "Therefore" doesn’t show contrast; it shows cause and effect. Choice B is incorrect. This isn’t a logical transition. The first sentence tells us that Al-Malaika sometimes used "traditional forms". The second tells us that even when she used traditional forms, Al-Malaika was "breaking new ground". To connect these ideas, we need a contrast word like "but." "In fact" is a phrase that usually emphasizes the truth of the previous statement. Choice C is incorrect. This isn’t a logical transition. The first sentence tells us that Al-Malaika sometimes used "traditional forms". The second tells us that even when she used traditional forms, Al-Malaika was "breaking new ground". To connect these ideas, we need a contrast word like "but." "Moreover" doesn’t show contrast—it introduces additional information that continues or supports the previous idea.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID feb1e6da

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: feb1e6da

    Biographer Michael Gorra notes that the novelist Henry James “lived in a world of second thoughts,” frequently tinkering with his novels and stories after their initial publication. However, the differences between the 1881 first edition and the 1908 edition of his novel A Portrait of a Lady are extreme, even by James’s standards; blank some critics regard the two editions as two different novels altogether.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • by contrast,

    • in fact, 

    • nevertheless,

    • in other words,

    ID: feb1e6da Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "In fact" logically signals that the critics’ claim at the end of this sentence—that the two editions are essentially two different novels altogether—offers additional emphasis in support of the previous claim that the differences between the editions are extreme.

    Choice A is incorrect because "by contrast" illogically signals that the claim at the end of this sentence contrasts with the previous claim about the differences between the editions. Instead, the critics’ opinion offers additional emphasis in support of that claim. Choice C is incorrect because "nevertheless" illogically signals that the claim at the end of this sentence is true despite the previous claim about the differences between the two editions. Instead, the critics’ opinion offers additional emphasis in support of that claim. Choice D is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that the claim at the end of this sentence is merely paraphrasing the previous claim about the differences between the two editions. The critics’ opinion adds new information to the previous claim rather than simply paraphrasing it.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID d2b52c50

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: d2b52c50

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes: 

    • On January 3, 1959, Alaska became the 49th state to join the US.        
    • On August 21, 1959, Hawaii became the 50th state to join the US.        
    • A new 50-star US flag was unveiled the same day.

    The student wants to emphasize the order in which Alaska and Hawaii became US states. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Alaska, the 49th US state, became a state several months before Hawaii, the 50th state, did.

    • On August 21, 1959, a new 50-star US flag was unveiled.

    • The 49th and 50th states to join the US did so in the same year.

    • The same day that Hawaii became a US state—August 21, 1959—a new US flag was unveiled.

    ID: d2b52c50 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the order in which Alaska and Hawaii became US states, noting that Alaska became a US state several months before Hawaii did.

    Choice B is incorrect. The sentence specifies when the 50-star US flag was unveiled; it doesn’t emphasize the order in which Alaska and Hawaii became US states. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence indicates that the 49th and 50th states became US states in the same year, it doesn’t identify which state was the 49th and which was the 50th; as a result, it doesn’t emphasize the order in which Alaska and Hawaii became states. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence indicates that a new US flag was unveiled when Hawaii became a US state; it doesn’t emphasize the order in which Alaska and Hawaii became states.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 176edca6

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 176edca6

    A 2017 study of sign language learners tested the role of iconicity—the similarity of a sign to the thing it represents—in language acquisition. The study found that the greater the iconicity of a sign, the more likely it was to have been learned. blank the correlation between acquisition and iconicity was lower than that between acquisition and another factor studied: sign frequency.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • In fact,

    • In other words,

    • Granted,

    • As a result,

    ID: 176edca6 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. “Granted” logically signals that the following information—that iconicity is not as highly correlated with acquisition as sign frequency—is true in spite of the information about the correlation between iconicity and acquisition in the previous sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because “in fact” illogically signals that the sentence that follows either emphasizes or refutes the information in the previous sentence regarding the correlation between iconicity and acquisition. Instead, the sentence that follows provides additional information that is true in spite of the preceding information; it neither emphasizes nor refutes that information. Choice B is incorrect because “in other words” illogically signals that the sentence that follows is a restatement of the information in the previous sentence; instead, the sentence that follows provides additional information that is true in spite of the preceding information. Choice D is incorrect because “as a result” illogically signals that the sentence that follows is a result of the information in the previous sentence regarding the correlation between iconicity and acquisition; instead, the sentence that follows is true in spite of the preceding information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 10cd0327

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 10cd0327

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • A thermal inversion is a phenomenon where a layer of atmosphere is warmer than the layer beneath it.
    • In 2022, a team of researchers studied the presence of thermal inversions in twenty-five gas giants.
    • Gas giants are planets largely composed of helium and hydrogen.
    • The team found that gas giants featuring a thermal inversion were also likely to contain heat-absorbing metals.
    • One explanation for this relationship is that these metals may reside in a planet’s upper atmosphere, where their absorbed heat causes an increase in temperature.

    The student wants to present the study’s findings to an audience already familiar with thermal inversions. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Heat-absorbing metals may reside in a planet’s upper atmosphere.

    • The team studied thermal inversions in twenty-five gas giants, which are largely composed of helium and hydrogen.

    • Researchers found that gas giants featuring a thermal inversion were likely to contain heat-absorbing metals, which may reside in the planets’ upper atmospheres.

    • Gas giants were likely to contain heat-absorbing metals when they featured a layer of atmosphere warmer than the layer beneath it, researchers found; this phenomenon is known as a thermal inversion.

    ID: 10cd0327 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. It describes the study’s findings in a way that assumes the audience is already familiar with thermal inversions.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t fully describe the findings of the study, because it doesn’t include anything about thermal inversions. Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t describe the study’s findings. Choice D is incorrect. This choice isn’t suited for an audience already familiar with thermal inversion. A familiar audience wouldn’t need to have the term defined.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 4105f5ac

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 4105f5ac

    When, in 2017, Cambridge University students Lucy Moss and Toby Marlow decided they wanted to develop a musical together, one of their goals was for their female actor friends to have good parts to play. blank they created the show Six, a retelling of the history of King Henry VIII’s wives in which each of the six queens has a starring role.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • In other words,

    • In summary,

    • For example,

    • To that end,

    ID: 4105f5ac Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "To that end" logically signals that the information in this sentence—the students’ creation of a show with six starring female roles—is the product of a goal or desire in the previous sentence (the students’ wish to develop a musical with roles for female actors).

    Choice A is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a paraphrase or restatement of the previous information about the students’ wish to develop a musical with roles for female actors. Instead, the students’ show is the product of that desire. Choice B is incorrect because "in summary" illogically signals that the information in this sentence summarizes the previous information about the students’ wish to develop a musical with roles for female actors. Instead, the students’ show is the product of that desire. Choice C is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is merely an example of the previous information about the students’ wish to develop a musical with roles for female actors. Instead, the students’ show is the direct product of that desire.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 388b45aa

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 388b45aa

    Establishing Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) is no easy task. Each month, readings of a single second from atomic clocks around the world are taken and sent to the International Bureau of Weights and Measures (BIPM) in France. blank BIPM metrologists perform the meticulous work of assembling these minutely disparate readings into a globally shared time standard.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • There,

    • In particular,

    • For example,

    • Conversely,

    ID: 388b45aa Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. "There" indicates that the work of calculating Coordinated Universal Time takes place at the International Bureau of Weights and Measures in France. Because "there" indicates a location, it fits the context perfectly.

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice uses an exemplification transition, which doesn’t make sense here. This sentence is describing where the work of coordinating Coordinated Universal Time takes place, not giving an example of the work described in the previous sentence. Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses an exemplification transition, which doesn’t make sense here. This sentence is describing where the work of coordinating Coordinated Universal Time takes place, not giving an example of the work described in the previous sentence. Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses a disagreement transition. But this sentence doesn’t disagree with the previous sentence. They both describe the work involved in calculating Coordinated Universal Time.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 4b376902

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 4b376902

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • NASA uses rovers, large remote vehicles with wheels, to explore the surface of Mars.
    • NASA’s rovers can’t explore regions inaccessible to wheeled vehicles.
    • Rovers are also heavy, making them difficult to land on the planet’s surface.
    • Microprobes, robotic probes that weigh as little as 50 milligrams, could be deployed virtually anywhere on the surface of Mars.
    • Microprobes have been proposed as an alternative to rovers.

    The student wants to explain an advantage of microprobes. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Despite being heavy, NASA’s rovers can land successfully on the surface of Mars.

    • Microprobes, which weigh as little as 50 milligrams, could explore areas of Mars that are inaccessible to NASA’s heavy, wheeled rovers.

    • NASA currently uses its rovers on Mars, but microprobes have been proposed as an alternative.

    • Though they are different sizes, both microprobes and rovers can be used to explore the surface of Mars.

    ID: 4b376902 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence explains an advantage of microprobes, noting that because microprobes weigh as little as 50 milligrams, they can explore areas inaccessible to rovers.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence indicates that rovers can land successfully on Mars despite their weight; it doesn’t explain an advantage of microprobes. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence mentions that microprobes have been proposed as an alternative to rovers, it doesn’t explain an advantage of microprobes. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between microprobes and rovers; it doesn’t explain an advantage of microprobes.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID dede8260

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: dede8260

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • When medical students mention their patients on social media, they may violate patient confidentiality.
    • Terry Kind led a study to determine how many medical schools have student policies that mention social media use.
    • Kind and her team reviewed 132 medical school websites, examining publicly available student policies.
    • Only thirteen medical schools had guidelines that explicitly mention social media, and only five defined what constitutes acceptable social media use.

    The student wants to emphasize the study’s methodology. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The student policies of 132 medical schools can be found online, according to research by Terry Kind.

    • To find out how many medical schools have guidelines about student social media use, Terry Kind and her team examined the student policies of 132 medical schools.

    • Out of 132 medical schools, only thirteen had student policies that mentioned social media, and only five specified what use was acceptable. 

    • Terry Kind and her team wanted to know how many medical schools have student social media policies in place about protecting patient confidentiality. 

    ID: dede8260 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence effectively emphasizes Kind’s methodology: examining the student policies of 132 medical schools for guidelines about student social media use.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence specifies how many medical schools’ student policies are available online; it doesn’t emphasize the study’s methodology. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the study’s results, not the study’s methodology. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the aim of the study, not the study’s methodology.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 81315093

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 81315093

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • A marathon is a long-distance running race that is 26.2 miles long.
    • An ultramarathon is a long-distance running race of more than 26.2 miles.
    • The Kepler Challenge is a one-day, 37.3-mile ultramarathon in New Zealand.
    • The Spreelauf is a six-day, 261-mile ultramarathon in Germany.

    The student wants to make a generalization about ultramarathons. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Examples of ultramarathons include the 37.3-mile Kepler Challenge in New Zealand and the 261-mile Spreelauf in Germany.

    • A marathon is 26.2 miles long, but the Spreelauf ultramarathon, at 261 miles, is far longer.

    • Ultramarathons range widely in length, from a few dozen miles to a few hundred.

    • While the Kepler Challenge is a one-day ultramarathon, the Spreelauf is a six-day ultramarathon.

    ID: 81315093 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. This is the only choice that makes a generalization about ultramarathons.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice gives specific examples of ultramarathons but doesn’t say anything about them as a category. Choice B is incorrect. This choice compares marathons in general to one specific ultramarathon but doesn’t say anything about ultramarathons as a category. Choice D is incorrect. This choice contrasts two specific ultramarathons but doesn’t say anything about them as a category.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 1773fa73

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 1773fa73

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • A commodity chain is the series of links connecting the production and purchase of a commodity on the world market.
    • Chinese American anthropologist Anna Tsing studies the contemporary commodity chain of matsutake mushrooms.
    • At one end of the matsutake chain are mushroom pickers in Oregon.
    • At the other end are wealthy consumers who buy the costly matsutake in Japan.
    • According to Tsing, “Japanese traders began importing matsutake in the 1980s, when the scarcity of matsutake in Japan first became clear.”

    The student wants to provide an overview of the matsutake commodity chain. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The contemporary matsutake commodity chain has its origins in the 1980s when, according to Tsing, “the scarcity of matsutake in Japan first became clear.”

    • Commodity chains include the linked production and purchase of commodities, such as the matsutake mushroom, on the world market.

    • Decades after the Japanese import of matsutake began, a commodity chain now links matsutake pickers in Oregon with wealthy consumers of the costly mushrooms in Japan.

    • Wealthy consumers who buy the costly mushrooms in Japan are at one end of the matsutake commodity chain.

    ID: 1773fa73 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence provides an overview of the matsutake commodity chain, connecting the Oregon mushroom pickers at one end to the Japanese consumers at the other.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the matsutake commodity chain, it focuses only on its origins; it does not provide an overview. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence provides a general definition of commodity chains, not an overview of the matsutake chain. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the matsutake commodity chain, it focuses only on one end of the chain (the consumers); it does not provide an overview.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 6b5bc97d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 6b5bc97d

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes: 

    • The Sasanian Empire lasted about 400 years (AD 224 to AD 651).
    • The Sasanians controlled an area spanning 1.4 million square miles.
    • This area included present-day Iran and Iraq.
    • The empire’s capital was the ancient city of Ctesiphon.
    • Ctesiphon was located near present-day Baghdad, Iraq.

    The student wants to specify the location of Ctesiphon. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The Sasanian Empire began in AD 224 and ended in AD 651.

    • The capital of the Sasanian Empire, which spanned 1.4 million square miles, was Ctesiphon.

    • The Sasanians controlled an area of 1.4 million square miles, including present-day Iran and Iraq.

    • Ctesiphon, the capital of the Sasanian Empire, was located near present-day Baghdad, Iraq.

    ID: 6b5bc97d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence specifies the location of Ctesiphon, noting that it was located near present-day Baghdad, Iraq.

    Choice A is incorrect because the sentence explains when the Sasanian Empire began and ended; it doesn’t specify the location of Ctesiphon. Choice B is incorrect because the sentence emphasizes that Ctesiphon was the capital of the Sasanian Empire; it doesn’t specify Ctesiphon’s location. Choice C is incorrect because it emphasizes the size of the Sasanian Empire; it doesn’t specify the location of Ctesiphon.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 5b8b69a2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 5b8b69a2

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Archaeologist Jon Erlandson and colleagues argue that humans first arrived in the Americas by sea.
    • They propose that humans traveled between Pacific Ocean islands and coastlines from northeast Asia to the Americas.
    • Many of these islands and coastal zones were later submerged as glaciers melted and sea levels rose.
    • The researchers think that “a coastal route, including kelp forests and estuaries, would have provided a rich mix of marine, estuarine, riverine, and terrestrial resources” such as seaweeds, fish, and birds.
    • This proposed scenario is known as the kelp highway hypothesis.

    The student wants to summarize the kelp highway hypothesis. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Pacific Ocean islands and coastlines likely contained “a rich mix of marine, estuarine, riverine, and terrestrial resources” such as seaweeds, fish, and birds, according to researchers.

    • One argument about how humans first arrived in the Americas is the kelp highway hypothesis proposed by Jon Erlandson and colleagues.

    • Humans may have first arrived in the Americas by sea, traveling between Pacific Ocean islands and coastlines and subsisting on a variety of resources.

    • As glaciers melted and sea levels rose, many Pacific Ocean islands and coastal zones were submerged.

    ID: 5b8b69a2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. This choice summarizes the main idea of the kelp highway hypothesis, providing a high-level overview of how the hypothesis explains human migration to the Americas.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice describes one aspect of the proposed scenario but doesn’t discuss human migration, which is the main focus of the kelp highway hypothesis. Choice B is incorrect. This choice introduces the kelp highway hypothesis but doesn’t explain what it entails. Choice D is incorrect. This choice describes one element of the proposed scenario but doesn’t discuss human migration, which is the main focus of the kelp highway hypothesis.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 37ec26e7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 37ec26e7

    In order to create the Global Positioning System (GPS), scientists had to develop an accurate mathematical model of Earth’s shape that accounted for various forces, such as tides. blank it was mathematician Gladys West who wrote the computer program that could perform these necessary calculations.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Ultimately,

    • In other words,

    • Secondly,

    • In addition,

    ID: 37ec26e7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. "Ultimately" logically signals that West’s completion of the computer program was the conclusion of the process described in the previous sentence, in which scientists working on GPS sought to develop a mathematical model of Earth.

    Choice B is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that the information about West’s program is a restatement of the information about the scientists’ efforts to develop a mathematical model of Earth. Instead, West’s program was the conclusion of those efforts. Choice C is incorrect because "secondly" illogically signals that West’s completion of the computer program was merely the next step in the scientists’ efforts to develop a mathematical model of Earth. Instead, West’s program was the conclusion of those efforts. Choice D is incorrect because "in addition" illogically signals that West’s completion of the computer program was merely additional information related to the scientists’ work on GPS. Instead, West’s program was the conclusion of the scientists’ efforts to develop a mathematical model of Earth.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 49fe306b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 49fe306b

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • From Earth, all the meteors in a meteor shower appear to originate from a single spot in the sky.
    • This spot is called the meteor shower’s radiant.
    • The Perseid meteor shower is visible in the northern hemisphere in July and August.
    • Like many meteor showers, it is named for the location of its radiant.
    • Its radiant is located within the constellation Perseus.

    The student wants to explain the origin of the Perseid meteor shower’s name. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The Perseid meteor shower is named for the constellation Perseus, the location of the meteor shower’s radiant.

    • A meteor shower’s name may be linked to a single spot in the sky.

    • The Perseid meteor shower, which has a radiant, is visible in the northern hemisphere in July and August.

    • From Earth, all the meteors in a meteor shower appear to originate from a radiant, such as the one within Perseus.

    ID: 49fe306b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence explains the origin of the Perseid meteor shower’s name: the constellation Perseus, where the meteor shower’s radiant is located.

    Choice B is incorrect. The sentence makes a claim about meteor shower names in general; it doesn’t explain the origin of the Perseid meteor shower’s name specifically. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence indicates when and where the Perseid meteor shower is visible; it doesn’t explain the origin of the meteor shower’s name. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence discusses meteor showers in general; it doesn’t explain the origin of the Perseid meteor shower’s name.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID b5cd28a7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: b5cd28a7

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Samuel Delany is a US writer known for his science fiction.
    • Delany’s science fiction novel Babel-17 was published in 1966.
    • The novel won a Nebula Award in 1967.
    • The Nebula Awards are given each year to the best works of science fiction published in the US.

    The student wants to indicate the title of a novel that won a Nebula Award. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Babel-17, by Samuel Delany, won a Nebula Award in 1967.

    • Samuel Delany published a science fiction novel in 1966.

    • Samuel Delany is an award-winning US writer known for his science fiction.

    • One of Samuel Delany’s novels was among the best works of science fiction published in the US.

    ID: b5cd28a7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence indicates the title of a novel that won a Nebula Award, noting that Babel-17 by Samuel Delany won the award in 1967.

    Choice B is incorrect because the sentence identifies the year that Samuel Delany published a science fiction novel; it doesn’t indicate the novel’s title or that it won a Nebula Award. Choice C is incorrect because the sentence provides an introduction of Samuel Delany; it doesn’t indicate the title of a novel that has won a Nebula Award. Choice D is incorrect because the sentence indicates that one of Samuel Delany’s novels met the qualification for a Nebula Award; it doesn’t indicate the novel’s title or that it won an award.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 290a5d77

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 290a5d77

    Guard cells are specialized cells that are part of a plant’s pores. These cells help regulate the amount of carbon dioxide a plant takes in. blank they help regulate a plant’s water loss.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Additionally,

    • Previously,

    • In conclusion,

    • Instead,

    ID: 290a5d77 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. "Additionally" logically signals that guard cells’ role in regulating water loss is an additional function of these specialized plant cells that is separate from the function of regulating carbon dioxide intake.

    Choice B is incorrect because "previously" illogically signals that the activity described in this sentence occurs earlier in a chronological sequence of events than the regulation of carbon dioxide intake described in the previous sentence. Instead, regulating water loss is an additional function of guard cells that is separate from the function of regulating carbon dioxide intake. Choice C is incorrect because "in conclusion" illogically signals that the description of guard cells’ role in regulating water loss concludes or summarizes the information about guard cells provided in the previous sentences. Instead, regulating water loss is one of the two distinct functions of guard cells described in the text. Choice D is incorrect because "instead" illogically signals that the activity described in this sentence happens in place of the activity of regulating carbon dioxide intake described in the previous sentence. Rather, regulating water loss is an additional function of guard cells.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 5888712f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 5888712f

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Physicist Muluneh Abebe was working on a garment suited for both warm and cold conditions.
    • He analyzed the emissivity, or ability to emit heat, of the materials he planned to use.
    • Abebe found that reflective metal fibers emitted almost no heat and had an emissivity of 0.02.
    • He found that silicon carbide fibers absorbed large amounts of heat and had an emissivity of 0.74.
    • The amount of heat a material absorbs is equal to the amount of heat it emits.

    The student wants to contrast the emissivity of reflective metal fibers with that of silicon carbide fibers. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The ability of reflective metal fibers and silicon carbide fibers to emit heat was determined by an analysis of each material’s emissivity.

    • The amount of heat a material absorbs is equal to the amount it emits, as evidenced in Abebe’s analyses.

    • Though the reflective metal fibers and silicon carbide fibers had different rates of emissivity, Abebe planned to use both in a garment.

    • Whereas the reflective metal fibers had an emissivity of just 0.02, the silicon carbide fibers absorbed large amounts of heat, resulting in an emissivity of 0.74.

    ID: 5888712f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence uses “whereas” to contrast the emissivities of the two fibers, noting that the emissivity of the reflective metal fibers was just 0.02, far lower than that of the silicon carbide fibers (0.74).

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the ability of reflective metal fibers and silicon carbide fibers to emit heat; it doesn’t contrast the emissivities of the two fibers. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence states a law of thermodynamics: the amount of heat a material absorbs is equal to the amount it emits. The sentence doesn’t contrast the emissivity of reflective metal fibers with that of silicon carbide fibers. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence includes a generalization about the emissivities of reflective metal fibers and silicon carbide fibers, it emphasizes Abebe’s plans for their use in a garment; it doesn’t contrast the emissivities of the two fibers.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 0acc26b2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 0acc26b2

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Astronomers estimate that the number of comets orbiting the Sun is in the billions.
    • 81P/Wild is one of many comets whose orbit has changed over time.
    • 81P/Wild’s orbit once lay between the orbits of Uranus and Jupiter.
    • The comet’s orbit is now positioned between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars.

    The student wants to make and support a generalization about the orbits of comets. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish these goals? 

    • Astronomers estimate that the number of comets orbiting the Sun is in the billions; the comets’ orbits may change over time.

    • Like Uranus, Jupiter, and Mars, billions of comets orbit the Sun.

    • One example of a comet is 81P/Wild, whose orbit around the Sun once lay between Uranus’s and Jupiter’s orbits but is now positioned between those of Jupiter and Mars.

    • A comet’s orbit around the Sun may change over time: the orbit of comet 81P/Wild once lay between the orbits of Uranus and Jupiter but is now positioned between those of Jupiter and Mars.

    ID: 0acc26b2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence makes a generalization—that a comet’s orbit around the Sun may change over time—and supports the generalization with the example of the orbit of comet 81P/Wild, which once lay between the orbits of Uranus and Jupiter but is now positioned between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the number of comets orbiting the Sun and makes a generalization about their orbits, but it doesn’t support the generalization with an example. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence makes a generalization about comets and compares them to the planets Uranus, Jupiter, and Mars; it doesn’t make and support a generalization about comets’ orbits. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence provides an example of a comet whose orbit has changed, it doesn’t make a generalization about the orbits of comets.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 1c6e1d55

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 1c6e1d55

    Historically, most conductors of major orchestras and opera companies have been European men, but a new, more diverse generation of artists is stepping up to the podium. Mexico’s Alondra de la Parra took over as conductor for the Queensland Symphony Orchestra in 2017, blank and Colombia’s Lina Gonzalez-Granados did the same for the Los Angeles Opera in 2022.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • in addition,

    • lastly,

    • granted,

    • for instance,

    ID: 1c6e1d55 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. “For instance” logically signals that the details in this sentence—that Mexican conductor Alondra de la Parra and Colombian conductor Lina Gonzalez-Granados took new conducting positions—are examples supporting the previous claim about the new generation of artists.

    Choice A is incorrect because “in addition” illogically signals that the details in this sentence about de la Parra and Gonzalez-Granados are merely additional facts related to the previous claim about the new generation of artists. Instead, they are examples supporting that claim. Choice B is incorrect because “lastly” illogically signals that the details in this sentence about de la Parra and Gonzalez-Granados are the last step or a concluding summary of the previous claim about the new generation of artists. Instead, they are examples supporting that claim. Choice C is incorrect because “granted” illogically signals that the details in this sentence about de la Parra and Gonzalez-Granados are exceptions to the previous claim about the new generation of artists. Instead, they are examples supporting that claim.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 8622320e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 8622320e

    Earth’s auroras—colorful displays of light seen above the northern and southern poles—result, broadly speaking, from the Sun’s activity. blank the Sun releases charged particles that are captured by Earth’s magnetic field and channeled toward the poles. These particles then collide with atoms in the atmosphere, causing the atoms to emit auroral light.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Specifically,

    • Similarly,

    • Nevertheless,

    • Hence,

    ID: 8622320e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. “Specifically” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that the Sun releases charged particles that later collide with atoms, resulting in auroral light—provides specific, precise details about how auroras result from the Sun’s activity. 

    Choice B is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is similar to the general information about auroras in the previous sentence. Instead, this sentence provides specific, precise details about how auroras form. Choice C is incorrect because “nevertheless” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is despite the general information about auroras in the previous sentence. Instead, this sentence provides specific, precise details about how auroras form. Choice D is incorrect because “hence” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a result of the general information about auroras in the previous sentence. Instead, this sentence provides specific, precise details about how auroras form.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 9336f63b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 9336f63b

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • A small number of US Navy sailors of Filipino descent served during the US Civil War (1861–1865).
    • Stephen Amos was born in the Philippines around 1830.
    • He enlisted in the US Navy in November 1863.
    • Raphael Ignases was born in the Philippines around 1834.
    • He enlisted in the US Navy in July 1861.

    The student wants to emphasize the historical significance of Stephen Amos’s enlistment date. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Both Stephen Amos and Raphael Ignases were US Navy sailors of Filipino descent, but Amos enlisted in the Navy in 1863, two years later than Ignases.

    • Stephen Amos was a US Navy sailor of Filipino descent, along with Raphael Ignases, who was born in the Philippines around 1834.

    • Stephen Amos enlisted in the US Navy in 1863, making him one of the few sailors of Filipino descent to serve in the US Civil War (1861–1865).

    • When Stephen Amos enlisted in the US Navy in November 1863, he joined sailors such as Raphael Ignases, who had been born in the Philippines around 1834.

    ID: 9336f63b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. Noting the time frame of the US Civil War and the fact that Amos enlisted during this time frame, the sentence emphasizes that Amos’s enlistment date places him among the historically significant group of US Navy sailors of Filipino descent who served during the Civil War.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence identifies Amos and Ignases and notes that Amos’s enlistment date was later than Ignases’s; the sentence doesn’t explain the historical significance of the date. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence identifies Amos and Ignases as US Navy sailors of Filipino descent, noting Ignases’s birth year; the sentence doesn’t provide Amos’s enlistment date or its historical significance. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence provides Amos’s enlistment date and mentions that he served alongside a sailor of Filipino descent; it doesn’t explain the historical significance of the date.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 9922b364

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 9922b364

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Ibn Sina was a Persian philosopher and physician.
    • His book The Canon of Medicine recorded the most advanced medical knowledge of his time.
    • It was published in the year 1025 CE.
    • It was used as a medical textbook in Middle Eastern and European universities for centuries.

    The student wants to identify the year that The Canon of Medicine was published. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Ibn Sina’s book The Canon of Medicine was published in the year 1025 CE.

    • A Persian philosopher and physician wrote a medical textbook called The Canon of Medicine.

    • The Canon of Medicine was a medical textbook used by Middle Eastern and European universities for centuries.

    • Ibn Sina recorded the most advanced medical knowledge of his time in his book The Canon of Medicine.

    ID: 9922b364 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence identifies the year in which the book was published.

    Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence provides information about the book’s author, it doesn’t identify the year in which the book was published. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence provides information about the book’s historical use, it doesn’t identify the year in which the book was published. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence provides information about the book’s contents, it doesn’t identify the year in which the book was published.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 04397a63

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 04397a63

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The Haudenosaunee Confederacy is a nearly 1,000-year-old alliance of six Native nations in the northeastern US.             
    • The members are bound by a centuries-old agreement known as the Great Law of Peace.
    • Historian Bruce Johansen is one of several scholars who believe that the principles of the Great Law of Peace influenced the US Constitution.
    • This theory is called the influence theory.
    • Johansen cites the fact that Benjamin Franklin and Thomas Jefferson both studied the Haudenosaunee Confederacy.

    The student wants to present the influence theory to an audience unfamiliar with the Haudenosaunee Confederacy. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Historian Bruce Johansen believes that the Great Law of Peace was very influential.

    • The influence theory is supported by the fact that Benjamin Franklin and Thomas Jefferson both studied the Haudenosaunee Confederacy.

    • The influence theory holds that the principles of the Great Law of Peace, a centuries-old agreement binding six Native nations in the northeastern US, influenced the US Constitution.

    • Native people, including the members of the Haudenosaunee Confederacy, influenced the founding of the US in many different ways.

    ID: 04397a63 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence effectively presents the influence theory to an audience unfamiliar with the Haudenosaunee Confederacy, explaining the theory’s position that the Great Law of Peace influenced the US Constitution while avoiding mention of the Haudenosaunee Confederacy itself.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence broadly emphasizes Johansen’s ideas about the Great Law of Peace; it doesn’t identify the influence theory or effectively present it. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes one fact that supports the influence theory; it doesn’t effectively present the theory to an audience unfamiliar with the Haudenosaunee Confederacy. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence makes a broad generalization about Native people’s influence on the founding of the US; it doesn’t effectively present the influence theory.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID de01ccef

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: de01ccef

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The background colors of US and UK road signs are used to denote each sign’s purpose.
    • Directional signs are a type of sign containing information such as route names, distance to a destination, etc.
    • Highways, major roadways, and minor roadways in the US generally use green for directional signs.
    • Highways in the UK generally use blue for directional signs.
    • Major roadways in the UK generally use green for directional signs.

    The student wants to contrast how green backgrounds are used in US and UK road signs. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Blue backgrounds are generally used on directional highway signs in the UK, in contrast to the green highway signs used in the US.

    • In the US, green signs indicate directional information on both highways and major roadways, but in the UK, directional signs of this color generally appear only on major roadways.

    • Green road signs are used in both the US and UK to denote directional information on major roadways, like distance to a destination or route names.

    • Both the UK and the US use directional signs, which include information on route names and distance to a destination.

    ID: de01ccef Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence contrasts how green backgrounds are used in US and UK road signs, noting that the US uses them for both highways and major roadways while the UK uses them only for major roadways.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence does contrast US and UK road signs, the contrast focuses on the use of blue versus green backgrounds rather than on the use of green backgrounds specifically. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence indicates a similarity between the uses of green road signs in the US and the UK rather than contrasting them. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence indicates a similarity between road signs in the US and those in the UK; it doesn’t contrast how green backgrounds are used in each country’s signs.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 164a32e7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 164a32e7

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Claude McKay (1889–1948) was a Jamaican American writer.
    • Songs of Jamaica (1912) and Constab Ballads (1912) are two acclaimed poetry collections that McKay published while living in Jamaica.
    • McKay moved to Harlem in New York City in 1914.
    • He is best known as a poet and novelist of the Harlem Renaissance, a literary and cultural movement of the 1920s and 1930s.
    • His most famous works include the poetry collection Harlem Shadows (1922) and the novel Home to Harlem (1928).

    The student wants to emphasize Claude McKay’s accomplishments before moving to Harlem. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Jamaican American writer Claude McKay is the author of works such as Songs of Jamaica (1912), Constab Ballads (1912), Harlem Shadows (1922), and Home to Harlem (1928).

    • Although he is best known as a Harlem Renaissance writer, Claude McKay had published two acclaimed poetry collections in 1912 while living in Jamaica: Songs of Jamaica and Constab Ballads.

    • In 1914, Claude McKay moved to Harlem, where he would become known as a poet and novelist of the Harlem Renaissance (a literary and cultural movement of the 1920s and 1930s).

    • Before moving to Harlem, Claude McKay—author of the poetry collection Harlem Shadows (1922) and the novel Home to Harlem (1928)—lived in Jamaica.

    ID: 164a32e7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. This choice contrasts McKay’s fame as a Harlem Renaissance writer with his earlier achievements as a Jamaican poet, and it names the two collections he published before moving to Harlem.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t emphasize McKay’s accomplishments before moving to Harlem. It lists some of his works but doesn’t distinguish between those he wrote in Jamaica and those he wrote in Harlem. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t emphasize McKay’s accomplishments before moving to Harlem. It only mentions the year he moved and what he would become known for afterwards. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t emphasize McKay’s accomplishments before moving to Harlem. It mentions that he lived in Jamaica, but it doesn’t name any of the works he published there.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 0d088ae0

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 0d088ae0

    Observing that a fire in a closed container soon went out, leading eighteenth-century scientists did not conclude that fresh air (specifically, oxygen) is necessary for combustion; instead, many theorized that the container’s air had become saturated with a substance called phlogiston. blank when Joseph Priestley first isolated oxygen gas in 1774, he termed it “dephlogisticated air.”

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • In other words,

    • For this reason,

    • Alternatively,

    • Nevertheless,

    ID: 0d088ae0 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "For this reason" logically signals that the reason Joseph Priestley termed oxygen "dephlogisticated air" was that he accepted the theory mentioned in the previous sentence—that the presence of phlogiston, rather than the absence of oxygen, causes fire in a closed container to go out.

    Choice A is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that the information about Priestley terming oxygen "dephlogisticated air" is a restatement of the previous theory concerning phlogiston. Instead, Priestley chose the term as a result of this theory. Choice C is incorrect because "alternatively" illogically signals that Priestley termed oxygen "dephlogisticated air" as an alternative to the previous theory concerning phlogiston. Instead, Priestley chose the term as a result of this theory. Choice D is incorrect because "nevertheless" illogically signals that Priestley termed oxygen "dephlogisticated air" despite the previous theory concerning phlogiston. Instead, Priestley chose the term as a result of this theory.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID fbffb352

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: fbffb352

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Archaeologist Dr. Sada Mire founded the Horn Heritage Foundation to preserve the cultural history of regions in the Horn of Africa.
    • Horn Heritage has overseen a preservation project to create 3D digital scans of ancient rock art in Somaliland.
    • Paintings found at the Laas Geel caves are included in the scans.
    • The Laas Geel paintings feature human figures and animals.
    • Paintings found at the Dhagah Nabi Galay caves are included in the scans.
    • The Dhagah Nabi Galay caves feature what are thought to be the earliest examples of writing in East Africa.

    The student wants to emphasize a similarity between the Laas Geel paintings and the Dhagah Nabi Galay paintings. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The earliest examples of writing in East Africa are thought to be featured in the paintings at the Dhagah Nabi Galay caves in Somaliland.

    • The paintings at the Dhagah Nabi Galay caves feature examples of writing, while those at the Laas Geel caves feature humans and animals.

    • In Somaliland, the paintings in the Laas Geel caves feature human figures and animals.

    • The Laas Geel paintings and the Dhagah Nabi Galay paintings are both examples of ancient rock art found in Somaliland.

    ID: fbffb352 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. This choice compares the Laas Geel paintings and the Dhagah Nabi Galay paintings to one another and emphasizes what they have in common: they are both ancient rock art found in the same region.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice only mentions the Dhagah Nabi Galay paintings. It doesn’t compare them to the Laas Geel paintings. Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two paintings. Instead, it emphasizes a difference: the type of content they depict. Choice C is incorrect. This choice only mentions the Laas Geel paintings. It doesn’t compare them to the Dhagah Nabi Galay paintings.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 249508d9

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 249508d9

    With his room-sized installation Unicorn/My Private Sky, Norwegian artist Børre Sæthre succeeds in creating a whimsical yet perplexing experience. blank when visitors set foot inside the fantastically blue room and encounter the life-sized stuffed unicorn preening at the far end of it, they are both dazzled and confused—as if stepping into a strange and enchanting new world.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Second,

    • Instead,

    • Indeed,

    • Nevertheless,

    ID: 249508d9 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. "Indeed" logically signals that the description of the art installation in this sentence—its blue room and preening unicorn that leave visitors "dazzled and confused"—offers additional emphasis in support of the previous sentence’s claim about the installation’s "whimsical yet perplexing experience."

    Choice A is incorrect because "second" illogically signals that the description in this sentence is a second, separate claim from the previous sentence’s claim about the installation’s "whimsical yet perplexing experience." Instead, the specific details describing the installation emphasize and support the previous claim. Choice B is incorrect because "instead" illogically signals that the description in this sentence is an alternative to the previous sentence’s claim about the installation’s "whimsical yet perplexing experience." Rather, the specific details describing the installation emphasize and support that claim. Choice D is incorrect because "nevertheless" illogically signals that the description in this sentence is true despite the previous sentence’s claim about the installation’s "whimsical yet perplexing experience." Instead, the specific details describing the installation emphasize and support that claim.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID cfade68d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: cfade68d

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:  

    • Marcela Guerrero is a curator at the Whitney Museum of American Art in New York. 
    • She curated the Whitney’s 2018 exhibition Pacha, Llaqta, Wasichay: Indigenous Space, Modern Architecture, New Art.
    • This exhibition featured works by seven emerging Latino artists.
    • She curated the Whitney’s 2020 exhibition Vida Americana: Mexican Muralists Remake American Art, 1925–1945.
    • This exhibition included nearly 200 works by twentieth-century Latino and Mexican artists.

    The student wants to describe the exhibition that Guerrero curated in 2018. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Held at the Whitney Museum of American Art, the exhibition Vida Americana: Mexican Muralists Remake American Art, 1925–1945 included nearly 200 works by twentieth-century Mexican and Latino artists.

    • Pacha, Llaqta, Wasichay: Indigenous Space, Modern Architecture, New Art, an exhibition at the Whitney Museum of American Art, featured works by seven emerging Latino artists. 

    • In both 2018 and 2020, Marcela Guerrero curated exhibitions at the Whitney Museum of American Art in New York.

    • While one exhibition that Marcela Guerrero curated featured works by emerging artists, another included works by twentieth-century artists. 

    ID: cfade68d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence describes the 2018 exhibition Guerrero curated, noting that the exhibition, which was titled Pacha, Llaqta, Wasichay: Indigenous Space, Modern Architecture, New Art, featured the works of seven emerging Latino artists.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence describes the exhibition Guerrero curated in 2020; it doesn’t describe her 2018 exhibition. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between the two exhibitions Guerrero curated; it doesn’t describe her 2018 exhibition. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a difference between the two exhibitions Guerrero curated; it doesn’t describe her 2018 exhibition.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID d3725911

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: d3725911

    In the search for extraterrestrial life, astrobiologists Stuart Bartlett and Michael L. Wong propose that scientists avoid using the term “life.” blank researchers should use another word: “lyfe.” This new term, they argue, could be used to draw distinctions between the known characteristics of life on Earth and the potentially differing characteristics of lyfe on other planets.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Previously,

    • Regardless,

    • There,

    • Instead,

    ID: d3725911 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "Instead" logically signals that the idea in this sentence—that researchers should use the word "lyfe"—is an alternative to the idea mentioned in the previous sentence (scientists’ use of the word "life").

    Choice A is incorrect because "previously" illogically signals that the idea in this sentence occurs before the action in the first sentence. Instead, the use of "lyfe" is an alternative to the previously mentioned use of "life." Choice B is incorrect because "regardless" illogically signals that the idea in this sentence is true despite the information in the first sentence. Instead, the use of "lyfe" is an alternative to the previously mentioned use of "life." Choice C is incorrect because "there" illogically signals that the idea in this sentence occurs in a place mentioned in the previous sentence. Instead, the use of "lyfe" is an alternative to the previously mentioned use of "life."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 9f1a0d91

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 9f1a0d91

    “Tulip mania”—the rapid rise and sudden fall of the price of tulip bulbs in seventeenth-century Amsterdam—is often cited as an example of the perils of rampant market speculation. However, recent research has demonstrated that the episode was neither as frenzied nor as disastrous as has been thought. The popular myth surrounding it, blank should be regarded with some skepticism.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • for example,

    • by contrast,

    • nevertheless,

    • therefore,

    ID: 9f1a0d91 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. This sentence is arguing that new evidence contradicting popular beliefs about “tulip mania” should cast doubt on those beliefs. “Therefore” is a cause-and-effect transition, which fits perfectly in this context.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice uses an exemplification transition, which doesn’t make sense here. Skepticism about the popular beliefs is not an example of recent evidence contradicting those beliefs—rather, skepticism is an effect of that recent evidence. Choice B is incorrect. This choice uses a disagreement transition. But this sentence doesn’t disagree with the previous sentence. Instead, it connects a cause from the previous sentence (new evidence that tulip mania was not as disastrous as thought) to an effect (that we should look with skepticism upon the myth about its disastrousness). Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses a disagreement transition. But this sentence doesn’t disagree with the previous sentence. Instead, it connects a cause from the previous sentence (new evidence that tulip mania was not as disastrous as thought) to an effect (that we should look with skepticism upon the myth about its disastrousness).

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID a2bff07e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: a2bff07e

    Economist Elinor Ostrom’s studies of communities around the world have empirically demonstrated that common pool resources, such as grazing lands, can be sustainably managed by the people who use them (rather than through private entities or centralized governments). blank Ostrom’s work is a repudiation of the “tragedy of the commons,” the view that individuals will inevitably overexploit a finite shared resource if given unfettered access to it.  

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • By contrast,

    • For example,

    • That said, 

    • As such,

    ID: a2bff07e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "As such" correctly signals that the claim in this sentence—that Ostrom’s work is a repudiation of the "tragedy of the commons" view—follows logically from the information about Ostrom’s studies in the previous sentence. According to that sentence, Ostrom’s studies demonstrate that common pool resources can in fact be sustainably managed by the people who use them.

    Choice A is incorrect because "by contrast" illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the information about Ostrom’s studies in the previous sentence. Instead, the claim that Ostrom’s work repudiates the "tragedy of the commons" view follows logically from that information. Choice B is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the claim in this sentence exemplifies the information about Ostrom’s studies in the previous sentence. Instead, the claim that Ostrom’s work repudiates the "tragedy of the commons" view follows logically from that information. Choice C is incorrect because "that said" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is an exception or caveat to the information about Ostrom’s studies in the previous sentence. Instead, the claim that Ostrom’s work repudiates the "tragedy of the commons" view follows logically from that information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 804928b6

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 804928b6

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Mary Kang is a Korean American portrait photographer.
    • She is based in New York City and in Austin, Texas.
    • One of Kang’s photographs features artist Dominique Fung.
    • In the portrait, Fung is seated on the floor.
    • Five of Fung’s paintings are resting against the wall behind her.

    The student wants to describe where Fung is in the photograph to an audience already familiar with Kang and Fung. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal? 

    • Dominique Fung is in a photograph by Mary Kang, a portrait photographer based in New York City and Austin, Texas.

    • Mary Kang is a photographer based in both New York City and Austin, Texas.

    • Five paintings by artist Dominique Fung can be seen in the background of Mary Kang’s photograph.  

    • In Kang’s portrait of her, Fung is seated on the floor, with five of her paintings resting against the wall behind her.

    ID: 804928b6 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence describes Fung’s location in Kang’s photograph, noting that Fung is seated on the floor. Additionally, because the sentence is intended for an audience already familiar with the artists, it omits the artists’ first names and other biographical information about them.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence indicates that Fung appears in Kang’s photograph; it doesn’t describe Fung’s location in Kang’s photograph. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence identifies Kang and where she is based; it doesn’t describe Fung’s location in Kang’s photograph. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence describes the background of Kang’s photograph; it doesn’t describe Fung’s location in Kang’s photograph.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 3c925481

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 3c925481

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Pineapple is a fruit that contains ascorbic acid, an essential nutrient for humans.
    • Every 100 grams (g) of pineapple contains 48 milligrams (mg) of ascorbic acid.
    • Many animals can make ascorbic acid in their bodies, but humans cannot.
    • Humans must get ascorbic acid from foods, including fruits and vegetables.
    • Ascorbic acid is also known as vitamin C.

    The student wants to provide an example of a fruit that contains vitamin C. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Humans cannot make ascorbic acid in their bodies, but they can get it from foods, such as fruits, for example.

    • Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, can be found in pineapple as well as other fruits.

    • Since humans cannot make vitamin C in their bodies, they must get it from food.

    • Many animals can make ascorbic acid, which is also known as vitamin C, in their bodies, but humans cannot. 

    ID: 3c925481 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence provides an example of a fruit that contains vitamin C, noting that vitamin C (also known as ascorbic acid) can be found in pineapple as well as other fruits.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence does explain that humans can get vitamin C from fruits, it doesn’t provide an example of a specific fruit that contains vitamin C. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence explains why humans must get vitamin C from foods; it doesn’t provide an example of a fruit that contains vitamin C. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence compares vitamin C production in animals with vitamin C production in humans; it doesn’t provide an example of a fruit that contains vitamin C.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 17e49403

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 17e49403

    When, in the 1800s, geologists first realized that much of Earth had once been covered by great sheets of ice, some theorized that the phenomenon was cyclical, occurring at regular intervals. Each Ice Age is so destructive, though, that it largely erases the geological evidence of its predecessor. blank geologists were unable to confirm the theory of cyclical Ice Ages until the 1960s.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Hence,

    • Moreover,

    • Nevertheless,

    • Next,

    ID: 17e49403 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. “Hence” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that geologists couldn’t confirm the theory of cyclical Ice Ages until the 1960s—is a consequence of the previous information about the destructiveness of each Ice Age and the erasure of necessary geological evidence.  

    Choice B is incorrect because “moreover” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is merely additional to the previous information about the destructiveness of each Ice Age. Instead, the sentence  identifies a specific consequence of that information. Choice C is incorrect because “nevertheless” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is true despite the previous information about the destructiveness of each Ice Age. Instead, the sentence identifies a specific consequence of that information. Choice D is incorrect because “next” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is the next step in a process. Instead, the sentence identifies a specific consequence of the previous information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 25755def

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 25755def

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Generally, an object will heat up when twisted.
    • The twisting of an object is known as torsion.
    • A 2019 study led by Zunfeng Liu and Ray Baughman tested the torsional heating of various fibers.
    • When a 3-millimeter-thick sample of thermoplastic polyurethane (TPU) fiber was twisted, its average surface temperature increased by 6°C.
    • When a 4-millimeter-thick sample of styrene-ethylene-butylene-styrene (SEBS) rubber fiber was twisted, its average surface temperature increased by 3.5°C.

    The student wants to contrast the two samples. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal? 

    • When the fibers were twisted as part of the 2019 study, the surface temperature of both samples increased.

    • In 2019, researchers studied the effect of torsional heating on various fibers, including samples of SEBS rubber and TPU.

    • Twisting an object will generally cause its temperature to increase, a process known as torsional heating.

    • The SEBS rubber sample used in the 2019 study was thicker than the TPU sample.

    ID: 25755def Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence contrasts the two samples, noting that the SEBS rubber sample, at 4 millimeters thick, was thicker than the TPU sample, which was 3 millimeters thick.

    Choice A is incorrect because the sentence mentions a similarity between the TPU fiber and the SEBS rubber; it doesn’t contrast the two samples. Choice B is incorrect because the sentence indicates that both the SEBS rubber and TPU samples were part of the 2019 study; it doesn’t contrast the two samples. Choice C is incorrect because the sentence describes the process of torsional heating; it doesn’t contrast the two samples.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 5222ffab

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 5222ffab

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Neuroscientists Krishnan Padmanabhan and Zhen Chen sought to better understand the workings of the brain’s olfactory system.
    • They devised a study using mathematical models.
    • They found that certain fibers allow the brain to toggle from one method of processing smells to another.
    • In one method, cells in the piriform cortex (where the perception of odor forms) capture olfactory information at a given moment.
    • In the other, the cells track changes in olfactory information over time.

    The student wants to summarize the study’s findings. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • To arrive at these findings, which describe dual methods of processing smells in the piriform cortex, Padmanabhan and Chen devised a study using mathematical models.

    • Padmanabhan and Chen showed that olfactory information is captured by cells in the piriform cortex, where the perception of odor forms.

    • Using mathematical models, Padmanabhan and Chen devised a study to better understand the workings of the brain’s olfactory system.

    • According to Padmanabhan and Chen, the brain can toggle between capturing olfactory information at a given moment and tracking changes in that information over time.

    ID: 5222ffab Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence effectively summarizes the study’s findings, explaining what Padmanabhan and Chen found: that the brain can toggle between one method of processing smells (capturing information at a given moment) and another (tracking changes in information over time). 

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence mentions findings, it mainly focuses on Padmanabhan and Chen’s methodology. It doesn’t effectively summarize the study’s findings. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence notes a fact about the olfactory system—that the perception of odor forms in the piriform cortex—but doesn’t summarize the findings of Padmanabhan and Chen’s study. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence presents the goal of Padmanabhan and Chen’s study; it doesn’t summarize the study’s findings.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 4223d4a6

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 4223d4a6

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In 1965, Yale University historians claimed that a world map called the Vinland Map was drawn in the fifteenth century.
    • Since that time, the map’s age has been the subject of debate.
    • In 2021, researchers conducted a study to analyze the elemental composition of the map’s ink.
    • Their analysis revealed that the ink contains a titanium compound not used in inks until the 1920s.
    • The researchers concluded that the map was drawn in the twentieth century.

    The student wants to present the study and its findings. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal? 

    • Given the debate about the Vinland Map’s age, researchers in 2021 conducted a study to analyze the elemental composition of the map’s ink.

    • A 2021 study of the Vinland Map’s ink revealed that it contains a titanium compound not used in inks until the 1920s, indicating that the map was drawn in the twentieth century.

    • The Vinland Map, believed by some to have been drawn in the fifteenth century, was the focus of a 2021 study.

    • Aware that a certain titanium compound was not used in inks until the 1920s, researchers in 2021 studied the elemental composition of the Vinland Map’s ink.

    ID: 4223d4a6 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence effectively presents the study and its findings, providing relevant information: a 2021 study of the Vinland Map found that the map’s ink contains a compound not used in inks until the twentieth century.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence introduces the study, it does not present the study’s findings. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the study, it does not effectively present the study or its findings. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence introduces the study, it does not present the study’s findings.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 7aac173e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 7aac173e

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Architect Julian Abele studied Gregorian and neo-Gothic architecture in Europe.
    • Abele worked for an architecture firm that was hired in 1924 to design buildings for Duke University’s new campus.
    • Most of the buildings on Duke’s campus were designed in the Gregorian or neo-Gothic architectural styles.
    • At the time, Abele was not formally credited with designing the buildings.
    • Based on the buildings’ architectural styles, historians believe Abele designed most of the campus buildings.

    The student wants to specify why historians believe Abele designed most of Duke’s campus buildings. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Given that most of the buildings on Duke’s campus feature architectural styles that Abele had studied in Europe, historians believe Abele is the one who designed them.

    • Though Abele wasn’t formally credited at the time, historians believe he designed most of the buildings on Duke’s campus.

    • Most of Duke’s campus buildings, which were designed by a firm Abele worked for, were designed in the Gregorian and neo-Gothic architectural styles.

    • Abele, an architect who studied Gregorian and neo-Gothic architecture in Europe, is believed to have designed most of the buildings on Duke’s campus.

    ID: 7aac173e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence specifies why historians believe Abele designed most of Duke’s campus buildings, noting that most of the buildings feature architectural styles that Abele had studied.

    Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence explains that historians believe Abele designed most of Duke’s campus buildings, it doesn’t specify why historians hold that belief. Choice C is incorrect because the sentence emphasizes the architectural styles of Duke’s campus buildings; it doesn’t specify why historians believe Abele designed the buildings. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence explains that Abele is believed to have designed most of the buildings on Duke’s campus, it doesn’t specify why historians believe that he designed the buildings.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 72ae9bca

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 72ae9bca

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In the early 1900s, suffragists organized marches for women’s voting rights.
    • Suffragists in the United Kingdom marched from Edinburgh to London.
    • This march began on October 12, 1912, and ended on November 16, 1912.
    • Suffragists in the United States marched from New York City to Albany, New York.
    • This march began on December 16, 1912, and ended on December 28, 1912.

    The student wants to emphasize the order in which the two marches occurred. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • After suffragists in the UK marched from Edinburgh to London, suffragists in the US marched from New York City to Albany, New York. 

    • In the early 1900s, suffragists in the UK and the US marched for women’s voting rights.

    • A march from New York City to Albany, New York, was followed by one that began in Edinburgh and ended in London.             

    • From October 12 to November 16, 1912, suffragists in the UK marched from Edinburgh to London.

    ID: 72ae9bca Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the order in which the two marches occurred, correctly indicating that the US march (December 16 to December 28, 1912) occurred after the march in the UK (October 12 to November 16, 1912).

    Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence mentions that both marches took place in the early 1900s, it doesn’t emphasize the order in which the two marches occurred. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence does emphasize the order in which the two marches occurred, the order is incorrect. The UK march took place from October 12 to November 16, 1912, which was before the US march (December 1912). Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence specifies the dates of the UK march, it doesn’t mention the US march or emphasize the order in which the two marches occurred.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID edf30612

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: edf30612

    In the late twentieth century, scholars directed much discussion toward issues of spatiality. Adherents to quantitative analytical approaches delineated space with the use of GIS spatial technologies; blank cultural geographer Doreen Massey defined space as the product of “an ever-shifting social geometry of power and signification,” focusing instead on socio-political forces.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • for example,

    • by contrast,

    • as such,

    • likewise,

    ID: edf30612 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "By contrast" logically signals that the information about how Massey defined space—by focusing on socio-political forces—contrasts with the information in the previous clause, which discusses quantitative analytical approaches and spatial technologies.

    Choice A is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the information that follows in the sentence exemplifies the quantitative analytical approaches to defining space described previously. Instead, the information about Massey’s socio-political focus presents a contrasting approach. Choice C is incorrect because "as such" illogically signals that the information that follows in the sentence is a direct result or logical consequence of the quantitative analytical approaches to defining space described previously. Instead, the information about Massey’s socio-political focus presents a contrasting approach. Choice D is incorrect because "likewise" illogically signals that the information that follows in the sentence is similar to the quantitative analytical approaches to defining space described previously. Instead, the information about Massey’s socio-political focus presents a contrasting approach.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 974b5a8c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 974b5a8c

    The Madison is a type of line dance that involves neat rows of dancers performing a repeated sequence of steps in unison. blank many other dances are also defined by order, repetition, and synchronicity, but the Madison is distinguished by its extreme uniformity; when an auditorium full of dancers performs the Madison, one almost gets the impression of a military march.  

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • However,

    • Of course,

    • Specifically,

    • Moreover,

    ID: 974b5a8c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "Of course" logically signals that the information that follows—about many dances being "defined by order, repetition, and synchronicity"—acknowledges an obvious similarity between these dances and the previous description of the Madison. The sentence then goes on to emphasize a distinguishing feature of the Madison.

    Choice A is incorrect because "however" illogically signals that the information that follows contrasts with the previous description of the Madison. Instead, the information about many dances’ features acknowledges an obvious similarity between these dances and the Madison. The sentence then goes on to emphasize a distinguishing feature of the Madison. Choice C is incorrect because "specifically" illogically signals that the information that follows specifies or elaborates on the previous description of the Madison. Instead, the information about many dances’ features acknowledges an obvious similarity between these dances and the Madison. The sentence then goes on to emphasize a distinguishing feature of the Madison. Choice D is incorrect because "moreover" illogically signals that the information that follows adds to or expands on the previous description of the Madison. Instead, the information about many dances’ features acknowledges an obvious similarity between these dances and the Madison. The sentence then goes on to emphasize a distinguishing feature of the Madison.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 3dcc7140

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 3dcc7140

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Nissologists are scientists who study islands.
    • Some nissologists define an island as any piece of land surrounded by water.
    • Using that definition, they determined that Sweden has 221,000 islands.
    • Other nissologists define an island as being 1 kilometer square, a certain distance from the mainland, and having at least 50 permanent residents.
    • Using that definition, they determined that Sweden has 24 islands.

    The student wants to make and support a generalization about nissologists’ definition of an island. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish these goals?

    • The definition of an island as any piece of land surrounded by water is supported by some nissologists, scientists who study islands.

    • Multiple counts of Sweden’s islands have been based on different definitions of an island.

    • Based on a recent count, Sweden has a relatively small number of islands with at least 50 permanent residents.

    • Nissologists’ different definitions can result in huge disparities in counts of islands, as the example of Sweden shows.

    ID: 3dcc7140 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence makes a generalization about nissologists’ definition of an island—specifically, that the use of one definition rather than another can result in huge disparities in the number of islands counted—and supports that generalization by citing Sweden as an example.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence introduces one definition of an island to an audience unfamiliar with nissologists; it doesn’t make a generalization about nissologists’ definition of an island. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence synthesizes information from the notes about counts of Sweden’s islands, it doesn’t make and support a generalization about nissologists’ definition of an island. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence makes an inference about islands in Sweden; it doesn’t mention nissologists’ definition of an island or make a generalization about it. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID b7571c0a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: b7571c0a

    Practical movie effects, such as the use of actual locations in a film, provide a more realistic visual experience than computer-generated imagery (CGI) does, but giving audiences the “real thing” can be prohibitively expensive. blank many filmmakers use a blended approach, employing practical effects whenever possible and CGI elements as necessary to control costs.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Similarly,

    • For this reason,

    • Furthermore,

    • In other words,

    ID: b7571c0a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The first sentence tells us that practical effects are more realistic but also more expensive than CGI. The second sentence tells us that many filmmakers use both kinds of effects, balancing realism with cost. To connect these ideas, we need a cause-and-effect transition, like “therefore.” “For this reason” has the same meaning as “therefore.” .

    Choice A is incorrect. This isn’t a logical transition. The first sentence tells us that practical effects are more realistic but also more expensive than CGI. The second sentence tells us that many filmmakers use both kinds of effects, balancing realism with cost. To connect these ideas, we need a cause-and-effect transition, like “therefore.” “Similarly” doesn’t show cause and effect: it shows the addition of another agreeing idea. Choice C is incorrect. This isn’t a logical transition. The first sentence tells us that practical effects are more realistic but also more expensive than CGI. The second sentence tells us that many filmmakers use both kinds of effects, balancing realism with cost. To connect these ideas, we need a cause-and-effect transition, like “therefore.” “Furthermore” doesn’t show cause and effect: it shows the addition of another agreeing idea. Choice D is incorrect. This isn’t a logical transition. The first sentence tells us that practical effects are more realistic but also more expensive than CGI. The second sentence tells us that many filmmakers use both kinds of effects, balancing realism with cost. To connect these ideas, we need a cause-and-effect transition, like “therefore.” “In other words” doesn’t show cause and effect: it shows a restatement of the same idea in different words. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 1e31470f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 1e31470f

    To perform a quad axel, a figure skater must leap into the air and complete four and a half rotations before landing, an extreme feat. blank in 2022, when 17-year-old Ilia Malinin landed the first quad axel—considered the most difficult quad jump—in a high-level competition, the audience was left awestruck.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Moreover,

    • Fittingly,

    • Next,

    • However,

    ID: 1e31470f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "Fittingly" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that the audience was amazed when Malinin landed the first quad axel—describes a suitable or appropriate reaction to the completion of this extremely difficult jump.

    Choice A is incorrect. "Moreover" illogically signals that the information in this sentence merely adds to the previous information about the difficulty of completing a quad axel. Instead, the audience’s amazement is a suitable or appropriate reaction to this accomplishment. Choice C is incorrect. "Next" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is simply the next step in a process. Instead, the audience’s amazement is a suitable or appropriate reaction to the accomplishment. Choice D is incorrect. "However" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is in contrast or an exception to the difficulty of completing a quad axel. Instead, the audience’s amazement is a suitable or appropriate reaction to this accomplishment.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 1ccfcea4

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 1ccfcea4

    The French directors Colas Koola and Vivien Mermet-Guyenet (known as Koola and Viv) founded the video game studio BlueTwelve. They also love cats. blank they created an award-winning cat video game, Stray (2021), that lets the player explore a dystopian city from the perspective of a clever orange house cat.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Intermittently,

    • On the other hand,

    • In fact,

    • Nevertheless,

    ID: 1ccfcea4 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. "In fact" logically signals that the information in this sentence about the creation of the video game offers additional emphasis in support of the previous claim that video game studio founders Koola and Viv love cats.

    Choice A is incorrect because "intermittently" illogically signals that the information in this sentence occurs sporadically or in intervals. Instead, the creation of the video game offers additional emphasis in support of the previous claim about Koola and Viv. Choice B is incorrect because "on the other hand" illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the previous claim about Koola and Viv. Instead, the creation of the video game offers additional emphasis in support of that claim. Choice D is incorrect because "nevertheless" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is true despite the previous claim that Koola and Viv love cats. Instead, the creation of the video game offers additional emphasis in support of that claim.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 45eaf7fb

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 45eaf7fb

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Tecozautla is a municipality in the state of Hidalgo, Mexico.
    • Municipalities are governmental regions responsible for providing many public services to their residents.
    • One service they provide is street lighting. 
    • Tecozautla covers an area of roughly 535 km squared.
    • Hidalgo is divided into 84 municipalities.

    The student wants to emphasize the size of Tecozautla. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The municipality of Tecozautla in Hidalgo, Mexico, covers an area of roughly 535 km squared.

    • Providing street lighting is just one example of the public services that municipalities provide.

    • Tecozautla is one of 84 governmental regions, known as municipalities, across Hidalgo.

    • Tecozautla—a governmental region in the state of Hidalgo, Mexico—provides many public services to its residents.

    ID: 45eaf7fb Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the size of Tecozautla, noting that it covers an area of roughly 535 km squared.

    Choice B is incorrect. The sentence gives an example of a public service that municipalities provide; it doesn’t emphasize the size of Tecozautla. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence provides information about Tecozautla, it doesn’t emphasize Tecozautla’s size. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence provides information about Tecozautla, it doesn’t emphasize Tecozautla’s size.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID d54e16ee

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: d54e16ee

    Originally coined by economist Joan Robinson to refer to markets with multiple sellers of a product but only one buyer, the term “monopsony” can also refer to markets where demand for labor is limited. In a product monopsony, the single buyer can force sellers to lower their prices. blank in a labor monopsony, employers can force workers to accept lower wages.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Earlier,

    • Instead,

    • Similarly,

    • In particular,

    ID: d54e16ee Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. “Similarly” logically signals that the information in this sentence about a labor monopsony is similar to the information in the previous sentence about a product monopsony. In both types of markets, one party (an employer or a buyer) has the power to force another party (a worker or seller) to accept less money (for labor or products).  

    Choice A is incorrect because “earlier” illogically signals that the information in this sentence about a labor monopsony occurs earlier (in a chronological sequence) than the information about a product monopsony. Instead, it is similar to the information about a product monopsony. Choice B is incorrect because “instead” illogically signals that the information in this sentence about a labor monopsony is an alternative to the previous information about a product monopsony. Instead, it is similar to the information about a product monopsony.  Choice D is incorrect because “in particular” illogically signals that the information in this sentence about a labor monopsony provides specific details elaborating on the previous information about a product monopsony. Instead, it is similar to the information about a product monopsony.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID a1ca7ec4

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: a1ca7ec4

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Cecilia Vicuña is a multidisciplinary artist.
    • In 1971, her first solo art exhibition, Pinturas, poemas y explicaciones, was shown at the Museo Nacional de Bellas Artes in Santiago, Chile.
    • Her poetry collection Precario/Precarious was published in 1983 by Tanam Press.
    • Her poetry collection Instan was published in 2002 by Kelsey St. Press.
    • She lives part time in Chile, where she was born, and part time in New York.

    The student wants to introduce the artist’s 1983 poetry collection. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Before she published the books Precario/Precarious (1983) and Instan (2002), Cecilia Vicuña exhibited visual art at the Museo Nacional de Bellas Artes in Santiago, Chile.

    • Cecilia Vicuña is a true multidisciplinary artist whose works include numerous poetry collections and visual art exhibitions.

    • Published in 1983 by Tanam Press, Precario/Precarious is a collection of poetry by the multidisciplinary artist Cecilia Vicuña.

    • In 1971, Cecilia Vicuña exhibited her first solo art exhibition, Pinturas, poemas y explicaciones, in Chile, her country of birth.

    ID: a1ca7ec4 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence effectively introduces the poetry collection Precario/Precarious, noting that it is a collection by Vicuña that was published in 1983 by Tanam Press.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the 1983 poetry collection Precario/Precarious, it focuses mainly on Vicuña’s visual art. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence doesn’t introduce the 1983 poetry collection Precario/Precarious; instead, it introduces Vicuña. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the location of Vicuña’s 1971 exhibition Pinturas, poemas y explicaciones; it doesn’t introduce the 1983 poetry collection Precario/Precarious.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 47e238be

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 47e238be

    Seismologists Kaiqing Yuan and Barbara Romanowicz have proposed that the magma fueling Iceland’s more than 30 active volcano systems emerges from deep within Earth. The great depths involved—nearly 3,000 km—mark Iceland’s volcanoes as extreme outliers; blank many of Earth’s volcanoes are fed by shallow pockets of magma found less than 15 km below the surface.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • indeed,

    • nevertheless,

    • in addition,

    • consequently,

    ID: 47e238be Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The second part of the sentence says that many volcanoes use shallow pockets of magma. This is an elaboration of the same underlying idea from the first part of the sentence, which says that the super deep magma of Icelandic volcanoes’ makes them outliers. “Indeed” is a transition used for elaborating on the same idea, so it fits the context perfectly.

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice uses a disagreement transition. But these two parts of the sentence agree with each other, so “nevertheless” doesn’t make sense. Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates the addition of a new idea. But the second part of the sentence isn’t adding a new idea: it’s elaborating on the same idea expressed in the first part of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses a cause-and-effect transition, which doesn’t make sense here. The fact that Iceland’s deep-magma volcanoes are outliers doesn’t cause many other volcanoes to get fed by shallow pockets of magma.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 4c26f18a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 4c26f18a

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • By interlocking their bodies, ants can form bridges to help fellow ants cross gaps.
    • In 2020, Yasemin Ozkan-Aydin was inspired by ant behavior to design collaborative quadruped robots. 
    • Over the course of a year, she designed, built, tested, and refined her robots.
    • Each robot is programmed to send a signal to another robot upon encountering a gap in a path.
    • The signaled robot connects to the back of the signaler robot via magnetic sensors and pushes it across the gap.

    The student wants to begin a narrative about the creation of the robots. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • When one of Yasemin Ozkan-Aydin’s robots encounters a gap in its path, it sends a signal to another robot; the signaled robot connects to the back of the signaler and pushes it across the gap.

    • After a year, Yasemin Ozkan-Aydin had designed, built, tested, and refined her robots.

    • Inspired by ants, which form bridges with their interlocked bodies to help fellow ants cross gaps, Yasemin Ozkan-Aydin set out to design quadruped robots capable of similarly collaborative behavior.

    • Ants, which have inspired the design of robots, form bridges by interlocking their bodies. 

    ID: 4c26f18a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence effectively begins a narrative about the creation of the robots, explaining that ants’ gap-crossing technique inspired Yasemin Ozkan-Aydin to "set out to design" robots that could collaborate in a similar manner.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence describes how the robots work together to cross gaps; it doesn’t effectively begin a narrative about the creation of the robots. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence provides an overview of the steps Ozkan-Aydin took in creating the robots; it doesn’t effectively begin a narrative about their creation. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence explains how ants form bridges; it doesn’t effectively begin a narrative about the creation of the robots.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID a064955f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: a064955f

    In most deer species, males grow antlers, and females don’t. blank reindeer are different. They are the only deer species in which the females grow antlers, too.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Similarly,

    • Next,

    • However,

    • Thus,

    ID: a064955f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. "However" logically signals that the claim about reindeer in this sentence contrasts with the information about most deer species in the previous sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because "similarly" illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is similar to the previous information about most deer species. Instead, it contrasts with that information. Choice B is incorrect because "next" illogically signals that the claim about reindeer in this sentence is the next step in a process. Instead, it contrasts with the previous information about most deer species. Choice D is incorrect because "thus" illogically signals that the claim in this sentence results from the previous information about most deer species. Instead, it contrasts with that information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID d7c5388f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: d7c5388f

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Planetary scientists classify asteroids based on their composition.
    • C-type asteroids are composed primarily of carbon.
    • They account for roughly 75 percent of known asteroids.
    • S-type asteroids are primarily made up of silicate minerals.
    • They account for roughly 17 percent of known asteroids.

    The student wants to emphasize a difference between C-type and S-type asteroids. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal? 

    • Planetary scientists classify asteroids into types, two of which are the C-type and the S-type.

    • Planetary scientists consider an asteroid’s composition (such as whether the asteroid is composed mainly of silicate minerals or carbon) when classifying it.

    • Roughly 17 percent of known asteroids are classified as S-type asteroids; another percentage is classified as C-type asteroids. 

    • C-type asteroids are mainly composed of carbon, whereas S-type asteroids are primarily made up of silicate minerals.

    ID: d7c5388f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a difference between C-type and S-type asteroids, noting that C-type asteroids are mainly composed of carbon, while S-type asteroids are mainly composed of silicate minerals.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence states that C-type and S-type are two types of asteroids, but it doesn’t emphasize a difference between them. Choice B is incorrect because it doesn’t directly mention C-type or S-type asteroids. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence mentions that 17 percent of known asteroids are S-type asteroids, it doesn’t identify the percentage of asteroids that are C-type. Therefore, the sentence doesn’t emphasize a difference between the two types.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID dd087f31

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: dd087f31

    Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie’s 2013 novel Americanah chronicles the divergent experiences of Ifemelu and Obinze, a young Nigerian couple, after high school. Ifemelu moves to the United States to attend a prestigious university. blank Obinze travels to London, hoping to start a career there. However, frustrated with the lack of opportunities, he soon returns to Nigeria.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Meanwhile,

    • Nevertheless,

    • Secondly,

    • In fact,

    ID: dd087f31 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. “Meanwhile” logically signals that the action described in this sentence (Obinze’s move to London to pursue a career) is simultaneous with the action described in the previous sentence (Ifemelu’s move to the United States). The first sentence establishes that the actions take place around the same time, referring to the characters’ “divergent experiences” following high school.  

    Choice B is incorrect because “nevertheless” illogically signals that the information in this sentence about Obinze’s move to London is true despite the previous information about Ifemelu’s move to the United States. Instead, as the first sentence establishes, Obinze’s move and Ifemelu’s move are related, parallel experiences that occur around the same time. Choice C is incorrect because “secondly” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a second point or reason separate from the previous information about Ifemelu’s move to the United States. Instead, as the first sentence establishes, Obinze’s move and Ifemelu’s move are related, parallel experiences that occur around the same time. Choice D is incorrect because “in fact” illogically signals that the information in this sentence emphasizes, modifies, or contradicts the previous information about Ifemelu’s move to the United States. Instead, as the first sentence establishes, Obinze’s move and Ifemelu’s move are related, parallel experiences that occur around the same time. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 6d883838

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 6d883838

    According to Duverger’s law, countries with single-ballot majoritarian elections for single-member districts tend to polarize into two-party systems, wherein dueling political parties consistently dominate the political system. blank countries with proportional-representation electoral systems tend to support multi-partyism, under which power gets distributed among many political parties.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Subsequently,

    • Conversely,

    • For instance,

    • In other words,

    ID: 6d883838 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "Conversely" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that countries with proportional-representation electoral systems tend toward multi-partyism—contrasts with the previous information about countries with single-ballot majoritarian elections, which tend to have two-party systems.

    Choice A is incorrect because "subsequently" illogically signals that the information in this sentence about countries with proportional-representation electoral systems occurs later in a chronological sequence of events than the information in the previous sentence. Instead, it contrasts with the previous information. Choice C is incorrect because "for instance" illogically signals that the information in this sentence about countries with proportional-representation electoral systems is an example supporting the previous statement about countries with single-ballot majoritarian elections. Instead, it contrasts with the previous statement. Choice D is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that the information in this sentence about countries with proportional-representation electoral systems is a paraphrase or restatement of the previous information about countries with single-ballot majoritarian elections. Instead, it contrasts with the previous information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID e965fd73

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: e965fd73

    Preston Singletary is a Tlingit glass artist who often collaborates with other artists. blank he has worked with Tewa pottery artist Jody Naranjo several times. Together, Singletary and Naranjo have created pottery-inspired glass pieces such as Sunset Stampede and Kiva Steps.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • In conclusion, 

    • For example,

    • However,

    • In comparison, 

    ID: e965fd73 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "For example" logically signals that this sentence—noting Singletary’s work with Jody Naranjo—provides an example supporting the previous point about Singletary’s collaborations with other artists.

    Choice A is incorrect because "in conclusion" illogically signals that the information in this sentence concludes or summarizes the previous point about Singletary’s collaborations with other artists. Instead, it provides an example in support of that point. Choice C is incorrect because "however" illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the previous point about Singletary’s collaborations with other artists. Instead, it provides an example in support of that point. Choice D is incorrect because "in comparison" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is being compared to the previous point about Singletary’s collaborations with other artists. Instead, it provides an example in support of that point.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 5c58cec0

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 5c58cec0

    To guarantee the validity of experimental results, scientists rely on precise, unchanging standards of measurement. blank metrologists (scientists who study measurement) developed the SI, or International System of Units. The SI’s units of measurement are based on unchanging values in nature, such as the mass of an electron or the speed of light.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • In contrast,

    • Regardless,

    • In addition,

    • For this reason,

    ID: 5c58cec0 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "For this reason" logically signals that the information that follows—that metrologists developed the SI based on unchanging values in nature—is a result of the previous claim that scientists rely on precise, unchanging standards of measurement to guarantee the validity of experimental results.

    Choice A is incorrect because "in contrast" illogically signals that the information that follows contrasts with the previous claim that scientists rely on precise, unchanging standards of measurement. Instead, the information that metrologists developed the SI based on unchanging values in nature is a result of that claim. Choice B is incorrect because "regardless" illogically signals that the information that follows is true despite the previous claim that scientists rely on precise, unchanging standards of measure. Instead, the information that metrologists developed the SI based on unchanging values in nature is a result of that claim. Choice C is incorrect because "in addition" illogically signals that the information that follows is merely an additional fact related to the previous claim that scientists rely on precise, unchanging standards of measurement. Instead, the information that metrologists developed the SI based on unchanging values in nature is a result of that claim.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 0778b4ac

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 0778b4ac

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Chromosomes are cellular structures that contain genes.
    • Genes carry critical instructions for determining an organism’s physical traits.
    • Members of the same species typically have the same number of chromosomes.
    • The pineapple (Ananas comosus) and the melon (Cucumis melo) are species of fruits.
    • The pineapple has fifty chromosomes.
    • The melon has twenty-four chromosomes.

    The student wants to specify how many chromosomes the pineapple has. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The pineapple’s chromosomes contain genes, which are critical to determining an organism’s physical traits.

    • The pineapple (Ananas comosus) has fifty chromosomes.

    • The pineapple (Ananas comosus) and the melon (Cucumis melo) both have chromosomes, but the pineapple has more than the melon does.  

    • The melon, a species of fruit, has twenty-four structures called chromosomes.

    ID: 0778b4ac Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence directly specifies how many chromosomes the pineapple has, as indicated in the notes: fifty.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the pineapple’s chromosomes, it doesn’t specify how many it has. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence indicates that the pineapple has more chromosomes than the melon; it doesn’t specify the exact number of chromosomes the pineapple has. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence specifies how many chromosomes the melon has, not how many the pineapple has.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 622a351d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 622a351d

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In 1978, Sámi activists staged protests to block the construction of a dam on the Alta River in Norway.
    • The dam would disrupt Sámi fishing and reindeer herding.
    • The dam was ultimately built, but the Alta conflict had a lasting impact.
    • It brought international attention to the issue of Sámi rights.
    • It led to a set of 2005 legal protections establishing Sámi rights to lands, waters, and resources.

    The student wants to make and support a generalization about the Alta conflict. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • During the Alta conflict, Sámi activists staged protests to block the construction of a dam on the Alta River in Norway that would disrupt local fishing and reindeer herding.

    • Although the dam that the Sámi activists had protested was ultimately built, the Alta conflict had a lasting impact.

    • Sámi rights to lands, waters, and resources received international attention and legal protections as a result of the Alta conflict.

    • The Alta conflict had a lasting impact, resulting in international attention and legal protections for Sámi rights to lands, waters, and resources.

    ID: 622a351d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. It makes a generalization—the conflict had a lasting impact—and then supports it with evidence—the attention and protections were results of the conflict.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t make a generalization about the conflict. It describes a specific event from the conflict. Choice B is incorrect. This choice makes a generalization about the Alta conflict, but doesn’t support it. Choice C is incorrect. This choice makes a statement about the aftermath of the conflict, but doesn’t support it. The statement is also a little too specific to be a generalization.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 5645f119

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 5645f119

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In a 2023 study, environmental scientist Jazmin Locke-Rodriguez and colleagues tested the use of floating treatment wetlands (FTWs) in Florida.
    • FTWs are artificial floating platforms of plants used to remediate polluted or nutrient-imbalanced water.
    • Finding: FTWs using marigold flowers removed 52% more total phosphorus than the control.
    • Finding: The test yielded 65 market-quality blooms per square meter.
    • The authors concluded marigolds showed “promising potential as a commercially viable remediating crop cultivated on FTWs in South Florida.”

    The student wants to present the findings of the study. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The authors concluded that marigolds grown on FTWs were “commercially viable,” having produced 65 blooms per square meter of market-quality blooms in a 2023 study.

    • In a 2023 study, Locke-Rodriguez and colleagues found that marigolds cultivated on FTWs produced 52% more market-quality flower blooms than the control.

    • Locke-Rodriguez and colleagues found that FTWs using marigolds not only helped remove phosphorus from the water but also yielded market-quality blooms.

    • FTWs using marigolds, Locke-Rodriguez and colleagues found, yielded 65 flower blooms and removed 52% of phosphorus from the water.

    ID: 5645f119 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence presents both findings from the study, noting that FTWs using marigolds both removed phosphorus from the water and yielded market-quality blooms.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence presents a finding from the study, the presentation is incomplete; the study found that marigolds cultivated on FTWs both removed phosphorus from the water and yielded market-quality blooms. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence misrepresents information in the notes. The figure of 52% refers to the amount of phosphorus removed by FTWs using marigolds when compared to the control; the marigolds’ bloom yield was 65 market-quality blooms per square meter, and it was not compared to the control. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence misrepresents information in the notes. The FTWs using marigolds removed 52% more phosphorus from the water than did the control, not 52% of the total phosphorus. Additionally, the bloom figure is incomplete; the figure is 65 market-quality flower blooms per square meter.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 0c13dea9

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 0c13dea9

    The chemical trimethylamine N-oxide not only gives fish their fishy smell but also protects them from crushing hydrostatic pressure in deep waters. Trimethylamine N-oxide strengthens the bonds between water molecules in a fish’s body. blank these water molecules maintain their linked structure at extreme depths, thus preventing pressure-related damage.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Nevertheless,

    • As a result,

    • However,

    • For instance,

    ID: 0c13dea9 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. “As a result” indicates that water molecules maintaining their linked structure at high pressures is caused by the strengthening of these water molecules by trimethylamine N-oxide. So the transition “as a result” fits the context perfectly.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice uses a disagreement transition. But this sentence doesn’t disagree with the previous one—rather, it’s describing an effect of the phenomenon described in the previous sentence. Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses a disagreement transition. But this sentence doesn’t disagree with the previous one; it actually expands on the previous sentence by describing an effect of the strengthened molecules. Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses an exemplification transition, which doesn’t make sense here. The second sentence doesn’t provide an example or instance of the idea in the previous sentence. Instead, it explores the effects of the previous idea in more depth.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 4fde4454

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 4fde4454

    One poll taken after the first 1960 presidential debate suggested that John Kennedy lost badly: only 21 percent of those who listened on the radio rated him the winner. blank the debate was ultimately considered a victory for the telegenic young senator, who rated higher than his opponent, Vice President Richard Nixon, among those watching on the new medium of television.  

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • In other words,

    • Therefore,

    • Likewise,

    • Nevertheless,

    ID: 4fde4454 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. “Nevertheless” logically signals that the claim in this sentence—that the telegenic Kennedy was ultimately considered the winner of the debate—is true despite the previous information about the poll of radio listeners.

    Choice A is incorrect because “in other words” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is a paraphrase of the previous information about the poll of radio listeners. Instead, Kennedy was ultimately considered the winner despite what that poll suggested about his performance. Choice B is incorrect because “therefore” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is a result of the previous information about the poll of radio listeners. Instead, Kennedy was ultimately considered the winner despite what that poll suggested about his performance. Choice C is incorrect because “likewise” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is similar to the previous information about the poll of radio listeners. Instead, Kennedy was ultimately considered the winner despite what that poll suggested about his performance.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 1872cd6d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 1872cd6d

    When printing paper money for the colony of Pennsylvania in the 1730s, Benjamin Franklin—then a Philadelphia shop owner—took steps to combat the circulation of counterfeit notes, such as weaving blue threads and muscovite (a reflective mineral) into the paper he used. blank he stamped the notes with detailed imprints of sage leaves that proved difficult for forgers to replicate.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Specifically,

    • That said,

    • For example, 

    • Moreover,

    ID: 1872cd6d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "Moreover" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that Franklin stamped imprints on paper money to make forgery more difficult—adds to the previous information by describing Franklin’s other strategy for combatting forgers: weaving materials into the paper used for printing money.

    Choice A is incorrect because "specifically" illogically signals that the information in this sentence provides specific, precise details elaborating on the previous information about Franklin’s other strategy for combatting forgers (weaving materials into paper). Instead, this information about stamping imprints on money adds new information. Choice B is incorrect because "that said" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is an exception to the previous information about Franklin’s other strategy for combatting forgers (weaving materials into paper). Instead, this information about stamping imprints on money adds new information. Choice C is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the information in this sentence serves as an example of the previous information about Franklin’s other strategy for combatting forgers (weaving materials into paper). Instead, this information about stamping imprints on money adds new information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 34e1124f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 34e1124f

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In geology, an Aeolian landform is one that has been created by the wind.
    • In Greek mythology, Aeolus is the keeper of the winds.
    • Aeolian landforms are created when the wind erodes, transports, or deposits material.
    • A mushroom rock is a rock formation in which the top is wider than the base.
    • A mushroom rock can be formed when the wind erodes the base and the top at different rates.

    The student wants to provide an explanation and an example of Aeolian landforms. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Aeolian landforms are created by different wind-based processes; for example, some are created by wind erosion.

    • Aeolian landforms—landforms created by the wind—include the mushroom rock, a rock formation in which the wind erodes the base of the rock faster than the top.

    • Erosion, transportation, and deposition are three examples of how the wind can create Aeolian landforms and mushroom rocks.

    • A mushroom rock is a rock formation that owes its shape to the wind, a natural force associated with Aeolus in Greek mythology.

    ID: 34e1124f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence provides an explanation and an example of Aeolian landforms, explaining that they are landforms created by wind and offering the mushroom rock as an example.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence explains that Aeolian landforms are created by wind but does not provide an example of any specific Aeolian landforms. Rather, the example it provides is of a wind-based process. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence provides a partial explanation of Aeolian landforms, noting that they are created by the wind, it does not effectively provide an example. The sentence seems to indicate that mushroom rocks, rather than being an example of Aeolian landforms, are distinct from them. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence provides an explanation of a mushroom rock, which is a specific example of an Aeolian landform, it doesn’t provide an explanation of Aeolian landforms in general.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 7fd39a42

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 7fd39a42

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Circular particle accelerators known as synchrotrons radiate energy in the form of light.
    • Synchrotron light is among the brightest light ever produced.
    • Synchrotron light is an ideal tool for researchers investigating the structure of matter.
    • The first synchrotron created for the purpose of providing synchrotron light was built in 1968.
    • It was called Tantalus and was housed near the University of Wisconsin–Madison.

    The student wants to emphasize the location of the first synchrotron built to provide synchrotron light. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Tantalus, the first synchrotron created for the purpose of providing synchrotron light, was built in 1968.

    • Circular particle accelerators known as synchrotrons radiate energy in the form of light, and this light is an ideal tool for researchers investigating the structure of matter.

    • The first synchrotron created for the purpose of providing synchrotron light, Tantalus, was housed near the University of Wisconsin–Madison.

    • Synchrotron light is among the brightest light ever produced, making it an ideal tool for researchers investigating the structure of matter.

    ID: 7fd39a42 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. After identifying Tantalus as the first synchrotron built to provide light, the sentence emphasizes its location.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence identifies Tantalus as the first synchrotron built to provide light, it doesn’t emphasize (or mention) its location. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence describes synchrotrons and how researchers use them; it doesn’t emphasize (or mention) the location of Tantalus. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence describes synchrotron light and how researchers use it; the sentence doesn’t emphasize (or mention) the location of Tantalus.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 96a86bce

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 96a86bce

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Cambodia’s Angkor Wat was built in the 1100s to honor the Hindu god Vishnu.
    • It has been a Buddhist temple since the sixteenth century.
    • Decorrelation stretch analysis is a novel digital imaging technique that enhances the contrast between colors in a photograph.
    • Archaeologist Noel Hidalgo Tan applied decorrelation stretch analysis to photographs he had taken of Angkor Wat’s plaster walls.
    • Tan’s analysis revealed hundreds of images unknown to researchers.

    The student wants to present Tan’s research to an audience unfamiliar with Angkor Wat. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Tan photographed Angkor Wat’s plaster walls and then applied decorrelation stretch analysis to the photographs.

    • Decorrelation stretch analysis is a novel digital imaging technique that Tan used to enhance the contrast between colors in a photograph.

    • Using a novel digital imaging technique, Tan revealed hundreds of images hidden on the walls of Angkor Wat, a Cambodian temple.

    • Built to honor a Hindu god before becoming a Buddhist temple, Cambodia’s Angkor Wat concealed hundreds of images on its plaster walls. 

    ID: 96a86bce Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence effectively presents Tan’s research to an audience unfamiliar with Angkor Wat, explaining the results of the research and identifying Angkor Wat as a temple in Cambodia.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence presents Tan’s research, it fails to explain what Angkor Wat is for an audience unfamiliar with the temple. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the role that decorrelation stretch analysis played in Tan’s research; it doesn’t present the research, which would require specifying where it was conducted. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence explains what Angkor Wat is, it fails to present Tan’s research.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID db3ad406

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: db3ad406

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Stars form in a galaxy when gravity causes a massive cloud of dust and gas to collapse.
    • A galaxy in a phase of rapid star formation is called a starburst galaxy.
    • Quenching is a process in which a galaxy loses star-forming gas.
    • A galaxy that no longer forms stars is called a quenched galaxy.
    • A quenched galaxy has entered the poststarburst phase.

    The student wants to explain what a quenched galaxy is. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Before quenching, a starburst galaxy will form stars at a rapid rate.

    • When it becomes quenched, a starburst galaxy enters the poststarburst phase.

    • Having entered the poststarburst phase, a quenched galaxy is one that no longer forms stars.

    • A starburst galaxy will lose star-forming gas and eventually become quenched.

    ID: db3ad406 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. This choice defines a quenched galaxy as “one that no longer forms stars.”

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice only describes what happens before quenching. Choice B is incorrect. This choice only describes what happens after quenching. Choice D is incorrect. This choice only describes what causes quenching.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 0fd4df40

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 0fd4df40

    The Alaska Native Language Archive (ANLA) is known for its impressive audio collection. blank the ANLA has more than 5,000 audio recordings of Native Alaskan languages dating as far back as 1943.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • In fact,

    • After,

    • Regardless, 

    • Instead,

    ID: 0fd4df40 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. "In fact" logically signals that the information in this sentence about the large number of recordings in ANLA’s collection emphasizes and supports the previous claim that ANLA is known for its impressive audio collection.

    Choice B is incorrect because "after" illogically signals that the information in this sentence occurs later in a sequence of events than the previous claim about ANLA’s impressive audio collection. Instead, the information about the large number of recordings emphasizes and supports that claim. Choice C is incorrect because "regardless" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is true despite the previous claim about ANLA’s impressive audio collection. Instead, the information about the large number of recordings emphasizes and supports that claim. Choice D is incorrect because "instead" illogically signals that the information in this sentence presents an alternative to the previous claim about ANLA’s impressive audio collection. Rather, the information about the large number of recordings emphasizes and supports that claim.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 973632d2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 973632d2

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In North America, woodlands have expanded into areas that were once grasslands.
    • Thomas Rogers and F. Leland Russell of Wichita State University investigated whether woodland expansion is related to changes in climate.
    • Rogers and Russell analyzed core samples from oak trees on a site that was not wooded in the past and indexed the age of the trees with historical climate data to see if tree populations and climate were correlated.
    • Tree population growth was associated with dry intervals.
    • Droughts may have played a role in woodland expansion.

    The student wants to emphasize the aim of the research study. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Thomas Rogers and F. Leland Russell, researchers at Wichita State University, wanted to know if woodland expansion is related to changes in climate.

    • Thanks to the work done by Thomas Rogers and F. Leland Russell, we now know that droughts may have played a role in woodland expansion.

    • Wichita State University researchers have determined that tree population growth was associated with dry intervals.

    • Thomas Rogers and F. Leland Russell analyzed core samples from oak trees on a site that was not wooded in the past, indexing the age of the trees with historical climate data.

    ID: 973632d2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence effectively emphasizes the aim, or goal, of the research study (in other words, what the researchers hoped to learn from the study): Rogers and Russell wanted to know if woodland expansion is related to changes in climate.

    Choice B is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the researchers’ findings; it doesn’t emphasize the aim of the study. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the results of the study; it doesn’t emphasize the aim. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the methodology of the study; it doesn’t emphasize the aim.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID f114cbf0

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: f114cbf0

    A firefly uses specialized muscles to draw oxygen into its lower abdomen through narrow tubes, triggering a chemical reaction whereby the oxygen combines with chemicals in the firefly’s abdomen to produce a glow. blank when the firefly stops drawing in oxygen, the reaction—and the glow—cease.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • For instance,

    • By contrast,

    • Specifically,

    • In conclusion,

    ID: f114cbf0 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. “By contrast” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that a firefly’s glow ceases when it stops drawing in oxygen—contrasts with the previous sentence’s discussion of the processes that cause a firefly to begin to glow.

    Choice A is incorrect because “for instance” illogically signals that the information in the sentence exemplifies the previous sentence’s discussion of how a firefly begins to glow. Instead, it contrasts with the previous sentence’s discussion. Choice C is incorrect because “specifically” illogically signals that the information in the sentence provides specific details elaborating on the previous sentence’s discussion of how a firefly begins to glow. Instead, it contrasts with the previous sentence’s discussion. Choice D is incorrect because “in conclusion” illogically signals that the information in the sentence sums up the previous sentence’s discussion of how a firefly begins to glow. Instead, it contrasts with the previous sentence’s discussion. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID b7c404d1

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: b7c404d1

    With her room-sized installation The Interstitium, Iranian American artist Laleh Mehran succeeded in creating a space that felt, as intended, both “familiar and distant.” blank with a video screen placed at the far end of the coal slag-encrusted room, her installation was reminiscent of a typical movie theater—albeit one found in a subterranean coal mine.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Next,

    • Nevertheless,

    • Indeed,

    • Instead,

    ID: b7c404d1 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. "Indeed" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that Laleh Mehran’s installation resembled both a typical movie theater and a coal mine—supports the previous sentence’s claim that the space Mehran created felt both "familiar and distant."

    Choice A is incorrect because "next" illogically signals that the description of Laleh Mehran’s installation in this sentence is the next step in a process. Rather, it supports the previous sentence’s claim about Mehran’s installation. Choice B is incorrect because "nevertheless" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is true despite the claim about Laleh Mehran’s installation in the previous sentence. Rather, it supports that claim. Choice D is incorrect because "instead" illogically signals that this sentence presents an alternative to the previous sentence’s claim about Laleh Mehran’s installation. Rather, it supports that claim.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID d9d314d9

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: d9d314d9

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Pinnipeds, which include seals, sea lions, and walruses, live in and around water.
    • Pinnipeds are descended not from sea animals but from four-legged, land-dwelling carnivores.
    • Canadian paleobiologist Natalia Rybczynski recently found a fossil with four legs, webbed toes, and the skull and teeth of a seal.
    • Rybczynski refers to her rare find as a “transitional fossil.”
    • The fossil illustrates an early stage in the evolution of pinnipeds from their land-dwelling ancestors.

    The student wants to emphasize the fossil’s significance. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Canadian paleobiologist Natalia Rybczynski’s fossil has the skull and teeth of a seal, which, like sea lions and walruses, is a pinniped.

    • Pinnipeds are descended from four-legged, land-dwelling carnivores; a fossil that resembles both was recently found.

    • Having four legs but the skull and teeth of a seal, the rare fossil illustrates an early stage in the evolution of pinnipeds from their land-dwelling ancestors.

    • A “transitional fossil” was recently found by paleobiologist Natalia Rybczynski.

    ID: d9d314d9 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence effectively emphasizes the fossil’s significance, explaining that the fossil is rare and illustrates an early stage in the evolution of pinnipeds from their land-dwelling ancestors.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence describes the fossil Rybczynski found; it doesn’t emphasize the fossil’s significance. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence mentions that a fossil resembling both pinnipeds and their ancestors was found; it doesn’t emphasize the fossil’s significance. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence notes a term used to describe the fossil Rybczynski found; it doesn’t emphasize the fossil’s significance. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID ad729337

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: ad729337

    With its clichéd imagery of suburban lawns and power lines, John Ashbery’s 2004 poem “Ignorance of the Law Is No Excuse” may seem barren terrain for critical analysis. blank cultural critic Lauren Berlant finds fertile ground in just its first two stanzas, devoting most of a book chapter to deciphering the “weight of the default space” Ashbery creates in this poem.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Likewise,

    • Nonetheless,

    • In turn,

    • That is,

    ID: ad729337 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. “Nonetheless” is a transition that indicates disagreement. The first sentence describes the unlikelihood of finding much for critical analysis in Ashbery’s poem (“barren terrain”), while the second sentence describes how Berlant did in fact find much to analyze in Ashbery’s poem (“fertile ground”), so the transition “nonetheless” fits perfectly.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates the addition of a new but similar idea, which doesn’t make sense here. The idea in this sentence directly contradicts the idea in the previous sentence. Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses a cause-and-effect transition, which doesn’t make sense in this context—a poem seemingly having little opportunity for critical analysis would not cause someone to write an extensive critical analysis (in fact, we might expect the opposite). Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates a restatement of the same idea in other words. But the text isn’t restating the first idea here. Instead, it’s offering a contradiction to the idea expressed in the first sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 5e93039f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 5e93039f

    Roughly once an hour, a torrent of boiling water shoots up 100 feet or more from Yellowstone’s Old Faithful geyser before plunging back to the surface—a cycle seemingly inhospitable to life. blank as microbiologist Eric Boyd attests, “the geyser is…almost like a cradle for biodiversity,” home to numerous bacteria species that thrive in its sulfurous waters.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Thus,

    • Specifically,

    • Still,

    • In other words,

    ID: 5e93039f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. "Still" logically signals that the information in this sentence about Old Faithful’s thriving bacteria species is true despite the previous claim that conditions at the geyser seem as if they would be inhospitable to life.

    Choice A is incorrect because "thus" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a result or consequence of the previous claim about Old Faithful’s seemingly inhospitable conditions. Instead, this information about the geyser’s many thriving bacteria species is true despite the previous claim. Choice B is incorrect because "specifically" illogically signals that the information in this sentence provides specific, precise details elaborating on the previous claim about Old Faithful’s seemingly inhospitable conditions. Instead, this information about the geyser’s many thriving bacteria species is true despite the previous claim. Choice D is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that the information in this sentence serves as a paraphrase or restatement of the previous claim about Old Faithful’s seemingly inhospitable conditions. Instead, this information about the geyser’s many thriving bacteria species is true despite the previous claim.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 0f9ed134

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 0f9ed134

    In 1974, Mexican chemist Mario Molina and US chemist F. Sherwood Rowland discovered that chemicals called CFCs were harmful to the ozone layer. Their research was extremely influential in the fight against CFCs. blank it laid the foundation for a 1987 treaty that phased out the use of CFCs across the globe.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Regardless,

    • Specifically,

    • However,

    • Earlier,

    ID: 0f9ed134 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "Specifically" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that Molina and Rowland’s research laid the foundation for a later treaty—provides specific, precise details elaborating on the previous sentence’s more general claim about the influence of the research.

    Choice A is incorrect because "regardless" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is true despite the previous sentence’s claim about the influence of Molina and Rowland’s research. Instead, this information—that the research laid the foundation for a later treaty—provides specific details elaborating on the previous claim. Choice C is incorrect because "however" illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the previous sentence’s claim about the influence of Molina and Rowland’s research. Instead, this information—that the research laid the foundation for a later treaty—provides specific details elaborating on the previous claim. Choice D is incorrect because "earlier" illogically signals that the information in this sentence occurred at a time before Molina and Rowland’s research influenced the fight against CFCs. Instead, this information—that the research laid the foundation for a later treaty—provides specific details elaborating on the previous claim about the research’s influence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 9e3a215b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 9e3a215b

    A 2022 study by researchers Hala Altamimi and Qiaozhen Liu investigated the relationship between nonprofit arts organizations’ spending and performance. blank the researchers examined the correlation between how much 22,328 US arts nonprofits spent on overhead—operational costs such as equipment and fundraising—and how many people attended their events (a measure of overall success).

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Thus,

    • In addition, 

    • By comparison, 

    • Specifically, 

    ID: 9e3a215b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "Specifically" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that the researchers examined the overhead costs and attendance at events of 22,328 nonprofits—provides specific, precise details elaborating on how the researchers investigated the relationship between nonprofits’ spending and performance.

    Choice A is incorrect. "Thus" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a result or consequence of the researchers’ investigation of nonprofits’ spending and performance. Instead, it specifies how they examined that correlation. Choice B is incorrect. "In addition" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is merely an additional fact about the researchers’ investigation of nonprofits’ spending and performance. Instead, it specifies how they examined that correlation. Choice C is incorrect. "By comparison" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is being compared to the researchers’ investigation of nonprofits’ spending and performance. Instead, it specifies how they examined that correlation.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID ce282575

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: ce282575

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • J.R.R. Tolkien’s 1937 novel The Hobbit features two maps.
    • The novel opens with a reproduction of the map that the characters use on their quest.
    • This map introduces readers to the fictional world they are about to enter.
    • The novel closes with a map depicting every stop on the characters’ journey.
    • That map allows readers to reconstruct the story they have just read.

    The student wants to contrast the purposes of the two maps in The Hobbit. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The Hobbit’s opening map introduces readers to the fictional world they are about to enter, while the closing map allows them to reconstruct the story they have just read.

    • The Hobbit, a novel published by J.R.R. Tolkien in 1937, features a reproduction of a map that the characters use on their quest, as well as a map that appears at the end of the novel.

    • The Hobbit’s two maps, one opening and one closing the novel, each serve a purpose for readers.

    • In 1937, author J.R.R. Tolkien published The Hobbit, a novel featuring both an opening and a closing map.

    ID: ce282575 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence contrasts the purposes of the two maps in The Hobbit, noting that the opening map introduces readers to the book’s fictional world, while the closing map helps readers reconstruct the story. The word “while” helps signal a contrast between the purposes of the maps. 

    Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the two maps, it doesn’t contrast the maps’ purposes. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the two maps and notes that each has a purpose, it doesn’t specify what those purposes are or how they contrast. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the two maps, it doesn’t contrast the maps’ purposes.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 0ee64efc

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 0ee64efc

    In the 1850s, William Still was instrumental in helping nearly 1,000 people escape from slavery, earning him the moniker “the Father of the Underground Railroad.” blank despite the fame of his contributions during his lifetime, Still is discussed far less today than other prominent Black abolitionists from his era, such as Frederick Douglass and Harriet Tubman.   

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • For example,

    • However,

    • Specifically,

    • Similarly,

    ID: 0ee64efc Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "However" is used to indicate a contrast between two ideas. The first sentence describes how Still used to be famous. This sentence describes how Still is not very famous today, so the transition "however" fits perfectly.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that introduces an example. But the second sentence doesn’t provide a specific example of Still’s famous contributions to the Underground Railroad. Instead, it changes the subject to how his fame has faded over time. Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that introduces an example or continuation of a previous idea. But the second sentence doesn’t provide a specific example of Still’s famous contributions to the Underground Railroad. Instead, it changes the subject to how his fame has faded over time. Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates the agreement between two ideas. But this sentence shows a contrast with the first sentence—namely, that Still used to be very famous but now isn’t very famous.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID b8eec031

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: b8eec031

    Researchers Helena Mihaljević-Brandt, Lucía Santamaría, and Marco Tullney report that while mathematicians may have traditionally worked alone, evidence points to a shift in the opposite direction. blank mathematicians are choosing to collaborate with their peers—a trend illustrated by a rise in the number of mathematics publications credited to multiple authors.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Similarly,

    • For this reason,

    • Furthermore,

    • Increasingly,

    ID: b8eec031 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. “Increasingly” logically signals that the claim in this sentence—that mathematicians are collaborating with their peers—marks a change relative to what was traditionally done. As the previous sentence explains, while mathematicians may have traditionally worked alone, evidence points to a shift in the opposite direction. The claim describes the shift: a rise in collaboration.

    Choice A is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is similar to, but separate from, the previous claim about the shift away from mathematicians working alone. Instead, the claim about the rise in collaboration elaborates on the previous claim, describing the shift. Choice B is incorrect because “for this reason” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is caused by the previous claim about the shift away from mathematicians working alone. Instead, the claim about the rise in collaboration elaborates on the previous claim, describing the shift. Choice C is incorrect because “furthermore” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is in addition to the previous claim about the shift away from mathematicians working alone. Instead, the claim about the rise in collaboration elaborates on the previous claim, describing the shift.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 56336696

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 56336696

    When using sumac for dyeing cloth, textile artists first soak it in water to release its color. Then, they add the cloth to the dyebath and simmer it for hours, perhaps even days. blank they will remove the cloth, at which point it will have turned a vibrant red color.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Nevertheless,

    • Likewise,

    • Eventually,

    • In other words,

    ID: 56336696 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. "Eventually" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that textile artists will remove the cloth when it has turned red—is the final step in the chronological sequence of the dyeing process described in the previous sentences.

    Choice A is incorrect because "nevertheless" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is true despite the previous information about simmering the cloth in the dyebath. Instead, the removal of the cloth is the final step in the dyeing process. Choice B is incorrect because "likewise" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is similar to the previous information about simmering the cloth in the dyebath. Instead, the removal of the cloth is the final step in the dyeing process. Choice D is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a paraphrase or restatement of the previous information about simmering the cloth in the dyebath. Instead, the removal of the cloth is the final step in the dyeing process.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 273c2f12

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 273c2f12

    Jeffrey Gibson’s sculptural object KNOW YOUR MAGIC, BABY, an Everlast-brand exercise bag embroidered with multicolored beads and a fringe associated with the dances of the Ojibwe people, stitches together—literally and figuratively—recognizable symbols from both Native and non-Native cultures. blank Gibson’s piece also blurs the distinction between contemporary art and traditional crafts.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Conversely,

    • In so doing,

    • For instance,

    • In particular,

    ID: 273c2f12 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "In so doing" logically signals that the information in this sentence about Gibson’s piece—that it blurs the distinction between contemporary art and traditional crafts—is a result or consequence of the piece’s blending of particular Native and non-Native cultural symbols.

    Choice A is incorrect. "Conversely" illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the previous information about the blending of particular cultural symbols in Gibson’s piece. Instead, it presents a result or consequence of that information. Choice C is incorrect. "For instance" illogically signals that this sentence provides an example supporting the previous information about the blending of particular cultural symbols in Gibson’s piece. Instead, it presents a result or consequence of that information. Choice D is incorrect. "In particular" illogically signals that this sentence provides specific details elaborating on the previous information about the blending of particular cultural symbols in Gibson’s piece. Instead, it presents a result or consequence of that information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID e98b1690

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: e98b1690

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Bike-share programs provide bicycles for shared use.
    • In docked bike sharing, riders rent a bike and return it to designated docking stations.
    • Docked programs are orderly and offer consistency to riders but require significant space and money to implement.
    • In dockless bike sharing, riders locate a bike and leave it wherever they choose.
    • Dockless programs are relatively simple and inexpensive to implement and offer flexibility to riders.
    • Dockless programs can be disorganized.

    The student wants to compare some disadvantages of docked and dockless bike-share programs. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Dockless programs can be disorganized; docked programs, on the other hand, offer order and consistency.

    • Worth noting is that while dockless programs are relatively easy and inexpensive to implement, they are less flexible than docked programs.

    • Docked programs are more resource-intensive than dockless programs, but they avoid some of the latter’s organizational challenges.

    • Though dockless programs offer flexibility, docked bike-share programs provide bicycles for shared use.

    ID: e98b1690 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence compares some disadvantages of docked and dockless bike-share programs, explaining that while docked programs are more resource-intensive (requiring significant space and money), dockless programs have greater organizational challenges.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence compares dockless programs to docked programs, noting an advantage of docked programs: they offer order and consistency. It doesn’t compare disadvantages of the two types of programs. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence compares dockless programs to docked programs, noting an advantage of dockless programs: they are easy and inexpensive to implement. However, it misrepresents information from the notes, stating that dockless programs are less flexible than docked programs. In addition, it doesn’t compare disadvantages of the two types of programs. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes an advantage of dockless programs, then makes a general statement that applies to both types of programs; it doesn’t compare disadvantages of the two types of programs.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 9e34720b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 9e34720b

    Although those who migrated to California in 1849 dreamed of finding gold nuggets in streambeds, the state’s richest deposits were buried deeply in rock, beyond the reach of individual prospectors. blank by 1852, many had given up their fortune-hunting dreams and gone to work for one of the large companies capable of managing California’s complex mining operations.  

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Furthermore,

    • Still,

    • Consequently,

    • Next,

    ID: 9e34720b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. “Consequently” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that many individual gold prospectors gave up their fortune-hunting dreams and became employees of mining companies—is a result or consequence of the previous information about the inaccessibility of the state’s gold deposits. 

    Choice A is incorrect because “furthermore” illogically signals that the information in this sentence merely adds to the previous information about the inaccessibility of the state’s gold deposits. Instead, it’s a result or consequence of that information. Choice B is incorrect because “still” illogically signals that the information in this sentence offers a contrast or exception to the previous information about the inaccessibility of the state’s gold deposits. Instead, it’s a result or consequence of that information. Choice D is incorrect because “next” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is the next step in a process. Instead, it’s a result or consequence of the previous information about the inaccessibility of the state’s gold deposits.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 6036ad0e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 6036ad0e

    In 2014, Nestor Gomez won his first-ever storytelling competition, relating a tale about his life as a Guatemalan immigrant living in Chicago. blank in 2017, Gomez created the show 80 Minutes Around the World as a platform for others to share stories about their immigration experiences.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Instead,

    • For example,

    • Later,

    • In other words,

    ID: 6036ad0e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. "Later" logically signals that the information in the sentence—that in 2017 Gomez created a platform for others to share stories about their immigration experiences—occurs later in a chronological series of events than the previous information about Gomez winning his first storytelling competition in 2014.

    Choice A is incorrect because "instead" illogically signals that Gomez created a platform for others to share stories about their immigration experiences as an alternative to winning his first storytelling competition. Rather, Gomez created the platform later—in a chronological series of events—than when he won the competition. Choice B is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the information about Gomez creating a platform for others to share stories exemplifies his winning his first storytelling competition. Rather, Gomez created the platform later—in a chronological series of events—than when he won the competition. Choice D is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that the information about Gomez creating a platform for others to share stories is merely a paraphrase or restatement of the previous information about Gomez winning his first storytelling competition. Rather, Gomez created the platform later—in a chronological series of events—than when he won the competition.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 63c73b50

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 63c73b50

    In 2018, Kurt Luther and Vikram Mohanty created the web-based tool Civil War Photo Sleuth (CWPS). A user uploading an unknown Civil War soldier’s photograph to CWPS first tags the photo with all known information. blank CWPS’s facial-recognition software analyzes twenty-seven different physical features and looks for matches to tagged images already in the database.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Then, 

    • In fact,

    • Likewise,

    • For example, 

    ID: 63c73b50 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. “Then” indicates that the events in this sentence took place after the events in the previous sentence. Only after users upload images of unknown soldiers can those images be analyzed.

    Choice B is incorrect. This transition is used to emphasize the truth of a statement that modifies the previous statement. But this sentence doesn’t modify the step described in the previous statement: instead, it introduces an entirely new step in the process. So “in fact” wouldn’t make sense here. Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates the addition of a new but related idea, which doesn’t make sense here. Analyzing the physical features in the uploaded photographs isn’t a similar idea, but rather the next step in the process. Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses an exemplification transition, which doesn’t make sense here. Analyzing physical features is not an example of uploading and tagging an image.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 3831f2d7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 3831f2d7

    Arkansas aviator Louise Thaden was already a record breaker when she won the inaugural National Women’s Air Derby, a race from California to Ohio, in August of 1929. blank in December of 1928, Thaden had set an aviation record when she reached an altitude of 20,269 feet in a Travel Air biplane.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Earlier,

    • However,

    • Next,

    • As a result,

    ID: 3831f2d7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. This choice uses a transition that indicates a shift back in time. Since the first sentence talks about Thaden’s race win in 1929 and the second shifts back to talking about her record in 1928, this makes the most sense here.

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice uses a disagreement transition. But this sentence actually agrees with and expands on the previous sentence by describing the earlier record that Thaden had "already" held. Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates a shift forward in time, which doesn’t make sense here. A record in 1928 didn’t come after Thaden’s race win in 1929. Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses a cause-and-effect transition, which doesn’t make sense in this context—an event in 1929 can’t cause something in 1928.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID c4f7f726

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: c4f7f726

    Many butterfly species have bold, brightly colored wings. blank some butterfly species have wings that are almost completely colorless and transparent. Glasswing butterflies, for example, have see-through wings that make them nearly invisible.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Similarly,

    • Previously,

    • In other words,

    • However,

    ID: c4f7f726 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "However" logically signals that the information in this sentence about butterfly species—that some have colorless, transparent wings—contrasts with the previous information about butterfly species with bold, colorful wings.

    Choice A is incorrect because "similarly" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is similar to the previous information about butterfly species. Instead, it contrasts with the previous information. Choice B is incorrect because "previously" illogically signals that this sentence describes an event that occurred before another event. Instead, the sentence provides information about butterfly species that contrasts with the information in the first sentence. Choice C is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a paraphrase or restatement of the previous information about butterfly species. Instead, it contrasts with the previous information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 1469d23a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 1469d23a

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Etel Adnan was a Lebanese American poet and artist known for making many leporellos.
    • A leporello is an artist’s book that is folded accordion style.
    • When the book is expanded, the artist’s work is revealed, and its zigzag shape allows it to stand on its own.
    • Her leporello December from My Window (1993) features a panoramic landscape.
    • It is painted using ink and watercolor.

    The student wants to describe Adnan’s December from My Window to an audience already familiar with leporellos. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Featuring a panoramic landscape, the 1993 work is one of Adnan’s many leporellos, which are accordion-style folded books that when expanded reveal the artist’s work.

    • When expanded, Adnan’s 1993 leporello December from My Window reveals a panoramic landscape painted in ink and watercolor.

    • Known for making many other accordion-style folded books called leporellos, Adnan created December from My Window in 1993.

    • A leporello, such as Adnan’s December from My Window, is folded accordion style, and due to its zigzag shape it is able to stand on its own when fully expanded. 

    ID: 1469d23a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. This choice describes Adnan’s December from My Window in a way that assumes the audience is already familiar with leporellos and focuses on the specific features of the work—its content and medium.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice isn’t suited for an audience already familiar with leporellos. A familiar audience wouldn’t need to have the term defined or explained. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t describe Adnan’s December from My Window. It mentions the year and the type of work but not the content or the medium. In addition, it provides a simple definition of leporellos, making this an inappropriate choice for an audience already familiar with leporellos. Choice D is incorrect. This choice isn’t suited for an audience already familiar with leporellos. A familiar audience wouldn’t need to have the term defined.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 2b5e0731

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 2b5e0731

    With darkness falling, a mother elephant loses sight of her calf and wants to make sure it is safe. blank she releases an infrasonic call for the calf to hear. Infrasonic sound is below the range of human hearing, but many animals can hear these sounds from several miles away.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • For example,

    • For this reason,

    • Nowadays,

    • Similarly,

    ID: 2b5e0731 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "For this reason" is a cause-and-effect transition. The cause in this case is that the mother elephant wants to know that her calf is safe, so the effect is that she lets out an infrasonic call for the calf to hear. Therefore, "for this reason" fits perfectly in this context.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that introduces an example of a previous idea. But the second sentence doesn’t provide an example of the events described in the first sentence. Instead, it describes what happens next: the mother elephant calls for her calf. Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates a shift from the past to the current time, which doesn’t make sense here. Both sentences use the present tense, as they’re describing the same time period. Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates commonality or agreement between two ideas. But this sentence isn’t similar to the events in the first sentence. Instead, it describes the events that happen next.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 3ea7372e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 3ea7372e

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In the art world, the term biennial traditionally refers to an art exhibition that takes place every two years in a single location.
    • Such biennials are held in New York, Berlin, and Venice.
    • In 2006, artists Ed Gomez and Luis Hernandez founded the unconventional MexiCali Biennial.
    • The MexiCali Biennial hosts exhibitions in different venues on both sides of the US-Mexico border.
    • The MexiCali Biennial has taken place on an uneven schedule, with exhibitions in 2006, 2009–10, 2013, and 2018–20.

    The student wants to emphasize a difference between the MexiCali Biennial and traditional biennials. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • In 2006, artists Ed Gomez and Luis Hernandez founded the MexiCali Biennial, which has taken place in 2006, 2009–10, 2013, and 2018–20.

    • Unlike traditional biennials, the MexiCali Biennial hosts exhibitions in different venues on an uneven schedule.

    • The term biennial traditionally refers to an art exhibition that takes place every two years in a single location, not to exhibitions hosted at a variety of times and venues.

    • Biennial exhibitions have been held in New York, Berlin, and Venice but also on both sides of the US-Mexico border.

    ID: 3ea7372e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence effectively emphasizes a difference between the MexiCali Biennial and traditional biennials, stating that the MexiCali Biennial is unlike traditional biennials because it hosts exhibitions in different venues on an uneven schedule.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence indicates who founded the MexiCali Biennial and the years this biennial has taken place; it doesn’t emphasize a difference between the MexiCali Biennial and traditional biennials. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence clarifies the traditional meaning of biennial with language that could apply to the MexiCali Biennial, it doesn’t mention the MexiCali Biennial by name. Therefore, the sentence doesn’t effectively emphasize a difference between the MexiCali Biennial and traditional biennials. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence notes locations where various biennial exhibitions have been held; it doesn’t emphasize a difference between the MexiCali Biennial and traditional biennials.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 1c36e3e1

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 1c36e3e1

    The number of dark spots that appear on the Sun, known as sunspots, can vary greatly. For example, there were about 180 sunspots in November 2001. blank there were only about 2 sunspots in December 2008.

     

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    •  In other words,

    • Similarly,

    • Therefore,

    • By comparison,

    ID: 1c36e3e1 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The first sentence claims that the number of sunspots can vary greatly. To support this claim, the next two sentences compare two examples: one time when there were 180 sunspots and one time when there were only 2 sunspots. So the transition “by comparison” fits perfectly.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates a restatement of the same idea, which doesn’t make sense here. This sentence doesn’t restate the first example—it describes a totally different example. Choice B is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates the addition of a similar idea, which doesn’t make sense here. This sentence describes a second example that is very different from the first example. Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses a cause-and-effect transition, which doesn’t make sense here. The first example didn’t result in the second example.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 0839a4b9

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 0839a4b9

    The Coastal Futures Conservatory in Virginia is known for creating aural representations of ecological data. One such effort combines underwater audio recorded in seagrass beds with data that track rising carbon levels in the seagrass. As carbon levels increase, the audio is correspondingly distorted; blank listeners can “hear” the changes in the carbon levels.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • furthermore,

    • by comparison,

    • for instance,

    • thus,

    ID: 0839a4b9 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "Thus" logically signals that the information in this clause—that listeners can "hear" carbon levels increasing—is a result of the previous information about the audio distorting as carbon levels increase.

    Choice A is incorrect because "furthermore" illogically signals that the information in this clause merely adds to the previous information about the audio distorting as carbon levels rise. Instead, the listeners’ ability to "hear" carbon levels increasing is a result of that distortion. Choice B is incorrect because "by comparison" illogically signals that the information in this clause is being compared to the information about the audio distorting as carbon levels rise. Instead, the listeners’ ability to "hear" carbon levels increasing is a result of that distortion. Choice C is incorrect because "for instance" illogically signals that the information in this clause is an example of how the audio distorts as carbon levels rise. Instead, the audio was distorted for the express purpose of representing ecological data; the listeners’ ability to "hear" carbon levels increasing is a direct, intended result of the distortion, not merely an example of it.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID ab1f424a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: ab1f424a

    Working together with the Navajo Nation Department of Water Resources, Dr. Lani Tsinnajinnie analyzed data about snowpack levels in the Chuska Mountains. She found that the snowpack (the amount of snow on the ground) was deepest in early March at lower elevations. At higher elevations, blank the snowpack was deepest in mid-March.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • in other words,

    • for instance,

    • on the other hand,

    • in summary,

    ID: ab1f424a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. "On the other hand" logically signals that the information in the sentence—that the snowpack at higher elevations in the Chuska Mountains was deepest in mid-March—contrasts with the previous information about the snowpack at lower elevations being deepest in early March.

    Choice A is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that information in the sentence is merely a paraphrase or restatement of the previous information about the snowpack at lower elevations. Instead, the information about the snowpack at higher elevations contrasts with that information. Choice B is incorrect because "for instance" illogically signals that the information in the sentence exemplifies the previous information about the snowpack at lower elevations. Instead, the information about the snowpack at higher elevations contrasts with that information. Choice D is incorrect because "in summary" illogically signals that the information in the sentence summarizes the previous information about the snowpack at lower elevations. Instead, the information about the snowpack at higher elevations contrasts with that information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 54f29331

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 54f29331

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The green iguana is a species of reptile.
    • It can be found in Central America and Brazil.
    • The green iguana primarily eats leaves and fruit.
    • It has an average length of 4.8 feet.

    The student wants to specify the average length of the green iguana. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The green iguana can be found in Central America.

    • The green iguana has an average length of 4.8 feet.

    • One species of reptile found in Brazil primarily eats leaves and fruit.

    • The green iguana is a reptile that primarily eats leaves and fruit.

    ID: 54f29331 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence specifies the average length of the green iguana: 4.8 feet.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence provides information about the green iguana, it doesn’t specify the green iguana’s average length. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence describes the diet of a species of reptile in Brazil; it doesn’t specify the green iguana’s average length. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence provides information about the green iguana, it doesn’t specify the green iguana’s average length.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 28a46cb0

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 28a46cb0

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The international Slow Food movement was founded in 1989 with the signing of the “Slow Food Manifesto.”
    • The movement promotes universal access to healthy, high-quality food.
    • It calls for sustainable food production practices that protect local environments, ecosystems, and biodiversity.
    • It advocates for fair treatment of and compensation for food production workers.
    • The Slow Food USA organization was founded in 2000.

    The student wants to introduce the Slow Food movement to a new audience. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The international Slow Food movement, founded in 1989, promotes universal access to healthy, high-quality food that is produced sustainably by workers who are treated and compensated fairly. 

    • The signing of the “Slow Food Manifesto” in 1989 marked the founding of the international Slow Food movement, while the Slow Food USA organization was founded in 2000.

    • The Slow Food movement advocates for food production workers.

    • Goals of the movement include universal access to healthy, high-quality food and sustainable food practices.

    ID: 28a46cb0 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence effectively introduces the Slow Food movement to a new audience, explaining that the movement, which was founded in 1989, promotes universal access to high-quality and healthy food that is produced sustainably by workers who are treated fairly.

    Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence indicates when the international Slow Food movement and the Slow Food USA organization were founded, it doesn’t effectively introduce the movement to a new audience. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence notes that the Slow Food movement includes advocacy for food production workers, it doesn’t effectively introduce the movement to a new audience. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence describes some of the goals of the Slow Food movement, it doesn’t effectively introduce the movement to a new audience.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 259d16ac

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 259d16ac

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In 1859, the novel Adam Bede was published in England.
    • According to the novel’s title page, the author’s name was George Eliot.
    • George Eliot was widely assumed to be a pseudonym.
    • A pseudonym is a fake name used to conceal an author’s identity.
    • A woman named Mary Ann Evans later revealed herself as the novel’s real author.

    The student wants to identify the real author of Adam Bede. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The real author of Adam Bede was Mary Ann Evans, who published the novel using the pseudonym George Eliot.

    • George Eliot, which Adam Bede’s title page indicated was the name of the novel’s author, was widely assumed to be a pseudonym.

    • The title page of the novel Adam Bede indicated that the author’s name was George Eliot.

    • A woman who had used a pseudonym to conceal her identity later revealed herself as the real author of Adam Bede.

    ID: 259d16ac Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence identifies the novel’s real author, explaining that Mary Ann Evans published the novel under the pseudonym of George Eliot.

    Choice B is incorrect. The sentence explains that George Eliot was assumed to be a pseudonym; it doesn’t identify the novel’s real author. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence specifies the pseudonym used on the novel’s title page; it doesn’t identify the novel’s real author. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence indicates that the novel’s real author used a pseudonym, it doesn’t identify that author as Mary Ann Evans.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID f2f6009b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: f2f6009b

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Little is known about the life of Wong Fei-hung (1847–1925).
    • He was born near Foshan, China, and gained local recognition as a physician and Hung Ga (also known as Hung Gar) Kung Fu master.
    • He achieved many incredible martial arts feats—some confirmed and some rumored.
    • He has become an internationally known folk hero thanks to his depiction in over a hundred films, television shows, and other media.
    • In the 1991 film Once Upon a Time in China, actor Jet Li portrays Wong Fei-hung using superhuman kung fu abilities to save his community.

    The student wants to emphasize the effect media had on building Wong Fei-hung’s legacy. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Thanks to his depiction in over a hundred pieces of media, Wong Fei-hung was locally known as a successful physician and Hung Ga Kung Fu master.

    • Though he was known locally during his lifetime, Wong Fei-hung’s later depiction in television, film, and other media has turned him into an internationally known folk hero.

    • Various media have depicted Wong Fei-hung, the successful physician and kung fu master who became an internationally known folk hero.

    • Wong Fei-hung’s abilities as a kung fu master are depicted in many media, including the 1991 film Once Upon a Time in China.

    ID: f2f6009b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the effect media had on building Wong Fei-hung’s legacy, noting that media depictions after his lifetime turned Wong Fei-hung into an internationally known folk hero.

    Choice A is incorrect. While it appears to emphasize the effect of media depictions of Wong Fei-hung, the sentence misrepresents information from the notes. According to the notes, media depictions resulted in Wong Fei-hung becoming an internationally known folk hero, not a locally known physician and kung fu master. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence discusses Wong Fei-hung’s legacy, noting that he became an internationally known folk hero, but it doesn’t emphasize the effect media had on building that legacy. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence indicates that Wong Fei-hung has been depicted in many media but doesn’t emphasize the effect of these media depictions on building his legacy.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 8d1ddd1b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 8d1ddd1b

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Ducklings expend up to 62.8% less energy when swimming in a line behind their mother than when swimming alone.
    • The physics behind this energy savings hasn’t always been well understood.
    • Naval architect Zhiming Yuan used computer simulations to study the effect of the mother duck’s wake.
    • The study revealed that ducklings are pushed in a forward direction by the wake’s waves.
    • Yuan determined this push reduces the effect of wave drag on the ducklings by 158%.

    The student wants to present the study and its methodology. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • A study revealed that ducklings, which expend up to 62.8% less energy when swimming in a line behind their mother, also experience 158% less drag.

    • Seeking to understand how ducklings swimming in a line behind their mother save energy, Zhiming Yuan used computer simulations to study the effect of the mother duck’s wake.

    • Zhiming Yuan studied the physics behind the fact that by being pushed in a forward direction by waves, ducklings save energy.

    • Naval architect Zhiming Yuan discovered that ducklings are pushed in a forward direction by the waves of their mother’s wake, reducing the effect of drag by 158%.

    ID: 8d1ddd1b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence presents both the study and its methodology (that is, the researcher’s approach to the problem), explaining that Yuan used computer simulations to study the effect of the mother duck’s wake on the ducklings’ energy expenditure.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence describes the findings of Yuan’s study; it doesn’t present the study and its methodology. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence provides general information about Yuan’s study, it doesn’t present the study’s methodology. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence describes the findings of Yuan’s study; it doesn’t present the study and its methodology. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID ff1a2e5e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: ff1a2e5e

    Historians agree that the jazz pianist Jelly Roll Morton was exaggerating when he claimed to have invented jazz music. No one can deny, blank that Morton’s innovative compositions and remarkable improvisational skills helped shape jazz as a genre during its early years.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • therefore,

    • in the second place,

    • in other words,

    • though,

    ID: ff1a2e5e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "Though" logically signals that the claim in the sentence—that Morton’s improvisational skills helped shape jazz as a genre during its early years ("No one can deny" it)—is true despite the previous information about Morton’s exaggerated claim to have invented jazz.

    Choice A is incorrect because "therefore" illogically signals that the claim in the sentence is a result of the previous information about Morton’s claim to have invented jazz. Instead, the sentence states that Morton helped to shape jazz—even if his claim was an exaggeration. Choice B is incorrect because "in the second place" illogically signals that the claim in the sentence is a second, separate point in addition to Morton’s claim to have invented jazz. Instead, the sentence states that Morton helped to shape jazz—even if his claim was an exaggeration. Choice C is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that the claim in the sentence is merely a paraphrase or restatement of the previous information about Morton’s claim to have invented jazz. Instead, the sentence states that Morton helped to shape jazz—even if his claim was an exaggeration.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID b5972710

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: b5972710

    Niger ratified the Outer Space Treaty, an international agreement with over 100 signing nations that acts as the foundation for the laws of space, on February 1, 1967. Jordan, blank has yet to officially ratify the treaty; it only signed it.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • in contrast,

    • specifically,

    • for example,

    • similarly,

    ID: b5972710 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. "In contrast" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that Jordan has yet to officially ratify the treaty—contrasts with the previous information about Niger having already ratified the treaty.

    Choice B is incorrect because "specifically" illogically signals that the information in this sentence specifies or elaborates on the previous information about Niger ratifying the treaty. Instead, the sentence changes subjects from Niger to Jordan, presenting contrasting information about Jordan’s treaty status. Choice C is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the information in this sentence exemplifies the previous information about Niger ratifying the treaty. Instead, the sentence explains that Jordan has yet to ratify the treaty. Choice D is incorrect because "similarly" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is similar to the previous information about Niger ratifying the treaty. Instead, the sentence presents contrasting information that Jordan has yet to ratify the treaty.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 82ec9628

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 82ec9628

    Archaeologist Sue Brunning explains why the seventh-century ship burial site at Sutton Hoo in England was likely the tomb of a king. First, the gold artifacts inside the ship suggest that the person buried with them was a wealthy and respected leader. blank the massive effort required to bury the ship would likely only have been undertaken for a king.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Instead,

    • Still,

    • Specifically,

    • Second,

    ID: 82ec9628 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. “Second” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that the effort to bury the ship would likely only have been made for a king—joins the information in the previous sentence (“first…”) in supporting Brunning’s claim that the burial site was likely the tomb of a king.

    Choice A is incorrect because “instead” illogically signals that the information in this sentence presents an alternative or substitute to the previous information about the gold artifacts inside the ship. Rather, this sentence presents a second piece of information that supports Brunning’s claim. Choice B is incorrect because “still” illogically signals that the information in this sentence exists in contrast to or despite the previous information about the gold artifacts inside the ship. Instead, this sentence presents a second piece of information that supports Brunning’s claim. Choice C is incorrect because “specifically” illogically signals that the information in this sentence specifies or elaborates on the previous information about the gold artifacts inside the ship. Instead, this sentence presents a second piece of information that supports Brunning’s claim.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 7c3f0145

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 7c3f0145

    In a 2022 analysis of 200 terms, researchers found a broad pattern of valence-dependent mutation for which negative words saw a faster rate of cognate replacement—blank the rate at which a word will be replaced over time with a noncognate form. Adjectives (e.g., “afraid”) saw the largest effect; nouns (e.g., “attack”), meanwhile, saw the smallest.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • for example,

    • likewise,

    • in addition,

    • that is,

    ID: 7c3f0145 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "That is" logically signals that the information that follows in the sentence clarifies a term used in the previous discussion of the researchers’ findings: cognate replacement.

    Choice A is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the information that follows in the sentence provides a specific example of the research findings described earlier. Instead, it clarifies a term introduced earlier in the sentence. Choice B is incorrect because "likewise" illogically signals that the information that follows in the sentence is similar to the previous information about the researchers’ findings. Instead, it clarifies a term introduced earlier in the sentence. Choice C is incorrect because "in addition" illogically signals that the information that follows in the sentence merely adds to the previous information about the researchers’ findings. Instead, it clarifies a term introduced earlier in the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID ba263620

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: ba263620

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In 1897, African American inventor Andrew Beard invented an automatic coupler.
    • It improved on the existing design of train car couplers.
    • It made the job of connecting train cars safer.
    • In 1938, African American inventor Frederick Jones invented a mobile refrigeration system.
    • It improved on the existing design of food transport trucks.
    • It enabled trucks to carry perishable foods farther.

    The student wants to emphasize a similarity between Beard’s invention and Jones’s invention. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Beard’s automatic coupler and Jones’s mobile refrigeration system both improved on existing designs.

    • In 1897, Beard invented an automatic coupler, which made the job of connecting train cars safer.

    • Beard’s invention made the job of connecting train cars safer, whereas Jones’s invention enabled food transport trucks to carry perishables farther. 

    • Jones’s mobile refrigeration system, which he invented in 1938, made it possible for food transport trucks to carry perishable foods farther.

    ID: ba263620 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. It compares Beard’s and Jones’s inventions to one another, and emphasizes what they have in common.

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t emphasize a similarity. It only mentions Beard’s invention. It doesn’t compare it to Jones’s invention. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two inventions. Instead, it emphasizes a difference. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t emphasize a similarity. It only mentions Jones’s invention. It doesn’t compare it to Beard’s invention.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 4f2710ab

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 4f2710ab

    Organisms have evolved a number of surprising adaptations to ensure their survival in adverse conditions. Tadpole shrimp (Triops longicaudatus) embryos, blank can pause development for over ten years during extended periods of drought.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • in contrast,

    • for example,

    • meanwhile,

    • consequently,

    ID: 4f2710ab Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. “For example” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that tadpole shrimp embryos can pause development during extended periods of drought—exemplifies the previous sentence’s claim that organisms have evolved surprising adaptations to survive in adverse conditions.  

    Choice A is incorrect because “in contrast” illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the claim about organisms in the previous sentence. Instead, it exemplifies this claim. Choice C is incorrect because “meanwhile” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is separate from (while occurring simultaneously with) the claim about organisms in the previous sentence. Instead, it exemplifies this claim. Choice D is incorrect because “consequently” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a consequence, or result, of the claim about organisms in the previous sentence. Instead, it exemplifies this claim. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 480ade7e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 480ade7e

    In response to adverse environmental conditions, many plants produce abscisic acid (ABA), a stress hormone. ABA triggers a slowdown in the biological processes of most plants. blank when the mustard plant Schrenkiella parvula produces ABA in response to an environmental stressor, the hormone triggers accelerated growth.  

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Moreover,

    • In contrast,

    • For example,

    • Thus,

    ID: 480ade7e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. “In contrast” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that ABA triggers accelerated growth in the mustard plant Schrenkiella parvula—contrasts with the previous information about ABA triggering a slowdown in most plants’ biological processes.

    Choice A is incorrect because “moreover” illogically signals that the information in this sentence about the mustard plant merely adds to the previous information about the effects of ABA. Instead, it contrasts with that information. Choice C is incorrect because “for example” illogically signals that the information in this sentence about the mustard plant provides an example consistent with the previous information about the effects of ABA. Instead, it contrasts with that information.  Choice D is incorrect because “thus” illogically signals that the information in this sentence about the mustard plant is a consequence, or result, of the previous information about the effects of ABA. Instead, it contrasts with that information. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 34a5ba1c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 34a5ba1c

    By 1936, Spanish Romani dancer Carmen Amaya was known all over Spain for her powerful style of flamenco dancing. However, in July of that year, the outbreak of the Spanish Civil War made it difficult for her to perform in her home country. blank Amaya left Spain to perform abroad, dancing for audiences across North and South America.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • In comparison,

    • As a result,

    • First of all,

    • For example,

    ID: 34a5ba1c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. “As a result” logically signals that the information in this sentence about Amaya leaving Spain to perform abroad is a result of the previous information about the Spanish Civil War.

    Choice A is incorrect because “in comparison” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is being compared to the previous information about the Spanish Civil War. Instead, Amaya leaving Spain is a result of that war. Choice C is incorrect because “first of all” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is the beginning of a sequence of events. Instead, Amaya leaving Spain is a result of the event (the outbreak of war) described in the previous sentence. Choice D is incorrect because “for example” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is an example supporting the previous statement about the Spanish Civil War. Instead, Amaya leaving Spain is a result of that war.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID b44141cf

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: b44141cf

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Researchers in a 2021 study wanted to determine the rate at which 17 languages conveyed both information and syllables.
    • They calculated the bits of information conveyed per second (the IR, or information rate).
    • The IR was found to be approximately consistent across the 17 languages (an average of 39 bits per second).
    • They calculated the number of syllables spoken per second (the SR, or syllable rate).
    • Spanish had the second-fastest SR (7.7 syllables per second).
    • Vietnamese had the sixteenth-fastest SR (5.3 syllables per second).

    The student wants to present an overview of the study’s findings. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The 2021 study determined the information rate (IR) of 17 languages in bits of information conveyed per second.

    • Researchers found that information was conveyed more quickly in Spanish, at 7.7 syllables per second, than in Vietnamese, at 5.3 syllables per second.

    • Vietnamese had the sixteenth-fastest syllable rate, lower than that of Spanish, which had the second-fastest; however, Spanish had the lower information rate of the two.

    • Though some of the languages differed in number of syllables spoken per second, all 17 conveyed information at roughly the same rate.

    ID: b44141cf Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence presents an overview of the study’s findings, noting that, for some of the languages (the examples of Spanish and Vietnamese are given in the notes), the number of syllables spoken per second varied, while the amount of information conveyed per second remained roughly constant across all 17 languages.

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence describes one of the metrics the study assessed, it doesn’t present any of the study’s findings. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence compares specific findings about two of the languages studied, it doesn’t provide an overview of the study’s findings across all 17 languages. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence compares specific findings about two of the languages studied; it doesn’t provide an overview of the study’s findings across all 17 languages. It also misrepresents the information from the notes about Spanish’s information rate.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID c34d6bff

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: c34d6bff

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • African American women played prominent roles in the Civil Rights Movement, including at the famous 1963 March on Washington.
    • Civil rights activist Anna Hedgeman, one of the march’s organizers, was a political adviser who had worked for President Truman.
    • Civil rights activist Daisy Bates was a well-known journalist and advocate for school desegregation.
    • Hedgeman worked behind the scenes to make sure a woman was included in the lineup of speakers at the march.
    • Bates was the sole woman to speak, delivering a brief but memorable address to the cheering crowd.

    The student wants to compare the two women’s contributions to the March on Washington. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Hedgeman and Bates contributed to the march in different ways; Bates, for example, delivered a brief but memorable address.

    • Hedgeman worked in politics and helped organize the march, while Bates was a journalist and school desegregation advocate.

    • Although Hedgeman worked behind the scenes to make sure a woman speaker was included, Bates was the sole woman to speak at the march.

    • Many African American women, including Bates and Hedgeman, fought for civil rights, but only one spoke at the march.

    ID: c34d6bff Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence compares the two women’s contributions to the march: Hedgeman worked behind the scenes to make sure a woman speaker was included, whereas Bates actually spoke at the event. 

    Choice A is incorrect. While it acknowledges that the two women both contributed to the march, it doesn’t indicate what Hedgeman did, so no comparison is made. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence provides information about the two women, it doesn’t mention anything about Bates’s contribution to the march. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence indicates that the two women both fought for civil rights, it doesn’t compare their individual contributions to the march.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID ac8eb085

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: ac8eb085

    “O2 Arena,” an award-winning science fiction story by Nigerian author Oghenechovwe Donald Ekpeki, takes place in an alternate version of Nigeria where breathable air is a rare commodity that is owned and sold by companies. blank people must purchase it with currency called O2 credits.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • As a result,

    • In any case,

    • Nevertheless,

    • Earlier,

    ID: ac8eb085 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The second sentence describes a consequence of the system laid out in the first sentence: because air is owned and sold by companies in this world, people have to buy it.

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that means “no matter what happens” or “whatever the situation is,” which doesn’t make sense here. There’s only one situation described in the text: a fictional world in which companies own all the breathable air, forcing people to buy it. Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses a disagreement transition. But this sentence doesn’t disagree with the previous sentence. They both describe the same fictional situation. Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates a shift back in time, which doesn’t make sense here. Both sentences use the present tense, as they’re describing the same fictional time period.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 37957752

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 37957752

    As biologist Terrie Williams has documented, deep dives present a challenge for seals and other marine mammals. A seal must exert enough energy to propel itself hundreds of meters downward, while keeping its heart rate low enough that it doesn’t run out of oxygen while underwater. blank a seal moves its flippers as little as possible on a deep dive, gliding to conserve energy.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • In the first place,

    • On the other hand,

    • For this reason,

    • In comparison,

    ID: 37957752 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. “For this reason” logically signals that the behavior described in this sentence is a consequence of the information about seals in the previous sentence. That is, a seal moves its flippers as little as possible during a deep dive because it needs to keep its heart rate low enough that it does not run out of oxygen. 

    Choice A is incorrect because “in the first place” illogically signals that this sentence is the first point in a discussion. Instead, the sentence describes a behavior that is a consequence of the previous information about seals.  Choice B is incorrect because “on the other hand” illogically signals that the behavior described in this sentence contrasts with the previous information about seals. Instead, it is a consequence of that information. Choice D is incorrect because “in comparison” illogically signals that the behavior described in this sentence is being compared to the previous information about seals. Instead, it is a consequence of that information. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 2b5f4bdc

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 2b5f4bdc

    In the early 1900s, Jovita Idár fought injustice on both sides of the Mexico–United States border. As a reporter for the Texas newspaper La Crónica, she voiced support for the Mexican people’s revolt against authoritarian rule. blank she founded the League of Mexican Women, a group that advocated for the rights of Mexican Americans.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Additionally,

    • In conclusion,

    • For example,

    • Rather,

    ID: 2b5f4bdc Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer because “additionally” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that Idár founded the League of Mexican Women—is another instance of Idár fighting injustice, this time advocating for the rights of Mexican Americans.

    Choice B is incorrect because “in conclusion” illogically signals that the information in this sentence sums up or concludes the discussion of Idár’s support for the Mexican people’s revolt. Instead, the founding of the League of Mexican Women is a separate instance of Idár fighting injustice. Choice C is incorrect because “for example” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is an example of how, as a newspaper reporter, Idár voiced support for the Mexican people’s revolt. Instead, the founding of the League of Mexican Women is a separate instance of Idár fighting injustice, this time in support of Mexican Americans. Choice D is incorrect because “rather” illogically signals that the information in this sentence offers a contrast or exception to the previous information about Idár’s support for the Mexican people’s revolt. Instead, the founding of the League of Mexican Women is a separate instance of Idár fighting injustice.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 90117366

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 90117366

    To explore how blinking affects social interactions, Dutch researchers observed interactions between human speakers and “listeners” (animated human faces on a screen). The researchers found that when the listeners blinked slowly, the speakers tended to talk for less time. blank quicker blinks were associated with longer talking times.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • For example,

    • Specifically,

    • Firstly,

    • By contrast,

    ID: 90117366 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. “By contrast” logically signals that the finding described in this sentence contrasts with the finding described in the previous sentence. That is, quicker blinks were associated with longer talking times, whereas slower blinks were associated with shorter talking times. 

    Choice A is incorrect because “for example” illogically signals that the finding described in this sentence is an example of the finding described in the previous sentence. Instead, it contrasts with that finding. Choice B is incorrect because “specifically” illogically signals that this sentence provides specific, precise details about the finding described in the previous sentence. Instead, it presents information that contrasts with that finding. Choice C is incorrect because “firstly” illogically signals that the finding described in this sentence is a first point or occurs first in a chronological sequence of events. Instead, it contrasts with the finding described in the previous sentence. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID a204d618

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: a204d618

    In 1949, Frank Zamboni developed an ice rink resurfacing machine. As Zamboni’s machine moved along the rink’s surface, it first scraped off the top layer of ice. blank it sprayed water into the deep grooves left behind by customers’ skates. Lastly, it smoothed over the newly formed ice.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • For example,

    • Next,

    • Similarly,

    • In contrast,

    ID: a204d618 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "Next" logically signals that the action in this sentence—the water spraying—is the next step in the resurfacing process, following the ice scraping mentioned in the previous sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the action in this sentence is an example of the action in the previous sentence. Instead, the water spraying is the next step in a process that begins with the ice scraping. Choice C is incorrect because "similarly" illogically signals that the action in this sentence is similar to the action in the previous sentence. Instead, the water spraying is the next step in a process that begins with the ice scraping. Choice D is incorrect because "in contrast" illogically signals that the action in this sentence contrasts with the action in the previous sentence. Instead, the water spraying is the next step in a process that begins with the ice scraping.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID ed80971c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: ed80971c

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The Pueblo of Zuni is located about 150 miles west of Albuquerque, New Mexico.
    • It is the traditional home of the A:shiwi (Zuni) people.
    • The A:shiwi A:wan Museum and Heritage Center was established by tribal members in 1992.
    • Its mission is stated on its website: “As a tribal museum and heritage center for the Zuni people and by the Zuni people we work to provide learning experiences that emphasize A:shiwi ways of knowing, as well as exploring modern concepts of knowledge and the transfer of knowledge.”

    The student wants to emphasize how long the museum has existed. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The Pueblo of Zuni is home to the A:shiwi A:wan Museum and Heritage Center, which was founded by tribal members.

    • The A:shiwi A:wan Museum and Heritage Center has served the Pueblo of Zuni since 1992.

    • According to its website, the A:shiwi A:wan Museum and Heritage Center (founded in the 1990s) works to “emphasize A:shiwi ways of knowing.”

    • Knowledge has been one of the central themes of the A:shiwi A:wan Museum and Heritage Center from its founding.

    ID: ed80971c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. This choice effectively uses information from the notes to emphasize how long the museum has existed. It says that the museum has existed since 1992.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t emphasize how long the museum has existed. It doesn’t say when the museum was founded. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t emphasize how long the museum has existed. It doesn’t say the exact date of the museum’s founding. Rather, it emphasizes the museum’s mission. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t emphasize how long the museum has existed. It doesn’t say when the museum was founded. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 114bbce6

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 114bbce6

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Earthquakes start at a point called a “focus” and spread out from there as seismic waves.
    • The two types of seismic waves that travel beneath Earth’s surface are primary waves (P waves) and secondary waves (S waves).
    • P waves travel more quickly beneath Earth’s surface than do S waves.
    • P waves compress and expand the ground, causing it to move backward and forward.
    • S waves cause the ground to move from side to side.

    The student wants to emphasize a similarity between P waves and S waves. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • P waves and S waves both travel beneath Earth’s surface, causing the ground to move.

    • P waves travel away from an earthquake’s starting point at a higher rate of speed than do S waves.

    • Spreading out from the focus of an earthquake, P waves move the ground backward and forward.

    • Although P waves and S waves start at the same point, they behave very differently.

    ID: 114bbce6 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between P waves and S waves, noting that they both travel beneath Earth’s surface, thereby causing the ground to move.

    Choice B is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a difference between P waves and S waves, noting that P waves travel faster than S waves; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two types of waves. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes how P waves move; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between P waves and S waves. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence acknowledges that P waves and S waves start at the same point, it doesn’t emphasize a similarity; instead, the sentence emphasizes a difference between the two types of waves, noting that they behave very differently.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID b6ebadf6

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: b6ebadf6

    There are three basic steps you should follow when planning a scientific inquiry. First, thoroughly research the question you wish to answer. blank come up with a prediction (also called a hypothesis) about the answer to your question. Third, develop an experiment that can test the accuracy of your hypothesis.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Therefore,

    • Instead,

    • For example,

    • Second,

    ID: b6ebadf6 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "Second" logically signals that the activity described in this sentence—coming up with a prediction—is the next step in the three-part sequence of steps described in the text.

    Choice A is incorrect because "therefore" illogically signals that coming up with a prediction is a result or consequence of the activity described in the previous sentence: researching a question. While a prediction may be influenced by prior research, these activities are distinct steps in planning a scientific inquiry. Coming up with a prediction is the next step in the three-part sequence of steps described in the text. Choice B is incorrect because "instead" illogically signals that coming up with a prediction is an alternative to the activity described in the previous sentence: researching a question. Rather, coming up with a prediction is the next step in the three-part sequence of steps described in the text. Choice C is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that coming up with a prediction is an example of the activity described in the previous sentence: researching a question. Instead, coming up with a prediction is the next step in the three-part sequence of steps described in the text.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 13f36b03

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 13f36b03

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Jon Ching is a Los Angeles-based painter.
    • He uses the term “flauna” to describe the plant-animal hybrids that he depicts in his surreal paintings.
    • “Flauna” is a combination of the words “flora” and “fauna.”
    • His painting Nectar depicts a parrot with leaves for feathers.
    • His painting Primaveral depicts a snow leopard whose fur sprouts flowers.

    The student wants to provide an explanation and example of “flauna.” Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The term “flauna,” used by Los Angeles-based painter Jon Ching, is a combination of the words “flora” and “fauna.”

    • Jon Ching uses the term “flauna,” a combination of the words “flora” and “fauna,” to describe the subjects of his surreal paintings: plant-animal hybrids such as a parrot with leaves for feathers.

    • Jon Ching, who created Nectar, refers to the subjects of his paintings as “flauna.”

    • The subjects of Nectar and Primaveral are types of “flauna,” a term that the paintings’ creator, Jon Ching, uses when describing his surreal artworks.

    ID: 13f36b03 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer because it provides both an explanation and an example of “flauna.” The sentence explains that flauna, a combination of the words “flora” and “fauna,” is a term used by Jon Ching to describe the plant-animal hybrids in his paintings. The sentence also mentions an example of Ching’s flauna: a parrot with leaves for feathers. 

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence partially explains what “flauna” is, it doesn’t provide a full explanation or specific example of Ching’s flauna. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence partially explains what “flauna” is and includes a title of a Ching painting, it doesn’t provide a full explanation or specific example of Ching’s flauna. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence partially explains what “flauna” is and includes the titles of two Ching paintings, it doesn’t provide a full explanation of Ching’s flauna.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID ec03f090

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: ec03f090

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • A sestina is a thirty-nine-line poetic form.
    • Each line of the poem ends with one of six end words, which alternate according to a set pattern.
    • “Forage Sestina” is a sestina by Marilyn Hacker.
    • Its end words are words, structure, wire, beam, wall, and room.
    • “Towards Autumn” is a sestina by Marilyn Hacker.
    • Its end words are daughter, friend, bread, mother, lover, and myself.

    The student wants to use one of the poems to illustrate the sestina form. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Hacker employs the sestina, a poetic form with thirty-nine lines and six end words, in both “Forage Sestina” and “Towards Autumn.”

    • As a sestina, “Towards Autumn” contains thirty-nine lines and six end words—in this case, daughter, friend, bread, mother, lover, and myself—that alternate in a set pattern.

    • The thirty-nine-line sestina form uses the words daughter, friend, bread, mother, lover, and myself, which are found in the poem “Forage Sestina.”

    • Hacker has used the sestina form multiple times, as in “Towards Autumn,” which contains these six words: words, structure, wire, beam, wall, and room.

    ID: ec03f090 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence uses the poem "Towards Autumn" to illustrate the form of a sestina, explaining that a sestina’s thirty-nine lines all end in one of six alternating words and showcasing that poem’s specific end words.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence identifies both of Hacker’s poems as sestinas; it doesn’t use one of the poems to illustrate the form of a sestina. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence appears to use the poem "Forage Sestina" to illustrate a feature of the sestina form, it misrepresents the information in the notes. According to the notes, "Forage Sestina" doesn’t use these six end words; it uses six other words instead. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence uses the poem "Towards Autumn" as an example of one of Hacker’s sestinas, it misrepresents the information in the notes. According to the notes, "Towards Autumn" doesn’t use these six end words; it uses six other words instead.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 52b31d7b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 52b31d7b

    In November 1934, Amrita Sher-Gil was living in what must have seemed like the ideal city for a young artist: Paris. She was studying firsthand the color-saturated style of France’s modernist masters and beginning to make a name for herself as a painter. blank Sher-Gil longed to return to her childhood home of India; only there, she believed, could her art truly flourish.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Still,

    • Therefore,

    • Indeed,

    • Furthermore,

    ID: 52b31d7b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. “Still” logically signals that the information about Sher-Gil in this sentence—that she longed to leave Paris and return to India—contrasts with what one would expect after reading about Sher-Gil’s experiences in Paris in the previous sentences. 

    Choice B is incorrect because “therefore” illogically signals that the information about Sher-Gil in this sentence is a result or consequence of the descriptions in the previous sentences. Instead, this information contrasts with what one would expect after reading about Sher-Gil’s experiences in Paris. Choice C is incorrect because “indeed” illogically signals that the information about Sher-Gil in this sentence offers additional emphasis in support of the descriptions in the previous sentences. Instead, this information contrasts with what one would expect after reading about Sher-Gil’s experiences in Paris. Choice D is incorrect because “furthermore” illogically signals that the information about Sher-Gil in this sentence offers additional support for or confirmation of the descriptions in the previous sentences. Instead, this information contrasts with what one would expect after reading about Sher-Gil’s experiences in Paris.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID a86c0b1b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: a86c0b1b

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Ancient Native American and Australian Aboriginal cultures described the Pleiades star cluster as having seven stars.
    • It was referred to as the Seven Sisters in the mythology of ancient Greece.
    • Today, the cluster appears to have only six stars.
    • Two of the stars have moved so close together that they now appear as one.

    The student wants to specify the reason the Pleiades’ appearance changed. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Ancient Native American and Australian Aboriginal cultures described the Pleiades, which was referred to in Greek mythology as the Seven Sisters, as having seven stars.

    • Although once referred to as the Seven Sisters, the Pleiades appears to have only six stars today.

    • In the time since ancient cultures described the Pleiades as having seven stars, two of the cluster’s stars have moved so close together that they now appear as one.

    • The Pleiades has seven stars, but two are so close together that they appear to be a single star.

    ID: a86c0b1b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence specifies the reason the Pleiades’ appearance changed, noting that two of the cluster’s stars have moved so close together that they now appear as one star.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence specifies how ancient Native American and Australian Aboriginal cultures described the Pleiades; it doesn’t specify the reason the Pleiades’ appearance changed. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence describes the appearance of the Pleiades today; it doesn’t specify the reason the Pleiades’ appearance changed. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence explains why two of the Pleiades’ stars appear to be a single star; it doesn’t specify the reason the Pleiades’ appearance changed.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID eaded344

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: eaded344

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The painter Frida Kahlo is one of the most influential artists of the twentieth century.
    • She was born in Coyoacán, Mexico, in 1907.
    • She is best known for her vivid and richly symbolic self-portraits.
    • The Two Fridas (1939) features two versions of Kahlo sitting together.
    • One version wears a European-style dress and the other a traditional Tehuana dress.

    The student wants to introduce Kahlo to an audience unfamiliar with the artist. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Known for being vivid and richly symbolic, Frida Kahlo’s self-portraits include The Two Fridas (1939).

    • The 1939 painting The Two Fridas is one example of a self-portrait by Frida Kahlo.

    • One painting by Frida Kahlo features two versions of herself, with one version wearing a European-style dress and the other a traditional Tehuana dress.

    • One of the most influential artists of the twentieth century, Mexican painter Frida Kahlo is best known for her self-portraits, which are vivid and richly symbolic.

    ID: eaded344 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. By identifying Kahlo as an influential artist from Mexico, and by describing the work she’s best known for, this choice provides the background information necessary to introduce Kahlo to an unfamiliar audience.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t effectively introduce Kahlo. It doesn’t include any background information about who Kahlo is or where she’s from. It simply identifies one of her paintings. Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t effectively introduce Kahlo. It doesn’t include any background information about who Kahlo is or where she’s from. It simply identifies one of her paintings. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t effectively introduce Kahlo. It doesn’t include any background information about who Kahlo is or where she’s from. Instead, it describes one of her paintings in detail.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID e2eb70b9

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: e2eb70b9

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Traditionally, manufacturers have dyed denim jeans blue by dipping them in a solution containing indigo powder.
    • Indigo doesn’t dissolve in just water, so manufacturers must mix hazardous chemicals with water to dissolve the powder.
    • Textile researcher Smriti Rai discovered a process for dyeing blue jeans without chemicals.
    • Rai added indigo powder to a hydrogel containing nanocellulose and produced a dye that could be spread directly onto the denim.
    • Nanocellulose is a natural, plant-based substance that separates the molecules of indigo powder.

    The student wants to emphasize a difference between the two approaches to dyeing blue jeans. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Though created using a different process, Rai’s dye contains the same ingredient as the dye produced by blue jean manufacturers.

    • Nanocellulose is a natural, plant-based substance that separates the molecules of indigo powder, which doesn’t dissolve in water.

    • The traditional approach to dyeing blue jeans is to dip them in a solution containing hazardous chemicals. 

    • Rai’s approach substitutes a natural, plant-based substance for the hazardous chemicals that manufacturers have traditionally used.

    ID: e2eb70b9 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a difference between the two approaches to dyeing blue jeans, noting that Rai’s approach uses a natural, plant-based substance in place of hazardous chemicals.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between the dyes used in the two approaches, noting that the dyes contain the same ingredient; it doesn’t emphasize a difference between the two approaches to dyeing blue jeans. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence explains what nanocellulose is; it doesn’t emphasize a difference between the two approaches to dyeing blue jeans. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence explains the traditional approach to dyeing blue jeans; it doesn’t emphasize a difference between the traditional approach and Rai’s approach.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID c40a1964

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: c40a1964

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Leigh Torres is a marine ecologist.
    • She conducted a study of blue whales in New Zealand’s South Taranaki Bight region.
    • She wanted to know how ocean temperature affects where the whales forage for krill in that region.
    • She found that during a marine heat wave, the whales foraged farther offshore than they had during cooler periods.
    • The offshore waters, which were colder than areas closer to shore, had a higher relative abundance of krill.

    The student wants to emphasize the aim of the research study. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Analyzing ocean temperature data, Torres found that during a marine heat wave, blue whales foraged farther offshore than they had during cooler periods.

    • In her study, Torres sought to determine how ocean temperature affects where blue whales forage for krill in the South Taranaki Bight region.

    • Torres’s study revealed that blue whales were attracted to offshore waters with a relatively high abundance of krill.

    • Torres, a marine ecologist, studied blue whales in the South Taranaki Bight region, where the whales forage.

    ID: c40a1964 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the aim, or goal, of the research study, noting that Torres sought to determine how ocean temperature affects where blue whales forage for krill.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the results of the study, noting what Torres found at the end; it doesn’t emphasize the aim, or goal, of the study, which is what Torres sought at the beginning. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence makes a claim about the study’s results; it doesn’t emphasize the aim, or goal, of the study. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence indicates the location of Torres’s study; it doesn’t emphasize the aim, or goal, of the study.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 86b78078

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 86b78078

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Samuel Selvon was a Trinidadian author.
    • The Lonely Londoners is one of his most celebrated novels.
    • Selvon published the novel in 1956.
    • It is about a group of men who emigrate from the Caribbean to Great Britain after World War II.
    • Some of The Lonely Londoners’ characters also appear in Selvon’s later novel Moses Ascending.

    The student wants to introduce Samuel Selvon and his novel The Lonely Londoners to a new audience. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • In 1956, Trinidadian author Samuel Selvon published one of his most celebrated novels, The Lonely Londoners, which is about a group of men who emigrate from the Caribbean to Great Britain after World War II.

    • Samuel Selvon wrote the novel Moses Ascending after he wrote The Lonely Londoners. 

    • The Lonely Londoners, a celebrated novel that was published in 1956, depicts post–World War II Caribbean migration from the perspective of a Trinidadian author.

    • Some of the characters who appear in Samuel Selvon’s Moses Ascending also appear in The Lonely Londoners.

    ID: 86b78078 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. By noting that Selvon is a Trinidadian author and indicating that The Lonely Londoners, published in 1956, is about a group of men who emigrate from the Caribbean to Great Britain after World War II, the sentence effectively introduces Samuel Selvon and his novel to a new audience.

    Choice B is incorrect. The sentence indicates the order in which two of Selvon’s novels were written; it doesn’t introduce Samuel Selvon and The Lonely Londoners to a new audience. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence describes the novel The Lonely Londoners, it doesn’t mention its author, Samuel Selvon, by name and thus doesn’t effectively introduce him to a new audience. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence indicates that two of Selvon’s novels include the same characters; it doesn’t introduce Samuel Selvon and The Lonely Londoners to a new audience.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 4f9ee1dc

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 4f9ee1dc

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Seven species of sea turtle exist today.
    • Five sea turtle species can be found in the Atlantic Ocean.
    • One of those species is the Kemp’s ridley sea turtle.
    • Its scientific name is Lepidochelys kempii.
    • Another of those species is the olive ridley sea turtle.
    • Its scientific name is Lepidochelys olivacea.

    The student wants to emphasize a similarity between the two sea turtle species. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Among the seven species of sea turtle is the olive ridley sea turtle, which can be found in the Atlantic Ocean.

    • The Kemp’s ridley sea turtle is referred to as Lepidochelys kempii, while the olive ridley sea turtle is referred to as Lepidochelys olivacea.

    • Both the Kemp’s ridley sea turtle and the olive ridley sea turtle can be found in the Atlantic Ocean.

    • The Kemp’s ridley sea turtle (Lepidochelys kempii) and the olive ridley sea turtle (Lepidochelys olivacea) are different species.

    ID: 4f9ee1dc Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between the two sea turtle species: both can be found in the Atlantic Ocean.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence indicates that the olive ridley sea turtle is one of seven species of sea turtle; it fails to mention the Kemp’s ridley sea turtle. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a difference between the two sea turtle species rather than a similarity. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a difference between the two sea turtle species rather than a similarity.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 1996c104

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 1996c104

    The liquid metals in Earth’s core circulate constantly, and this circulation generates electrical currents that flow between Earth’s North and South magnetic poles. These electrical currents, blank create a barrier around Earth that protects us from radiation and charged particles coming from space.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • in turn,

    • likewise,

    • nevertheless,

    • in reality,

    ID: 1996c104 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. "In turn" logically signals that the information in the sentence—that the electrical currents create a protective barrier around Earth—is a result or consequence of the previous information about the circulation of liquid metals generating electrical currents that flow between Earth’s magnetic poles.

    Choice B is incorrect because "likewise" illogically signals that the information in the sentence is similar to the previous information about the circulation of liquid metals generating electrical currents that flow between Earth’s magnetic poles. Instead, the new information about the electrical currents is a direct result or consequence of the previous information. Choice C is incorrect because "nevertheless" illogically signals that the information in the sentence is true despite the previous information about the circulation of liquid metals generating electrical currents that flow between Earth’s magnetic poles. Instead, the new information about the electrical currents is a direct result or consequence of the previous information. Choice D is incorrect because "in reality" illogically signals that the information in the sentence contradicts the previous information about the circulation of liquid metals generating electrical currents that flow between Earth’s magnetic poles. Instead, the new information about the electrical currents is a direct result or consequence of the previous information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID bfb4e85e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: bfb4e85e

    Ballet dancer Misty Copeland has accomplished a lot. She has appeared on Broadway, toured with Prince, and even served on the President’s Council on Sports, Fitness & Nutrition. blank according to Copeland, nothing in her career matches the honor of being the first African American woman named principal dancer at the prestigious American Ballet Theatre.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Thus,

    • However,

    • For example,

    • Second of all,

    ID: bfb4e85e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "However" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that nothing in Copeland’s career matches her accomplishment of being the first African American woman named principal dancer at the American Ballet Theatre—offers a contrast or exception to the previous information about Copeland’s accomplishments.

    Choice A is incorrect because "thus" illogically signals that the information that follows is a result of the previous information about Copeland’s accomplishments. Instead, the statement that nothing in Copeland’s career matches this accomplishment offers a contrast or exception to that information. Choice C is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that Copeland’s statement about her greatest accomplishment exemplifies the claim about her accomplishments in the previous sentence. Instead, it offers a contrast or exception to that information. Choice D is incorrect because "second of all" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a second, separate claim from the previous sentence’s information about her accomplishments. Instead, the statement that nothing in Copeland’s career matches this accomplishment offers a contrast or exception to that information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID f5a00eff

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: f5a00eff

    If the formation of Earth’s mantle had been purely a product of core differentiation—whereby heavier elements sink toward the core and lighter elements rise—the upper mantle would be depleted of heavy siderophile elements. Siderophiles are much more abundant in the mantle than predicted in that model, however. blank extraterrestrial material containing siderophiles, likely from asteroid or comet impacts, almost certainly accreted to Earth following core differentiation.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • That said,

    • Hence,

    • For example,  

    • Likewise,

    ID: f5a00eff Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "Hence" correctly signals that the claim in this sentence regarding extraterrestrial material follows logically from the information in the previous sentences. The previous sentences establish that siderophile elements in the mantle are more abundant than predicted in the core-differentiation model. This sentence claims, logically, that these elements came from extraterrestrial material that accreted to Earth after core differentiation.

    Choice A is incorrect because "that said" illogically signals that the information in this sentence regarding extraterrestrial material is an exception to the previous information about siderophiles’ abundance in the mantle. Instead, it is a new claim that follows logically from the previous information. Choice C is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the information in this sentence regarding extraterrestrial material exemplifies the previous information about siderophiles’ abundance in the mantle. Instead, it is a new claim that follows logically from the previous information. Choice D is incorrect because "likewise" illogically signals that the information in this sentence regarding extraterrestrial material is merely similar to the previous information about siderophiles’ abundance in the mantle. Instead, it is a new claim that follows logically from the previous information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 2bda9edb

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 2bda9edb

    In 1885, Chinese-born California resident Mary Tape became a hero of the Asian American civil rights movement. In January of that year, she won an antidiscrimination case in the California Supreme Court. blank in April, she wrote an open letter criticizing her local board of education for discrimination. Both actions are remembered today as historic stands against racism.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Later,

    • For instance,

    • In other words,

    • Rather,

    ID: 2bda9edb Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. “Later” logically signals that the letter-writing discussed in this sentence occurred later in a chronological sequence of events than did the antidiscrimination case discussed in the previous sentence.

    Choice B is incorrect because “for instance” illogically signals that the letter-writing discussed in this sentence is an example of the antidiscrimination case discussed in the previous sentence. Instead, the letter-writing is an event that occurred after the court case. Choice C is incorrect because “in other words” illogically signals that the letter-writing discussed in this sentence is a paraphrase or restatement of the antidiscrimination case discussed in the previous sentence. Instead, the letter-writing is an event that occurred after the court case. Choice D is incorrect because “rather” illogically signals that the letter-writing discussed in this sentence is an alternative to the antidiscrimination case discussed in the previous sentence. Instead, the letter-writing is an event that occurred after the court case.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 2c7dced2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 2c7dced2

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Sister Rosetta Tharpe (1915–1973) was a gospel musician.
    • She was known for her passionate vocals and electric guitar performances.
    • In 2018, Tharpe was inducted into the Rock and Roll Hall of Fame for her major impact on the genre.
    • According to songwriter Roxie Moore, “[Tharpe] would sing until you cried and then she would sing until you danced for joy.”
    • According to guitarist Celisse Henderson, “Tharpe is the unquestioned founding mother of rock ’n’ roll.”

    The student wants to use a quotation to support a claim about Tharpe’s contribution to rock ’n’ roll. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Gospel musician Sister Rosetta Tharpe had a major impact on rock ’n’ roll, and she was known for her passionate electric guitar performances.

    • Celisse Henderson believes that Sister Rosetta Tharpe had a major impact on the development of rock ’n’ roll.

    • Sister Rosetta Tharpe had such a major impact on rock ’n’ roll that Celisse Henderson called her “the unquestioned founding mother” of the genre.

    • A gospel musician, Sister Rosetta Tharpe had the ability to “sing until you cried” and also “until you danced for joy,” according to Roxie Moore.

    ID: 2c7dced2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence uses the quotation from Henderson to support a claim about Tharpe’s contribution to rock ’n’ roll, noting that the impact Tharpe had on the genre led Henderson to call her "the unquestioned founding mother of rock ’n’ roll."

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence makes the claim that Tharpe had a major impact on rock ’n’ roll, it doesn’t use a quotation to support this claim. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence presents Henderson’s opinion that Tharpe had a major impact on rock ’n’ roll, but it doesn’t use a quotation to support this claim. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence includes a quotation about audience reactions to Tharpe’s music, the sentence describes Tharpe as a gospel musician; it doesn’t support a claim about her contribution to rock ’n’ roll.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID b0620764

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: b0620764

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Phobetor, a name drawn from Greek mythology, is an exoplanet that orbits the star PSR B1257+12, also known as Lich.
    • Phobetor’s mass is 0.01 times that of Jupiter, or 0.01 Jupiter masses.
    • Mastika, which means “gem” or “jewel” in Malay, is an exoplanet that orbits the star HD 179949, also known as Gumala.
    • Mastika’s mass is 0.92 Jupiter masses.

    The student wants to make and support a generalization about exoplanets. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Exoplanets that are named Phobetor orbit Lich, and those that are named Mastika orbit Gumala.

    • Even though Phobetor and Mastika are both exoplanets, their masses are different: Phobetor’s mass is 0.01 Jupiter masses, and Mastika’s is 0.92 Jupiter masses.

    • Many stars have both a designation and a proper name; for instance, PSR B1257+12 is also known as Lich, and HD 179949 is also known as Gumala.

    • Exoplanet names have diverse origins, a fact that can be seen in the cases of Phobetor, a name drawn from Greek mythology, and Mastika, which means “gem” or “jewel” in Malay.

    ID: b0620764 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence makes and supports a generalization about exoplanets, noting that the names of exoplanets have diverse origins and supporting this with the examples of the origins of "Phobetor" and "Mastika."

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence misrepresents information from the notes, implying that there are multiple exoplanets with the same names. Additionally, the sentence provides no support for its generalization. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence contrasts the masses of two specific exoplanets; it doesn’t make and support a generalization about exoplanets. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence makes and supports a generalization about stars, not exoplanets.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID e3484c07

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: e3484c07

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Bioluminescence is the emission of light by living organisms.
    • This light is produced by chemical reactions in organisms’ cells.
    • Jellyfish emit flashes of blue light.
    • This behavior serves to startle predators.
    • Black dragonfish emit a steady red light.
    • This behavior helps them locate prey in deep waters.

    The student wants to emphasize a difference between the behavior of jellyfish and that of black dragonfish. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Both jellyfish and black dragonfish are organisms that emit light, which is produced by chemical reactions in these organisms’ cells.

    • Black dragonfish emit a steady red light, which helps them locate prey in deep waters.

    • Bioluminescence, the emission of light by living organisms, results from chemical reactions in organisms’ cells. 

    • Jellyfish emit light to startle predators, whereas black dragonfish do so to locate prey.

    ID: e3484c07 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a difference between the behavior of jellyfish and that of black dragonfish, noting that jellyfish and black dragonfish emit light as part of different behaviors (protection and predation, respectively).

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between jellyfish and black dragonfish; it doesn’t emphasize a difference between the behavior of the two animals. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the type of bioluminescence exhibited by black dragonfish, noting that it’s used in predation; it doesn’t emphasize a difference between the behavior of the two animals. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence defines bioluminescence and explains how it works; the sentence doesn’t mention either animal or emphasize a difference between them.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID fc95a352

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: fc95a352

    When designing costumes for film, American artist Suttirat Larlarb typically custom fits the garments to each actor. blank for the film Sunshine, in which astronauts must reignite a dying Sun, she designed a golden spacesuit and had a factory reproduce it in a few standard sizes; lacking a tailor-made quality, the final creations reflected the ungainliness of actual spacesuits.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Nevertheless,

    • Thus,

    • Likewise,

    • Moreover,

    ID: fc95a352 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. “Nevertheless” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that the spacesuits Suttirat Larlarb designed for the film Sunshine were made in standard sizes in a factory—presents a notable exception to Larlarb’s typical approach of custom-fitting garments to actors, which is described in the previous sentence. 

    Choice B is incorrect because “thus” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a result or consequence of the previous information about Larlarb’s typical approach of custom-fitting garments to actors. Instead, it presents a notable exception to Larlarb’s typical approach. Choice C is incorrect because “likewise” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is similar to the previous information about Larlarb’s typical approach of custom-fitting garments to actors. Instead, it presents a notable exception to Larlarb’s typical approach. Choice D is incorrect because “moreover” illogically signals that the information in this sentence merely adds to the previous information about Larlarb’s typical approach of custom-fitting garments to actors. Instead, it presents a notable exception to Larlarb’s typical approach. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 5a5e22b5

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 5a5e22b5

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Gravitational waves are powerful ripples that originate in deep space and eventually pass through Earth.
    • The Laser Interferometer Gravitational Wave Observatory (LIGO) is a physics study that began in 2002.
    • LIGO’s goal is to detect and analyze gravitational waves.
    • LIGO uses a pair of massive gravitational wave detectors called interferometers that are thousands of miles apart.
    • In 2015, for the first time in history, LIGO researchers detected a gravitational wave passing through Earth.

    The student wants to present LIGO’s aim and methodology. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • In 2015, LIGO’s massive interferometers detected a powerful ripple that originated in deep space and eventually passed through Earth.

    • Though the physics study LIGO began in 2002, its massive interferometers didn’t detect a gravitational wave until 2015.

    • To achieve its aims, LIGO uses a pair of massive interferometers that are thousands of miles apart.

    • A physics study designed to detect and analyze gravitational waves, LIGO uses a pair of massive interferometers that are thousands of miles apart.

    ID: 5a5e22b5 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence effectively presents the LIGO study’s aim, noting that it is designed to detect and analyze gravitational waves, and its methodology (it uses two interferometers to detect the waves).

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence describes a finding from the LIGO study; it doesn’t effectively present the study’s aim or its methodology. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence provides background information about the LIGO study’s timeline; it doesn’t effectively present the study’s aim or its methodology. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence touches on LIGO’s methodology, noting that it uses two interferometers, but doesn’t indicate what the study’s aims are. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID bc56170b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: bc56170b

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Most, but not all, of the Moon’s oxygen comes from the Sun, via solar wind.
    • Cosmochemist Kentaro Terada from Osaka University wondered if some of the unaccounted-for oxygen could be coming from Earth.
    • In 2008, he analyzed data from the Japanese satellite Kaguya.
    • Kaguya gathered data about gases and particles it encountered while orbiting the Moon.
    • Based on the Kaguya data, Terada confirmed his suspicion that Earth is sending oxygen to the Moon.

    The student wants to emphasize the aim of the research study. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • As it orbited the Moon, the Kaguya satellite collected data that was later analyzed by cosmochemist Kentaro Terada.

    • Before 2008, Kentaro Terada wondered if the Moon was receiving some of its oxygen from Earth.

    • Cosmochemist Kentaro Terada set out to determine whether some of the Moon’s oxygen was coming from Earth.

    • Kentaro Terada’s study determined that Earth is sending a small amount of oxygen to the Moon.

    ID: bc56170b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the aim, or goal, of the research study, noting what Terada set out to do: determine whether some of the Moon’s oxygen was coming from Earth.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence focuses on how the Kaguya satellite collected data; it doesn’t emphasize the aim of the research study. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence mentions what Terada was curious about before conducting the research study, it doesn’t emphasize his study’s aim. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence presents the research study’s conclusion; it doesn’t emphasize the study’s aim.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID d7f31e68

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: d7f31e68

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes: 

    • Annie Wu is a prominent American flutist who graduated from the New England Conservatory.
    • She has won multiple national flute competitions.
    • She is best known for a 2011 YouTube video that has been viewed over two million times.
    • The video shows her performing Three Beats for Beatbox Flute, an original work by composer Greg Pattillo.
    • Wu combines flute playing and beatboxing in the video.

    The student wants to emphasize Wu’s most well-known achievement. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Annie Wu, who has won multiple national flute competitions, has also combined flute playing and beatboxing.

    • Among her many achievements, prominent American flutist Annie Wu graduated from the New England Conservatory and has won multiple national flute competitions.

    • Annie Wu is best known for a 2011 YouTube video performance of Three Beats for Beatbox Flute that has been viewed over two million times.

    • Composer Greg Pattillo’s original work Three Beats for Beatbox Flute combines flute playing and beatboxing.

    ID: d7f31e68 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. This describes the achievement for which Wu is best known.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t emphasize Wu’s most well-known achievement. It mentions some of her general achievements, but not the one for which she is “best known.” Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t emphasize Wu’s most well-known achievement—it describes several of her achievements equally. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t emphasize Wu’s most well-known achievement. It describes a piece of music featured in her most well-known achievement.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 6351062d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 6351062d

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In the late 1890s, over 14,000 unique varieties of apples were grown in the US.
    • The rise of industrial agriculture in the mid-1900s narrowed the range of commercially grown crops.
    • Thousands of apple varieties considered less suitable for commercial growth were lost.
    • Today, only 15 apple varieties dominate the market, making up 90% of apples purchased in the US.
    • The Lost Apple Project, based in Washington State, attempts to find and grow lost apple varieties.

    The student wants to emphasize the decline in unique apple varieties in the US and specify why this decline occurred. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish these goals?

    • The Lost Apple Project is dedicated to finding some of the apple varieties lost following a shift in agricultural practices in the mid-1900s.

    • While over 14,000 apple varieties were grown in the US in the late 1890s, only 15 unique varieties make up most of the apples sold today.

    • Since the rise of industrial agriculture, US farmers have mainly grown the same few unique apple varieties, resulting in the loss of thousands of varieties less suitable for commercial growth.

    • As industrial agriculture rose to prominence in the mid-1900s, the number of crops selected for cultivation decreased dramatically.

    ID: 6351062d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the decline in unique apple varieties in the US and specifies why this decline occurred, noting that thousands of apple varieties were lost because US farmers started mainly growing the same few unique varieties.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence introduces the Lost Apple Project; it doesn’t emphasize the decline in unique apple varieties in the US and specify why this decline occurred. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence emphasizes the decline in unique apple varieties in the US, it doesn’t explain why this decline occurred. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the general decline of crop varieties in the mid-1900s; it doesn’t emphasize the specific decline in unique apple varieties in the US.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 5bb7dc03

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 5bb7dc03

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Started in 1925, the Scripps National Spelling Bee is a US-based spelling competition.
    • The words used in the competition have diverse linguistic origins.
    • In 2008, Sameer Mishra won by correctly spelling the word “guerdon.”
    • “Guerdon” derives from the Anglo-French word “guerdun.”
    • In 2009, Kavya Shivashankar won by correctly spelling the word “Laodicean.”
    • “Laodicean” derives from the ancient Greek word “Laodíkeia.”

    The student wants to emphasize a difference in the origins of the two words. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • “Guerdon,” the final word of the 2008 Scripps National Spelling Bee, is of Anglo-French origin, while the following year’s final word, “Laodicean,” derives from ancient Greek.

    • In 2008, Sameer Mishra won the Scripps National Spelling Bee by correctly spelling the word “guerdon”; however, the following year, Kavya Shivashankar won based on spelling the word “Laodicean.”

    • Kavya Shivashankar won the 2009 Scripps National Spelling Bee by correctly spelling “Laodicean,” which derives from the ancient Greek word “Laodíkeia.”

    • The Scripps National Spelling Bee uses words from diverse linguistic origins, such as “guerdon” and “Laodicean.”

    ID: 5bb7dc03 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. Noting that “guerdon” is of Anglo-French origin and “Laodicean” is of ancient Greek origin, the sentence uses “while” to emphasize a difference in the origins of the two words.

    Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence emphasizes two words used in the Scripps National Spelling Bee, it doesn’t emphasize (or mention) the words’ linguistic origins. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence specifies the linguistic origin of one word used in the Scripps National Spelling Bee, it doesn’t mention the other word or emphasize a difference in the two words’ origins. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence makes a generalization about words used in the Scripps National Spelling Bee, it doesn’t emphasize a difference in the words’ origins.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID e6b57c9b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: e6b57c9b

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Iranian scholar Abu Rayhan al-Biruni studied Earth’s physical features.
    • He theorized that a large landmass existed west of Europe and east of Asia.
    • Al-Biruni published his landmass theory in 1037 CE.

    The student wants to specify when al-Biruni published his landmass theory. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • In 1037 CE, al-Biruni published his theory that a large landmass existed west of Europe and east of Asia.

    • Al-Biruni, who studied Earth’s physical features, published a theory about a large landmass. 

    • Al-Biruni was an Iranian scholar who studied Earth’s physical features.

    • An Iranian scholar who studied Earth’s physical features, al-Biruni theorized that a large landmass existed west of Europe and east of Asia.

    ID: e6b57c9b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence specifies when al-Biruni published his landmass theory, indicating that it was published in the year 1037 CE.

    Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence notes that al-Biruni published a landmass theory, it doesn’t specify when the theory was published. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence identifies al-Biruni as a scholar of Earth’s physical features; it doesn’t specify when he published his landmass theory. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence describes al-Biruni’s landmass theory; it doesn’t specify when the theory was published.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 9e2d4ef7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 9e2d4ef7

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Abdulrazak Gurnah was awarded the 2021 Nobel Prize in Literature.
    • Gurnah was born in Zanzibar in East Africa and currently lives in the United Kingdom.
    • Many readers have singled out Gurnah’s 1994 book Paradise for praise.
    • Paradise is a historical novel about events that occurred in colonial East Africa.

    The student wants to introduce Paradise to an audience unfamiliar with the novel and its author. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Abdulrazak Gurnah, who wrote Paradise and later was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature, was born in Zanzibar in East Africa and currently lives in the United Kingdom. 

    • Many readers have singled out Abdulrazak Gurnah’s 1994 book Paradise, a historical novel about colonial East Africa, for praise. 

    • A much-praised historical novel about colonial East Africa, Paradise (1994) was written by Abdulrazak Gurnah, winner of the 2021 Nobel Prize in Literature.

    • Paradise is a historical novel about events that occurred in colonial East Africa, Abdulrazak Gurnah’s homeland.

    ID: 9e2d4ef7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence effectively introduces Paradise to an audience unfamiliar with the novel and its author, describing Paradise as a historical novel about colonial East Africa and its author as the winner of the 2021 Nobel Prize in Literature. 

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence introduces Abdulrazak Gurnah to an audience unfamiliar with the author, it doesn’t effectively introduce Paradise. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence provides background information about Paradise, it doesn’t effectively introduce the novel to an audience unfamiliar with its author. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence provides background information about Paradise, it doesn’t effectively introduce the novel to an audience unfamiliar with its author.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 42d92dea

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 42d92dea

    Before it unveiled a massive new gallery in 2009, the Art Institute of Chicago was only able to display about 5% of its art collection. blank the museum is able to display close to 30% of its collection.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Additionally,

    • For example,

    • Nevertheless,

    • Today,

    ID: 42d92dea Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "Today" logically signals that the information in the sentence—that the museum is able to display close to 30% of its collection—is true of the Art Institute of Chicago as it exists in the present day after the previously mentioned unveiling of the massive new gallery in 2009.

    Choice A is incorrect because "additionally" illogically signals that the information in the sentence is merely an additional fact related to the information about the museum before the new gallery opened. Instead, the sentence is about the museum in the present day after the new gallery opened. Choice B is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the information in the sentence exemplifies the previous information about the museum before the new gallery opened. Instead, the sentence is about the museum in the present day after the new gallery opened. Choice C is incorrect because "nevertheless" illogically signals that the information in the sentence is true despite the previous information about the museum before the new gallery opened. Instead, the sentence is about the museum in the present day after the new gallery opened.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 87d8a2ff

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 87d8a2ff

    During a 2021 launch, Rocket Labs’ Electron rocket experienced an unexpected failure: its second-stage booster shut down suddenly after ignition. blank instead of downplaying the incident, Rocket Labs’ CEO publicly acknowledged what happened and apologized for the loss of the rocket’s payload, which had consisted of two satellites.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Afterward,

    • Additionally,

    • Indeed,

    • Similarly,

    ID: 87d8a2ff Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. “Afterward” logically signals that the events described in this sentence—the CEO’s public acknowledgment and apology—occurred after the rocket booster’s failure and are part of a chronological sequence of events.

    Choice B is incorrect because “additionally” illogically signals that the events described in this sentence merely occurred in addition to the rocket booster’s failure. Instead, they occurred after the rocket booster’s failure and are part of a chronological sequence of events. Choice C is incorrect because “indeed” illogically signals that the events described in this sentence emphasize or strengthen a statement made in the previous sentence. Instead, they occurred after the rocket booster’s failure and are part of a chronological sequence of events. Choice D is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals that the events described in this sentence are similar to the rocket booster’s failure. Instead, they occurred after the rocket booster’s failure and are part of a chronological sequence of events.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 855247c7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 855247c7

    Mary Ellen Pleasant, a successful entrepreneur during the gold rush era, earned the moniker “Mother of Human Rights in California” after successfully challenging discrimination in the state. blank in 1866, she sued a streetcar company for denying her and other Black riders service, a suit she eventually won when the California Supreme Court declared it illegal for carriers to exclude passengers based on race.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • For this reason,

    • Then,

    • In addition,

    • Specifically,

    ID: 855247c7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "Specifically" logically signals that the information about Pleasant’s 1866 lawsuit provides specific, precise details elaborating on the previous point that Pleasant successfully challenged discrimination in California.

    Choice A is incorrect because "for this reason" illogically signals that Pleasant’s 1866 lawsuit was a result of her successful challenge to discrimination in California. Instead, this sentence provides specific details elaborating on her challenge to discrimination in the state. Choice B is incorrect because "then" illogically signals that Pleasant’s 1866 lawsuit was subsequent to or resulted from her successful challenge to discrimination in California. Instead, this sentence provides specific, precise details elaborating on how she challenged discrimination in the state. Choice C is incorrect because "in addition" illogically signals that the information about Pleasant’s 1866 lawsuit is merely additional to the previous point that Pleasant successfully challenged discrimination in California. Instead, this sentence provides specific details elaborating on how she did so.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 94f4eecb

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 94f4eecb

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Las sergas de Esplandián was a novel popular in sixteenth-century Spain.
    • The novel featured a fictional island inhabited solely by Black women and known as California.
    • That same century, Spanish explorers learned of an “island” off the west coast of Mexico.
    • They called it California after the island in the novel.
    • The “island” was actually the peninsula now known as Baja California (“Lower California”), which lies to the south of the US state of California.

    The student wants to emphasize the role a misconception played in the naming of a place. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The novel Las sergas de Esplandián featured a fictional island known as California.

    • To the south of the US state of California lies Baja California (“Lower California”), originally called California after a fictional place. 

    • In the sixteenth century, Spanish explorers learned of a peninsula off the west coast of Mexico and called it California. 

    • Thinking it was an island, Spanish explorers called a peninsula California after an island in a popular novel.

    ID: 94f4eecb Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the role a misconception played in the naming of a place, explaining that Spanish explorers mistook a peninsula for an island and, as a result, named the peninsula after a fictional island, California.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence mentions a novel that featured a fictional island, California; it doesn’t emphasize the role a misconception played in the naming of a place. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence notes that Baja California was originally named after a fictional place; it doesn’t emphasize the role a misconception—specifically, the Spanish explorers’ mistaken belief that the peninsula was an island—played in the naming of a place. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence indicates when Spanish explorers learned of the peninsula they called California; it doesn’t emphasize the role a misconception played in the naming of a place.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 00bb356a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 00bb356a

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Miguel Luciano is a multimedia visual artist.
    • One of his sculptures is Double Phantom/EntroP.R. (2017).
    • The work consists of two red Schwinn Phantom bicycles that he fused together.
    • The bicycles face opposite directions.
    • The bicycles share the same rear wheel.

    The student wants to describe how the bicycles in Double Phantom/EntroP.R. are fused together. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • To create the sculpture Double Phantom/EntroP.R., Miguel Luciano fused together two Schwinn Phantom bicycles.

    • There are two red Schwinn Phantom bicycles in the sculpture Double Phantom/EntroP.R.

    • The two red bicycles in Double Phantom/EntroP.R. are fused together so that they share the same rear wheel while facing opposite directions.

    • Double Phantom/EntroP.R. is a sculpture created by multimedia visual artist Miguel Luciano.

    ID: 00bb356a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence correctly describes how the bicycles in the sculpture are fused together: they share the same rear wheel while facing opposite directions.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence states that the bicycles are fused together but doesn’t describe how they are fused. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence states that there are two bicycles in the sculpture without indicating that they are fused together or describing how they are fused. Choice D is incorrect. It identifies the artist who created the sculpture but doesn’t describe how the bicycles are fused together.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID a3bf0a9d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: a3bf0a9d

    In 2021, a model developed by astrophysicist Catherine Zucker and her research team revealed that the same supernovas responsible for the creation and ongoing expansion of the Local Bubble—a 14-million-year-old cavity in the Milky Way—are likely responsible for the formation of new stars. blank this model detailed how the bubble’s expansion trapped interstellar clouds of gas and dust that became stars upon their eventual collapse.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Hence,

    • However,

    • Admittedly,

    • Specifically,

    ID: a3bf0a9d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "Specifically" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that the Local Bubble’s expansion trapped clouds of gas and dust that formed new stars—provides specific, precise details elaborating on the more general information in the previous sentence about the relationship between the Local Bubble’s expansion and the formation of new stars.

    Choice A is incorrect because "hence" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a result of the information in the previous sentence about the relationship between the Local Bubble’s expansion and the formation of new stars. Instead, this sentence provides specific, precise details elaborating on that information. Choice B is incorrect because "however" illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the information in the previous sentence about the relationship between the Local Bubble’s expansion and the formation of new stars. Instead, this sentence provides specific, precise details elaborating on that information. Choice C is incorrect because "admittedly" illogically signals that the information in this sentence provides an exception or caveat to the previous information about the relationship between the Local Bubble’s expansion and the formation of new stars. Instead, this sentence provides specific, precise details elaborating on that information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 99183985

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 99183985

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Some sandstone arches in Utah’s Arches National Park have been defaced by tourists’ carvings.
    • Park rangers can smooth away some carvings using power grinders.
    • For deep carvings, power grinding is not always feasible because it can greatly alter or damage the rock.
    • Park rangers can use an infilling technique, which involves filling in carvings with ground sandstone and a bonding agent.
    • This technique is minimally invasive.

    The student wants to explain an advantage of the infilling technique. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • To remove carvings from sandstone arches in Utah’s Arches National Park, power grinding is not always feasible.

    • Filling in carvings with ground sandstone and a bonding agent is less invasive than smoothing them away with a power grinder, which can greatly alter or damage the sandstone arches.

    • Park rangers can use a power grinding technique to smooth away carvings or fill them in with ground sandstone and a bonding agent.

    • As methods for removing carvings from sandstone, power grinding and infilling differ in their level of invasiveness.

    ID: 99183985 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence effectively explains an advantage of infilling: it’s less invasive than using a power grinder.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence identifies a disadvantage of power grinding; it doesn’t explain an advantage of infilling. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence identifies the two techniques park rangers use; it doesn’t explain an advantage of infilling. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence indicates that power grinding and infilling are different in one aspect; it fails to explain an advantage of infilling.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 70538b9a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 70538b9a

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In the 1930s, the Imperial Sugar Cane Institute in India sought to limit the country’s dependence on imported sugarcane.
    • The institute enlisted botanist Janaki Ammal to breed a local variety of sugarcane.
    • She crossbred the imported sugarcane species Saccharum officinarum with grasses native to India.
    • She succeeded in creating sugarcane hybrids well suited to India’s climate. 

    The student wants to emphasize Janaki Ammal’s achievement. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • By crossbreeding the imported sugarcane species Saccharum officinarum with grasses native to India, Ammal succeeded in creating sugarcane hybrids well suited to India’s climate.

    • In the 1930s, the Imperial Sugar Cane Institute, which enlisted Ammal, sought to limit dependence on imported sugarcane.

    • Ammal was enlisted by the Imperial Sugar Cane Institute at a time when a local variety of sugarcane needed to be produced.

    • As part of efforts to breed a local variety of sugarcane, an imported sugarcane species called Saccharum officinarum was crossbred with grasses native to India.

    ID: 70538b9a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes Janaki Ammal’s achievement, explaining that she successfully created sugarcane hybrids that are well suited to India’s climate by crossbreeding an imported sugarcane species with grasses native to India.

    Choice B is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the goal of the Imperial Sugar Cane Institute in the 1930s; it doesn’t emphasize Janaki Ammal’s achievement. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence mentions Ammal, it doesn’t emphasize her achievement of successfully creating sugarcane hybrids. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the achievement of crossbreeding imported sugarcane species with grasses native to India, it doesn’t emphasize the achievement as belonging to Janaki Ammal.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 4154a7a3

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 4154a7a3

    In 1891, dancer and choreographer Loie Fuller first performed her celebrated Serpentine Dance, artfully twirling her long, flowing skirt to create striking visual effects. blank in 1896, cinema pioneers Auguste and Louis Lumière made a groundbreaking short film of Fuller’s dance. 

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • However,

    • In conclusion,

    • Later,

    • In other words, 

    ID: 4154a7a3 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. “Later” logically signals that the event discussed in this sentence—the creation of the short film featuring Fuller’s dance—is a related event that occurred after the event discussed in the previous sentence (the 1891 debut of the dance).

    Choice A is incorrect because “however” illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the information in the previous sentence. Instead, the creation of the short film is a related event that followed the event discussed in the previous sentence. Choice B is incorrect because “in conclusion” illogically signals that the information in this sentence concludes or summarizes the information in the previous sentence. Instead, the creation of the short film is a related event that followed the event discussed in the previous sentence. Choice D is incorrect because “in other words” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a paraphrase or restatement of the information in the previous sentence. Instead, the creation of the short film is a related event that followed the event discussed in the previous sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 4703eafb

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 4703eafb

    Following the American Revolutionary War, North American foodways underwent a radical transformation, fueled in large part by spiking consumer demand for certain grains. The cultivation, trade, and transportation of maize and wheat, blank reconfigured the continent’s existing regional foodways into a globally oriented food system. 

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • in particular,

    • alternatively,

    • by comparison,

    • second of all,

    ID: 4703eafb Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. "In particular" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that maize and wheat supply chains transformed North American foodways into a global food system—provides specific, precise details elaborating on the more general information in the previous sentence about the transformation of North American foodways (with maize and wheat the "certain grains" at the center of it).

    Choice B is incorrect because "alternatively" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is an alternative option to the previous information about the transformation of North American foodways. Instead, the roles of maize and wheat in creating a global food system are specific, precise details elaborating on that information. Choice C is incorrect because "by comparison" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is being compared to the previous information about the transformation of North American foodways. Instead, the roles of maize and wheat in creating a global food system are specific, precise details elaborating on that information. Choice D is incorrect because "second of all" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a second, separate claim from the previous claim that North American foodways were transformed. Instead, the roles of maize and wheat in creating a global food system are specific, precise details elaborating on that information, rather than a separate claim.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID b5a399f1

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: b5a399f1

    Following the Mata Ortiz pottery technique, Mexican sculptor Juan Quezada Celado starts by creating the base of the pot with a slab of clay. blank he builds the pot walls by layering coils of clay around the perimeter of the base. Celado then smooths out the pot’s walls with a hacksaw blade. At last, the pot is ready to be painted.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • For example,

    • However,

    • By contrast,

    • Next,

    ID: b5a399f1 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "Next" logically signals that the information in this sentence—which explains how Celado builds the pot’s walls—is the next step in Celado’s pot creation process. The sentences that follow further signal this information by completing the process.

    Choice A is incorrect because "for example" illogically signals that the information about Celado building pot walls in this sentence exemplifies the information in the previous sentence about how Celado’s pot creation process begins. Instead, it is the next step in this process. Choice B is incorrect because "however" illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the information in the previous sentence about how Celado’s pot creation process begins. Instead, it is the next step in this process. Choice C is incorrect because "by contrast" illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the information in the previous sentence about how Celado’s pot creation process begins. Instead, it is the next step in this process.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 9c78f702

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 9c78f702

    Phytoplankton play a crucial role in the ocean’s uptake of carbon from the atmosphere. When alive, these tiny marine organisms absorb atmospheric carbon via photosynthesis. blank after they die, the phytoplankton sink to the seafloor, where the carbon in their cells gets stored in sediment, preventing it from cycling back into the atmosphere.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Specifically,

    • By contrast,

    • Nevertheless,

    • Then,

    ID: 9c78f702 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. “Then” logically signals that the event described in this sentence—carbon in phytoplankton cells being trapped in sediment after the organisms have died—occurs later in a chronological sequence than the event described in the previous sentence (phytoplankton absorbing carbon while alive).

    Choice A is incorrect because “specifically” illogically signals that the information that follows provides specific, precise details elaborating on the previous information about what phytoplankton do when alive. Instead, this sentence explains what happens after phytoplankton die—a later step in the chronological sequence of events. Choice B is incorrect because “by contrast” illogically signals that the information that follows contrasts with the previous information about what phytoplankton do when alive. Instead, this sentence explains what happens after phytoplankton die—a later step in the chronological sequence of events. There is no contrast: in both life and death, phytoplankton contribute to the ocean’s carbon uptake. Choice C is incorrect because “nevertheless” illogically signals that the information that follows is in spite of the previous information about what phytoplankton do when alive. Instead, this sentence explains what happens after phytoplankton die—a later step in the chronological sequence of events. There is no contrast: in both life and death, phytoplankton contribute to the ocean’s carbon uptake.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 2ba97187

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 2ba97187

    Upon first approaching artist Kurt Wenner’s Dies Irae, a colorful scene painted on the surface of a cobblestone street in Mantua, Italy, one might assume a deep hole filled with life-sized, classically styled sculptures had opened up in the street. blank by expertly applying the principles of perspective, Wenner created merely the illusion of depth.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Additionally,

    • On the contrary,

    • As a result,

    • Next,

    ID: 2ba97187 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. "On the contrary" logically signals that the information in this sentence—that Dies Irae’s appearance of depth is merely an illusion—contrasts with the previous statement about a viewer’s possible assumption regarding the street painting.

    Choice A is incorrect because "additionally" illogically signals that this sentence is simply additional information about a viewer’s possible assumption regarding the street painting. Instead, the information about how Wenner achieved the illusion of depth contrasts with the previous sentence’s description of the illusion. Choice C is incorrect because "as a result" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a result of, or caused by, a viewer’s possible assumption regarding the street painting. Instead, the information about how Wenner achieved the illusion of depth contrasts with the previous sentence’s description of the illusion. Choice D is incorrect because "next" illogically signals that the information in this sentence is the next step in a process. Instead, the information about how Wenner achieved the illusion of depth contrasts with the previous sentence’s description of the illusion.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 25adba4e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 25adba4e

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In 1897, twenty Black US Army infantrymen rode bicycles from Montana to Missouri.
    • The 1,900-mile journey took forty-one days.
    • The goal was to test the idea of forming a military bicycle corps.
    • In 2022, Erick Cedeño, a Black long-distance cyclist, reenacted the journey.
    • Cedeño wanted to honor the infantrymen on the journey’s 125th anniversary.

    The student wants to emphasize how far the infantrymen traveled. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The US infantrymen rode their bicycles from Montana to Missouri—traveling a total of 1,900 miles.

    • The 125th anniversary of the infantrymen’s journey was in 2022.

    • The goal of the 1897 journey was to test the idea of forming a military bicycle corps.

    • Over a century later, Erick Cedeño honored the infantrymen by reenacting their 1897 journey.

    ID: 25adba4e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes how far the infantrymen traveled, indicating that they rode their bicycles from Montana to Missouri, a total of 1,900 miles.

    Choice B is incorrect because the sentence mentions when the anniversary of the journey occurred; it doesn’t emphasize how far the infantrymen traveled. Choice C is incorrect because the sentence discusses the goal of the journey; it doesn’t emphasize how far the infantrymen traveled. Choice D is incorrect because the sentence notes that Cedeño honored the infantrymen by reenacting their journey; it doesn’t emphasize how far the infantrymen traveled.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID d3898d32

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: d3898d32

    Riley Black—the author of critically acclaimed books such as My Beloved Brontosaurus (2013)—is best known for writing about dinosaurs, but she has also conducted hands-on fieldwork. blank her fieldwork has included paleontological digs in Utah, Montana, and Wyoming, and her dinosaur fossil discoveries can be seen at places such as the Carnegie Museum of Natural History.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Regardless, 

    • Subsequently,

    • Specifically, 

    • Conversely,

    ID: d3898d32 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The second sentence provides more specific information about the fieldwork mentioned in the first sentence—that the paleontological digs took place in Utah, Montana, and Wyoming. Therefore, “specifically” fits perfectly in this context.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice uses a disagreement transition. But this sentence doesn’t disagree with the previous sentence. Rather, this sentence agrees with and elaborates on the last sentence by providing more specifics about the fieldwork Black does. Choice B is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that indicates that an event took place after another event. But the two sentences are not describing different events—instead, this sentence gives more details about the fieldwork discussed in the first sentence. Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses a disagreement transition. But this sentence doesn’t disagree with the previous sentence. Rather, this sentence agrees with and elaborates on the last sentence by providing more specifics about the fieldwork Black does.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID de0bcf4f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: de0bcf4f

    Spanish surrealist Oscar Dominguez, like many of his contemporaries, wanted to incorporate elements of chance and randomness in his artistic process. blank he employed techniques that produced random, unpredictable results, such as decalcomania, which involved pressing a blank canvas onto a paint-covered surface to generate abstract patterns.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • With this in mind,

    • On the contrary,

    • In conclusion,

    • Regardless,

    ID: de0bcf4f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. "With this in mind" logically signals that the activity described in this sentence—Dominguez’s use of techniques like decalcomania to produce unpredictable abstract patterns—is a result of his desire to include random elements in his art.

    Choice B is incorrect. "On the contrary" illogically signals that the activity in this sentence opposes or is contrary to Dominguez’s desire to use random elements in his art. Instead, his use of decalcomania is a result of that desire. Choice C is incorrect. "In conclusion" illogically signals that the activity in this sentence is a conclusion or summary of Dominguez’s desire to use random elements in his art. Instead, his use of decalcomania is a result of that desire. Choice D is incorrect. "Regardless" illogically signals that the activity in this sentence occurs despite Dominguez’s desire to use random elements in his art. Instead, his use of decalcomania is a result of that desire.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID ecb31049

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: ecb31049

    The Sun and other stars are powered by nuclear fusion reactions, in which two atoms collide to form a single heavier atom, releasing energy. Scientists have long believed that fusion has the potential to meet humanity’s clean energy needs. blank prior to December 2022, no fusion reaction in a laboratory setting had ever generated a net energy gain.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • For this reason,

    • Moreover,

    • Specifically,

    • That said,

    ID: ecb31049 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. Scientists believe in fusion’s potential as an energy source, but have struggled to actually make it work—in other words, there is a contradiction between scientists’ beliefs and their reality. “That said” is a disagreement transition that works perfectly in this context.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice uses a cause-and-effect transition, which doesn’t make sense here. Scientists not being able to generate extra energy from lab fusion reactions isn’t an effect of them believing in fusion’s potential. Choice B is incorrect. This transition indicates the addition of another supporting point. But this sentence is not adding a supporting point to the previous sentence—scientists not being able to successfully generate energy from fusion isn’t another point in favor of fusion meeting humanity’s clean energy needs. Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that introduces or elaborates on a particular example. But this sentence doesn’t give an example of scientists’ belief in fusion’s potential to meet humanity’s clean energy needs—in fact, it contrasts that optimistic belief with the reality of past failures to successfully employ fusion for energy production.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 7f2781fd

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 7f2781fd

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Certhidea olivacea is a perching bird that can be found on the Galápagos Island of Pinzón.
    • Creagrus furcatus is a seabird that can be found on the Galápagos Island of Darwin. 
    • Conservation organizations evaluate the risk that species will become extinct in the near future.
    • C. olivacea faces a high risk of extinction.
    • C. furcatus faces little risk of becoming extinct in the near future.

    The student wants to compare the extinction risk faced by C. olivacea with that faced by C. furcatus. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • According to conservation organizations, C. olivacea has a higher risk of becoming extinct in the near future than C. furcatus.

    • C. furcatus faces a high risk of extinction, while C. olivacea faces little risk of becoming extinct in the near future.

    • Conservation organizations have evaluated both C. furcatus’s and C. olivacea’s risk of becoming extinct in the near future. 

    • C. olivacea is a perching bird that faces a high risk of extinction.

    ID: 7f2781fd Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence compares the extinction risks of the two species, noting that C. olivacea has a higher risk of becoming extinct in the near future than C. furcatus.

    Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence does compare the extinction risks of the two species, it misrepresents information from the notes; C. olivacea faces a higher risk of becoming extinct in the near future than C. furcatus, not the other way around. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence mentions that conservation organizations have evaluated both species for extinction risk, it doesn’t compare the extinction risks of the two species. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence states that C. olivacea faces a high risk of extinction, it doesn’t mention C. furcatus or compare the extinction risks of the two species.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID eea351c4

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: eea351c4

    “Wishcycling”—putting nonrecyclable items into recycling bins under the mistaken belief that those items can be recycled—ultimately does more harm than good. Nonrecyclable items, such as greasy pizza boxes, can contaminate recyclable materials, rendering entire batches unusable. blank nonrecyclable products can damage recycling plants’ machinery. 

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Fittingly, 

    • On the contrary,

    • Moreover,

    • Nevertheless,

    ID: eea351c4 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The first sentence tells us that “wishcycling” is harmful, the previous sentence gives us an example, and this sentence gives us another example. So “moreover”—a transition that indicates the addition of another supporting point—fits perfectly here.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice uses a transition that means “appropriately” or “suitably,” which doesn’t make sense in context. This sentence adds another example of how “wishcycling” is harmful, so we’re looking for an addition transition. Choice B is incorrect. This choice uses a disagreement transition. But this sentence actually agrees with the previous sentence. Both provide examples of how “wishcycling” is harmful. Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses a disagreement transition. But this sentence actually agrees with the previous sentence. Both provide examples of how “wishcycling” is harmful.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 570dd854

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 570dd854

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Here I Have Returned is a sculpture by Egyptian American artist Sherin Guirguis.
    • It is a large, curved strip of wood inspired by the shape of a sistrum.
    • A sistrum is a curved musical instrument played by ancient Egyptian priestesses in ceremonies.
    • Guirguis says that the sculpture symbolizes “women who have lifted and supported Egyptian society and culture.”
    • Overall, Guirguis wants her works to “engage audiences in a dialogue about power, agency, and social transformation.”

    The student wants to use a quotation from Guirguis to explain what the sculpture represents. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Guirguis, whose works include a sculpture that is a large, curved strip of wood, has explained that she wants her work to create a dialogue with audiences.

    • Inspired by the sistrum played by Egyptian priestesses, Here I Have Returned symbolizes “women who have lifted and supported Egyptian society and culture,” according to Guirguis.

    • According to Guirguis, the curved strip of wood used in Here I Have Returned was inspired by the sistrum, a musical instrument played by ancient Egyptian priestesses in ceremonies.

    • Guirguis, the sculptor of Here I Have Returned, wants her works to “engage audiences in a dialogue about power, agency, and social transformation.”

    ID: 570dd854 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence uses a quotation from Guirguis to explain what Here I Have Returned represents, noting that Guirguis said the sculpture symbolizes "women who have lifted and supported Egyptian society and culture."

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence explains what Guirguis says she wants her work to achieve and provides an example of her work; it doesn’t use a quotation to explain what the sculpture represents. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence mentions the instrument whose shape inspired the sculpture but doesn’t use a quotation to explain what the sculpture represents. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence does use a quotation from Guirguis, the quotation explains what she hopes her works in general achieve, not what the sculpture in particular represents.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 3150021d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 3150021d

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The Royal Alcázar of Seville is a historic royal palace in Andalucía, Spain.
    • The palace is famous for its intricate tilework.
    • The palace features majolica and arista tiles.
    • In the majolica style, designs are painted directly on the ceramic tiles.
    • In the arista style, designs are stamped into the ceramic tiles.

    The student wants to contrast the two styles of tiles. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Tiles in the majolica and arista styles can be found in the Royal Alcázar of Seville in Andalucía, Spain.

    • Featuring tiles in the majolica and arista styles, the Royal Alcázar of Seville in Spain is famous for its intricate tilework.

    • In the arista style, designs are stamped into the ceramic tiles, whereas in the majolica style, the designs are painted directly on them.

    • Among the famous tilework of the Royal Alcázar of Seville are majolica style tiles, made by painting designs directly on the ceramic tiles.

    ID: 3150021d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence contrasts the two styles of tiles, noting that tiles in the arista style have designs stamped into them, whereas tiles in the majolica style have designs painted directly on them.

    Choice A is incorrect because the sentence indicates that the two styles of tile can be found in the same location; it doesn’t contrast the two styles of tile. Choice B is incorrect because the sentence indicates that the Royal Alcázar of Seville features tiles in both the majolica and arista styles; it doesn’t contrast the two styles of tile. Choice D is incorrect because the sentence indicates that the tilework of the Royal Alcázar of Seville includes tiles in the majolica style; it doesn’t contrast tiles in the majolica style with tiles in the arista style.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 0205e563

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 0205e563

    At two weeks old, the time their critical socialization period begins, wolves can smell but cannot yet see or hear. Domesticated dogs, blank can see, hear, and smell by the end of two weeks. This relative lack of sensory input may help explain why wolves behave so differently around humans than dogs do: from a very young age, wolves are more wary and less exploratory.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • in other words,

    • for instance,

    • by contrast,

    • accordingly,

    ID: 0205e563 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. “By contrast” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that dogs can see, hear, and smell by the end of two weeks—contrasts with the preceding information (that wolves can smell but not see or hear at the same age).

    Choice A is incorrect because “in other words” illogically signals that the information about domesticated dogs in this sentence paraphrases the information about wolves in the previous sentence. Instead, the information about dogs contrasts with what came before. Choice B is incorrect because “for instance” illogically signals that the information about domesticated dogs in this sentence exemplifies the information about wolves in the previous sentence. Instead, the information about dogs contrasts with what came before. Choice D is incorrect because “accordingly” illogically signals that the information about domesticated dogs in this sentence is in accordance with, or results from, the information about wolves in the previous sentence. Instead, the information about dogs contrasts with what came before.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 02527f43

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 02527f43

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • “Raymond’s Run” is a short story.
    • It was written by African American author Toni Cade Bambara.
    • It was first published in her book Gorilla, My Love in 1972.
    • It is told from a first person perspective.
    • It takes place in Harlem.

    The student wants to indicate where the short story takes place. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • “Raymond’s Run” takes place in Harlem.

    • “Raymond’s Run” was published in Gorilla, My Love.

    • “Raymond’s Run” is told from a first person perspective.

    • “Raymond’s Run” was written by Toni Cade Bambara.

    ID: 02527f43 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence indicates where "Raymond’s Run" takes place, stating that it takes place in Harlem.

    Choice B is incorrect. The sentence identifies the book in which the story "Raymond’s Run" was published; it doesn’t indicate where the story takes place. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence indicates the point of view used in "Raymond’s Run"; it doesn’t indicate where the story takes place. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence identifies the author of "Raymond’s Run"; it doesn’t indicate where the story takes place.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID e8494245

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: e8494245

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Political scientist Graham Allison is known for his Thucydides trap theory.
    • Allison’s theory states that whenever “a rising power is threatening to displace a ruling power,” conflict is likely.
    • The theory is based on Thucydides’s explanation of the conflict between Athens and Sparta.
    • Thucydides wrote that “the rise of Athens and the fear this instilled in Sparta” made conflict “inevitable.”
    • History professor Edmund Stewart recently challenged the historical basis of the theory.
    • Stewart claimed that Athens was not a rising power and that the rivals experienced a “clash of cultures” instead.

    The student wants to use a quotation to challenge Thucydides’s explanation of the conflict between Athens and Sparta. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • According to Allison’s Thucydides trap theory, whenever “a rising power is threatening to displace a ruling power,” conflict is likely. 

    • Thucydides wrote that conflict between the two powers was “inevitable,” although Stewart later challenged the historical basis of this claim. 

    • According to Stewart, a “clash of cultures” between Athens and Sparta caused the conflict, not Athens’s rise.

    • Thucydides explained that conflict was caused by “the rise of Athens and the fear this instilled in Sparta,” but Allison disagreed, seeing the conflict as an example of the Thucydides trap.

    ID: e8494245 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. Using a quotation from Stewart, the sentence challenges Thucydides’s explanation that the rise of Athens caused the conflict, suggesting that it was instead caused by a "clash of cultures."

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence uses a quotation, the quotation doesn’t challenge Thucydides’s explanation of the conflict. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence mentions that Stewart challenged Thucydides’s explanation of the conflict, it doesn’t use a quotation to challenge Thucydides’s explanation: the quoted word "inevitable" is from Thucydides. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence appears to refute Thucydides’s explanation, it does so in a way that misrepresents the information in the notes; Allison’s Thucydides trap theory is based on Thucydides’s explanation of the conflict. Thus, Allison’s theory affirms, rather than challenges, Thucydides’s explanation.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID efc19153

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: efc19153

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Just like states have state flags, some cities have city flags.
    • Over one hundred US cities have redesigned their flags since 2015.
    • The city of Pocatello, Idaho, redesigned its flag after it was named the most poorly designed flag in North America.
    • Pocatello’s new flag better represents the city’s mountainous geography and civic priorities.
    • Residents consider the new flag to be a meaningful symbol of civic pride.

    The student wants to make and support a generalization about the effect of redesigning a city flag. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Over one hundred US cities have redesigned their flags, including Pocatello, whose flag had been named the most poorly designed flag in North America.

    • Pocatello is just one of over one hundred US cities that have redesigned their flags.

    • After it was named the most poorly designed flag in North America, the flag of Pocatello was redesigned to better represent the city’s geography and civic priorities.

    • Redesigning a poorly designed city flag can create a meaningful symbol of civic pride, as was the case when Pocatello redesigned its original flag to better represent its geography and civic priorities. 

    ID: efc19153 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence makes and supports a generalization about the effect of redesigning a city flag, noting that redesigning a city flag can create a meaningful symbol of civic pride, as was the case when the city of Pocatello redesigned its flag.

    Choice A is incorrect because the sentence explains that many US cities have redesigned their flags and provides an example; it doesn’t make and support a generalization about the effect of redesigning a city flag. Choice B is incorrect because the sentence provides an example of a city that redesigned its flag; it doesn’t make and support a generalization about the effect of redesigning a city flag. Choice C is incorrect because the sentence emphasizes why the flag of Pocatello was redesigned; it doesn’t make and support a generalization about the effect of redesigning a city flag.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID eae29760

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: eae29760

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The calendar used by most of the world (the Gregorian calendar) has 365 days.
    • Because 365 days can’t be divided evenly by 7 (the number of days in a week), calendar dates fall on a different day of the week each year.
    • The Hanke-Henry permanent calendar, developed as an alternative to the Gregorian calendar, has 364 days.
    • Because 364 can be divided evenly by 7, calendar dates fall on the same day of the week each year, which supports more predictable scheduling.

    The student wants to explain an advantage of the Hanke-Henry calendar. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The Gregorian calendar has 365 days, which is one day longer than the Hanke-Henry permanent calendar.

    • Adopting the Hanke-Henry permanent calendar would help solve a problem with the Gregorian calendar.

    • Designed so calendar dates would occur on the same day of the week each year, the Hanke-Henry calendar supports more predictable scheduling than does the Gregorian calendar.

    • The Hanke-Henry permanent calendar was developed as an alternative to the Gregorian calendar, which is currently the most-used calendar in the world.

    ID: eae29760 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence explains an advantage of the Hanke-Henry calendar, noting that it supports more predictable scheduling than does the Gregorian calendar and describing how it does so (by having calendar dates occur on the same day each year).

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence compares the number of days in the Gregorian and Hanke-Henry calendars; it doesn’t explain an advantage of the Hanke-Henry calendar. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence refers to a possible reason to adopt the Hanke-Henry calendar—that doing so would help solve a problem with the Gregorian calendar—it doesn’t identify the problem or the solution and thus doesn’t explain the advantage of the Hanke-Henry calendar. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence describes the origins of the Hanke-Henry calendar; it doesn’t explain an advantage of it.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 835b101b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 835b101b

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Minnesota defines a lake as an inland body of water of at least 10 acres.
    • Wisconsin’s definition of a lake doesn’t take size into account.
    • By its own definition, Wisconsin has over 15,000 lakes, many smaller than 10 acres.
    • By Minnesota’s definition, Wisconsin has only about 6,000 lakes.

    The student wants to contrast Minnesota’s definition of a lake with Wisconsin’s. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Wisconsin, which doesn’t take size into account in defining a lake, claims that it has over 15,000 lakes.

    • Because its definition of a lake is different from Minnesota’s, it is unclear how many lakes Wisconsin really has.

    • According to Minnesota’s definition of a lake—an inland body of water of at least 10 acres—Wisconsin has about 6,000 lakes.

    • Minnesota’s definition of a lake—an inland body of water of at least 10 acres—is more restrictive than Wisconsin’s, which doesn’t take size into account.

    ID: 835b101b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence contrasts Minnesota’s definition of a lake with Wisconsin’s, explaining that Minnesota’s definition (which takes size into account) is more restrictive than Wisconsin’s definition (which doesn’t).

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence notes that Wisconsin’s definition of a lake doesn’t take size into account, it doesn’t contrast Minnesota’s definition with Wisconsin’s. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence states that Wisconsin’s definition of a lake is different from Minnesota’s, but it doesn’t clarify how they differ. In other words, it doesn’t contrast Minnesota’s definition with Wisconsin’s. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence indicates how many lakes Wisconsin has according to Minnesota’s definition of a lake, but it doesn’t clarify how the states’ definitions differ. In other words, it doesn’t contrast Minnesota’s definition with Wisconsin’s.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 39d1a519

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 39d1a519

    To discover which fruit varieties were grown in Italy’s Umbria region before the introduction of industrial farming, botanist Isabella Dalla Ragione often turns to centuries-old lists of cooking ingredients. blank she analyzes Renaissance paintings of Umbria, as they can provide accurate representations of fruits that were grown there long ago.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • In sum,

    • Instead,

    • Thus,

    • Additionally,

    ID: 39d1a519 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. “Additionally” logically signals that the painting analysis discussed in this sentence is an additional part of the botany research discussed in the previous sentence. That is, to research which fruits Umbrians grew in the past, the botanist analyzes old paintings in addition to looking at old lists of ingredients. 

    Choice A is incorrect because “in sum” illogically signals that the painting analysis discussed in this sentence is a concluding summary of the botany research discussed in the previous sentence. Instead, the painting analysis is an additional part of that research. Choice B is incorrect because “instead” illogically signals that the painting analysis discussed in this sentence is an alternative to the botany research discussed in the previous sentence. Rather, the painting analysis is an additional part of that research. Choice C is incorrect because “thus” illogically signals that the painting analysis discussed in this sentence is a result of the botany research discussed in the previous sentence. Instead, the painting analysis is an additional part of that research.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 420dea42

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 420dea42

    A blend of gabardine and wool, the material for Elvis Presley’s Gold Vine jumpsuit was flexible enough to allow the singer to perform his signature dance moves. blank the added weight of the suit’s swirling vines made of gold rhinestones likely limited Elvis’s mobility to some degree.

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • For this reason,

    • Firstly,

    • However,

    • In other words,

    ID: 420dea42 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. "However" logically signals that the claim in this sentence—that the weight of the gold rhinestones likely limited Elvis’s mobility—contrasts with the previous information about the material being flexible enough for Elvis’s dance moves.

    Choice A is incorrect because "for this reason" illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is caused by the previous information about the material being flexible enough for Elvis’s dance moves. Instead, the claim that the weight of the suit’s rhinestones limited movement contrasts with the previous information about the jumpsuit’s flexibility. Choice B is incorrect because "firstly" illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is the first in a series of claims about the jumpsuit being flexible enough for Elvis’s dance moves. Instead, the claim that the weight of the suit’s rhinestones limited movement contrasts with the previous information about the jumpsuit’s flexibility. Choice D is incorrect because "in other words" illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is a paraphrase or restatement of the previous information about the material being flexible enough for Elvis’s dance moves. Instead, the claim that the weight of the suit’s rhinestones limited movement contrasts with the previous information about the jumpsuit’s flexibility.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID aec8d3e8

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: aec8d3e8

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Chemical leavening agents cause carbon dioxide to be released within a liquid batter, making the batter rise as it bakes.
    • Baking soda and baking powder are chemical leavening agents.
    • Baking soda is pure sodium bicarbonate.
    • To produce carbon dioxide, baking soda needs to be mixed with liquid and an acidic ingredient such as honey.
    • Baking powder is a mixture of sodium bicarbonate and an acid.
    • To produce carbon dioxide, baking powder needs to be mixed with liquid but not with an acidic ingredient.

    The student wants to emphasize a difference between baking soda and baking powder. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • To make batters rise, bakers use chemical leavening agents such as baking soda and baking powder.

    • Baking soda and baking powder are chemical leavening agents that, when mixed with other ingredients, cause carbon dioxide to be released within a batter.

    • Baking soda is pure sodium bicarbonate, and honey is a type of acidic ingredient.

    • To produce carbon dioxide within a liquid batter, baking soda needs to be mixed with an acidic ingredient, whereas baking powder does not.

    ID: aec8d3e8 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a difference between baking soda and baking powder, noting that baking soda needs to be mixed with an acidic ingredient to produce carbon dioxide but baking powder doesn’t.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence focuses on what bakers use to make batters rise; it doesn’t emphasize a difference between baking soda and baking powder. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence provides a general description of baking soda and baking powder; it doesn’t emphasize a difference between them. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence explains what baking soda and honey are; it doesn’t emphasize a difference between baking soda and baking powder.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 6916c8e5

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Transitions
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 6916c8e5

    Laetitia Ky’s hair is her art. Inspired by hairstyles from various African tribes, the Ivorian artist uses wire and thread to sculpt her hair into all kinds of shapes. blank she once made her hair into the shape of the continent of Africa—including the island of Madagascar!

    Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

    • Soon,

    • Elsewhere,

    • For example,

    • However,

    ID: 6916c8e5 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. “For example” logically signals that the following information about Ky—that she once shaped her hair to look like Africa—is an example supporting the previous statement that she makes different shapes with her hair.

    Choice A is incorrect because “soon” illogically signals that the event described in this sentence occurred soon after the statement about Ky making different shapes with her hair. Instead, the sentence provides an example of one of these shapes. Choice B is incorrect because “elsewhere” illogically signals that the event described in this sentence occurred in a different place than the statement about Ky making different shapes with her hair. Instead, the sentence provides an example of one of these shapes. Choice D is incorrect because “however” illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the statement that Ky makes different shapes with her hair. Instead, the sentence provides an example of one of these shapes.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 61c0f7b3

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 61c0f7b3
    • In 2017, a research team led by Mary Caswell Stoddard determined the average lengths of eggs produced by various bird species.
    • Gygis alba is a species of bird in the order Charadriiformes.
    • Gygis alba eggs had an average length of 4.46 cm.
    • Gavia stellata is a species of bird in the order Gaviiformes.
    • Gavia stellata eggs had an average length of 7.22 cm.

    Which choice most effectively uses information from the given sentences to emphasize a difference between the eggs of the two species?

    • A 2017 study compared the lengths of eggs produced by an array of different bird species, such as Gygis alba and Gavia stellata.

    • A 2017 study found that Gygis alba eggs had an average length of 4.46 cm, whereas Gavia stellata eggs were longer, with an average length of 7.22 cm.

    • The bird species Gygis alba, which belongs to the order Charadriiformes, and Gavia stellata, of the order Gaviiformes, were included in a 2017 study that compared the average lengths of their eggs.

    • Mary Caswell Stoddard led a research study that determined the average lengths of eggs, including those of Gygis alba birds (4.46 cm) and Gavia stellata birds (7.22 cm).

    ID: 61c0f7b3 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a difference between the eggs of the two species, directly contrasting the shorter average length of Gygis alba eggs (4.46 cm) with the longer average length of Gavia stellata eggs (7.22 cm).

    Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence mentions both bird species, it doesn’t emphasize a difference between their eggs. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence provides information about the two bird species, it doesn’t emphasize a difference between their eggs. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence provides the average lengths of both species’ eggs, it doesn’t explicitly emphasize the difference between them.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 7fa2b1ee

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 7fa2b1ee

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • In meteorology, an air mass is a large body of air with generally uniform humidity and temperature.
    • Air masses are commonly classified by two-letter names.
    • The first letter indicates the humidity of the air mass, while the second letter indicates the temperature.
    • cA (continental arctic) means dry and cold, for example.
    • mT (maritime tropical) means moist and warm.
    • This classification system is based on the work of a Swedish meteorologist named Tor Bergeron (1891–1977).

    The student wants to provide an example of an air mass. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Air masses are large bodies of air with generally uniform humidity and temperature.

    • The air mass classification system uses two-letter names and is based on the work of Tor Bergeron, a Swedish meteorologist.

    • Air masses are commonly classified by a two-letter name that indicates humidity and temperature.

    • One type of air mass is known as a cA, or continental arctic, air mass because it is dry and cold.

    ID: 7fa2b1ee Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The sentence provides an example of an air mass: the cA, or continental arctic, air mass.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence provides a general definition of air masses; it doesn’t provide an example of a specific air mass. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence describes the system used to classify air masses; it doesn’t provide an example of a specific air mass. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence explains how air masses are classified; it doesn’t provide an example of a specific air mass.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 56b000d0

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 56b000d0

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The factors that affect clutch size (the number of eggs laid at one time) have been well studied in birds but not in lizards.
    • A team led by Shai Meiri of Tel Aviv University investigated which factors influence lizard clutch size.
    • Meiri’s team obtained clutch-size and habitat data for over 3,900 lizard species and analyzed the data with statistical models.
    • Larger clutch size was associated with environments in higher latitudes that have more seasonal change.
    • Lizards in higher-latitude environments may lay larger clutches to take advantage of shorter windows of favorable conditions.

    The student wants to emphasize the aim of the research study. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Researchers wanted to know which factors influence lizard egg clutch size because such factors have been well studied in birds but not in lizards.

    • After they obtained data for over 3,900 lizard species, researchers determined that larger clutch size was associated with environments in higher latitudes that have more seasonal change.

    • We now know that lizards in higher-latitude environments may lay larger clutches to take advantage of shorter windows of favorable conditions.

    • Researchers obtained clutch-size and habitat data for over 3,900 lizard species and analyzed the data with statistical models.

    ID: 56b000d0 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the aim of the research study by highlighting what the researchers conducting the study wanted to know—specifically, which factors influence clutch size among lizards.

    Choice B is incorrect because the sentence emphasizes what researchers determined at the end of the study, not what the study’s aim was. Choice C is incorrect because the sentence emphasizes a finding from the research study, not the aim of the study. Choice D is incorrect because the sentence emphasizes the research study’s methodology, not its aim.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID f6d454c1

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: f6d454c1

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • If a moon orbiting a planet comes close enough to that planet, tidal forces can cause the moon to break apart.
    • In a 2022 study, researchers proposed that Saturn was once orbited by a large moon they named Chrysalis.
    • Their simulations indicated that Chrysalis would likely have come very close to Saturn around 160 million years ago.
    • At that distance, Chrysalis would have been broken apart by tidal forces.
    • The researchers hypothesized that the resulting debris formed Saturn’s rings.

    The student wants to recount the sequence of events proposed by the researchers. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • According to researchers’ simulations, two events likely occurred around 160 million years ago: first, Chrysalis came very close to Saturn, and second, debris from Saturn’s rings caused the moon to break apart.

    • If a moon orbiting a planet (like Saturn) comes close enough to that planet, tidal forces can cause the moon to break apart.

    • Around 160 million years ago, a large moon (Chrysalis) came close enough to Saturn that tidal forces broke the moon apart; its debris then formed the planet’s rings. 

    • First, researchers proposed that Saturn was orbited by a large moon (Chrysalis); next, they conducted simulations; and, finally, they formed a hypothesis.

    ID: f6d454c1 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence recounts the sequence of events proposed by the researchers: a large moon orbiting Saturn came close enough to the planet that it was broken apart by tidal forces, and the resulting debris formed Saturn’s rings.

    Choice A is incorrect because the sentence misrepresents information from the notes; according to the notes, tidal forces, not debris, caused the moon to break apart. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence offers information relevant to the 2022 study but doesn’t recount the sequence of events proposed by the researchers. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence recounts a sequence, but it’s a sequence of the researchers’ activities, not the sequence of events proposed by the researchers.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 92dec236

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 92dec236

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • Maika’i Tubbs is a Native Hawaiian sculptor and installation artist.
    • His work has been shown in the United States, Canada, Japan, and Germany, among other places.
    • Many of his sculptures feature discarded objects.
    • His work Erasure (2008) includes discarded audiocassette tapes and magnets.
    • His work Home Grown (2009) includes discarded pushpins, plastic plates and forks, and wood.

    The student wants to emphasize a similarity between the two works. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • Erasure (2008) uses discarded objects such as audiocassette tapes and magnets; Home Grown (2009), however, includes pushpins, plastic plates and forks, and wood.

    • Tubbs’s work, which often features discarded objects, has been shown both within the United States and abroad. 

    • Like many of Tubbs’s sculptures, both Erasure and Home Grown include discarded objects: Erasure uses audiocassette tapes, and Home Grown uses plastic forks.

    • Tubbs completed Erasure in 2008 and Home Grown in 2009.

    ID: 92dec236 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. This choice most effectively emphasizes "a similarity" by identifying a trait the works share: "both Erasure and Home Grown include discarded objects."

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice doesn’t "emphasize a similarity." Instead, this choice shows how the materials used in the two works are different. Notice the use of the contrast word "however." Choice B is incorrect. This choice doesn’t "emphasize a similarity between the two works." While it says that Tubbs’s work "often features discarded objects," it doesn’t provide details about the two works in question. Choice D is incorrect. This choice doesn’t "emphasize a similarity." Instead, this choice shows how the works were produced at different times.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 87d34a39

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Expression of Ideas
    Skill
    Rhetorical Synthesis
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 87d34a39

    While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

    • The National Congress of American Indians (NCAI) was founded in 1944 by representatives of fifty tribal governments.
    • The NCAI was created to protect the sovereignty of Indigenous tribes.
    • Napoleon B. Johnson (Cherokee) was the NCAI’s first president.
    • In 1975, the US Congress passed the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (Public Law 96-638).
    • This legislation formally acknowledged tribes’ right to self-governance.
    • The advocacy of the NCAI was a key factor in the law’s passing.

    The student wants to identify an accomplishment of the NCAI. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

    • The NCAI, founded by representatives of fifty tribal governments, had Napoleon B. Johnson (Cherokee) as its first president.

    • Founded in 1944, the NCAI was created by representatives of tribal governments from fifty sovereign Indigenous tribes.    

    • The NCAI’s advocacy was key to the passing of Public Law 96-638, legislation formally acknowledging Indigenous tribes’ right to self-governance.

    • In 1975, the NCAI passed the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act, which was created to protect the sovereignty of Indigenous tribes.

    ID: 87d34a39 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The sentence directly identifies an accomplishment of the NCAI: that its advocacy was key to the passing of Public Law 96-638, which formally acknowledged Indigenous tribes’ right to self-governance.

    Choice A is incorrect. The sentence provides information about the NCAI’s founding and its first president, but it doesn’t identify an accomplishment of the organization. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence describes the NCAI’s founding, but it doesn’t identify an accomplishment of the organization. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence misrepresents the information in the notes: the US Congress, not the NCAI, passed the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID de55ec71

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: de55ec71

    Generations of mystery and horror blank have been influenced by the dark, gothic stories of celebrated American author Edgar Allan Poe (1809–1849).

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • writers

    • writers,

    • writers—

    • writers;

    ID: de55ec71 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a subject and a verb. When, as in this case, a subject (“Generations of mystery and horror writers”) is immediately followed by a verb (“have been influenced”), no punctuation is needed.

    Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb. Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID e38b3e4f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: e38b3e4f

    The radiation that blank during the decay of radioactive atomic nuclei is known as gamma radiation.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • occurs

    • have occurred

    • occur

    • are occurring

    ID: e38b3e4f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "occurs" agrees in number with the singular subject "radiation."

    Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "have occurred" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "radiation." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "occur" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "radiation." Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb "are occurring" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "radiation."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 89fbc3eb

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 89fbc3eb

    The Mission 66 initiative, which was approved by Congress in 1956, represented a major investment in the infrastructure of overburdened national blank it prioritized physical improvements to the parks’ roads, utilities, employee housing, and visitor facilities while also establishing educational programming for the public.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • parks and

    • parks

    • parks;

    • parks,

    ID: 89fbc3eb Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses within a sentence. This choice uses a semicolon to correctly join the first main clause (“The Mission…parks”) and the second main clause that begins with “it.”

    Choice A is incorrect. When coordinating two longer main clauses such as these, it’s conventional to use a comma before the coordinating conjunction. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 960dec02

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 960dec02

    A recent study tracked the number of bee species present in twenty-seven New York apple orchards over a ten-year period. blank found that when wild growth near an orchard was cleared, the number of different bee species visiting the orchard decreased. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Entomologist Heather Grab:

    • Entomologist, Heather Grab,

    • Entomologist Heather Grab

    • Entomologist Heather Grab,

    ID: 960dec02 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between a name and title and between a subject and a verb. No punctuation is needed between the proper noun “Heather Grab” and “entomologist,” the title that describes Grab. Additionally, no punctuation is needed between the sentence’s subject (“Entomologist Heather Grab”) and the main verb (“found”) that indicates what Grab did.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed. Setting the entomologist’s name off with commas suggests that it could be removed without affecting the coherence of the sentence, which isn’t the case. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 37e5c794

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 37e5c794

    Despite being cheap, versatile, and easy to produce, blank they are made from nonrenewable petroleum, and most do not biodegrade in landfills.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • there are two problems associated with commercial plastics:

    • two problems are associated with commercial plastics:

    • commercial plastics’ two associated problems are that

    • commercial plastics have two associated problems:

    ID: 37e5c794 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice ensures that the modifying phrase “despite being cheap, versatile, and easy to produce” appears immediately before the noun it modifies, “commercial plastics,” clearly establishing that the commercial plastics—and not another noun in the sentence—are being described as cheap, versatile, and easy to produce. 

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the function word “there” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically and confusingly suggests that “there” is cheap, versatile, and easy to produce. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun “two problems” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the “problems” are cheap, versatile, and easy to produce. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “commercial plastics’ two associated problems” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the “problems” are cheap, versatile, and easy to produce.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 4b0c7b62

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 4b0c7b62

    The algaita is a double reed wind instrument from West Africa. The reed of a wind instrument is the mouthpiece blank A double reed contains two pieces of cane that vibrate and produce sound as air passes between them.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • where sound is made?

    • where is sound made.

    • where sound is made.

    • where is sound made?

    ID: 4b0c7b62 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is end-of-sentence punctuation. This choice correctly uses a period to punctuate a declarative sentence ("the reed of a wind instrument is the mouthpiece") that ends with a prepositional phrase ("where sound is made").

    Choice A is incorrect. It’s unconventional to use a question mark to punctuate a declarative sentence. Choice B is incorrect. The structure requires that the sentence continue as a declarative clause, not end with an interrogative clause. Choice D is incorrect. The structure requires that the sentence continue as a declarative clause and end with a period, not end with an interrogative clause and a question mark.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 6f08641e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 6f08641e

    On April 5, 1977, Kitty Cone and 150 other disability rights activists entered a San Francisco federal building. After pleading for years—to no effect—for the passage of key antidiscrimination legislation, blank until their demands were addressed. Finally, on April 28, the legislation was signed.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • pressure on lawmakers increased when the activists staged a sit-in protest

    • a sit-in protest staged by the activists increased pressure on lawmakers

    • lawmakers came under increased pressure when the activists staged a sit-in protest

    • the activists increased pressure on lawmakers by staging a sit-in protest

    ID: 6f08641e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice makes the noun phrase “the activists” the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase “after...legislation.” In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that the activists—and not another noun in the sentence—were pleading for the passage of antidiscrimination legislation.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “pressure on lawmakers” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the “pressure” was pleading for the passage of antidiscrimination legislation. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “a sit-in protest” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the “protest” was pleading for the passage of antidiscrimination legislation. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “lawmakers” immediately after the modifying phrase suggests that “lawmakers” were pleading for the passage of antidiscrimination legislation. While it’s possible for lawmakers to plead for the passage of legislation, the context strongly suggests that it’s the activists who pleaded for years for the passage of antidiscrimination legislation.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 3580533b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 3580533b

    In recent years, economists around the world have created new tools that quantify the overall well-being of a country’s citizens. Economists in India, for example, use an Ease of Living Index. This tool blank economic potential, sustainability, and citizens’ quality of life.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • measures

    • had measured

    • would have measured

    • will have been measuring

    ID: 3580533b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The previous sentence tells us how economists in India "use" a certain tool, while this sentence describes general facts about that tool. To express general facts (and also to match the simple present tense of "use"), we should use the simple present tense form "measures."

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice uses the past perfect tense, but the previous sentence tells us that the tool is currently used to measure things, so the past tense doesn’t make sense for this verb. Choice C is incorrect. This choice uses the future perfect conditional tense, but the previous sentence tells us that the tool is currently used to measure things, so the future tense doesn’t make sense for this verb. Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses the future perfect continuous tense, but the previous sentence tells us that the tool is currently used to measure things, so the future tense doesn’t make sense for this verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 2c49940e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 2c49940e

    French philosopher René Descartes doubted whether he could prove his own existence. Eventually, he found proof in his famous phrase “I think, therefore I am.” The blank complexity: only those who exist would be able to ponder their existence.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • phrases’ simplicity masks its

    • phrases simplicity masks their

    • phrase’s simplicity masks their

    • phrase’s simplicity masks its

    ID: 2c49940e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The conventions being tested are the use of possessive nouns and the use of possessive determiners. The singular possessive noun "phrase’s" correctly indicates that there is only one simple phrase. The singular possessive determiner "its" agrees in number with the singular possessive noun "phrase’s," reinforcing the idea that there is only one simple yet complex phrase.

    Choice A is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive noun "phrase’s," not the plural possessive noun "phrases’." Choice B is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive noun "phrase’s" and the corresponding singular possessive determiner "its," not the plural noun "phrases" and the corresponding plural possessive determiner "their." Choice C is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive determiner "its," not the plural possessive determiner "their."

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID e62241b7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: e62241b7

    What is the correct pronunciation of Kiribati? In the Gilbertese language spoken by residents of the island nation, the letter combination -ti makes the -s sound; as a result, the country’s name blank pronounced “Kiribas.”

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • are

    • have been

    • are being

    • is

    ID: e62241b7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "is" agrees in number with the singular subject "the country’s name."

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb "are" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "the country’s name." Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "have been" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "the country’s name." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "are being" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "the country’s name."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 7f226b4b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 7f226b4b

    In a 2023 study, researchers documented a fascinating behavior in the aquatic plant Elodea densa. When exposed to low levels of light, the plant’s blank the cellular organs that generate energy from light—reshuffled to form a tightly packed, glass-like surface ideal for collecting more light.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • chloroplasts

    • chloroplasts;

    • chloroplasts,

    • chloroplasts—

    ID: 7f226b4b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of a supplementary element within a sentence. The dash after "chloroplasts" pairs with the dash after "from light" to separate the supplementary element "the cellular organs that generate energy from light" from the rest of the sentence. This supplementary element functions to define the term "chloroplasts," and the pair of dashes indicates that this element could be removed without affecting the grammatical coherence of the sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice B is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be paired with a dash in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice C is incorrect because a comma can’t be paired with a dash in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 74ce2f05

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 74ce2f05

    A study led by scientist Rebecca Kirby at the University of Wisconsin–Madison found that black bears that eat human food before hibernation have increased levels of a rare carbon isotope, blank due to the higher 13C levels in corn and cane sugar. Bears with these elevated levels were also found to have much shorter hibernation periods on average.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • carbon-13, (13C)

    • carbon-13 (13C)

    • carbon-13, (13C),

    • carbon-13 (13C),

    ID: 74ce2f05 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of a supplementary element within a sentence. The comma after “(13C)” pairs with the comma after “isotope” to separate the supplementary element “carbon-13 (13C)” from the rest of the sentence. This supplementary element defines the “rare carbon isotope,” and the pair of commas indicates that this element could be removed without affecting the grammatical coherence of the sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element “carbon-13 (13C)” from the rest of the sentence. Choice B is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element “carbon-13 (13C)” from the rest of the sentence. Choice C is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element “carbon-13 (13C)” from the rest of the sentence. The comma after “carbon-13” isn’t necessary because the parentheses around “13C” already separate this element from the rest of the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID a2816c7f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: a2816c7f

    American abstract artist Richard blank his installations to make passersby keenly aware of how one’s movements are affected by the physical features of one’s environment, assembles large-scale steel plates into sculptures that dominate the outdoor spaces they occupy.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Serra is intending

    • Serra, intends

    • Serra, intending

    • Serra intends

    ID: a2816c7f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. This choice pairs the comma after "Serra" with the comma after "environment" and uses the nonfinite present participle "intending" to correctly form a supplementary phrase describing the reaction Serra intends his sculptures to provoke. This supplementary phrase appears between the noun phrase that it modifies ("American abstract artist Richard Serra") and the finite present tense verb ("assembles"), which functions as the sentence’s main verb and describes what Serra does.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite present continuous tense verb "is intending" can’t be used in this way in conjunction with the finite present tense verb "assembles," which already functions as the main verb in the sentence. Choice B is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite present tense verb "intends" can’t be used in this way to supplement the noun phrase "American abstract artist Richard Serra." Choice D is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite present tense verb "intends" can’t be used in this way in conjunction with the finite present tense verb "assembles," which already functions as the main verb in the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID a7c85001

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: a7c85001

    Researchers Amit Kumar and Nicholas Epley investigated how blank In a series of experiments conducted in 2022, they found that people performing small acts of kindness underestimated the positive effect their actions had on others.  

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • do people perceive acts of kindness.

    • do people perceive acts of kindness?  

    • people perceive acts of kindness?

    • people perceive acts of kindness.

    ID: a7c85001 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is end-of-sentence punctuation. This choice correctly uses a period to punctuate a declarative sentence that asks an indirect question ("Researchers Amit Kumar and Nicholas Epley investigated how people perceive acts of kindness").

    Choice A is incorrect. The structure of the sentence requires a declarative clause at the end of the sentence that states what Kumar and Epley did, not an interrogative clause that asks a direct question, such as "how do people perceive acts of kindness." Choice B is incorrect. The structure of the sentence requires a declarative clause at the end of the sentence that states what Kumar and Epley did, not an interrogative clause that asks a direct question, such as "how do people perceive acts of kindness?" Choice C is incorrect. It’s unconventional to use a question mark in this way to punctuate a declarative sentence that asks an indirect question, such as "Researchers…kindness."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID eb95235b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: eb95235b

    The Limón technique, developed by Mexican-born dancer and choreographer Jose Limón, is known for its emphasis on breath control and its interplay of weight and blank dancers may explore, for example, the moment of mid-air suspension at the top of a jump.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • weightlessness

    • weightlessness which

    • weightlessness,

    • weightlessness;

    ID: eb95235b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within a sentence. This choice uses a semicolon in a conventional way to join the first main clause ("The Limón…weightlessness") and the second main clause ("dancers…jump").

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice B is incorrect. The relative pronoun "which" can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID adf210e7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: adf210e7

    The haiku-like poems of Tomas Tranströmer, which present nature- and dream-influenced images in crisp, spare language, have earned the Swedish poet praise from leading contemporary blank them Nigerian American essayist and novelist Teju Cole, who has written that Tranströmer’s works “contain a luminous simplicity.”

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • writers. Among 

    • writers among 

    • writers; among 

    • writers, among 

    ID: adf210e7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between a main clause and a supplementary phrase. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the main clause (“The haiku-like…writers”) and the supplementary phrase (“among…Cole”) that specifies a contemporary writer who has praised Tomas Tranströmer’s haiku-like poems. 

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with “among.” Choice B is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the main clause and the supplementary phrase with appropriate punctuation. Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join the main clause (“The haiku-like…writers”) and the supplementary phrase (“among…Cole”). 

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID b7363ba2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: b7363ba2

    Mathematician and meteorologist Edward Lorenz used the metaphor of the “butterfly effect” to explain how seemingly minor events can have major impacts on future weather. According to Lorenz’s metaphor, the wind from a butterfly flapping blank in Brazil might eventually grow into a storm elsewhere across the globe.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • its wings

    • its wings’

    • it’s wing’s

    • it’s wings’

    ID: b7363ba2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The conventions being tested are the use of possessive determiners and plural nouns. The singular possessive determiner "its" and the plural noun "wings" correctly indicate that the butterfly has multiple wings.

    Choice B is incorrect because the context requires the plural noun "wings," not the plural possessive noun "wings’." Choice C is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive determiner "its" and the plural noun "wings," not the contraction "it’s" and the singular possessive noun "wing’s." Choice D is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive determiner "its" and the plural noun "wings," not the contraction "it’s" and the plural possessive noun "wings’."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 908a76b8

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 908a76b8

    When a given industry—water and electricity are two well-known examples—carries high infrastructural start-up costs and other barriers that discourage competition, blank of just one or two suppliers per municipality. Such industries are known as natural monopolies.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • these often consist

    • they often consist

    • it often consists

    • this often consists

    ID: 908a76b8 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun-antecedent agreement. The singular pronoun "it" agrees in number with the singular antecedent "industry" and clearly indicates that the industry consists of just one or two suppliers per municipality.

    Choice A is incorrect. The plural pronoun "these" neither agrees in number with the singular antecedent "industry" nor clearly indicates that the industry—not another plural noun in the sentence, such as "start-up costs" or "barriers"—consists of just one or two suppliers per municipality. Choice B is incorrect because the plural pronoun "they" doesn’t agree in number with the singular antecedent "industry." Choice D is incorrect because the singular pronoun "this" is ambiguous in this context; the resulting sentence leaves unclear what consists of just one or two suppliers per municipality.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 707461d8

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 707461d8

    In 2021, Mexican biologist Martha Lydia Macías-Rubalcava led a review of the scientific literature related to endophytic fungi (i.e., fungi that live inside a host blank researching 120 endophytic fungi–produced compounds, she found that their phytotoxicity can make them viable alternatives to chemical herbicides for controlling weeds.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • plant). By

    • plant), by

    • plant) and by

    • plant) by

    ID: 707461d8 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period is used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence ("In…plant") and another ("By…weeds"). The prepositional phrase beginning with "by" modifies the subject of the next sentence, "she," which refers to Macías-Rubalcava.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to join two sentences. Choice C is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction "and" can’t be used in this way to join two sentences. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two sentences are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 1ee7b429

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 1ee7b429

    Bonnie Buratti of NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory blank data about Saturn’s rings collected by the Cassini spacecraft when she made an interesting discovery: the tiny moons embedded between and within Saturn’s rings are shaped by the buildup of ring material on the moons’ surfaces.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • studies 

    • has been studying

    • will study

    • was studying

    ID: 1ee7b429 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense in a sentence. In this choice, the past progressive tense verb “was studying” is consistent with the other past tense verbs (e.g., “made” and “collected”) used to describe Buratti’s discovery. Further, the past progressive tense correctly indicates that an ongoing action in the past was occurring (she was studying) at the same time that another event occurred in the past (she made an interesting discovery). 

    Choice A is incorrect because the present tense verb “studies” isn’t consistent with the past tense verbs used to describe Buratti’s discovery. Choice B is incorrect because the present perfect progressive tense verb “has been studying” isn’t consistent with the past tense verbs used to describe Buratti’s discovery. Choice C is incorrect because the future tense verb “will study” isn’t consistent with the past tense verbs used to describe Buratti’s discovery.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 13fcf575

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 13fcf575

    Roughly 300 nights a year, when the cold air descending from the Andes Mountains meets the warm air rising from Venezuela’s coastal Lake Maracaibo, the result is a spectacular lightning storm, its strikes so bright, so localized, and so blank that it has become known as “Maracaibo’s Lighthouse.”

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • dependable: 

    • dependable; 

    • dependable 

    • dependable, 

    ID: 13fcf575 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of an integrated relative clause. No punctuation is needed before the relative clause beginning with "that" because the content of the relative clause ("that...Lighthouse") is integral to the meaning of the coordinated adjectival phrase ("so bright, so localized, and so dependable") that it modifies.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the coordinated adjectival phrase ("so bright...dependable") and the integrated relative clause that modifies it. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the coordinated adjectival phrase ("so bright...dependable") and the integrated relative clause that modifies it. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the coordinated adjectival phrase ("so bright...dependable") and the integrated relative clause that modifies it.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 940ff6f7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 940ff6f7

    Jamaican British artist Willard Wigan is known for his remarkable blank so small that they are best viewed through a microscope, Wigan’s sculptures are made from tiny natural materials, such as spiderweb strands.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • microsculptures creations

    • microsculptures, creations

    • microsculptures. Creations

    • microsculptures and creations

    ID: 940ff6f7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between sentences. In this choice, the period is used to correctly mark the boundary between one sentence ("Jamaican…microsculptures") and another ("Creations…strands"). The noun phrase beginning with "creations" modifies the subject of the next sentence, "Wigan’s sculptures."

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences ("Jamaican…microsculptures" and "Creations…strands") are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice D is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction "and" can’t be used in this way to join sentences.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 333b2b65

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 333b2b65

    While one requires oxygen and one does blank and anaerobic respiration are both forms of cellular respiration—that is, they are processes by which cells break down glucose to use as energy.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • not aerobic

    •  not. Aerobic

    • not, aerobic

    •  not; aerobic

    ID: 333b2b65 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. A comma is the appropriate way to link the dependent clause “While...not” and the independent clause that follows.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice creates a run-on sentence error. “While...not” is a dependent clause, which must be separated from the independent clause that follows with some sort of punctuation. Choice B is incorrect. This choice creates a sentence fragment. “While one requires oxygen and one does not” isn’t an independent clause, so it can’t stand alone as a complete sentence. Choice D is incorrect. This choice creates a punctuation error. “While one requires oxygen and one does not” isn’t an independent clause, so it can’t be linked to the clause that follows with a semicolon.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 4c335aea

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 4c335aea

    In a recent analysis of lyrical trends in 350,000 songs, researchers cite increases in certain measures, such as the ratio of choruses to verses, as evidence music lyrics are becoming more repetitive. For instance, from 1970 to 2020, blank chorus-to-verse ratios trended similarly, with each genre’s data indicating that relative to the number of unique verses, the number of repeated choruses in songs increased.  

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • rocks and raps

    • rock’s and rap’s

    • rocks and rap’s

    • rock and rap’s

    ID: 4c335aea Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of possessive nouns. The singular possessive nouns "rock’s" and "rap’s" correctly indicate that the chorus-to-verse ratios belong to the genres of rock and rap.

    Choice A is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive nouns "rock’s" and "rap’s," not the plural nouns "rocks" and "raps." Choice C is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive noun "rock’s," not the plural noun "rocks." Choice D is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive noun "rock’s," not the singular noun "rock." This choice incorrectly suggests that there was a single chorus-to-verse ratio for rock and rap together, whereas the ratio was calculated for each genre individually.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 8b017d4e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 8b017d4e

    Supported by biochemical analyses of over 2,000 skeletons from the Middle Ages, blank

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • vegetables and grains were, a 2022 study found, the primary components of early medieval rulers’ diets.

    • early medieval rulers’ diets were found, in a 2022 study, to have primarily consisted of vegetables and grains.

    • the primary components of early medieval rulers’ diets were vegetables and grains, according to a 2022 study.

    • findings from a 2022 study suggested that vegetables and grains were the primary components of early medieval rulers’ diets.

    ID: 8b017d4e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice makes the noun phrase "findings from a 2022 study" the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase "supported...Ages." In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that the findings—and not another noun in the sentence—are supported by the biochemical analyses.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of "vegetables and grains" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that vegetables and grains are supported by biochemical analyses. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of "early medieval rulers’ diets" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the rulers’ diets are supported by biochemical analyses. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of "the primary components" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the primary components are supported by biochemical analyses.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID aaa1907f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: aaa1907f

    To serve local families during the Great Depression, innovative New York City librarian Pura Belpré offered storytelling in both English and Spanish, an uncommon blank celebrated el Día de los Tres Reyes Magos, an important community holiday; and put on puppet shows dramatizing Puerto Rican folktales.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • practice, at the time

    • practice at the time;

    • practice, at the time,

    • practice at the time,

    ID: aaa1907f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of elements in a complex series. It’s conventional to use a semicolon to separate items in a complex series with internal punctuation, and in this choice, the semicolon after "time" is conventionally used to separate the first item ("offered…time") and the second ("celebrated…holiday") in the series of activities that librarian Pura Belpré offered. Moreover, the semicolon after "time" matches the semicolon used later to separate the second item ("celebrated...holiday") and the third ("and...folktales") in the series.

    Choice A is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the first item and the second item in the complex series. Furthermore, a comma isn’t needed between the noun "practice" and the prepositional phrase "at the time" because the prepositional phrase is essential to the full meaning of the phrase "an uncommon practice at the time." Choice C is incorrect because a comma after "time" doesn’t match the semicolon used later to separate the second ("celebrated...holiday") and third ("and...folktales") items in the series. Furthermore, a comma isn’t needed between the noun "practice" and the prepositional phrase "at the time" because the prepositional phrase is essential to the full meaning of the phrase "an uncommon practice at the time." Choice D is incorrect because a comma after "time" doesn’t match the semicolon used later to separate the second ("celebrated...holiday") and third ("and...folktales") items in the series.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 7f48b098

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 7f48b098

    Photosynthesis, the mechanism by which plants use sunlight to turn carbon dioxide and water into blank is fueled in part by an enzyme called Photosystem II that harvests energy-giving electrons from water molecules.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • nutrients

    • nutrients and

    • nutrients,

    • nutrients—

    ID: 7f48b098 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of a supplementary element within a sentence. The comma after “nutrients” pairs with the comma after “photosynthesis” to separate the supplementary element “the mechanism by which plants use sunlight to turn carbon dioxide and water into nutrients” from the rest of the sentence. This supplementary element functions to define the term “photosynthesis,” and the pair of commas indicates that this element could be removed without affecting the grammatical coherence of the sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice B is incorrect because a conjunction can’t be paired with a comma in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because a dash can’t be paired with a comma in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 626a1642

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 626a1642

    As a behavioral economist, Katy Milkman of the University of Pennsylvania recognizes that people sometimes make irrational economic decisions. Milkman’s research can thus address anomalies that neoclassical economic blank assume that people are consistently rational decision-makers—cannot explain. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • models—which 

    • models, which

    • models which

    • models which—  

    ID: 626a1642 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within a sentence. The dashes after "models" and "decision-makers" correctly separate the supplementary element "which assume that people are consistently rational decision-makers" from the rest of the sentence. This punctuation indicates that this element could be removed without affecting the grammatical coherence of the sentence.

    Choice B is incorrect because a comma can’t be paired with a dash in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice C is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because it interrupts the sentence at an illogical and grammatically incoherent point. The dash should be placed before "which," not after it, to mark the beginning of the supplementary element.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 148be4da

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 148be4da

    Human-made (synthetic) fibers used in clothes and many other consumer products are more durable than most natural plant blank the manufacture of synthetic fibers requires toxic chemical solvents that can pollute air and water.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • fibers,

    • fibers but

    • fibers

    • fibers, but

    ID: 148be4da Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma and the coordinating conjunction “but” to join the first main clause (“Human-made...fibers”) and the second main clause (“the manufacture...water”).

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Choice B is incorrect because when coordinating two longer main clauses such as these, it’s conventional to use a comma before the coordinating conjunction. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 9df6da04

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 9df6da04

    Entomologists Yash Sondhi and Samuel Fabian have tried to explain why moths fly erratically around light sources at night. Knowing that flying insects keep their backs pointed toward sunlight during the day, blank

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • the researchers theorize that moths, mistaking nighttime lights for the Sun, continually try to reorient their bodies while flying near such lights.

    • the researchers’ theory is that moths mistake nighttime lights for the Sun, continually trying to reorient their bodies while flying near such lights.

    • moths mistake nighttime lights for the Sun and continually try to reorient their bodies while flying near such lights, the researchers theorize. 

    • moths continually try to reorient their bodies while flying near nighttime lights, the researchers theorize, mistaking such lights for the Sun.

    ID: 9df6da04 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice makes the noun phrase "the researchers" the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase "knowing…day." In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that the researchers—and not another noun in the sentence—know that flying insects keep their backs pointed toward sunlight during the day.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase "the researchers’ theory" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the researchers’ theory knows that flying insects keep their backs pointed toward sunlight during the day. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun "moths" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that moths know that flying insects keep their backs pointed toward sunlight during the day. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun "moths" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that moths know that flying insects keep their backs pointed toward sunlight during the day.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 0f39b19c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 0f39b19c

    After a spate of illnesses as a child, Wilma Rudolph was told she might never walk again. Defying all odds, Rudolph didn’t just walk, she blank the 1960 Summer Olympics in Rome, she won both the 100- and 200-meter dashes and clinched first place for her team in the 4x100-meter relay, becoming the first US woman to win three gold medals in a single Olympics.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • ran—fast—during

    • ran—fast during

    • ran—fast, during

    • ran—fast. During

    ID: 0f39b19c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period is used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence (“Defying…fast”) and another sentence that begins with a supplementary phrase (“During…Olympics”).

    Choice A is incorrect. When a dash is present in a sentence (“ran—fast”), it’s not conventional to use another dash (“fast—during”) to mark the boundary between sentences because it creates a potentially confusing sentence. In this context, a period, semicolon, or colon would be clear and more conventional. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences (“Defying…fast”) and (“during…Olympics”) are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID ae439895

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: ae439895

    In her 1983 book The Managed Heart: Commercialization of Human Feeling, sociologist Arlie Russell Hochschild first explored at length her conception of a “sociology of emotions”—the idea that the various cultural and ideological frameworks a person has internalized (class, gender, political affiliation, etc.) blank each emotional reaction that person has within a situation.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • underlies

    • is underlying

    • underlie

    • has been underlying

    ID: ae439895 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The plural verb "underlie" agrees in number with the plural subject "frameworks."

    Choice A is incorrect because the singular verb "underlies" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "frameworks." Choice B is incorrect because the singular verb "is underlying" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "frameworks." Choice D is incorrect because the singular verb "has been underlying" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "frameworks."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 83617355

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 83617355

    Each night in Gijón, Spain, a section of the city’s marina is bathed in a soft green glow. The source of the glow is the Árbol de la Sidra, a large sculpture made up of 3,200 recycled glass bottles. A lamp inside the tree-shaped structure blank the green glass.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • will be illuminating

    • illuminates

    • would illuminate

    • illuminated

    ID: 83617355 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense. In this choice, the present tense verb "illuminates" is consistent with the other present tense verb ("is") used to describe the sculpture, correctly indicating that the sculpture habitually glows ("each night") and that the lamp inside is the source of its illumination.

    Choice A is incorrect because the future progressive tense verb "will be illuminating" isn’t consistent with the other present tense verb used to describe the sculpture and the source of its glow. Choice C is incorrect because the modal "would," which is used to indicate a typical behavior in the past, isn’t consistent with the other present tense verb used to describe the sculpture and the source of its glow. Choice D is incorrect because the past tense verb "illuminated" isn’t consistent with the other present tense verb used to describe the sculpture and the source of its glow.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID f78997cf

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: f78997cf

    Recent analysis of 32532 Thereus—an outer solar system object orbiting the Sun between Jupiter and Saturn—has determined its color to be gray, suggesting an icy composition. Such interpretations are ultimately blank the object’s gray coloration may be an incidental effect of radiation, solar wind, or collisions with other objects rather than evidence of its physical makeup. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • speculative, though 

    • speculative, though; 

    • speculative; though 

    • speculative, though, 

    ID: f78997cf Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation in a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma to separate the supplementary adverb "though" from the preceding main clause ("Such interpretations are ultimately speculative") and uses a semicolon to join the next main clause ("the object’s...makeup") to the rest of the sentence. Further, placing the semicolon after "though" indicates that the information in the preceding main clause (interpretations of an outer solar system object’s composition based on its color are ultimately speculative) is a qualification of the information in the previous sentence (the composition of an outer solar system object is suggested by its color).

    Choice A is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the two main clauses with appropriate punctuation. Choice C is incorrect because placing the semicolon after "speculative" illogically indicates that the information in the next main clause ("the object’s...makeup") is a qualification of the information in the previous clause ("Such...speculative"). Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Commas can’t be used in this way to punctuate a supplementary word or phrase between two main clauses.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID f0864217

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: f0864217

    Rabinal Achí is a precolonial Maya dance drama performed annually in Rabinal, a town in the Guatemalan highlands. Based on events that occurred when Rabinal was a city-state ruled by a king, blank had once been an ally of the king but was later captured while leading an invading force against him.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Rabinal Achí tells the story of K’iche’ Achí, a military leader who

    • K’iche’ Achí, the military leader in the story of Rabinal Achí,

    • the military leader whose story is told in Rabinal Achí, K’iche’ Achí, 

    • there was a military leader, K’iche’ Achí, who in Rabinal Achí

    ID: f0864217 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The modifier “Based on events…by a king,” is describing the drama “Rabinal Achí.” Modifiers need to be next to the subjects they describe, so “Rabinal Achí” needs to be the first word after the comma. 

    Choice B is incorrect. This doesn’t complete the text in a way that conforms to the conventions of Standard English. The modifier “Based on events…by a king,” is describing the drama “Rabinal Achí.” Modifiers need to be next to the subjects they describe, so “Rabinal Achí” needs to be the first word after the comma. Choice C is incorrect. This doesn’t complete the text in a way that conforms to the conventions of Standard English. The modifier “Based on events…by a king,” is describing the drama “Rabinal Achí.” Modifiers need to be next to the subjects they describe, so “Rabinal Achí” needs to be the first word after the comma. Choice D is incorrect. This doesn’t complete the text in a way that conforms to the conventions of Standard English. The modifier “Based on events…by a king,” is describing the drama “Rabinal Achí.” Modifiers need to be next to the subjects they describe, so “Rabinal Achí” needs to be the first word after the comma. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID c91ef0f0

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: c91ef0f0

    During the American Civil War, Thomas Morris Chester braved the front lines as a war correspondent for the Philadelphia Press. Amplifying the voices and experiences of Black soldiers blank of particular importance to Chester, who later became an activist and lawyer during the postwar Reconstruction period.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • were

    • have been

    • are

    • was

    ID: c91ef0f0 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "was" agrees in number with the singular subject "amplifying." Gerunds such as "amplifying" are always singular.

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb "were" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "amplifying." Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "have been" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "amplifying." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "are" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "amplifying."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 7b419faf

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 7b419faf

    In 1903, environmentalist John Muir guided President Theodore Roosevelt on a scenic, sprawling trip through California’s Yosemite Valley. Upon returning from the three-day excursion, Roosevelt blank to conserve the nation’s wilderness areas, a vow he upheld for his remaining six years in office.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • is vowing

    • vowed

    • will vow

    • vows

    ID: 7b419faf Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense in a sentence. In this choice, the past tense verb “vowed” is consistent with the other past tense verbs (“guided” and “upheld”) used to narrate the events surrounding President Roosevelt’s decision to conserve the nation’s wilderness areas.

    Choice A is incorrect because the present progressive tense verb “is vowing” isn’t consistent with the past tense verbs used to narrate the events surrounding President Roosevelt’s decision to conserve the nation’s wilderness areas. Choice C is incorrect because the future tense verb “will vow” isn’t consistent with the past tense verbs used to narrate the events surrounding President Roosevelt’s decision to conserve the nation’s wilderness areas. Choice D is incorrect because the simple present tense verb “vows” isn’t consistent with the past tense verbs used to narrate the events surrounding President Roosevelt’s decision to conserve the nation’s wilderness areas.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 29c9be28

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 29c9be28

    To survive when water is scarce, embryos inside African turquoise killifish eggs blank a dormant state known as diapause. In this state, embryonic development is paused for as long as two years—longer than the life span of an adult killifish.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • enter

    • to enter

    • having entered

    • entering

    ID: 29c9be28 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is finite and nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. A main clause requires a finite verb to perform the action of the subject (in this case, “embryos”), and this choice supplies the clause with the finite present tense verb “enter” to indicate how the embryos achieve diapause.

    Choice B is incorrect because the nonfinite to-infinitive “to enter” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “having entered” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice D is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “entering” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 983d33fa

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 983d33fa

    In 1637, the price of tulips skyrocketed in Amsterdam, with single bulbs of rare varieties selling for up to the equivalent of $200,000 in today’s US dollars. Some historians blank that this “tulip mania” was the first historical instance of an asset bubble, which occurs when investors drive prices to highs not supported by actual demand.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • claiming

    • claim

    • having claimed

    • to claim

    ID: 983d33fa Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of finite and nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. A main clause requires a finite verb to perform the action of the subject (in this case, “some historians”), and this choice supplies the finite present tense verb “claim” to indicate what some historians do. 

    Choice A is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “claiming” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “having claimed” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice D is incorrect because the nonfinite to-infinitive “to claim” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 6e193b19

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 6e193b19

    Professional American football player Fred Cox invented one of the world’s most popular toys. In the 1970s, he came up with the idea for the Nerf football, which blank of the harder and heavier regulation football.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • were a smaller, foam version

    • are smaller, foam versions

    • were smaller, foam versions

    • is a smaller, foam version

    ID: 6e193b19 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement and agreement between nouns. The singular verb “is” and the singular noun “version” both agree in number with the relative pronoun “which.” In this context, “which” functions as a singular subject because it refers to the singular noun “the Nerf football.”

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb “were” doesn’t agree in number with the singular noun phrase “the Nerf football” that it’s modifying. Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb “are” and the plural noun “versions” don’t agree in number with the singular noun phrase “the Nerf football” that they’re modifying. Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb “were” and the plural noun “versions” don’t agree in number with the singular noun phrase “the Nerf football” that they’re modifying.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID fced396a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: fced396a

    The Herfindahl-Hirschman Index (HHI), a commonly used measure of competition between companies in a particular market, ranges from a score of zero to 10,000 points. Compared with that of a highly concentrated market—that is, a market controlled by very few companies—blank

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • a market that is less concentrated will have a much lower HHI score.

    • the HHI score of a less concentrated market will be much lower.

    • when a market is less concentrated, its HHI score will be much lower.

    • a less concentrated market will have an HHI score that is much lower.

    ID: fced396a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice makes the noun phrase "the HHI...market" the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase "compared...market." In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that the HHI score of a less concentrated market—and not another noun in the sentence—is being compared with the HHI score of a highly concentrated market.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of "a market that is less concentrated" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that a market is being compared with an HHI score. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a confusing, illogical sentence. The placement of the modifier "when a market is less concentrated" after "a highly concentrated market" is contradictory. Furthermore, it’s ambiguous what "its" is referring to in "its HHI score," resulting in an illogical comparison. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of "a less concentrated market" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that a market is being compared with an HHI score.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID e6f2dba6

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: e6f2dba6

    According to the traditional RYB (red-yellow-blue) color model, yellow is a complementary color to purple. However, yellow blank considered complementary to blue in modern color theory.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • is

    • having been

    • to be

    • being

    ID: e6f2dba6 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. A main clause requires a finite (tensed) verb to perform the action of the subject (in this case, "yellow"), and this choice supplies the present tense verb "is considered" to indicate that yellow is considered a complementary color to blue in modern color theory.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite participle "having been considered" doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite to-infinitive "to be considered" doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice D is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite participle "being considered" doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 52b61716

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 52b61716

    Formed in 1967 to foster political and economic stability within the Asia-Pacific region, the Association of Southeast Asian Nations was originally made up of five members: Thailand, the Philippines, Singapore, Malaysia, and Indonesia. By the end of the 1990s, the organization blank its initial membership.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • has doubled

    • had doubled

    • doubles

    • will double

    ID: 52b61716 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense. In this choice, the past perfect verb “had doubled” properly indicates that the doubling of the organization’s initial membership occurred during a specific period before the present (between the organization’s founding in 1967 and the end of the 1990s). 

    Choice A is incorrect because the present perfect verb “has doubled” doesn’t indicate that the organization’s doubling of its initial membership occurred during a specific period in the past. Choice C is incorrect because the present tense verb “doubles” doesn’t indicate that the organization’s doubling of its initial membership occurred during a specific period in the past. Choice D is incorrect because the future tense verb “will double” doesn’t indicate that the organization’s doubling of its initial membership occurred during a specific period in the past.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 96c720af

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 96c720af

    Atoms in a synchrotron, a type of circular particle accelerator, travel faster and faster until they blank a desired energy level, at which point they are diverted to collide with a target, smashing the atoms.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • will reach

    • reach

    • had reached

    • are reaching

    ID: 96c720af Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense in a sentence. In this choice, the present tense verb “reach” is consistent with the present tense verbs “travel” and “are diverted” used to describe how atoms move through the synchrotron.

    Choice A is incorrect because the future tense verb “will reach” is inconsistent with the present tense verbs used to describe how atoms move through the synchrotron. Though the atoms’ movement is a recurring action and “will reach” can also be used to indicate a habitual or recurring action, it creates a logical inconsistency in this sentence when paired with the present tense verbs “travel” and “are diverted.” Choice C is incorrect because the past perfect tense verb “had reached” is inconsistent with the present tense verbs used to describe how atoms move through the synchrotron. Choice D is incorrect because the present progressive tense verb “are reaching” is inconsistent with the present tense verbs used to describe how atoms move through the synchrotron. While both verbs occur in the present, the present progressive tense suggests that the action is currently in progress. This creates a logical inconsistency when paired with the present tense verbs “travel” and “are diverted,” which offer a general description of the tendencies of the atoms’ movement, rather than a description of an action that is currently in progress.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID dbd78791

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: dbd78791

    Led by Syrian American astronomer Shadia Habbal, the Solar Wind Sherpas are an intrepid team of scientists who travel the globe to study solar winds, the streams of particles emanating from the Sun that are only visible from certain locations during a total solar eclipse. When such an eclipse is imminent, the Sherpas pack up their telescopes and blank ready.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • get

    • had gotten

    • got

    • were getting

    ID: dbd78791 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense in a sentence. In this choice, the present tense verb “get” is consistent with the other present tense verbs (“are,” “travel,” and “pack”) used to describe the Sherpas and their activities.

    Choice B is incorrect. The past perfect verb “had gotten” isn’t consistent with the other present tense verbs used to describe the Sherpas and their activities. Choice C is incorrect. The past tense verb “got” isn’t consistent with the other present tense verbs used to describe the Sherpas and their activities. Choice D is incorrect. The past progressive verb “were getting” isn’t consistent with the other present tense verbs used to describe the Sherpas and their activities.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 819c443d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 819c443d

    In January 1776, Thomas Paine published Common Sense, an appeal for freedom from the British monarchy that famously helped ignite the desire for independence among the American colonists. After the colonies achieved their independence, Paine moved to Paris, where the provocative blank would contribute to another revolution—the French Revolution.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • authors political writings

    • author’s political writings

    • author’s political writing’s

    • authors’ political writings’

    ID: 819c443d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The conventions being tested are the use of plural and possessive nouns. The singular possessive noun "author’s" correctly indicates that the political writings are those of Thomas Paine, and the plural noun "writings" correctly indicates that multiple works by Paine are being discussed.

    Choice A is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive noun "author’s," not the plural noun "authors." Choice C is incorrect because the context requires the plural noun "writings," not the singular possessive noun "writing’s." Choice D is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive noun "author’s" and the plural noun "writings," not the plural possessive nouns "authors’" and "writings’."

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 100269ad

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 100269ad

    Zydeco music originated in the French Creole community of southwest Louisiana. One instrument that gives zydeco its unique sound is the vest frottoir. The vest frottoir blank a wearable washboard that is played by rubbing spoons or bottle openers against it.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • have been 

    • is

    • were

    • are

    ID: 100269ad Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "is" agrees in number with the singular subject "vest frottoir."

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb "have been" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "vest frottoir." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "were" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "vest frottoir." Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb "are" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "vest frottoir."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 0aebdf5f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 0aebdf5f

    According to linguist Martin Joos, speakers of the English language blank five main registers—frozen, formal, consultative, casual, and intimate—which they rotate between depending on the situation.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • use

    • is using

    • uses

    • has used

    ID: 0aebdf5f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The plural verb "use" agrees in number with the plural subject "speakers."

    Choice B is incorrect because the singular verb "is using" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "speakers." Choice C is incorrect because the singular verb "uses" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "speakers." Choice D is incorrect because the singular verb "has used" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "speakers."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID f10b7ce4

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: f10b7ce4

    In the list “Adorable Things” from Sei Shōnagon’s Pillow Book, the author delights in baby sparrows, a face drawn on a melon, and a young courtier in ceremonial garb. So shrewd an observer is Shōnagon, a lady-in-waiting to Empress Teishi, that her book’s musings on tenth-century Japanese courtly life blank readers a thousand years later.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • fascinate

    • has fascinated

    • fascinates

    • is fascinating

    ID: f10b7ce4 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The plural verb "fascinate" agrees in number with the plural subject "musings."

    Choice B is incorrect because the singular verb "has fascinated" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "musings." Choice C is incorrect because the singular verb "fascinates" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "musings." Choice D is incorrect because the singular verb "is fascinating" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "musings."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 155239cf

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 155239cf

    By analyzing ice cores from Greenland and Antarctica, a research team at Sweden’s Lund University discovered evidence of a solar storm that occurred 9,200 years ago. Scientists had previously thought the Sun to be in a relatively “quiet” phase at that blank the Lund team’s finding suggests otherwise.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • time but

    • time, but

    • time,

    • time

    ID: 155239cf Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma and the coordinating conjunction "but" to join the first main clause ("Scientists...time") and the second main clause ("the Lund...otherwise").

    Choice A is incorrect because when coordinating two longer main clauses such as these, it’s conventional to use a comma before the coordinating conjunction. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 9091458d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 9091458d

    Emperor penguins don’t waddle out of the ocean. They launch themselves at such a high speed that they travel up to two meters before landing. How blank A layer of microbubbles on their plumage reduces friction as the penguins speed to the surface.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • they are able to move so fast!

    •  are they able to move so fast.

    • they are able to move so fast.

    • are they able to move so fast?

    ID: 9091458d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is end-of-sentence punctuation. This choice correctly uses a question mark to punctuate the interrogative sentence “how are they able to move so fast?” The interrogative sentence asks a direct question, and the next sentence answers it.

    Choice A is incorrect because the context requires an interrogative sentence. The exclamative sentence “how they are able to move so fast!” emphasizes the penguin’s high rate of speed, but it doesn’t set up the next sentence’s explanation of how the penguins achieve such speeds. Choice B is incorrect because a period can’t be used in this way to punctuate an interrogative sentence. Choice C is incorrect because the context requires an interrogative sentence. The exclamative sentence “how they are able to move so fast” emphasizes the penguin’s high rate of speed, but it doesn’t set up the next sentence’s explanation of how the penguins achieve such speeds.  

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID ac5536c1

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: ac5536c1

    Beatrix Potter is perhaps best known for writing and illustrating children’s books such as The Tale of Peter Rabbit (1902), but she also dedicated herself to mycology, the study of blank more than 350 paintings of the fungal species she observed in nature and submitting her research on spore germination to the Linnean Society of London.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • fungi; producing

    • fungi. Producing

    • fungi producing

    • fungi, producing

    ID: ac5536c1 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between two supplementary phrases following the coordinate clause (“but she…mycology”). This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the supplementary noun phrase (“the study of fungi”) that defines the term “mycology” and the supplementary participial phrase (“producing...London”) that provides additional information about the extent to which Potter dedicated herself to mycology.

    Choice A is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join two supplementary phrases following a coordinate clause. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with “producing.” Choice C is incorrect. The lack of punctuation results in a sentence that illogically suggests that the study of fungi is producing more than 350 paintings.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 5bed774c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 5bed774c

    Philosopher Peter Kivy was a leading figure in musical blank evidenced by his belief that instead of evoking particular emotions, such as sadness or joy,  compositions elicit a listener’s emotional response to the structure and artistry of the music itself, Kivy’s approach to the study of music was decidedly formalist.   

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • aesthetics as

    • aesthetics and as

    • aesthetics, as

    • aesthetics. As

    ID: 5bed774c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period is used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence ("Philosopher...aesthetics") and another ("As...formalist"). The long adverbial element "as evidenced...itself" modifies the content in the following clause to support the claim that Kivy’s approach was formalist.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences ("Philosopher...aesthetics" and "As…formalist") are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice B is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction "and" can’t be used in this way to join sentences. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 4aa28ac3

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 4aa28ac3

    Nowadays, tug-of-war is usually seen as an informal game one might play at a picnic or in gym class. Surprisingly, the Olympic committee once decided blank tug-of-war as an official Olympic event! Nations competed in the event at the Olympic Games from 1900 to 1920.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • included

    • including

    • include

    • to include

    ID: 4aa28ac3 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. The nonfinite to-infinitive verb "to include" is correctly used to form a subordinate clause that indicates what the Olympic committee decided (to include tug-of-war as an Olympic event).

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite verb "included" can’t be used in this way to form a subordinate clause that indicates what the Olympic committee decided. Choice B is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite participle "including" can’t be used in this way to form a subordinate clause that indicates what the Olympic committee decided. Choice C is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite verb "include" can’t be used in this way to form a subordinate clause that indicates what the Olympic committee decided.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 9c3630b9

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 9c3630b9

    Using natural debris, such as dried blank such as plastic bags; and more traditional art supplies, such as tree glue, Ghanaian artist Ed Franklin Gavua creates his striking Yiiiiikakaii African masks, which he hopes can help viewers rethink how waste is used in their communities.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • leaves, man-made trash:

    • leaves; man-made trash,

    • leaves, man-made trash,

    • leaves; man-made trash;

    ID: 9c3630b9 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of elements in a complex series. It’s conventional to use a semicolon to separate items in a complex series with internal punctuation, and in this choice, the semicolon after "leaves" is conventionally used to separate the first item ("natural debris, such as dried leaves") and the second item ("man-made trash, such as plastic bags") in the series of materials used by Gavua. Further, the comma after "trash" correctly separates the noun phrase "man-made trash" from the supplementary phrase ("such as plastic bags") that describes it.

    Choice A is incorrect because a comma after "leaves" doesn’t match the semicolon used later to separate the second and third items in the series ("man-made...bags" and "and...glue"). Additionally, it’s not conventional to use a colon in this way to separate a supplementary phrase ("such as plastic bags") from the noun phrase it modifies ("man-made trash"). Choice C is incorrect because a comma after "leaves" doesn’t match the semicolon used later to separate the second and third items in the series ("man-made...bags" and "and...glue"). Choice D is incorrect because it’s not conventional to use a semicolon in this way to separate a supplementary phrase ("such as plastic bags") from the noun phrase it modifies ("man-made trash").

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 8df848c1

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 8df848c1

    When they were first introduced to western Europe from Byzantium in the eleventh century, table forks were met with much resistance. The Bishop of Ostia, St. Peter Damian, condemned the eating utensils because he considered blank dangerous and unnecessary luxury items. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • them

    • this

    • that

    • it

    ID: 8df848c1 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun-antecedent agreement. The plural pronoun "them" agrees in number with the plural antecedent "utensils."

    Choice B is incorrect because the singular pronoun "this" doesn’t agree in number with the plural antecedent "utensils." Choice C is incorrect because the singular pronoun "that" doesn’t agree in number with the plural antecedent "utensils." Choice D is incorrect because the singular pronoun "it" doesn’t agree in number with the plural antecedent "utensils."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 77bf77cd

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 77bf77cd

    Farouk El-Baz, a geologist and space scientist, blank part of the team that selected the lunar landing sites for the Apollo program during the 1960s and 1970s. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • are

    • was

    • have been

    • were

    ID: 77bf77cd Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "was" agrees in number with the singular subject "Farouk El-Baz."

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb "are" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "Farouk El-Baz." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "have been" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "Farouk El-Baz." Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb "were" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "Farouk El-Baz."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 3a2d77d7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 3a2d77d7

    In the 1950s, novel audio technologies allowed the addition of another instrument to jazz and swing blank relatively quiet instrument, its full range of sound was finally audible alongside the blaring brass instruments of the time, allowing flautists like Bennie Maupin and Bobbi Humphrey to perform with other jazz greats.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • music, the flute, a

    • music. The flute, a

    • music; the flute, a

    • music: the flute. A

    ID: 3a2d77d7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within and between sentences. In this choice, the colon correctly introduces the name of the instrument (the flute) that novel audio technologies allowed to be added to jazz and swing. In addition, the period is used to correctly mark the boundary between one sentence ("In…flute") and another ("A relatively…greats").

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses ("In…quiet instrument" and "its…greats"). Choice B is incorrect. In standard English, it’s unconventional to form a sentence in this way with two uncoordinated subjects ("the flute" and "its full range of sound"), and the lack of a clear main subject results in an awkwardly constructed and confusing sentence. Choice C is incorrect. In standard English, it’s unconventional to form an independent clause in this way with two uncoordinated subjects ("the flute" and "its full range of sound"), and the lack of a clear main subject results in an awkwardly constructed and confusing clause.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 435809d8

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 435809d8

    On March 23, 2021, a gust of wind wreaked havoc on global trade. Ever Given, an international shipping container vessel, became lodged in Egypt’s Suez Canal, a major shipping route between Europe and Asia. The vessel took six days to blank it’s as heavy as two thousand blue whales when fully loaded.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • dislodge in part due to its sheer size,

    • dislodge, in part due to its sheer size:

    • dislodge, in part due to its sheer size,

    • dislodge, in part, due to its sheer size

    ID: 435809d8 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between main clauses and a supplementary element. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the main clause ("The vessel took six days to dislodge") and the supplementary element ("in part due to its sheer size") that provides additional information on why the vessel was difficult to dislodge. Additionally, this choice correctly uses a colon to introduce another main clause that describes the vessel’s size ("it’s as heavy as two thousand blue whales when fully loaded").

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between two main clauses ("The vessel…size" and "it’s…loaded"). Additionally, it fails to mark the boundary between the main clause ("The vessel took six days to dislodge") and the supplementary element ("in part due to its sheer size"). Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between two main clauses ("The vessel…size" and "it’s…loaded"). Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses ("The vessel…size" and "it’s…loaded") are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID ea0aa676

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: ea0aa676

    In the 1970s, Janaki Ammal, a prominent botanist, emerged as a powerful voice in India’s environmental conservation movement. Her exhaustive chromosomal survey of plants in Silent Valley, a pristine tropical forest in Kerala, India, that is home to nearly 1,000 species of native flora (many of which are endangered), blank instrumental in the government’s decision to preserve the forest.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • are

    • were

    • have been

    • was

    ID: ea0aa676 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The subject "survey" is singular, and so is the verb "was."

    Choice A is incorrect. The subject "survey" is singular, but the verb "are" is plural. Choice B is incorrect. The subject "survey" is singular, but the verb "were" is plural. Choice C is incorrect. The subject "survey" is singular, but the verb "have been" is plural.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID b0115ef6

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: b0115ef6

    Technologies such as microphones and inkjet printers are made using piezoelectric materials, which generate an internal electric field when pressure is applied to them. The toxic nature of some of these materials recently led a team from the University of Sheffield to investigate how blank

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • could their use be better regulated?

    • their use could be better regulated.

    • their use could be better regulated?

    • could their use be better regulated.

    ID: b0115ef6 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is end-of-sentence punctuation. This choice correctly uses a period to punctuate a declarative sentence that asks an indirect question ("The toxic nature of some of these materials recently led a team from the University of Sheffield to investigate how their use could be better regulated").

    Choice A is incorrect because the structure requires a period and a declarative clause at the end of the sentence that states what the team investigated, not an interrogative clause that asks a direct question, such as "how could their use be better regulated?" Choice C is incorrect because it’s unconventional to use a question mark in this way to punctuate a declarative sentence. Choice D is incorrect because the structure requires a declarative clause at the end of the sentence that states what the team investigated, not an interrogative clause that asks a direct question, such as "how could their use be better regulated?"

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 83898524

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 83898524

    In addition to advocating for South America’s independence in two political treatises, the Cartagena Manifesto and the Letter from Jamaica, Simón Bolívar personally led armies against the Spanish, liberating three South American territories—New Granada (present-day Colombia and Panama), Venezuela, and Quito (present-day blank from colonial rule.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Ecuador,)

    • Ecuador)

    • Ecuador),

    • Ecuador)—

    ID: 83898524 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of a supplementary element within a sentence. The dash after “Ecuador” and the closing parenthesis pairs with the dash after “territories” to separate the supplementary element (“New…Ecuador”) from the rest of the sentence. The supplementary element specifies the three South American territories that Simón Bolívar liberated, and the pair of dashes indicates that this element could be removed without affecting the grammatical coherence of the sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Furthermore, punctuation isn’t needed between “Ecuador” and the closing parenthesis. Choice B is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice C is incorrect because a comma can’t be paired with a dash to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID fba5d8d1

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: fba5d8d1

    In a 2016 study, Eastern Washington University psychologist Amani El-Alayli found that, among the study participants who experienced frisson (a physiological response akin to goosebumps or getting the chills) while listening to music, there was one personality trait that they scored particularly blank openness to experience.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • high. On

    • high on;

    • high on

    • high on:

    ID: fba5d8d1 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between a main clause and a supplementary phrase. In this choice, a colon is correctly used to mark the boundary between the main clause ("there...on") and the supplementary phrase ("openness to experience") and to introduce the information that identifies which personality trait participants scored especially high on.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with "on" and separates a necessary preposition from the clause beginning with "there." Choice B is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join the main clause ("there...on") and the supplementary phrase ("openness to experience"). A semicolon is conventionally used to join two main clauses, whereas a colon is conventionally used to introduce an element that explains or amplifies the information in the preceding clause, making the colon the better choice in this context. Choice C is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the main clause ("there...on") and the supplementary phrase ("openness to experience").

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 57998dd3

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 57998dd3

    Obsidian is a kind of volcanic glass formed when lava cools so quickly that the atoms inside it cannot arrange themselves in a crystalline structure. You blank more about obsidian’s structure, which is classified as amorphous, in a later chapter.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • had learned

    • had been learning

    • will learn

    • have learned

    ID: 57998dd3 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense in a sentence. In this choice, the future tense verb “will learn,” used in conjunction with the phrase “in a later chapter,” correctly indicates that “you” (the reader) are going to learn about obsidian’s structure at some point in the future.

    Choice A is incorrect because the past perfect verb “had learned” doesn’t indicate that the subject is going to learn about obsidian’s structure in the future. Choice B is incorrect because the past perfect progressive verb “had been learning” doesn’t indicate that the subject is going to learn about obsidian’s structure in the future. Choice D is incorrect because the present perfect verb “have learned” doesn’t indicate that the subject is going to learn about obsidian’s structure in the future.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID dc645172

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: dc645172

    The artistic talents of Barbara Chase-Riboud, most known for her 1979 historical novel Sally Hemings and the conversation it inspired, blank limited to the realm of prose: she first excelled in sculpture, where her affinity for bronze—a material she described as “timeless” due to its use across eras and cultures—became part of her artistic identity.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • hasn’t been

    • wasn’t

    • isn’t

    • aren’t

    ID: dc645172 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The subject "talents" is plural, and so is the verb "aren’t": "the artistic talents…aren’t limited."

    Choice A is incorrect. The subject "talents" is plural, but the verb "hasn’t been" is singular. Choice B is incorrect. The subject "talents" is plural, but the verb "wasn’t" is singular. Choice C is incorrect. The subject "talents" is plural, but the verb "isn’t" is singular.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 6fece68e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 6fece68e

    Emperor Ashoka ruled the Maurya Empire in South Asia from roughly 270 to 232 BCE. He is known for enforcing a moral code called the Law of Piety, which established the sanctity of animal blank the just treatment of the elderly, and the abolition of the slave trade.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • life

    • life;

    • life:

    • life,

    ID: 6fece68e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. Notice that "the sanctity of animal life" is the first item in a list of three things. We must use a comma to separate the first two items in the list, just as a comma is used to separate "the just treatment of the elderly" and "the abolition of the slave trade."

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice creates a punctuation error. Notice that "the sanctity of animal life" is the first item in a list of three things. To appropriately format the list, we need punctuation to separate each item. Choice B is incorrect. This choice creates a punctuation error. Notice that "the sanctity of animal life" is the first item in a list of three things. While semicolons are sometimes used to separate list items, this list uses commas to separate the other list items, and lists must use the same punctuation throughout. Choice C is incorrect. This choice creates a punctuation error. Notice that "the sanctity of animal life" is the first item in a list of three things. While colons can be used to introduce lists, they can’t be used to separate items within a list.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 886dc9f9

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 886dc9f9

    On July 23, 1854, a clipper ship called the Flying Cloud entered San Francisco blank left New York Harbor under the guidance of Captain Josiah Perkins Creesy and his wife, navigator Eleanor Creesy, a mere 89 days and 8 hours earlier, the celebrated ship set a record that would stand for 135 years.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Bay and having

    • Bay. Having

    • Bay, having

    • Bay having

    ID: 886dc9f9 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period after “Bay” is used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence (“On…Bay”) and another sentence that begins with a supplementary phrase (“Having…years”). Here, the supplementary phrase beginning with “having” modifies the subject of the second sentence, “the celebrated ship.”

    Choice A is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction “and” can’t be used in this way to join sentences. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to join two sentences. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences (“On…Bay” and “having…years”) are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 166efaa2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 166efaa2

    Public-awareness campaigns about the need to reduce single-use plastics can be successful, says researcher Kim Borg of Monash University in Australia, when these campaigns give consumers a choice: for example, Japan achieved a 40 percent reduction in plastic-bag use after cashiers were instructed to ask customers whether blank wanted a bag.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • they

    • one

    • you

    • it

    ID: 166efaa2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun–antecedent agreement. The plural pronoun “they” agrees in number with the plural antecedent “customers.”

    Choice B is incorrect because the singular pronoun “one” doesn’t agree in number with the plural antecedent “customers.” Choice C is incorrect because the second person pronoun “you” isn’t conventional as a substitute for “customers.” It suggests that the audience (“you”) is the customer. Choice D is incorrect because the singular pronoun “it” doesn’t agree in number with the plural antecedent “customers.”

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 59a246dc

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 59a246dc

    When external forces are applied to common glass made from silicates, energy builds up around minuscule defects in the material, resulting in fractures. Recently, engineer Erkka Frankberg of Tampere University in Finland used the chemical blank to make a glassy solid that can withstand higher strain than silicate glass can before fracturing.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • compound, aluminum oxide

    • compound aluminum oxide,

    • compound, aluminum oxide,

    • compound aluminum oxide

    ID: 59a246dc Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation around noun phrases. No punctuation is needed because the noun phrase “aluminum oxide” is a restrictive appositive, meaning that it provides essential identifying information about the noun phrase before it, “the chemical compound,” and thus doesn’t require punctuation around it.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed. Choice C is incorrect because the noun phrase “aluminum oxide” is a restrictive appositive. Setting the phrase off with punctuation suggests that it could be removed without affecting the coherence of the sentence, which isn’t the case.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID a153ad6a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: a153ad6a

    While light is known as one of the fastest-moving substances, it slows down when passing through some types of matter. One such type of matter is a form of cooled, condensed gas called a Bose-Einstein condensate blank Dutch physicist Lene Hau famously used a BEC to slow a beam of light to a complete halt.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • (BEC),

    • (BEC) and

    • (BEC);

    • (BEC)

    ID: a153ad6a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a semicolon to join the first main clause ("One…(BEC)") and the second main clause ("Dutch…halt").

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. Without a comma preceding it, a conjunction can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 35ae047d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 35ae047d

    In 1929, Edwin Herbert Land invented a polarizing filter that was featured in a number of products, from sunglasses to 3D movies. A decade later, Land blank his technology to invent the world’s first instant camera, the Polaroid Land camera.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • used

    • to have used

    • to use

    • using

    ID: 35ae047d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. A main clause requires a finite (tensed) verb to perform the action of the subject (in this case, Land), and this choice supplies the finite past tense verb "used" to indicate what Land did with the technology he had invented.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite perfect infinitive "to have used" doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite to-infinitive "to use" doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice D is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite participle "using" doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 9eb43963

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 9eb43963

    Water in the North Atlantic Ocean is pushed eastward by powerful winds, but the rotation of Earth and interference from nearby landmasses together cause blank to swirl into a massive, churning whirlpool—also called the North Atlantic Gyre—that spins clockwise.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • these

    • those

    • them

    • it

    ID: 9eb43963 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun-antecedent agreement. The singular pronoun "it" agrees in number with the singular antecedent "water" and clearly indicates that the water swirls into a whirlpool.

    Choice A is incorrect. The plural pronoun "these" neither agrees in number with the singular antecedent "water" nor clearly indicates that the water—not another plural noun in the sentence, such as "landmasses" or "winds"—swirls into a whirlpool. Choice B is incorrect. The plural pronoun "those" neither agrees in number with the singular antecedent "water" nor clearly indicates that the water—not another plural noun in the sentence, such as "landmasses" or "winds"—swirls into a whirlpool. Choice C is incorrect. The plural pronoun "them" neither agrees in number with the singular antecedent "water" nor clearly indicates that the water—not another plural noun in the sentence, such as "landmasses" or "winds"—swirls into a whirlpool.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID eeb14722

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: eeb14722

    The soundtrack to Mira Nair’s 1991 film Mississippi Masala expressively captures the clashing of cultures that happens when blank (a young Indian woman from Uganda and a young African American man from Mississippi) meet. Featured throughout the film are songs from Uganda’s Afrigo Band, the Indian composer L. Subramaniam, and the Mississippi blues musician Sam Chatmon.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • it’s two protagonists

    • its two protagonist’s

    • it’s two protagonist’s

    • its two protagonists

    ID: eeb14722 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The conventions being tested are the use of possessive determiners and the use of plural nouns. The singular possessive determiner "its"—which agrees in number with the singular noun phrase "Mira Nair’s 1991 film Mississippi Masala"—and the plural noun "protagonists" correctly indicate that Nair’s film has multiple protagonists.

    Choice A is incorrect because "it’s" is the contraction for "it is," not a possessive determiner. Choice B is incorrect because the context requires the plural noun "protagonists," not the singular possessive noun "protagonist’s." Choice C is incorrect because the context requires the possessive determiner "its" and the plural noun "protagonists," not the contraction "it’s" or the singular possessive noun "protagonist’s."

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 6e071432

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 6e071432

    In 1986, conceptual artist Sophie Calle asked twenty-three people, all of whom had been born without sight, to describe “their image of beauty” in rich detail. Calle paired excerpts of these conversations with photographs—both of interviewees and the items they blank to powerful effect in her exhibition The Blind.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • described, from hair to grass to sculptures

    • described, from hair to grass to sculptures—

    • described—from hair to grass to sculptures,

    • described: from hair to grass to sculptures

    ID: 6e071432 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of supplementary elements within a sentence. The comma after "described" separates the first supplementary element ("both of interviewees and the items they described") from the second supplementary element ("from hair to grass to sculptures"). Furthermore, the dash after "sculptures" pairs with the dash after "photographs" to separate these two supplementary elements from the rest of the sentence. The pair of dashes, which operate at a higher organizing level than the comma, indicates that the elements between the dashes function together—in this case, the second supplement ("from…sculptures") describes the range of items mentioned in the first supplement—and could be removed without affecting the grammatical coherence of the sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because it fails to appropriately punctuate the supplementary elements in the sentence. A dash is needed after "sculptures" to separate the supplementary elements ("both…sculptures") from the rest of the sentence. Choice C is incorrect because it fails to appropriately punctuate the supplementary elements in the sentence. The two supplementary elements "both…described" and "from…sculptures" function together to describe the photographs, and placing a dash between them would make this relationship less clear, suggesting that the supplement "both...described" is a standalone element that could be removed without affecting the grammatical coherence of the sentence, which isn’t the case. Choice D is incorrect because it fails to appropriately punctuate the supplementary elements in the sentence. A colon isn’t conventionally used in this way to separate a supplementary element ("from hair to grass to sculptures") from the noun phrase it is modifying ("items they described"). Additionally, a dash is needed after "sculptures" to separate the supplementary elements ("both…sculptures") from the rest of the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID db4e3819

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: db4e3819

    Midway through her 1968 jazz album A Monastic Trio, Alice Coltrane switches instruments, swapping the piano for the harp. With the same fluid style that Coltrane was famous for on piano, she blank her fingers across the harp strings and creates a radiant sound.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • sweep

    • are sweeping

    • were sweeping

    • sweeps

    ID: db4e3819 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "sweeps" agrees in number with the singular subject "she," which refers to Alice Coltrane.

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb "sweep" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "she." Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "are sweeping" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "she." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "were sweeping" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "she."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 20ea68b7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 20ea68b7

    It can take time for proposed amendments to the US Constitution to become law. For example, the Twenty-Second Amendment, which limits the number of blank can serve, was first proposed in 1947 but wasn’t approved by the required three-fourths majority of state legislatures until 1951.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • terms presidents

    • term’s presidents

    • term’s president’s

    • terms president’s

    ID: 20ea68b7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of plural nouns. The plural nouns "terms" and "presidents" correctly indicate that the amendment involves multiple terms and applies to presidents in general.

    Choice B is incorrect because the context requires the plural noun "terms," not the singular possessive noun "term’s." Choice C is incorrect because the context requires the plural nouns "terms" and "presidents," not the singular possessive nouns "term’s" and "president’s." Choice D is incorrect because the context requires the plural noun "presidents," not the singular possessive noun "president’s."

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 77e06a09

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 77e06a09

    Between 322 and 184 BCE, the Maurya Empire established a complex economic system that, through trade and centralized blank funded major infrastructure projects throughout the Indian subcontinent. This included the building of many roads, canals, and hospitals.   

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • taxation:

    • taxation,

    • taxation—

    • taxation

    ID: 77e06a09 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within a sentence. The comma after "taxation" pairs with the comma after "that" to separate the supplementary element "through trade and centralized taxation" from the rest of the sentence. This supplementary element functions to identify the funding source of the Mauryan economy, and the pair of commas indicates that this element could be removed without affecting the grammatical coherence of the sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because a colon can’t be paired with a comma in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice C is incorrect because a dash can’t be paired with a comma in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 6ea8c23f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 6ea8c23f

    In 2018, a team of researchers led by Dr. Caitlin Whalen compiled every available measurement of ocean mixing rates from the past two decades. With this novel data set, the team was able to determine how current-driven mixing varies across blank and what impact it has on the distribution of heat and nutrients in the ocean.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • regions,

    • regions:

    • regions;

    • regions

    ID: 6ea8c23f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between coordinates in a sentence. The two elements "how…regions" and "what…ocean" work together as coordinates to complete the description of what the team was able to determine. Because there are only two coordinates in this case (as opposed to a series of three or more), no punctuation is needed between them.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the coordinates "how…regions" and "what…ocean." Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the coordinates "how…regions" and "what…ocean." Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the coordinates "how…regions" and "what…ocean."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID aab74a3b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: aab74a3b

    Researcher Lin Zhi developed a process for increasing the tensile strength—measured in gigapascals, or GPa—of silkworm blank dissolving and reweaving the silk in a solution of iron metal ions, zinc, and sugar, Zhi increased the amount of force required to stretch it from approximately 0.5 GPa to 2 GPa.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • silk, by

    • silk by

    • silk and by

    • silk. By

    ID: aab74a3b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The independent clauses "researcher Lin Zhi…silk" and "by dissolving…2 GPa" can be grammatically separated by a period. They can stand alone as sentences, and this is the only choice that lets them do that.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice results in a grammar error called a comma splice. "Researcher Lin Zhi…silk" and "by dissolving…2 GPa" are both independent clauses. They need to either be separated with punctuation like a period or a semicolon, or they need to be connected by a comma and a coordinating conjunction like "and." A comma alone isn’t enough. Choice B is incorrect. This choice results in a grammar error called a run-on sentence. "Researcher Lin Zhi…silk" and "by dissolving…2 GPa" are both independent clauses. They need to either be separated with punctuation like a period or a semicolon, or they need to be connected by a comma and a coordinating conjunction like "and." Choice C is incorrect. This choice results in a grammar error called a run-on sentence. "Researcher Lin Zhi…silk" and "by dissolving…2 GPa" are both independent clauses. The coordinating conjunction "and" isn’t enough to link them by itself. We need a comma, too.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 1724dac2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 1724dac2

    A subseasonal weather forecast attempts to predict weather conditions three to four weeks in blank its predictions are therefore more short-term than those of the seasonal forecast, which attempts to predict the weather more than a month in advance.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • advance,

    • advance

    • advance;

    • advance and

    ID: 1724dac2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The clause “A subseasonal…advance” and the clause “its predictions…forecast” are both independent clauses, so using a semicolon to separate them is grammatically correct. 

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice creates a run-on sentence error. The clause “A subseasonal…advance” and the clause “its predictions…forecast” are both independent clauses, so a comma is not enough to separate them. Choice B is incorrect. This choice creates a run-on sentence error. The clause “A subseasonal…advance” and the clause “its predictions…forecast” are both independent clauses, so they need to be separated with specific punctuation (a period, a semi-colon, a colon, a dash, or a comma + a coordinating conjunction). Choice D is incorrect. This choice creates a run-on sentence error. The clause “A subseasonal…advance” and the clause “its predictions…forecast” are both independent clauses, so the word “and” by itself is not enough to separate them. There would need to be a comma before “and” for this choice to work. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 512f0ac9

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 512f0ac9

    Working from an earlier discovery of Charpentier’s, chemists Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer Doudna—winners of the 2020 Nobel Prize in Chemistry—re-created and then reprogrammed the so-called “genetic scissors” of a species of DNA-cleaving bacteria blank a tool that is revolutionizing the field of gene technology.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • to forge

    • forging

    • forged

    • and forging

    ID: 512f0ac9 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of finite and nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. The nonfinite to-infinitive “to forge” is correctly used to form a nonfinite (infinitive) clause that explains why the chemists re-created and reprogrammed the DNA-cleaving bacteria.

    Choice B is incorrect. Without a comma separating the main clause (“chemists...bacteria”) from the participle “forging,” this choice illogically suggests that the bacteria are forging a tool, which doesn’t make sense. Choice C is incorrect. Without a coordinating conjunction such as “and” placed before it, the finite past tense verb “forged” can’t be used in this way to describe the chemists’ actions. Choice D is incorrect. If read as a finite verb, the present progressive verb “forging” isn’t consistent with the past tense verbs used in this sentence to describe the actions of the chemists. If read as a nonfinite verb, the participle “forging” can’t be used in this way because there is no following main clause for it to modify.  

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 1aa3f174

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 1aa3f174

    The Mesoamerican city of Teotihuacan featured a uniquely egalitarian urban housing infrastructure. Built between the first and seventh centuries CE, Teotihuacan housed its residents (as many as 200,000, by some blank in a complex of comfortable apartments of comparable size.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • estimates)

    • estimates),

    • estimates—

    • estimates

    ID: 1aa3f174 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within a sentence. This choice correctly completes the parenthetical element "as many as 200,000, by some estimates" with a closing parenthesis, pairing with the opening parenthesis that appears earlier in the sentence. This parenthetical element functions to specify the number of residents, and the use of parentheses indicates that this element could be removed without affecting the grammatical coherence of the sentence.

    Choice B is incorrect. While this choice completes the parenthetical element with a closing parenthesis, no comma is needed before the prepositional phrases ("in...size") that provide essential information about where the residents were housed. Choice C is incorrect because a dash can’t be paired with an opening parenthesis in this way to separate the parenthetical element from the rest of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because it doesn’t close the parenthetical element that was opened earlier in the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID a9e5b788

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: a9e5b788

    In discussing Mary Shelley’s 1818 epistolary novel Frankenstein, literary theorist Gayatri Spivak directs the reader’s attention to the character of Margaret Saville. As Spivak points out, Saville is not the protagonist of Shelley’s blank as the recipient of the letters that frame the book’s narrative, she’s the “occasion” of it.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • novel

    • novel,

    • novel; rather,

    • novel, rather,

    ID: a9e5b788 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a semicolon to join a main clause (“Saville...novel”) and a second main clause (“she’s...it”) preceded by supplementary elements (“rather...narrative”).

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, the comma after “novel” can’t be used in this way to join the two main clauses.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID cdbbbf94

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: cdbbbf94

    As British scientist Peter Whibberley has observed, “the Earth is not a very good timekeeper.” Earth’s slightly irregular rotation rate means that measurements of time must be periodically adjusted. Specifically, an extra “leap second” (the 86,401st second of the day) is blank time based on the planet’s rotation lags a full nine-tenths of a second behind time kept by precise atomic clocks.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • added, whenever

    • added; whenever

    • added. Whenever

    • added whenever

    ID: cdbbbf94 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a verb and a preposition. When, as in this case, a verb (“is added”) is immediately followed by a preposition (“whenever”), no punctuation is needed.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb and the preposition. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb and the preposition. Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb and the preposition.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID a3e87535

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: a3e87535

    Julia Alvarez’s 1994 novel In the Time of the Butterflies, a fictionalized account of the lives of the Mirabal blank can serve as a starting point for those wanting to explore how the rule of dictator Rafael Trujillo has been represented in Dominican American literature. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • sisters, and

    • sisters and

    • sisters,

    • sisters

    ID: a3e87535 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of a supplementary element within a sentence. The comma after "sisters" pairs with the comma after "Butterflies" to separate the supplementary element "a fictionalized account of the lives of the Mirabal sisters" from the rest of the sentence. This supplementary element functions to describe the novel In the Time of the Butterflies, and the pair of commas indicates that this element could be removed without affecting the grammatical coherence of the sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because a comma and conjunction can’t be used in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice B is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID d47bb0a4

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: d47bb0a4

    Objects ranging from the Kikkoman soy sauce bottle to the Yamaha VMAX motorcycle to the Komachi bullet train blank designed by twentieth-century industrial designer Kenji Ekuan.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • was

    • is

    • has been

    • were

    ID: d47bb0a4 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The plural verb "were" agrees in number with the plural subject "objects."

    Choice A is incorrect because the singular verb "was" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "objects." Choice B is incorrect because the singular verb "is" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "objects." Choice C is incorrect because the singular verb "has been" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "objects."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID e3b72630

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: e3b72630

    In the historical novel The Surrender Tree, Cuban American author Margarita Engle uses poetry rather than prose blank the true story of Cuban folk hero Rosa La Bayamesa.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • tells

    • told

    • is telling

    • to tell

    ID: e3b72630 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of finite and nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. The nonfinite to-infinitive “to tell” is correctly used to form a nonfinite (infinitive) clause that explains the reason Engle uses poetry in her novel.

    Choice A is incorrect because the finite present tense verb “tells” can’t be used in this way to explain the reason that Engle uses poetry in her novel. Choice B is incorrect because the finite past tense verb “told” can’t be used in this way to explain the reason that Engle uses poetry in her novel. Choice C is incorrect because the finite present progressive tense verb “is telling” can’t be used in this way to explain the reason that Engle uses poetry in her novel. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID d2b81427

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: d2b81427

    In assessing the films of Japanese director Akira Kurosawa, blank have missed his equally deep engagement with Japanese artistic traditions such as Noh theater.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • many critics have focused on Kurosawa’s use of Western literary sources but 

    • Kurosawa’s use of Western literary sources has been the focus of many critics, who

    • there are many critics who have focused on Kurosawa’s use of Western literary sources, but they

    • the focus of many critics has been on Kurosawa’s use of Western literary sources; they

    ID: d2b81427 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice makes the noun phrase “many critics” the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase “in assessing…Kurosawa.” In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that it is the critics—and not another noun in the sentence—who assess Kurosawa’s films.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “Kurosawa’s…sources” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that his use of Western literary sources is what assesses Kurosawa’s films. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the function word “there” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that “there” is what assesses Kurosawa’s films. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “the focus…critics” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the critics’ focus is what assesses Kurosawa’s films.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 56315bd0

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 56315bd0

    Solarpunk is an art movement that imagines renewable energy–powered technology infused complementarily into nature. In Paolo Bacigalupi’s solarpunk short story “Efficiency,” an artificial intelligence that absorbs sustainable energies, redistributing them through intricate networks of weights and generators, blank Chicago’s energy grid.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • have been powering

    • power

    • powers

    • are powering

    ID: 56315bd0 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "powers" agrees in number with the singular subject "an artificial intelligence."

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb "have been powering" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "an artificial intelligence." Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "power" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "an artificial intelligence." Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb "are powering" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "an artificial intelligence."

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID a1e0c981

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: a1e0c981

    In her book The Woman Warrior: Memoirs of a Girlhood Among Ghosts, author Maxine Hong Kingston examines themes blank childhood, womanhood, and Chinese American identity by intertwining autobiography and mythology.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • of:

    •  of

    • of—

    • of,

    ID: a1e0c981 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. “Themes of childhood” is one noun phrase, with “themes of” implicitly carrying over to the other items on the list (“themes of childhood, [themes of] womanhood, and [themes of] Chinese American identity”).  

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice inappropriately breaks up the introduction of a list. Also, “In her book…themes of” is not an independent clause, thanks to the dangling “of” at the end, so it can’t precede a colon. Choice C is incorrect. This choice inappropriately breaks up the introduction of a list. Also, “In her book…themes of” is not an independent clause, thanks to the dangling “of” at the end, so it can’t precede a single dash. Choice D is incorrect. This choice inappropriately breaks up the introduction of a list. “Themes of” implicitly carries over to each item on the list (“themes of childhood, [themes of] womanhood, and [themes of] Chinese American identity”), so we don’t want to use a comma to separate it. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID b35cefb7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: b35cefb7

    The fine, powdery substance that covers the Moon’s surface is called regolith. Because regolith is both readily available and high in oxygen blank scientists have wondered whether it could be used as a potential source of oxygen for future lunar settlements.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • content and

    • content,

    • content

    • content, and

    ID: b35cefb7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a subordinate clause and a main clause. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the subordinate clause (“Because...content”) and the main clause (“scientists...settlements”).

    Choice A is incorrect. Joining the subordinate clause (“Because...content”) and the clause that follows (“scientists...settlements”) with the conjunction “and” results in an ungrammatical sentence that lacks a main clause. Choice C is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the subordinate clause and the main clause with appropriate punctuation. Choice D is incorrect. Joining the subordinate clause (“Because...content”) and the clause that follows (“scientists...settlements”) with a comma and the conjunction “and” results in an ungrammatical sentence that lacks a main clause.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID e76e74e8

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: e76e74e8

    Over twenty years ago, in a landmark experiment in the psychology of choice, professor Sheena Iyengar set up a jam-tasting booth at a grocery store. The number of jams available for tasting blank some shoppers had twenty-four different options, others only six. Interestingly, the shoppers with fewer jams to choose from purchased more jam.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • varied:

    • varied, 

    • varied, while

    • varied while

    ID: e76e74e8 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of a colon within a sentence. In this choice, the colon is used in a conventional way to introduce the following description of how the number of jams available varied. 

    Choice B is incorrect because it creates a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses (“the number…varied” and “some…six”). Choice C is incorrect because it results in an illogical and confusing sentence. Using the conjunction “while” to join the main clause (“the number…varied”) with the following clause’s description of the number of jams available suggests that the variation in the number of jams is in contrast to some shoppers having twenty-four options. Choice D is incorrect because it results in an illogical and confusing sentence. Using “while” in this way suggests that the number of jams available varied during the time in which some shoppers had twenty-four options and others had six. The sentence makes clear, however, that what follows “varied” is a description of the variation, not a separate, simultaneous occurrence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID b74f676f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: b74f676f

    Classical composer Florence Price’s 1927 move to Chicago marked a turning point in her career. It was there that Price premiered her First Symphony—a piece that was praised for blending traditional Romantic motifs with aspects of Black folk music—and blank supportive relationships with other Black artists.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • developing

    • developed

    • to develop

    • having developed

    ID: b74f676f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The missing verb is part of the same clause as the verb "premiered," and "Price" is the subject of both. So we need the past-tense form "developed" in order to match "premiered."

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice creates a verb form error. The missing verb is part of the same clause as the verb "premiered," and "Price" is the subject of both. So we need the past-tense form "developed" in order to match "premiered." Choice C is incorrect. This choice creates a verb form error. The missing verb is part of the same clause as the verb "premiered," and "Price" is the subject of both. So we need the past-tense form "developed" in order to match "premiered." Choice D is incorrect. This choice creates a verb form error. The missing verb is part of the same clause as the verb "premiered," and "Price" is the subject of both. So we need the past-tense form "developed" in order to match "premiered."

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 1a61e2ae

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 1a61e2ae

    English poet and Shakespeare contemporary John Donne’s blank much admired during his lifetime (1572–1631) and in the decades that followed, had, at the time of their enthusiastic rediscovery by the early twentieth-century modernists, been essentially gathering dust for the intervening 250 years.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • works were

    • works, were

    • works, 

    • works had been

    ID: 1a61e2ae Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation and verb forms within a sentence. This choice leaves the verb "admired" in its nonfinite past participle form to function within a supplementary element ("much…followed"). Offset by commas after "works" and "followed," this supplementary element interrupts the main clause ("English poet and Shakespeare contemporary John Donne’s works…had…been essentially gathering dust…") with additional information about the works’ reception during Donne’s lifetime.

    Choice A is incorrect because it fails to offset the supplementary element ("much…followed") with appropriate punctuation, and using the finite verb "were much admired" results in an ungrammatical sentence. Choice B is incorrect because using the finite verb "were much admired" results in an ungrammatical sentence. Choice D is incorrect because it fails to offset the supplementary element ("much…followed") with appropriate punctuation, and using the finite verb "had been much admired" results in an ungrammatical sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 3a35ddd1

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 3a35ddd1

    Like other amphibians, the wood frog (Rana sylvatica) is unable to generate its own heat, so during periods of subfreezing temperatures, it blank by producing large amounts of glucose, a sugar that helps prevent damaging ice from forming inside its cells.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • had survived

    • survived

    • would survive

    • survives

    ID: 3a35ddd1 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense. In this choice, the present tense verb “survives” correctly indicates that the wood frog regularly survives subfreezing temperatures by producing large amounts of glucose.

    Choice A is incorrect because the past perfect verb “had survived” doesn’t indicate that the wood frog regularly survives subfreezing temperatures by producing large amounts of glucose. Choice B is incorrect because the past tense verb “survived” doesn’t indicate that the wood frog regularly survives subfreezing temperatures by producing large amounts of glucose. Choice C is incorrect because the conditional verb “would survive” doesn’t indicate that the wood frog regularly survives subfreezing temperatures by producing large amounts of glucose.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 69f031ab

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 69f031ab

    While exploring Nevada’s Gypsum Cave in 1930, Seneca and Abenaki archaeologist Bertha Parker made her most famous discovery: the skull of a now-extinct ground sloth (Nothrotheriops shastensis) alongside human-made tools. Parker’s crucial finding was the first blank humans in North America as far back as 10,000 years ago.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • places

    • placed

    • place

    • to place

    ID: 69f031ab Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The object for the verb "was" is "first," and "to place" is acting as a modifier for "first." What was the finding? It was "the first." The first to do what? The first "to place humans in North America" 10,000 years ago. When a verb serves as a modifier within a noun phrase, it must be nonfinite (i.e., not conjugated to a specific subject). The infinitive form "to place" is the only nonfinite option among the choices that makes sense in context.

    Choice A is incorrect. The object for the verb "was" is "first," and "places" is acting as a modifier for "first." What was the thing that Parker’s finding did? What was it the first to do? Place humans in North America 10,000 years ago. When a verb acts as a modifier, it must be nonfinite (i.e., not conjugated to a specific subject), but "places" is a finite form of the verb. Choice B is incorrect. The object for the verb "was" is "first," and "placed" is acting to modify "first." What was it that Parker’s finding was the first to do? Place humans in North America 10,000 years ago. When a verb acts as a modifier, it must be nonfinite (i.e., not conjugated to a specific subject), but "placed" is a finite form. "Placed" can also be a past participle, but that wouldn’t make sense here because the meaning of "the first placed humans" would be unclear. Choice C is incorrect. The object for the verb "was" is "first," and "place" is modifying "first." What was the thing that Parker’s finding did? What was it the first to do? Place humans in North America. When a verb acts as a modifier, it must be nonfinite (i.e., not conjugated to a specific subject), but "place" is a finite form of the verb. Additionally, "place" can’t serve as a noun here, because it results in an illogical sentence (the "finding" wasn’t "the first place").

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 083a35dc

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 083a35dc

    Po’Pay was a Tewa leader from Ohkay Owingeh, a pueblo located about twenty-five miles north of present-day Santa Fe, New Mexico. He was instrumental in organizing the Pueblo Revolt of blank as a result of his leadership, the Spanish colonizers were expelled from the region for a time.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • 1680

    • 1680 and

    • 1680,

    • 1680, and

    ID: 083a35dc Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma and the coordinating conjunction “and” to join the first main clause (“He…1680”) and the second main clause (“as…time”).

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice B is incorrect because when coordinating two longer main clauses such as these, it’s conventional to use a comma before the coordinating conjunction. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 486f03da

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 486f03da

    The short story “Rogue Enchantments” by Isabel Ibañez appears in Reclaim the blank anthology of fantasy and science fiction written by authors of Latin American descent.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Stars. An

    • Stars, while an

    • Stars an

    • Stars, an

    ID: 486f03da Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the main clause ("The short...Stars") and the supplementary element ("an anthology...descent") that provides additional information about what Reclaim the Stars is.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with "an anthology." Choice B is incorrect. Joining the main clause and the following supplementary element with the conjunction "while" results in a confusing and ungrammatical sentence. Choice C is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the main clause and the supplementary element with appropriate punctuation.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 003f22c8

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 003f22c8

    Every last second of space shuttle mission STS-79, which lasted ten days and three hours, blank carefully monitored by a team of experts.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • have been

    • are

    • was

    • were

    ID: 003f22c8 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "was" agrees in number with the singular subject "every last second."

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb "have been" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "every last second." Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "are" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "every last second." Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb "were" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "every last second."

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID aab78b25

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: aab78b25

    Psychophysicist Howard Moskowitz was hired by a soda company to determine how much artificial sweetener blank After conducting consumer taste tests, he found that no such ideal existed: participants expressed a wide range of preferences for different blends of sweetener, carbonization, and flavoring.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • do most people prefer in a diet drink? 

    • do most people prefer in a diet drink.

    • most people prefer in a diet drink?

    • most people prefer in a diet drink.

    ID: aab78b25 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. This sentence is a statement: “Moskowitz was hired by a soda company to determine how much artificial sweetener most people prefer in a diet drink.” So a period is the most appropriate punctuation mark.  

    Choice A is incorrect. This doesn’t complete the text in a way that conforms to the conventions of Standard English. This sentence is not a question—it’s a statement. So a question mark is not the appropriate punctuation. Choice B is incorrect. This doesn’t complete the text in a way that conforms to the conventions of Standard English. We already have the verbs “was hired…to determine” in this sentence. The verb “do” is not needed and results in a confusing, ungrammatical sentence. Choice C is incorrect. This doesn’t complete the text in a way that conforms to the conventions of Standard English. This sentence is not a question—it’s a statement. So a question mark is not the appropriate punctuation. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 8b002b08

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 8b002b08

    Many Samoans enjoy a sport called kilikiti. This bat-and-ball game was derived from blank kilikiti differs from cricket in a few key ways.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • cricket but:

    • cricket but,

    • cricket, but

    • cricket, but,

    ID: 8b002b08 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma before the coordinating conjunction "but" to join the first main clause ("This bat-and-ball game was derived from cricket") and the second main clause ("kilikiti differs from cricket in a few key ways").

    Choice A is incorrect. When coordinating two main clauses such as these, it’s not conventional to use a colon in this way after the coordinating conjunction. Choice B is incorrect. When coordinating two main clauses such as these, it’s not conventional to use a comma in this way after the coordinating conjunction. Choice D is incorrect. When coordinating two main clauses such as these, it’s not conventional to use a comma in this way after the coordinating conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 145d5ca7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 145d5ca7

    Gathering accurate data on water flow in the United States is challenging because of the country’s millions of miles of blank the volume and speed of water at any given location can vary drastically over time.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • waterways and the fact that,

    • waterways, and the fact that,

    • waterways, and, the fact that

    • waterways and the fact that

    ID: 145d5ca7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation within two coordinated noun phrases. When, as in this case, a noun phrase (“the country’s millions of miles of waterways”) is coordinated with another noun phrase (“the fact”) followed by an integrated relative clause (“that the volume...time”), no punctuation is needed.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed. Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 843f92af

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 843f92af

    The sun never sets during the Arctic summer in the Far North. In response, reindeer in this region must change their sleep habits. Instead of resting when it gets dark, they rest when they need blank their food.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • digest

    • will digest

    • to digest

    • digesting

    ID: 843f92af Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. Working together with the finite verb "need," the nonfinite to-infinitive verb "to digest" is correctly used to form a subordinate clause that describes what the reindeer need.

    Choice A is incorrect because the verb "digest" (in either its finite or nonfinite form) can’t be used in this way with the finite verb "need." Choice B is incorrect because the finite verb "will digest" can’t be used in this way with the finite verb "need." Choice D is incorrect because the nonfinite participle "digesting" can’t be used in this way with the finite verb "need."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 430d929a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 430d929a

    British scientists James Watson and Francis Crick won the Nobel Prize in part for their 1953 paper announcing the double helix structure of DNA, but it is misleading to say that Watson and Crick discovered the double helix. blank findings were based on a famous X-ray image of DNA fibers, “Photo 51,” developed by X-ray crystallographer Rosalind Franklin and her graduate student Raymond Gosling.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • They’re

    • It’s

    • Their

    • Its

    ID: 430d929a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of possessive determiners. The plural possessive determiner “their” agrees in number with the plural conjoined noun phrase “Watson and Crick” and thus indicates that the findings were those of Watson and Crick.

    Choice A is incorrect because “they’re” is the contraction for “they are,” not a possessive determiner. Choice B is incorrect because “it’s” is the contraction for “it is” or “it has,” not a possessive determiner. Choice D is incorrect because the singular possessive determiner “its” doesn’t agree in number with the plural conjoined noun phrase “Watson and Crick.”

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 1684b237

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 1684b237

    One of the few African American global explorers during the turn of the 20th century, blank

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Matthew Henson made several treks across Greenland between 1891 and 1909.

    • 1891 and 1909 were the years between which Matthew Henson made several treks across Greenland.

    • Greenland was where Matthew Henson made several treks between 1891 and 1909.

    • several treks across Greenland were made by Matthew Henson between 1891 and 1909.

    ID: 1684b237 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice makes the proper noun "Matthew Henson" the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase "one…century." In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that Matthew Henson—and not another noun in the sentence—is being described as one of the few African American global explorers during the turn of the 20th century.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase "1891 and 1909" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that those years were one of the few African American global explorers during the turn of the 20th century. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the proper noun "Greenland" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that Greenland was one of the few African American global explorers during the turn of the 20th century. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase "several treks across Greenland" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the treks were one of the few African American global explorers during the turn of the 20th century.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID be34a3df

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: be34a3df

    In 2008, two years after the death of science fiction writer Octavia Butler, the Huntington Library in blank received a collection of more than 8,000 items, including Butler’s private notes, research materials, manuscripts, photos, and drawings. Today, the Octavia E. Butler Collection is one of the most researched archives at the library.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • California,

    • California:

    • California—

    • California

    ID: be34a3df Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. No punctuation should separate the subject of the sentence (“the Huntington Library in California”) from its verb (“received”).

    Choice A is incorrect. No punctuation should separate the subject of the sentence (“the Huntington Library in California”) from its verb (“received”). Choice B is incorrect. No punctuation should separate the subject of the sentence (“the Huntington Library in California”) from its verb (“received”). Choice C is incorrect. No punctuation should separate the subject of the sentence (“the Huntington Library in California”) from its verb (“received”).

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 1f8cd95f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 1f8cd95f

    In the 1950s, a man named Joseph McVicker was struggling to keep his business afloat when his sister-in-law Kay Zufall advised him to repurpose the company’s product, a nontoxic, clay-like substance for removing soot from wallpaper, as a modeling putty for kids. In addition, Zufall blank selling the product under a child-friendly name: Play-Doh.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • suggested

    • suggests

    • had suggested

    • was suggesting

    ID: 1f8cd95f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense. In this choice, the simple past tense verb “suggested” properly indicates that Zufall offered her suggestion for the product’s name in the past. This verb tense is consistent with the previous sentence’s use of a simple past tense verb (“advised”) to describe Zufall’s advice to McVicker in the 1950s.

    Choice B is incorrect because the present tense verb “suggests” doesn’t indicate that Zufall offered her suggestion in the past. Choice C is incorrect because the past perfect verb “had suggested” isn’t consistent with the previous sentence’s use of the simple past tense verb “advised” to describe Zufall’s advice to McVicker. Choice D is incorrect because the past progressive verb “was suggesting” isn’t consistent with the previous sentence’s use of the simple past tense verb “advised” to describe Zufall’s advice to McVicker. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 73a6603c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 73a6603c

    On sunny days, dark rooftops absorb solar energy and convert it to unwanted heat, raising the surrounding air blank a light-colored covering to an existing dark roof, either by attaching prefabricated reflective sheets or spraying on a paint-like coating, helps combat this effect. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • temperature; by adding

    • temperature, adding

    • temperature. Adding

    • temperature by adding

    ID: 73a6603c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period is used correctly to mark the boundary between the first sentence (“On…temperature”) and the second sentence (“Adding…effect”). The gerund phrase beginning with “adding” is the subject of the second sentence, and the verb phrase “helps combat this effect” describes what adding a light-colored covering can do. 

    Choice A is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join the sentence “On...temperature” and the supplementary phrases that follow. Doing so leaves the verb phrase “helps combat” without a subject and thus results in a grammatically unconventional sentence. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice D is incorrect. This choice results in a confusing and illogical sentence that suggests that adding a light-colored covering to an existing dark roof raises the temperature of the surrounding air. Furthermore, it creates ambiguity by leaving the verb phrase “helps combat” without a subject (so it isn’t clear what helps combat the effect).

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 70ced8dc

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 70ced8dc

    Typically, underlines, scribbles, and notes left in the margins by a former owner lower a book’s blank when the former owner is a famous poet like Walt Whitman, such markings, known as marginalia, can be a gold mine to literary scholars.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • value, but

    • value

    • value, 

    • value but

    ID: 70ced8dc Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of independent clauses within a sentence. An independent clause is a phrase containing a subject and a verb that can stand on its own as a sentence. This choice uses a comma and the coordinating conjunction “but” to join the first independent clause (“underlines…lower a book’s value”) and the second independent clause (“such markings…can be a gold mine to scholars”) to create a compound sentence.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two independent clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between two independent clauses. Choice D is incorrect because a comma is needed to mark the boundary between two coordinated independent clauses.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 3bceeb93

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 3bceeb93

    When they were first discovered in Australia in 1798, duck-billed, beaver-tailed platypuses so defied categorization that one scientist assigned them the name Ornithorhynchus paradoxus: “paradoxical bird-snout.” The animal, which lays eggs but also nurses blank young with milk, has since been classified as belonging to the monotremes group.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • they’re

    • their

    • its

    • it’s

    ID: 3bceeb93 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The singular possessive pronoun "its" agrees with the singular antecedent "the animal" and indicates that the "young" belong to it.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice creates a pronoun-antecedent agreement error. "They’re" is a contraction of "they are," a plural pronoun and verb, but the antecedent "the animal" is singular. Also, we don’t need the extra verb "are" — we already have a main verb in this clause, so adding "are" would be confusing and ungrammatical. Choice B is incorrect. This choice creates a pronoun-antecedent agreement error. "Their" is a plural pronoun, but the subject of the sentence is "the animal," a singular noun. Choice D is incorrect. This choice creates a confusing and ungrammatical sentence. "It’s" is a contraction for "it is." We already have the verb "nurses" in this clause, so we shouldn’t add the verb "is."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 6fac7f45

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 6fac7f45

    Butterfly is a 1988 painting by the Japanese artist Ay-O. Like many of Ay-O’s paintings, Butterfly, which portrays a swimmer performing the butterfly stroke, attempts to make use of the entire visual light blank sporting rainbow-striped goggles, the rainbow-hued swimmer splashes through a wavy rainbow of water.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • spectrum

    • spectrum:

    • spectrum while

    • spectrum, while

    ID: 6fac7f45 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of a colon within a sentence. In this choice, the colon correctly introduces the following description of how the painting makes use of the entire visual light spectrum by depicting a rainbow-hued swimmer.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The main clauses ("Like…spectrum" and "sporting…water") are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The main clauses ("Like…spectrum" and "while…water") are fused without punctuation. Furthermore, the conjunction "while" fails to indicate that what follows is a description of how the painting makes use of the entire visual light spectrum. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a logically confusing sentence. The conjunction "while," which suggests that what follows is occurring at the same time as or despite what came before, fails to indicate that what follows is a description of how the painting makes use of the entire visual light spectrum.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID aecdb820

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: aecdb820

    Featuring works by the photographers Lola Álvarez Bravo and Else “Yva” Neuländer-Simon, the 2021 exhibition The New Woman Behind the Camera set out to provide a wide-ranging overview of photography by women in the 1920s through the blank given the collection’s breadth of more than 120 photos, its efforts were largely successful.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • 1950s, and

    • 1950s and

    • 1950s

    • 1950s,

    ID: aecdb820 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma and the coordinating conjunction "and" to join the first main clause ("Featuring...1950s") and the second main clause ("given...successful").

    Choice B is incorrect because when coordinating two longer main clauses such as these, it’s conventional to use a comma before the coordinating conjunction. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 2c9c6ca9

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 2c9c6ca9

    The term “retroflex” derives from Latin and means “bent back,” an apt descriptor for the branch of consonants—retroflex consonants—pronounced with the tongue curling up and back in the mouth. In many languages, including English, these consonants are blank in some dialects of Mandarin, however, four such consonants (“ch,” “sh,” “zh,” and “r”) are relatively common.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • rare and

    • rare,

    • rare

    • rare;

    ID: 2c9c6ca9 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within a sentence. This choice uses a semicolon in a conventional way to join the first main clause ("In many…rare") and the second main clause ("in some…common") in this sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect. Joining the first main clause ("In many…rare") and the second main clause ("in some...common") with the conjunction "and" conflicts with the use of "however" later in the sentence, resulting in a confusing and illogical sentence. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 8a3998f1

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 8a3998f1

    After the United Kingdom began rolling out taxes equivalent to a few cents on single-use plastic grocery bags in 2011, plastic-bag consumption decreased by up to ninety blank taxes are subject to what economists call the “rebound effect”: as the change became normalized, plastic-bag use started to creep back up.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • percent, such

    • percent and such

    • percent. Such

    • percent such

    ID: 8a3998f1 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period after “percent” is used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence (“After…percent”) and another (“Such…up”).

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice B is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction “and” can’t be used in this way to join sentences. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences (“After…percent” and “Such…up”) are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID dab8b8ee

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: dab8b8ee

    Known as Earth’s “living skin,” biocrusts are thin layers of soil held together by surface-dwelling microorganisms such as fungi, lichens, and cyanobacteria. Fortifying soil in arid ecosystems against erosion, blank

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • a recent study’s estimate is that these crusts reduce global dust emissions by 60 percent each year. 

    • an estimated 60 percent reduction in global dust emissions each year is due to these crusts, according to a recent study.

    • these crusts reduce global dust emissions by an estimated 60 percent each year, according to a recent study.

    • a recent study has estimated that these crusts reduce global dust emissions by 60 percent each year.

    ID: dab8b8ee Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The subject of the modifier "fortifying soil in arid ecosystems against erosion" is "biocrusts." Subject-modifier placement requires a modifier and its subject to be next to each other, so "biocrusts" or some variant meaning "biocrusts" (in this case, "these crusts") must begin the missing clause.

    Choice A is incorrect. Modifiers and their subjects must go next to each other. The subject of the modifier "fortifying soil in arid ecosystems against erosion" is "biocrusts," not "a recent study’s estimate." Choice B is incorrect. Modifiers and their subjects must go next to each other. The subject of the modifier "fortifying soil in arid ecosystems against erosion" is "biocrusts," not "an estimated 60 percent reduction." Choice D is incorrect. Modifiers and their subjects must go next to each other. The subject of the modifier "fortifying soil in arid ecosystems against erosion" is "biocrusts," not "a recent study."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 4bed4658

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 4bed4658

    In order to prevent nonnative fish species from moving freely between the Mediterranean and Red Seas, marine biologist Bella Galil has proposed that a saline lock system be installed along the Suez Canal in Egypt’s Great Bitter Lakes. The lock would increase the salinity of the lakes and blank a natural barrier of water most marine creatures would be unable to cross.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • creates

    • create

    • creating

    • created

    ID: 4bed4658 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of non-finite (untensed) verb forms in a sentence. The modal “would,” which indicates the future from a perspective in the past, should be accompanied by a non-finite plain form verb. In this choice, the non-finite plain form verb “create” is used correctly in conjunction with the non-finite plain form verb “increase” to describe what the lock would do.  

    Choice A is incorrect because the finite present tense verb “creates” can’t be used in this way with the modal “would” to describe what the lock would do. Choice C is incorrect because the present participle “creating” can’t be used in this way with the modal “would” to describe what the lock would do. Choice D is incorrect because the finite past tense verb “created” can’t be used in this way with the modal “would” to describe what the lock would do.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 96953201

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 96953201

    In her two major series “Memory Test” and “Autobiography,” painter Howardena Pindell explored themes blank healing, self-discovery, and memory by cutting and sewing back together pieces of canvas and inserting personal artifacts, such as postcards, into some of the paintings.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • of

    • of,

    • of—

    • of:

    ID: 96953201 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a preposition and its complement. No punctuation is needed between the preposition “of” and its complement, the noun phrase “healing, self-discovery, and memory.”

    Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between a preposition and its complement. Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between a preposition and its complement. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between a preposition and its complement. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID acf454af

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: acf454af

    An online content creator who uses copyrighted songs without permission risks being demonetized (prohibited from including paid advertisements in content). The best way to avoid demonetization is to choose music from the public domain. Using one of these noncopyrighted songs blank a creator won’t lose advertising revenue.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • are ensuring

    • have ensured

    • ensure

    • ensures

    ID: acf454af Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "ensures" agrees in number with the singular subject "using."

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb "are ensuring" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "using." Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "have ensured" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "using." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "ensure" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "using."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 8f6d6ae6

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 8f6d6ae6

    Archaeologists have estimated that the pre-Columbian Native American city of Cahokia, located across the Mississippi River from modern-day St. Louis, Missouri, had as many as 20,000 inhabitants in the year 1150 blank it one of the largest cities in North America at the time.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • CE making

    • CE. Making

    • CE, making

    • CE; making

    ID: 8f6d6ae6 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The phrase “making…at the time” provides additional information about Cahokia that’s not required for the sentence to make sense or function grammatically. As a nonessential supplement, this phrase should be separated from the rest of the sentence with a comma.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice results in a run-on sentence. The nonessential descriptive aside “making…at the time” needs to be separated from the rest of the sentence with a comma. Choice B is incorrect. This choice results in a sentence fragment. “Making…at the time” doesn’t have a subject and can’t stand on its own as a sentence. Thus, it can’t be separated from the rest of the sentence with a period. Choice D is incorrect. This choice results in a punctuation error. “Making…at the time” doesn’t have a subject and can’t stand on its own as an independent clause. Since a semicolon can only link two independent clauses, using one here creates an error.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 26c8c88c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 26c8c88c

    About 70,000 meteorites have been found on Earth. Although most meteorites are fragments of blank hundred have been identified as being from the Moon or Mars.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • asteroids. Several

    • asteroids, several

    • asteroids; several

    • asteroids: several

    ID: 26c8c88c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. This choice uses a comma to correctly separate the dependent clause "although…asteroids" from the independent clause "several hundred have been…Mars."

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice results in a sentence fragment. "Although…asteroids" is a dependent clause. It can’t stand on its own as a sentence, which means it can’t end in a period. Choice C is incorrect. This choice results in a punctuation error. "Although…asteroids" is a dependent clause and can’t be joined to the independent clause "several hundred have been…Mars" with a semicolon. A semicolon can only join two independent clauses. Choice D is incorrect. This choice creates a punctuation error. A colon can only come after an independent clause, but "although…asteroids" is a dependent clause.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID c06af4d8

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: c06af4d8

    Sociologist Alton Okinaka sits on the review board tasked with adding new sites to the Hawai‘i Register of Historic Places, which includes Pi‘ilanihale Heiau and the ‘Ōpaeka‘a Road Bridge. Okinaka doesn’t make such decisions blank all historical designations must be approved by a group of nine other experts from the fields of architecture, archaeology, history, and Hawaiian culture.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • single-handedly, however;

    • single-handedly; however,

    • single-handedly, however,

    • single-handedly however

    ID: c06af4d8 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of a supplementary word or phrase between two main clauses. This choice correctly uses a comma to separate the supplementary adverb “however” from the preceding main clause (“Okinaka doesn’t…single-handedly”) and a semicolon to join the next main clause (“all…culture”) to the rest of the sentence. Further, placing the semicolon after “however” correctly indicates that the information in the preceding main clause (Okinaka doesn’t make such decisions single-handedly) is contrary to what might be assumed from the information in the previous sentence (Okinaka sits on the review board that adds new sites to the Hawaii Register of Historic Places).

    Choice B is incorrect because placing the semicolon after “single-handedly” and the comma after “however” illogically indicates that the information in the next main clause (all historical designations must be approved by a group of experts) is contrary to the information in the previous clause (Okinaka doesn’t make such decisions single-handedly). Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Commas can’t be used in this way to punctuate a supplementary word or phrase between two main clauses. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID f4fd123c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: f4fd123c

    The African Games Co-production Market, one of over 180 annual international conferences supporting video game development, blank the growth of the African gaming industry by helping start-up studios in Africa find partners.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • promote

    • are promoting

    • promotes

    • have promoted

    ID: f4fd123c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The subject of the sentence is “The African Games Co-production Market.” That’s one market, so it’s a singular noun, which means it needs a singular verb. “Promotes” is the only singular verb among the choices. 

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice creates a subject-verb agreement error. The subject “The African Games Co-production Market” is singular, but the verb “promote” is plural. Choice B is incorrect. This choice creates a subject-verb agreement error. The subject “The African Games Co-production Market” is singular, but the verb “are promoting” is plural. Choice D is incorrect. This choice creates a subject-verb agreement error. The subject “The African Games Co-production Market” is singular, but the verb “have promoted” is plural.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID e8926747

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: e8926747

    Eighteen letters written by Louisa May Alcott, author of the popular novel Little Women (1868), can be found at the New York Historical Society. blank letters demonstrate Alcott’s keen business sense in her interactions with publishers.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • One

    • That

    • This

    • These

    ID: e8926747 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of determiners in a sentence. The plural determiner "these" agrees in number with the plural noun "letters" that it modifies. This choice clearly indicates that the letters demonstrate Alcott’s business sense.

    Choice A is incorrect because the singular determiner "one" doesn’t agree in number with the plural noun "letters." Choice B is incorrect because the singular determiner "that" doesn’t agree in number with the plural noun "letters." Choice C is incorrect because the singular determiner "this" doesn’t agree in number with the plural noun "letters."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID e9aee0d8

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: e9aee0d8

    On November 2, 1772, amid rising tensions with Great Britain, Boston colonists formed the Boston Committee of Correspondence. By 1774, what had started as a local means of mobilizing support for the Patriot cause had grown into something far more blank network of such committees that, facilitating communication among the colonies, helped lay the groundwork for the Continental Congress.  

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • extensive: a 

    • extensive; a

    • extensive, it was a  

    • extensive. A 

    ID: e9aee0d8 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of a colon within a sentence. In this choice, the colon is correctly used to introduce the following explanation of what the Patriot cause had grown into by 1774.

    Choice B is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join the main clause ("what…extensive") and the supplementary element ("a network…Congress"). A semicolon is conventionally used to join two main clauses, whereas a colon is conventionally used to introduce an element that explains or amplifies the information in the preceding clause, making the colon the better choice in this context. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. The addition of the pronoun and verb "it was" forms the start of a new main clause in the sentence, and a comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between two main clauses. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with "a network."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 97df6650

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 97df6650

    The village of Panduyacu in Ecuador blank one of the rare places in the world located almost directly on the equator.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • are being

    • have been

    • is

    • are

    ID: 97df6650 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "is" agrees in number with the singular subject "village."

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb "are being" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "village." Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "have been" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "village." Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb "are" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "village."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 9579581e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 9579581e

    As cheesemaking practices spread throughout Europe and Asia during and after the Neolithic, divergent strategies for preserving milk blank whereas rennet-coagulated cheesemaking became key to milk preservation in Europe and Southwest Asia, acid-heat coagulation methods became common among nomadic herding populations of the northeastern Eurasian steppe.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • emerged

    • emerged and

    • emerged:

    • emerged,

    ID: 9579581e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use within a sentence. A colon can be used between two main clauses to signal that what follows is an elaboration of what came before. In this choice, the colon correctly introduces the following explanation of the divergent milk preservation strategies that emerged.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The main clause ("As…emerged") and the subordinate clause followed by another main clause ("whereas…steppe") are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice B is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction "and" can’t be used in this way to join a main clause ("As…emerged") and a subordinate clause followed by another main clause ("whereas…steppe"). Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to join a main clause ("As…emerged") and a subordinate clause followed by another main clause ("whereas…steppe").

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 60713427

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 60713427

    Polyphenols are organic compounds blank among their many roles, provide pigment that helps protect plants against ultraviolet radiation from sunlight.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • that—

    • that;

    • that,

    • that:

    ID: 60713427 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of a supplementary element within a sentence. The comma after “that” pairs with the comma after “roles” to separate the supplementary element “among their many roles” from the rest of the sentence. This supplementary element functions to clarify that polyphenols have many roles, and the pair of commas indicates that this element could be removed without affecting the grammatical coherence of the sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because a dash can’t be paired with a comma to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice B is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be paired with a comma to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because a colon can’t be paired with a comma to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 7f1df833

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 7f1df833

    In 1966, Emmett Ashford became the first African American to umpire a Major League Baseball game. His energetic gestures announcing when a player had struck out and his habit of barreling after a hit ball to see if it would land out of blank transform the traditionally solemn umpire role into a dynamic one.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • bounds helped

    • bounds, helping

    • bounds that helped

    • bounds to help

    ID: 7f1df833 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is finite verb use in a main clause. A main clause requires a finite verb to perform the action of the subject (in this case, Ashford’s “gestures” and “habit”), and this choice supplies the finite past tense verb “helped” to indicate what Ashford’s gestures and habit helped accomplish.

    Choice B is incorrect because the non-finite participle “helping” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because the relative clause “that helped” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice D is incorrect because the non-finite to-infinitive “to help” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 2ee50d41

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 2ee50d41

    The classic children’s board game Chutes and Ladders is a version of an ancient Nepalese game, Paramapada Sopanapata. In both games, players encounter “good” or “bad” spaces while traveling along a path; landing on one of the good spaces blank a player to skip ahead and arrive closer to the end goal.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • allows

    • are allowing

    • have allowed

    • allow

    ID: 2ee50d41 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject–verb agreement. The singular verb “allows” agrees in number with the singular subject “landing.”

    Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb “are allowing” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “landing.” Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb “have allowed” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “landing.” Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb “allow” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “landing.”

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 15d6d837

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 15d6d837

    Literary agents estimate that more than half of all nonfiction books credited to a celebrity or other public figure are in fact written by ghostwriters, professional authors who are paid to write other blank but whose names never appear on book covers.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • people’s stories

    • peoples story’s

    • peoples stories

    • people’s story’s

    ID: 15d6d837 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of plural and possessive nouns. The plural possessive noun “people’s” and the plural noun “stories” correctly indicate that there are multiple stories from multiple people. 

    Choice B is incorrect because the context requires the plural possessive noun “people’s” and the plural noun “stories,” not the plural noun “peoples” and the singular possessive noun “story’s.” Choice C is incorrect because the context requires the plural possessive noun “people’s,” not the plural noun “peoples.” Choice D is incorrect because the context requires the plural noun “stories,” not the singular possessive noun “story’s.”

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 59209b6d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 59209b6d

    Based on genetic evidence, archaeologists have generally agreed that reindeer domestication began in the eleventh century CE. However, since uncovering fragments of a 2,000-year-old reindeer training harness in northern Siberia, blank may have begun much earlier.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • researcher Robert Losey has argued that domestication 

    • researcher Robert Losey’s argument is that domestication

    • domestication, researcher Robert Losey has argued,

    • the argument researcher Robert Losey has made is that domestication

    ID: 59209b6d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice makes the noun phrase “researcher Robert Losey” the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase “since…Siberia.” In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that researcher Robert Losey—and not another noun in the sentence—is who uncovered fragments of a 2,000-year-old reindeer training harness in northern Siberia.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “researcher Robert Losey’s argument” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the “argument” is what uncovered fragments of a 2,000-year-old reindeer training harness in northern Siberia. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun “domestication” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that “domestication” is what uncovered fragments of a 2,000-year-old reindeer training harness in northern Siberia. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “the argument” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the “argument” is what uncovered fragments of a 2,000-year-old reindeer training harness in northern Siberia.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID a75d5984

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: a75d5984

    Several advantages—the ability to react strongly with chip components, to avoid interference from other waves, and to be confined within tiny circuits—blank acoustic waves as a promising alternative to electrical waves for transmitting data on computer chips; as a result, researchers are invested in developing more acoustic wave–based chips.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • have positioned

    • positioning

    • by positioning

    • having positioned

    ID: a75d5984 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. A main clause requires a finite (tensed) verb to perform the action of the subject. In this case, the subject is "several advantages," and the present perfect tense verb "have positioned" supplies the finite verb to indicate what has made acoustic waves a promising alternative to electrical waves.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite participle "positioning" doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The prepositional phrase "by positioning" doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice D is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite participle "having positioned" doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 2b512e65

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 2b512e65

    Eli Eisenberg, a genetics expert at Tel Aviv University in Israel, recently discovered that blank have a special genetic ability called RNA editing that confers evolutionary advantages.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • cephalopods, ocean dwellers that include the squid, the octopus, and the cuttlefish

    • cephalopods—ocean dwellers—that include the squid, the octopus, and the cuttlefish,

    • cephalopods, ocean dwellers that include: the squid, the octopus, and the cuttlefish,

    • cephalopods—ocean dwellers that include the squid, the octopus, and the cuttlefish—

    ID: 2b512e65 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of a supplementary element within a sentence. In this choice, the dash after "cephalopods" pairs with the dash after "cuttlefish" to clearly separate the supplementary element "ocean dwellers that include the squid, the octopus, and the cuttlefish" from the rest of the sentence. This supplementary element functions to explain what cephalopods are, and the pair of dashes indicates that this element could be removed without affecting the grammatical coherence of the sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element that explains what cephalopods are from the rest of the sentence. Choice B is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element that explains what cephalopods are from the rest of the sentence. Choice C is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element that explains what cephalopods are from the rest of the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 856b495d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 856b495d

    In the early twentieth century, Joseph Kekuku and other Hawaiian blank in the mainland United States to the bright and lilting sound of the kīkā kila, or Hawaiian steel guitar. The instrument soon became a fixture in American blues and country music.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • musicians introduced audiences

    • musicians’ introduced audiences’

    • musician’s introduced audience’s

    • musicians’ introduced audiences

    ID: 856b495d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of plural nouns. The plural nouns "musicians" and "audiences" correctly indicate that there were multiple musicians introducing the music to multiple audiences.

    Choice B is incorrect because the context requires the plural nouns "musicians" and "audiences," not the plural possessive nouns "musicians’" and "audiences’." Choice C is incorrect because the context requires the plural nouns "musicians" and "audiences," not the singular possessive nouns "musician’s" and "audience’s." Choice D is incorrect because the context requires the plural noun "musicians," not the plural possessive noun "musicians’."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 870ae7ec

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 870ae7ec

    Detroit natives Timothy Paule and Nicole Lindsey have combined their two passions, Detroit and beekeeping, to improve the health of their city’s flowers and other vegetation. In 2017, the couple converted a vacant lot in the city into an blank in the years that followed they acquired nine additional lots and established more than 35 hives.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • apiary,

    • apiary, and

    • apiary and

    • apiary 

    ID: 870ae7ec Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. Both clauses in this sentence could stand alone as complete sentences, which means they are both independent clauses. This choice uses a comma plus a coordinating conjunction to link them together, which is one of the correct ways to link two independent clauses. 

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice results in a run-on sentence error. Both clauses in this sentence could stand alone as complete sentences, which means they are both independent clauses. A comma by itself is not enough punctuation to link two independent clauses. Choice C is incorrect. This choice results in a run-on sentence error. Both clauses in this sentence could stand alone as complete sentences, which means they are both independent clauses. Independent clauses can only be linked in a few ways, including with a comma plus a coordinating conjunction. This choice uses the coordinating conjunction “and,” but it is missing the comma beforehand. Choice D is incorrect. This choice results in a run-on sentence error. Both clauses in this sentence could stand alone as complete sentences, which means they are both independent clauses. Independent clauses need to have certain kinds of punctuation marks between them. This choice doesn’t use any punctuation between the two clauses. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 4f2ff5f2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 4f2ff5f2

    Tortoises can be found in many works of literature. For example, in Tom Stoppard’s 1993 play Arcadia, there is a tortoise that blank by two names (Plautus and Lightning) and appears in both of the play’s parallel timelines. As a character, the tortoise symbolizes the connection between the past and present.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • goes

    • will have gone

    • went

    • had gone

    ID: 4f2ff5f2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense in a sentence. In this choice, the present tense verb "goes" is consistent with the other present tense verbs ("appears" and "symbolizes") used to describe the tortoise in Stoppard’s play. Furthermore, it’s conventional to use the present tense when discussing a literary work.

    Choice B is incorrect because the future perfect tense verb "will have gone" isn’t consistent with the other present tense verbs used to describe the tortoise in Stoppard’s play. Choice C is incorrect because the past tense verb "went" isn’t consistent with the other present tense verbs used to describe the tortoise in Stoppard’s play. Choice D is incorrect because the past perfect tense verb "had gone" isn’t consistent with the other present tense verbs used to describe the tortoise in Stoppard’s play.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 2784cbaf

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 2784cbaf

    To fully describe the motion of an object requires knowing each of five blank movement: displacement, time, initial velocity, final velocity, and acceleration. These are called kinematic variables.   

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • variable’s that characterize objects’

    • variables that characterize objects’

    • variables that characterize object’s

    • variables that characterize objects

    ID: 2784cbaf Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The conventions being tested are the use of plural and possessive nouns. The plural noun "variables" correctly indicates that there are multiple variables, and the plural possessive noun "objects’" correctly indicates that the movement of objects in general is being discussed.

    Choice A is incorrect because the context requires the plural noun "variables," not the singular possessive noun "variable’s." Choice C is incorrect because the context requires the plural possessive noun "objects’," not the singular possessive noun "object’s." Choice D is incorrect because the context requires the plural possessive noun "objects’," not the plural noun "objects."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 863065c7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 863065c7

    Legal scholars James Melton and Tom Ginsburg’s analysis of de jure judicial independence and its growth over decades blank six constitutional features that enhance such independence, including judicial tenure and selection procedure. Albania’s constitution contains five of these features.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • are identifying

    • identify

    • have identified

    • identifies

    ID: 863065c7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "identifies" agrees in number with the singular subject "analysis."

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb "are identifying" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "analysis." Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "identify" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "analysis." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "have identified" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "analysis."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 872a002e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 872a002e

    The present-day city of Dushanbe, Tajikistan, was for years the capital of the Tajik Autonomous Soviet Socialist Republic, one of many nominally autonomous republics within the Soviet Union. Like blank peer autonomous Soviet socialist republics, the Tajik Republic was established along ethnolinguistic lines: most of the republic’s residents spoke Persian.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • their

    • they’re

    • its

    • it’s

    ID: 872a002e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of possessive determiners. The singular possessive determiner "its" agrees in number with the singular subject "the Tajik Republic" and thus indicates that the other republics were its peers.

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural possessive determiner "their" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "the Tajik Republic." Choice B is incorrect because "they’re" is the contraction for "they are," not a possessive determiner. Choice D is incorrect because "it’s" is the contraction for "it is" or "it has," not a possessive determiner.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID fcaff694

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: fcaff694

    The city of Pompeii, which was buried in ash following the eruption of Mount Vesuvius in 79 CE, continues to be studied by archaeologists. Unfortunately, as blank attest, archaeological excavations have disrupted ash deposits at the site, causing valuable information about the eruption to be lost.    

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • researchers, Roberto Scandone and Christopher Kilburn,

    • researchers, Roberto Scandone and Christopher Kilburn

    • researchers Roberto Scandone and Christopher Kilburn

    • researchers Roberto Scandone, and Christopher Kilburn

    ID: fcaff694 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of a restrictive coordinated noun phrase. No punctuation is needed within or around the coordinated noun phrase “researchers Roberto Scandone and Christopher Kilburn” because it would create an illogical separation between the noun “researchers” and the coordinated noun phrase “Roberto Scandone and Christopher Kilburn.”

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed. Placing a pair of commas around the coordinated noun phrase “Roberto Scandone and Christopher Kilburn” creates an illogical separation between the noun “researchers” and the aforementioned coordinated noun phrase. In this case, it illogically suggests that researchers in general bear the specific names Roberto Scandone and Christopher Kilburn. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the noun “researchers” and the coordinated noun phrase “Roberto Scandone and Christopher Kilburn.” Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed within the coordinated noun phrase “Roberto Scandone and Christopher Kilburn.”

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 0fe5ce68

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 0fe5ce68

    Ten of William Shakespeare’s plays are classified as histories. Although each one of these plays, which include Henry V and Richard III, blank on a single historical figure (specifically, an English king), some, such as Henry VI Part One and Henry VI Part Two, feature different episodes from the same monarch’s life.     

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • focuses

    • focus

    • are focused

    • were focused

    ID: 0fe5ce68 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "focuses" agrees in number with the singular subject "each one of these plays," which refers to each play individually.

    Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "focus" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "each one of these plays." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "are focused" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "each one of these plays." Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb "were focused" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "each one of these plays."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID b369d54c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: b369d54c

    Woven from recycled yarn and hand tufted using a carpet weaving technique passed down by the artist’s Turkish grandmother, blank so lush and tactilely inviting that you are tempted to reach out and touch them.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • the topological tapestries of Argentine textile artist Alexandra Kehayoglou are

    • the Argentine textile artist Alexandra Kehayoglou creates topological tapestries that are

    • when she creates her topological tapestries, Argentine textile artist Alexandra Kehayoglou makes them

    • Alexandra Kehayoglou is an Argentine textile artist whose topological tapestries are

    ID: b369d54c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice makes the noun phrase "topological tapestries" the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase "woven…grandmother." In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that the topological tapestries—and not another noun in the sentence—are being described as woven from recycled yarn and hand tufted.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase "Argentine textile artist Alexandra Kehayoglou" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that Kehayoglou is woven from recycled yarn and hand tufted. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the pronoun "she" and the noun phrase "Argentine textile artist Alexandra Kehayoglou" after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that Kehayoglou is woven from recycled yarn and hand tufted. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun "Alexandra Kehayoglou" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that Kehayoglou is woven from recycled yarn and hand tufted.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 790fc366

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 790fc366

    Using satellite remote sensing, Dr. Catherine Nakalembe, director of NASA’s Harvest Africa initiative, gathers important data on crop health. Nakalembe doesn’t just compile the blank she also shares her findings with African farmers, enabling them to make data-driven decisions about managing critical food crops.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • information, though;

    • information, though,

    • information; though

    • information though,

    ID: 790fc366 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. This choice uses a semicolon to join two independent clauses ("Nakalembe doesn’t just…though" and "she also shares..."). This choice also appropriately includes "though" in the first clause, where it logically belongs.

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice results in a grammar error called a comma splice. It incorrectly joins two independent clauses with only a comma instead of a comma and a coordinating conjunction like "and" or "but." "Though" is a transition word, but it’s not a coordinating conjunction. Choice C is incorrect. This choice results in a punctuation error. A semicolon can only be used to link two independent clauses. However, if "though" is included in the second clause, it turns the second clause into a dependent clause, so a semicolon can’t be used after "information." Choice D is incorrect. This choice results in a grammar error called a comma splice. It incorrectly joins two independent clauses with only a comma instead of a comma and a coordinating conjunction like "and" or "but."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 62120607

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 62120607

    From afar, African American fiber artist Bisa Butler’s portraits look like paintings, their depictions of human faces, bodies, and clothing so intricate that it seems only a fine brush could have rendered them. When viewed up close, however, the portraits reveal themselves to be blank stitching barely visible among the thousands of pieces of printed, microcut fabric.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • quilts, and the

    • quilts, the

    • quilts; the

    • quilts. The

    ID: 62120607 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between a main clause and a supplementary phrase. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the main clause (“the portraits...quilts”) and the supplementary noun phrase (“the stitching...fabric”) that provides a further description of how the portraits can be identified as quilts.

    Choice A is incorrect. A comma and the conjunction “and” can’t be used in this way to join a main clause and a supplementary noun phrase. Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join a main clause and a supplementary noun phrase. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with “the stitching.”

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID c437dd53

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: c437dd53

    Wanting to celebrate the 100th anniversary of the Alaska Purchase, blank up with a motto that best captured the state’s unique character. The commission selected “North to the Future,” submitted by Juneau journalist Richard Peter, as its winning entry.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • a contest sponsored by the Alaska Centennial Commission would award $300 to an individual who came

    • an award of $300 would go to an individual in a contest sponsored by the Alaska Centennial Commission for coming

    • $300 would be awarded to an individual by the Alaska Centennial Commission in a contest for coming

    • the Alaska Centennial Commission sponsored a contest that would award $300 to an individual who came

    ID: c437dd53 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice makes the noun phrase "the Alaska Centennial Commission" the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase "wanting…Purchase." In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that the Alaska Centennial Commission—and not another noun in the sentence—wanted to celebrate the 100th anniversary of the Alaska Purchase.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase "a contest" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the contest wanted to celebrate the 100th anniversary of the Alaska Purchase. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase "an award of $300" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the award of $300 wanted to celebrate the 100th anniversary of the Alaska Purchase. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase "$300" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the $300 wanted to celebrate the 100th anniversary of the Alaska Purchase.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 2bb7416a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 2bb7416a

    In paleontology, the term “Elvis taxon” gets applied to a newly identified living species that was once presumed to be extinct. Like an Elvis impersonator who might bear a striking resemblance to the late musical icon Elvis Presley himself, an Elvis taxon is not the real thing, blank is a misidentified look-alike.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • however but it

    • however it

    • however, it

    • however. It

    ID: 2bb7416a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The clause “Like an Elvis impersonator…real thing” and the clause “it is…look-alike” are both independent clauses, so making them into two separate sentences is grammatically correct. 

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice creates a run-on sentence error. The clause “Like an Elvis impersonator…real thing” and the clause “it is…look-alike” are both independent clauses, so they need to be separated with at least a comma + a coordinating conjunction. This choice provides the coordinating conjunction “but,” but it’s missing a comma. Choice B is incorrect. This choice creates a run-on sentence error. The clause “Like an Elvis impersonator…real thing” and the clause “it is…look-alike” are both independent clauses, so they need to be separated with a semicolon, a colon, a dash, a period, or a comma + a coordinating conjunction. Choice C is incorrect. This choice creates a run-on sentence error. The clause “Like an Elvis impersonator…real thing” and the clause “it is…look-alike” are both independent clauses, so they need to be separated with at least a comma + a coordinating conjunction. This choice provides a comma, but it’s missing a coordinating conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 97b62fab

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 97b62fab

    Smaller than poppy seeds, tardigrades are tiny, but they are tough. These minuscule animals can survive for thirty years without food or water, and blank can withstand extreme temperatures as low as minus 328 degrees and as high as 304 degrees Fahrenheit.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • that

    • it

    • they

    • he

    ID: 97b62fab Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun-antecedent agreement. The plural pronoun "they" agrees in number with the plural antecedent "animals," which refers to tardigrades.

    Choice A is incorrect because the singular pronoun "that" doesn’t agree in number with the plural antecedent "animals." Choice B is incorrect because the singular pronoun "it" doesn’t agree in number with the plural antecedent "animals." Choice D is incorrect because the singular pronoun "he" doesn’t agree in number with the plural antecedent "animals."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID a05cc490

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: a05cc490

    With the development of new technologies that use natural resources more efficiently, the overall consumption of those resources might be expected to decrease. Economists have observed that improvements in efficiency often correlate negatively with resource blank efficiency gains, lowering the cost of use, may increase demand to the extent that resource consumption ultimately rises.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • conservation, though,

    • conservation; though

    • conservation, though;

    • conservation, though

    ID: a05cc490 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma to separate the supplementary adverb "though" from the preceding main clause ("Economists…conservation") and uses a semicolon to join the next main clause ("efficiency gains…rises") to the rest of the sentence. Further, placing the semicolon after "though" indicates that the information in the preceding main clause ("improvements in efficiency often correlate negatively with resource conservation") is contrary to what might be assumed from the information in the previous sentence (resource consumption would be expected to decrease with the development of new, more efficient technologies).

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Commas can’t be used in this way to punctuate a supplementary word or phrase between two main clauses. Choice B is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the two main clauses ("Economists...though" and "efficiency gains....rises") with appropriate punctuation. Moreover, placing the semicolon after "conservation" illogically indicates that the information in the next clause (gains in efficiency may lead to an increase in resource consumption) is contrary to the information in the previous clause ("improvements in efficiency often correlate negatively with resource conservation"). Choice D is incorrect because placing a comma after "conservation" illogically indicates that the information in the next clause (gains in efficiency may lead to an increase in resource consumption) is contrary to the information in the previous clause ("improvements in efficiency often correlate negatively with resource conservation").

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 89ab0d46

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 89ab0d46

    After the printing press was introduced in 1440, handwritten manuscripts from Europe’s medieval period were often destroyed and the paper used for other purposes. In one instance, pages blank a collection of Norse tales dating to 1270 were discovered lining a bishop’s miter (hat).

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • from:

    • from,

    • from

    • from—

    ID: 89ab0d46 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The word “from” introduces a prepositional phrase that modifies the noun “pages” and provides essential information about their origin. No additional punctuation is needed after “from” in this context.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice results in a punctuation error, illogically separating the preposition “from” from the rest of the prepositional phrase with a colon. Also, a colon can only follow an independent clause, but what comes before the blank could not stand on its own as a complete sentence. Choice B is incorrect. This choice results in a punctuation error, illogically separating the preposition “from” from the rest of the prepositional phrase with a comma. Choice D is incorrect. This choice results in a punctuation error, illogically separating the preposition “from” from the rest of the prepositional phrase with a dash.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 85b8b9c5

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 85b8b9c5

    Many mechanical calculators were powered by a notched cylinder mechanism called the Leibniz wheel. Leibniz wheel calculators were popular in the first half of the twentieth blank these ingenious devices were eventually replaced by electronic calculators.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • century

    • century,

    • century, but

    • century that

    ID: 85b8b9c5 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma and a coordinating conjunction ("but") to join the first main clause ("Leibniz...century") and the second main clause ("these ingenious...calculators").

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Choice D is incorrect because joining the two main clauses in this way with the subordinating conjunction "that" results in an ungrammatical and illogical sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID b0a525be

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: b0a525be

    Santa Clara Pueblo artist Roxanne Swentzell’s sculpture Mud Woman Rolls On consists of five human figures made of clay and plant fiber and arranged in descending size; each figure holds the smaller one in front of it. The arrangement of the figures, according to blank represents her idea that “we all come from the Earth, generation after generation.”

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Swentzell

    • Swentzell,

    • Swentzell:

    • Swentzell—

    ID: b0a525be Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The phrase “according to Swentzell” is an aside that interrupts the flow of the sentence, so it needs to be separated from the sentence with a pair of matching punctuation marks: two commas, two dashes, or a pair of parentheses. We already have a comma before “according,” so we must add a comma after “Swentzell.” .

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice creates a punctuation error. The phrase “according to Swentzell” is an aside that interrupts the flow of the sentence, so it needs to be separated from the sentence with a pair of matching punctuation marks: one before and one after the phrase. Choice C is incorrect. This choice creates a punctuation error. “The arrangement of the figures, according to Swentzell” is not an independent clause, so it can’t come before a colon. Choice D is incorrect. This choice creates a punctuation error. The phrase “according to Swentzell” is an aside that interrupts the flow of the sentence, so it needs to be separated from the sentence with a pair of matching punctuation marks. We already have a comma at the beginning, so we have to use another comma here to match. We can’t just switch to a dash! .

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID eef91a50

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: eef91a50

    Nine months before Rosa Parks made history by refusing to comply with the segregated seating policy on a Montgomery, Alabama, bus, a fifteen-year-old Montgomery girl named Claudette Colvin was arrested for the same blank to some historians, Colvin’s arrest led to Parks’s action and eventually to the desegregation of Montgomery’s bus system.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • offense. According

    • offense, according

    • offense according

    • offense and according

    ID: eef91a50 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. “Nine months…offense” and “according to…system” are both independent clauses. Separating them with a period and turning them into their own sentences is the only grammatically correct choice among the provided options.

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice results in a comma splice error, which is a punctuation error that occurs when two independent clauses are joined by only a comma. “Nine months…offense” and “according to…system” are both independent clauses, so they need to be either joined by a semicolon, joined by a comma and a coordinating conjunction, or separated by a period. Choice C is incorrect. This choice results in a run-on sentence, which occurs when two independent clauses are joined without punctuation. “Nine months…offense” and “according to…system” are both independent clauses, so they need to be either joined by a semicolon, joined by a comma and a coordinating conjunction, or separated by a period. Choice D is incorrect. This choice results in a run-on sentence, which occurs when two independent clauses are joined without punctuation. “Nine months…offense” and “according to…system” are independent clauses, so we would need to put a comma before the coordinating conjunction “and” to join them properly.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 01a32c84

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 01a32c84

    The first computerized spreadsheet, Dan Bricklin’s VisiCalc, improved financial recordkeeping not only by providing users with an easy means of adjusting data in spreadsheets but also by automatically updating all calculations that were dependent on these blank to VisiCalc’s release, changing a paper spreadsheet often required redoing the entire sheet by hand, a process that could take days.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • adjustments prior

    • adjustments, prior 

    • adjustments. Prior

    • adjustments and prior

    ID: 01a32c84 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period is used correctly to mark the boundary between the first sentence (“The...adjustments”) and the second sentence (“Prior...days”). Because the adverbial phrase beginning with “prior” indicates when changing a spreadsheet required redoing the sheet by hand, that phrase belongs with the second sentence. 

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. Two sentences are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice D is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction “and” can’t be used in this way to join the sentences.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 548f4956

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 548f4956

    It is generally true that technological change is a linear process, in which once-useful technologies are replaced by new and better blank the reawakening of interest in the steam engine (from advocates of carbon-neutral rail travel) reminds us that ostensibly obsolete technologies may be brought back into service to address society’s changing needs.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • ones, even so; 

    • ones even so, 

    • ones; even so, 

    • ones, even so, 

    ID: 548f4956 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses within a sentence. This choice uses a semicolon in a conventional way to join the first main clause (“It is…ones”) and the second main clause  (“even so…needs”). Furthermore, the placement of the semicolon after “ones” indicates that the supplementary phrase “even so” modifies the following clause (“the reawakening...needs”), resulting in the most logical and grammatically complete sentence. With this punctuation, the sentence logically indicates that the recent interest in an old technology like steam engines is despite the fact that technological change typically seeks out new technologies.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a confusing and illogical sentence. Placing the semicolon after “so” indicates that the supplementary element “even so” modifies the first clause of the sentence, which doesn’t make sense in this context. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. It fails to mark the boundary between the two main clauses with appropriate punctuation. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join the two main clauses of the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 9d4a701b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 9d4a701b

    Along with carbon dioxide concentration and temperature, light intensity affects the chemical reaction rate of blank as light intensity increases, so does the rate at which the reactants (water and carbon dioxide) are converted into their products (glucose and oxygen).

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • photosynthesis and

    • photosynthesis,

    • photosynthesis:

    • photosynthesis

    ID: 9d4a701b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation in a sentence. In this choice, a colon is correctly used to mark the boundary between one main clause ("Along with...photosynthesis") and another main clause ("as light...oxygen") and to introduce the following explanation of how light intensity affects photosynthesis.

    Choice A is incorrect because when coordinating two longer main clauses such as these, it’s conventional to use a comma before the coordinating conjunction ("and"). Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a coordinating conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses ("Along with...photosynthesis" and "as light...oxygen"). Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses ("Along with...photosynthesis" and "as light...oxygen") are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 2c84f96a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 2c84f96a

    In 2017, artists Isabel and Ruben Toledo redesigned the costumes and sets for The Miami City Ballet’s production of The blank to reviewers, the Toledos’ designs helped infuse the production with elements of Miami’s Latin American culture.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Nutcracker according, 

    • Nutcracker, according 

    • Nutcracker according 

    • Nutcracker. According 

    ID: 2c84f96a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period is used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence (“In 2017...Nutcracker”) and another (“According...culture”). The supplementary element “according to reviewers” modifies the main clause of the second sentence (“the Toledos’...culture”).

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Furthermore, no punctuation is needed within the supplementary element “according to reviewers.” Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID d4f173ec

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: d4f173ec

    To illustrate Albert Einstein’s special theory of relativity, picture two jugglers: one juggling on a steadily moving parade float, the other juggling while standing still on a sidewalk. The laws of physics are identical for both blank motion relative to each other. But what, Einstein wondered, about the speed of light?

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • jugglers’, regardless of they’re

    • jugglers, regardless of there

    • juggler’s, regardless of their

    • jugglers, regardless of their

    ID: d4f173ec Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of plural nouns and possessive determiners. The plural noun "jugglers" and the plural possessive determiner "their" correctly indicate that there are multiple jugglers whose motion is being discussed.

    Choice A is incorrect because the context requires the plural noun "jugglers" and the plural possessive determiner "their," not the plural possessive noun "jugglers’" and the contraction "they’re." Choice B is incorrect because the context requires the plural possessive determiner "their," not the word "there," which means "in that place." Choice C is incorrect because the context requires the plural noun "jugglers," not the singular possessive noun "juggler’s."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID dd6a0326

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: dd6a0326

    African American Percy Julian was a scientist and entrepreneur whose work helped people around the world to see. Named in 1999 as one of the greatest achievements by a US chemist in the past hundred years, blank led to the first mass-produced treatment for glaucoma.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Julian synthesized the alkaloid physostigmine in 1935; it 

    • in 1935 Julian synthesized the alkaloid physostigmine, which

    • Julian’s 1935 synthesis of the alkaloid physostigmine

    • the alkaloid physostigmine was synthesized by Julian in 1935 and

    ID: dd6a0326 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice makes the noun phrase “Julian’s 1935 synthesis” the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase “named…years.” In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that Julian’s 1935 synthesis of the alkaloid physostigmine—and not another noun in the sentence—was named in 1999 as one of the greatest achievements by a US chemist in the past hundred years.  

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun “Julian” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that Julian himself was named as one of the greatest achievements by a US chemist in the past hundred years. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the prepositional phrase “in 1935” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically and confusingly suggests that “in 1935” was named as one of the greatest achievements by a US chemist in the past hundred years. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “the alkaloid physostigmine” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically and confusingly suggests that the alkaloid physostigmine itself (not the synthesis of it) was named as one of the greatest achievements by a US chemist in the past hundred years.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 4ba99a6f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 4ba99a6f

    Seneca sculptor Marie Watt’s blanket art comes in a range of shapes and sizes. In 2004, Watt sewed strips of blankets together to craft a 10-by-13-inch blank in 2014, she arranged folded blankets into two large stacks and then cast them in bronze, creating two curving 18-foot-tall blue-bronze pillars.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • sampler later,

    • sampler; 

    • sampler, 

    • sampler, later,

    ID: 4ba99a6f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses within a sentence. This choice uses a semicolon in a conventional way to join the first main clause (“In 2004…sampler”) and the second main clause (“in 2014…pillars”).

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. The word “later” is an adverb and cannot be used to join two main clauses unless it is preceded by a conjunction. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. The word “later” is an adverb and cannot be used to join two main clauses unless it is preceded by a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID ce81d0b7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: ce81d0b7

    The life spans of rockfish vary greatly by species. For instance, the colorful calico rockfish (Sebastes dallii) can survive for a little over a blank the rougheye rockfish (Sebastes aleutianus) boasts a maximum life span of about two centuries. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • decade: while

    • decade. While

    • decade; while

    • decade, while

    ID: ce81d0b7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a main clause and a subordinate clause. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the main clause ("the colorful…decade") and the subordinate clause ("while…centuries") that provides contrasting information about the life span of rougheye rockfish.

    Choice A is incorrect because a colon can’t be used in this way to join a main clause and a subordinate clause. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with "while." Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join a main clause and a subordinate clause.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID db24ecc9

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: db24ecc9

    The Arctic-Alpine Botanic Garden in Norway and the Jardim Botânico of Rio de Janeiro in Brazil are two of many botanical gardens around the world dedicated to growing diverse plant blank fostering scientific research; and educating the public about plant conservation.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • species, both native and nonnative,

    • species, both native and nonnative;

    • species; both native and nonnative,

    • species both native and nonnative,

    ID: db24ecc9 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of items in a complex series (a series including internal punctuation). The semicolon after “nonnative” is correctly used to separate the first item (“growing diverse plant species, both native and nonnative”) and the second item (“fostering scientific research”) in the series of things that botanical gardens are dedicated to. Further, the comma after “species” is correctly used to separate the noun phrase “diverse plant species” and the supplementary phrase “both native and nonnative” that modifies it.

    Choice A is incorrect because a comma (specifically, the comma after “nonnative”) can’t be used in this way to separate items in a complex series. Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to separate the noun phrase “diverse plant species” and the supplementary phrase “both native and nonnative” that modifies it. Further, a comma can’t be used in this way to separate items in a complex series. Choice D is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the noun phrase “diverse plant species” and the supplementary phrase “both native and nonnative” that modifies it. Further, a comma can’t be used in this way to separate items in a complex series.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 35360da9

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 35360da9

    The US Geological Survey wants to map every human-made structure in the United States, and it is asking volunteers to help. Cassie Tammy Wang and Ashish D’Souza are just two of the many volunteer map editors who blank to the project since it began in 2012.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • contribute

    • will contribute

    • have contributed

    • will be contributing

    ID: 35360da9 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense in a sentence. In this choice, the present perfect tense verb “have contributed,” used in conjunction with the phrase “since it began in 2012,” correctly indicates that map editors have contributed in the past and continue to do so in the present.

    Choice A is incorrect because the present tense verb “contribute” is inconsistent with the phrase “since it began in 2012,” which suggests that the contributions occurred in the past and continue into the present. Choice B is incorrect because the future tense verb “will contribute” is inconsistent with the phrase “since it began in 2012,” which suggests that the contributions occurred in the past and continue into the present. Choice D is incorrect because the future tense verb “will be contributing” is inconsistent with the phrase “since it began in 2012,” which suggests that the contributions occurred in the past and continue into the present.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 0fa289a7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 0fa289a7

    In 1955, Indian Bengali filmmaker Satyajit Ray released his first movie, Pather blank quiet black-and-white drama about a family in rural India, Ray’s film was quite different from the loud, colorful action-romance movies that were popular at the time.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Panchali a

    • Panchali, which was a

    • Panchali, a

    • Panchali. A

    ID: 0fa289a7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period is used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence ("In…Panchali") and another ("A quiet…time"). The phrase beginning with "a quiet" modifies the subject of the next sentence, "Ray’s film."

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID f0f9bf8f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: f0f9bf8f

    Félix González-Torres debuted his sculpture “Untitled” (USA Today) in New York City in 1990. The work consists of piled candy, a material González-Torres became known for. blank created additional installations using a variety of sweets, like bubblegum, lollipops, and chocolates.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • They all

    • Those

    • Both

    • He

    ID: f0f9bf8f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun-antecedent agreement. The singular pronoun "he" agrees in number with the singular antecedent "Félix González-Torres," and it clearly indicates that González-Torres created the additional installations.

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural noun phrase "they all" doesn’t agree in number with the singular antecedent "Félix González-Torres," and it doesn’t clearly indicate that he (González-Torres) created the additional installations. Choice B is incorrect because the plural pronoun "those" doesn’t agree in number with the singular antecedent "Félix González-Torres," and it doesn’t clearly indicate that he (González-Torres) created the additional installations. Choice C is incorrect because the plural pronoun "both" doesn’t agree in number with the singular antecedent "Félix González-Torres," and it doesn’t clearly indicate that he (González-Torres) created the additional installations.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID ace95f84

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: ace95f84

    By analyzing the level of radioactive decay within a fossil specimen, scientists can establish the age of that fossil with a high degree of precision. When radioactive elements aren’t present, scientists turn to blank analysis of Earth’s sediment layers (strata)—to estimate how old a fossil is based on the age of the strata in which the fossil is found.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • stratigraphy—the

    • stratigraphy (the

    • stratigraphy: the

    • stratigraphy, the

    ID: ace95f84 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within a sentence. The dash after "stratigraphy" pairs with the dash after "(strata)" to separate the supplementary element "the analysis of Earth’s sediment layers (strata)" from the rest of the sentence. This supplementary element functions to define the term "stratigraphy," and the pair of dashes indicates that this element could be removed without affecting the grammatical coherence of the sentence.

    Choice B is incorrect because a parenthesis can’t be paired with a dash in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice C is incorrect because a colon can’t be paired with a dash in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because a comma can’t be paired with a dash in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 6df020e6

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 6df020e6

    A study showed that a solar park caused nearby land to cool, though the ecological impact of this temperature decrease isn’t yet known. Before the park’s construction, the surface temperature 30 meters outside of the park boundary was 0.1°C cooler than that of a control blank construction, the temperature 30 meters outside of the boundary was 1.7°C cooler than that of the control area.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • area after

    • area after,

    • area. After

    • area, after

    ID: 6df020e6 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period is used to correctly mark the boundary between one sentence ("Before...area") and another ("After...area"). The phrase "After construction" modifies the next sentence to indicate that the temperature was cooler after construction.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence that fuses the two sentences ("Before...area" and "after...area") without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence that connects the two sentences ("Before...area" and "after...area") without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Additionally, no punctuation is needed between "after" and "construction." Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between the two sentences ("Before...area" and "after...area").

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 684b8bd2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 684b8bd2

    Far from being modern inventions, blank more than 5,000 years ago.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Sumerians in ancient Mesopotamia used drinking straws

    • drinking straws were used by Sumerians in ancient Mesopotamia

    • the use of drinking straws by Sumerians in ancient Mesopotamia happened

    • ancient Mesopotamia was home to Sumerians who used drinking straws

    ID: 684b8bd2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. Modifiers and their subjects must go next to each other. The modifier “far from being modern inventions” must be describing “drinking straws,” because those are the only possible inventions in this sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect. Modifiers and their subjects must go next to each other. The modifier “far from being modern inventions” can’t be describing “Sumerians,” because they are a group of people, not an invention. Choice C is incorrect. Modifiers and their subjects must go next to each other. The modifier “far from being modern inventions” can’t be describing “the use of drinking straws,” because it is not “the use” of drinking straws that is an invention—it is the drinking straws themselves. Choice D is incorrect. Modifiers and their subjects must go next to each other. The modifier “far from being modern inventions” can’t be describing “Ancient Mesopotamia,” because that is a place, not an invention.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID f30a478e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: f30a478e

    A study published by Rice University geoscientist Ming Tang in 2019 offers a new explanation for the origin of Earth’s blank structures called arcs, towering ridges that form when a dense oceanic plate subducts under a less dense continental plate, melts in the mantle below, and then rises and bursts through the continental crust above.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • continents geological

    • continents: geological

    • continents; geological

    • continents. Geological

    ID: f30a478e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between a main clause and a supplementary phrase. In this choice, a colon is correctly used to mark the boundary between the main clause (“A study…continents”) and the supplementary phrase (“geological…above”) and to introduce the following explanation of the origin of Earth’s continents.

    Choice A is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the main clause (“A study…continents”) and the supplementary phrase (“geological…above”) with appropriate punctuation. Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join the main clause (“A study…continents”) and the supplementary phrase (“geological…above”). A semicolon is conventionally used to join two main clauses, whereas a colon is conventionally used to introduce an element that explains or amplifies the information in the preceding clause, making it the better choice in this context. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with “geological.”

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 67667d72

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 67667d72

    Humans were long thought to have begun occupying the Peruvian settlement of Machu Picchu between 1440 and 1450 CE. However, a team led by anthropologist Dr. Richard Burger used accelerator mass spectrometry to uncover evidence that it was occupied blank 1420 CE, according to Burger, humans were likely inhabiting the area.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • earlier. In

    • earlier, in

    • earlier, which in

    • earlier in

    ID: 67667d72 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period is used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence (“However...earlier”) and another (“In...area”). The supplementary phrase “in 1420 CE” modifies “humans,” the subject of the third sentence.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Moreover, the subordinating conjunction “which” creates a confusing and illogical sentence that suggests that the supplementary phrase beginning with “in” modifies the previous information (“However...earlier”) rather than the information that follows. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences (“However...earlier” and “in...area”) are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 80aa7690

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 80aa7690

    The Austronesian language family includes Tagalog, Malagasy, and some 1,200 other languages throughout the Pacific, making it one of the largest language families in the world and of keen interest to blank of the University of Toronto.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • linguist, Diane Massam,

    • linguist, Diane Massam

    • linguist Diane Massam

    • linguist: Diane Massam

    ID: 80aa7690 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation between titles and proper nouns. No punctuation is needed to set off the proper noun "Diane Massam" from the title that describes Massam, "linguist." Because "Diane Massam" is essential information identifying the "linguist," no punctuation is necessary.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed before or after the proper noun "Diane Massam." Setting the linguist’s name off with commas suggests that it could be removed without affecting the coherence of the sentence, which isn’t the case. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID cd4b1a7e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: cd4b1a7e

    How did whales, once no bigger than seals, evolve to become the largest animals on Earth? Brazilian biologist Mariana Nery believes the answer might be found in whales’ DNA. In January 2023, Nery and her colleagues blank a study showing changes over time in four whale genes associated with body size.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • published

    • publishing

    • having published

    • to publish

    ID: cd4b1a7e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. A main clause requires a finite (tensed) verb to perform the action of the subject (in this case, Nery and her colleagues), and this choice supplies the finite past tense verb "published" to indicate that these biologists shared their findings about changes in whale genes associated with body size.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite participle "publishing" doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite participle "having published" doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice D is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite to-infinitive "to publish" doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 60a4c088

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 60a4c088

    What makes the theremin a unique musical instrument? You play it without touching it. When you place your blank the pitch will shift as your hands move through the air.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • hand’s between the two antenna’s,

    • hands between the two antennas,

    • hands’ between the two antennas’,

    • hands’ between the two antennas,

    ID: 60a4c088 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of plural nouns in a sentence. The plural noun "hands" and the plural noun "antennas" correctly indicate that two hands are placed between two antennas when playing the theremin.

    Choice A is incorrect because the context requires the plural nouns "hands" and "antennas," not the singular possessive nouns "hand’s" and "antenna’s." Choice C is incorrect because the context requires the plural nouns "hands" and "antennas," not the plural possessive nouns "hands’" and "antennas’." Choice D is incorrect because the context requires the plural noun "hands," not the plural possessive noun "hands’."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID dd428136

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: dd428136

    Cheng Dang and her colleagues at the University of Washington recently ran simulations to determine the extent to which individual snow blank affect the amount of light reflecting off a snowy surface.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • grain’s physical properties’

    • grains’ physical properties

    • grains’ physical property’s

    • grains physical properties

    ID: dd428136 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of plural and possessive nouns. The plural possessive noun “grains’” and the plural noun “properties” correctly indicate that the simulations involved multiple snow grains and that those snow grains had several properties.

    Choice A is incorrect because the context requires the plural possessive noun “grains’” and the plural noun “properties,” not the singular possessive noun “grain’s” and the plural possessive noun “properties’.” Choice C is incorrect because the context requires the plural noun “properties,” not the singular possessive noun “property’s.” Choice D is incorrect because the context requires the plural possessive noun “grains’,” not the plural noun “grains.”

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID a94b7fd6

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: a94b7fd6

    With residents from Mexico, China, El Salvador, and many other countries, Los Angeles has long been a city of cultural diversity. Even back in the 1860s, nearly 30% of the city’s population blank from outside the United States.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • is being

    • was

    • is

    • will be

    ID: a94b7fd6 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense in a sentence. In this choice, the past tense verb "was," used in conjunction with the prepositional phrase "from outside the United States," correctly indicates that in the 1860s nearly 30% of the population in Los Angeles wasn’t from the US.

    Choice A is incorrect because the present progressive tense verb "is being" doesn’t indicate that the claim about Los Angeles’s population refers to the population back in the 1860s. Choice C is incorrect because the present tense verb "is" doesn’t indicate that the claim about Los Angeles’s population refers to the population back in the 1860s. Choice D is incorrect because the future tense verb "will be" doesn’t indicate that the claim about Los Angeles’s population refers to the population back in the 1860s.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 6bc907c9

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 6bc907c9

    Novelist Jane Austen greatly admired the work of Fanny Burney, a popular English author. In fact, scholars believe that a passage from the last chapter of Cecilia, a 1782 novel by Burney, likely inspired the title of one of blank Pride and Prejudice.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Austen’s most famous novels,

    • Austens’ most famous novels’,

    • Austens most famous novels,

    • Austen’s most famous novel’s,

    ID: 6bc907c9 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of plural and possessive nouns. The singular possessive proper noun "Austen’s" and the plural noun "novels" correctly indicates that Austen wrote multiple novels that were famous.

    Choice B is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive proper noun "Austen’s" and the plural noun "novels," not the plural possessive nouns "Austens’" and "novels’." Choice C is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive proper noun "Austen’s," not the plural proper noun "Austens." Choice D is incorrect because the context requires the plural noun "novels," not the singular possessive noun "novel’s."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 04bfd364

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 04bfd364

    The intense pressure found in the deep ocean can affect the structure of proteins in fish’s cells, distorting the proteins’ shape. The chemical trimethylamine N-oxide (TMAO) counters this effect, ensuring that proteins retain their original blank is found in high concentrations in the cells of the deepest-dwelling fish.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • configurations. TMAO

    • configurations TMAO

    • configurations, TMAO

    • configurations and TMAO

    ID: 04bfd364 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period after “configurations” is used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence (“The intense…configurations”) and another (“TMAO…fish”). The supplementary phrase (“ensuring…configurations”) modifies the main clause of the first sentence (“The chemical…effect”), and “TMAO” is the subject of the second sentence.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences  (“The intense…configurations” and “TMAO…fish”) are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice D is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction “and” can’t be used in this way to join sentences.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 36868920

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 36868920

    Increasing the heat on an uncovered boiling pot of water does not increase the temperature of the water. What increases is the rate at which the water turns to blank a pressure cooker pot, though, an airtight seal traps the vapor in the pot, creating pressure that allows the temperature of the water to increase past its boiling point. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • vapor. With

    • vapor with

    • vapor, with

    • vapor and with

    ID: 36868920 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period is used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence ("What…vapor") and another ("With…point").

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences ("What…vapor" and "with…point") are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice D is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction "and" can’t be used in this way to join sentences.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID f339ee39

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: f339ee39

    Multiple newspapers blank the Spanish-speaking population of Washington, DC, including El Tiempo Latino and Washington Hispanic.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • serve

    • having served

    • to serve

    • serving

    ID: f339ee39 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. A main clause requires a finite (tensed) verb to perform the action of the subject (in this case, "multiple newspapers"), and this choice supplies the finite present tense verb "serve" to indicate that there are multiple newspapers serving the Spanish-speaking population of Washington, DC.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite participle "having served" doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite to-infinitive "to serve" doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice D is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite participle "serving" doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID ea8f4658

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: ea8f4658

    When particles are suspended in liquid (like pollen in a water glass), they will zigzag randomly through the liquid and collide with one another in perpetuity. This type of random, continuous blank is known as Brownian motion, can be observed throughout the natural world.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • movement: which

    • movement, which

    • movement which

    • movement. Which

    ID: ea8f4658 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. This choice correctly uses commas to set off the nonessential relative clause "which is known as Brownian motion" that provides extra information about the "random, continuous movement" that isn’t necessary for the function of the sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice results in a punctuation error. The relative clause "which is known as Brownian motion" is a nonessential supplement. Nonessential supplements need to be set apart from the rest of the sentence with a pair of commas, dashes, or parentheses, so we can’t use a colon here. Also, notice that colons can only come after an independent clause, which isn’t the case here. Choice C is incorrect. This choice results in a punctuation error. The relative clause "which is known as Brownian motion" is a nonessential supplement, so it should be separated from the rest of the sentence by a pair of matching punctuation marks. We already have a comma after "motion," so we need to add a comma before "which." This choice is missing that comma. Choice D is incorrect. This choice results in a sentence fragment. "This type of random, continuous movement" is not an independent clause and can’t stand alone as a full sentence, so we can’t put a period here.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID f768090a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: f768090a

    Walt Whitman’s Leaves of Grass first appeared in 1855 as a slim collection of twelve poems, but Whitman would revise and expand it substantially over the next four decades. These extensive blank the addition of hundreds of new poems, the removal of some existing ones, and the insertion of prefatory material, reflected the poet’s evolving literary perspective and experience of the US Civil War.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • changes, including

    • changes would include

    • changes included

    • changes, include

    ID: f768090a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. The nonfinite present participle "including" is correctly used to form a supplementary element that interrupts the main clause "These extensive changes…reflected the poet’s evolving literary perspective and experience of the US Civil War." This supplementary element, offset by commas after "changes" and "material," provides examples of the changes Whitman made to Leaves of Grass.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite modal verb "would include" can’t be used in this way to form a supplementary element within the main clause. Choice C is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite past tense verb "included" can’t be used in this way to form a supplementary element within the main clause. Choice D is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite present tense verb "include" can’t be used in this way to form a supplementary element within the main clause.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 775f3eb9

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 775f3eb9

    In his groundbreaking book Bengali Harlem and the Lost Histories of South Asian America, Vivek Bald uses newspaper articles, census records, ships’ logs, and memoirs to tell the blank who made New York City their home in the early twentieth century.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • story’s of the South Asian immigrants

    • story’s of the South Asian immigrants’

    • stories of the South Asian immigrants

    • stories’ of the South Asian immigrant’s

    ID: 775f3eb9 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of plural and possessive nouns. The plural nouns “stories” and “immigrants” correctly indicate that the memoir tells multiple stories of multiple immigrants.

    Choice A is incorrect because the context requires the plural noun “stories,” not the singular possessive noun “story’s.” Choice B is incorrect because the context requires the plural nouns “stories” and “immigrants,” not the singular possessive noun “story’s” and the plural possessive noun “immigrants’.” Choice D is incorrect because the context requires the plural nouns “stories” and “immigrants,” not the plural possessive noun “stories’” and the singular possessive noun “immigrant’s.”

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 5670a657

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 5670a657

    During the decades-long movement to codify the rights of Latinos in the US, certain events were pivotal: the founding of social justice group the League of United Latin American Citizens in blank Katzenbach v. Morgan court decision in 1966, which affirmed the rights of Latino voters, is another such event.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • 1929. For one, the

    • 1929, for one, the

    • 1929 for one, the

    • 1929, for one. The

    ID: 5670a657 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The conventions being tested are punctuation use between sentences and the punctuation of a supplementary element. This choice correctly uses a period to mark the boundary between one sentence ("During...one") and another ("The Katzenbach...event") and uses a comma to separate the supplementary phrase "for one" from the preceding main clause. Further, placing the period after "for one" correctly indicates that the information in the preceding main clause ("the founding...1929") is the first example provided of a pivotal event in the Latino rights movement.

    Choice A is incorrect because placing the period after "1929" illogically indicates that the information in the next main clause (describing the Katzenbach v. Morgan court decision) is the first example provided of a pivotal event in the Latino rights movement; rather, it’s a second example. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Moreover, it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element "for one" from the preceding main clause.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID b6560e5a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: b6560e5a

    Materials scientist Marie-Agathe Charpagne and her colleagues believed they could improve on the multicomponent alloy NiCoCr, an equal-proportions mixture of nickel (Ni), cobalt (Co), and chromium (Cr), by replacing chromium with ruthenium blank the alloy that resulted, NiCoRu, turned out to be an unsuitable replacement for NiCoCr.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • (Ru)

    • (Ru) but

    • (Ru),

    • (Ru), but

    ID: b6560e5a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses. This choice correctly uses a comma and the coordinating conjunction “but” to join the first main clause (“Materials…Ru”) and the second main clause (“the alloy…NiCoCr”).

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice B is incorrect because when coordinating two longer main clauses such as these, it’s conventional to use a comma before the coordinating conjunction. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 5aa171de

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 5aa171de

    Chondrites are stony meteorites that are undifferentiated—that is, their contents have not melted and separated into distinct layers. They are hardly blank many chondrites experience aqueous alteration as a result of exposure to fluids, as well as fracturing, veining, and localized melting due to collisions with other objects.  

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • pristine, though

    • pristine, though;

    • pristine; though 

    • pristine, though,

    ID: 5aa171de Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma to separate the supplementary adverb "though" from the preceding main clause ("They are hardly pristine") and uses a semicolon to join the two main clauses ("They…though" and "many…objects"). Further, placing the semicolon after "though" indicates that the information in the preceding main clause (chondrites are far from pristine) is contrary to what might be assumed from the information in the previous sentence (chondrites have been generally unaltered by their environment).

    Choice A is incorrect because placing the comma after "pristine" and using "though" as a subordinating conjunction illogically indicates that the information in the next main clause (many chondrites have experienced damage) is contrary to the information in the previous clause (chondrites are far from pristine). Choice C is incorrect because placing the semicolon after "pristine" illogically indicates that the information in the next main clause (many chondrites have experienced damage) is contrary to the information in the previous clause (chondrites are far from pristine). Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, the comma after "though" can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 5b8f9cf2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 5b8f9cf2

    In the canon of North African literature, Moroccan author Driss Chraïbi’s 1954 novel The Simple Past (Le Passé simple) looms large. A coming-of-age story, a social meditation, and a sober gaze into the dark maw of French colonialism, blank interrogates systemic power with memorable intensity.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Morocco gained its independence two years before the publication of Chraïbi’s debut novel, which

    • Chraïbi’s debut novel, published two years before Morocco gained its independence,

    • Chraïbi wrote a debut novel that, published two years before Morocco gained its independence,

    • published two years before Morocco gained its independence, Chraïbi wrote a debut novel that

    ID: 5b8f9cf2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. Subject-modifier placement requires a modifier and its subject to be next to each other. The subject of the modifier "a coming-of-age story…colonialism" is Chraïbi’s novel The Simple Past, so the subject "Chraïbi’s debut novel" fits perfectly after this introductory modifying phrase.

    Choice A is incorrect. Modifiers and their subjects must go next to each other. The introductory modifier "a coming-of-age story…colonialism" is describing Chraïbi’s novel, not Morocco. However, this choice places Morocco directly next to that modifier. Choice C is incorrect. Modifiers and their subjects must go next to each other. The introductory modifier "a coming-of-age story…colonialism" all describes Chraïbi’s novel, not Chraïbi himself. However, this choice places Chraïbi directly next to that modifier. Choice D is incorrect. Modifiers and their subjects must go next to each other. The modifier "a coming-of-age story…" is describing Chraïbi’s novel, so that needs to be the subject immediately after the modifier. This choice adds another modifier that describes Chraïbi’s novel, but then puts "Chraïbi" himself—not the novel—right after that modifier, which doesn’t make sense. Chraïbi wasn’t "published two years before" Moroccan independence; his novel The Simple Past was.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID b5b74c3f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: b5b74c3f

    When writing The Other Black Girl (2021), novelist Zakiya Dalila Harris drew on her own experiences working at a publishing office. The award-winning book is Harris’s first novel, but her writing blank honored before. At the age of twelve, she entered a contest to have a story published in American Girl magazine—and won.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • were

    • have been

    • has been

    • are

    ID: b5b74c3f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb “has been” agrees in number with the singular subject “writing.”

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb “were” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “writing.” Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb “have been” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “writing.” Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb “are” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “writing.”

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 432b1ede

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 432b1ede

    The forty-seven geothermal springs of Arkansas’ Hot Springs National Park are sourced via a process known as natural groundwater recharge, in which rainwater percolates downward through the earth—in this case, the porous rocks of the hills around Hot blank collect in a subterranean basin.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Springs to

    • Springs: to

    • Springs—to

    • Springs, to

    ID: 432b1ede Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of a supplementary element within a sentence. The dash after “Springs” pairs with the dash after “earth” to separate the supplementary element “in this case, the porous rocks of the hills around Hot Springs” from the rest of the sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice B is incorrect because a colon can’t be paired with a dash in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because a comma can’t be paired with a dash in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID c21df211

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: c21df211

    In 1959, the film industry debuted Smell-O-Vision. Theaters were fitted with specialized vents that emitted odors at specific points in a blank as the scent of roses when roses appeared in a scene. Smell-O-Vision failed to impress, however, with one reviewer declaring it “briefly weird and not very interesting.”

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • movie such

    • movie; such

    • movie. Such

    • movie, such

    ID: c21df211 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The comma appropriately separates the nonessential descriptive aside "such as…scene" from the independent clause "Theaters were…movie." Since the descriptive example of roses isn’t necessary for the sentence to function, it needs to be set off with punctuation.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice results in a run-on sentence. Since the example of roses isn’t necessary for the sentence to function, the descriptive aside "such as…scene" needs to be separated from the preceding independent clause with some sort of punctuation. Choice B is incorrect. This choice creates a punctuation error. A semicolon can only be used to separate two independent clauses, but "such…scene" is not an independent clause and couldn’t stand on its own as a sentence. Choice C is incorrect. This choice results in a sentence fragment. The descriptive aside "Such…scene" is not an independent clause and can’t stand on its own as a sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 50445680

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 50445680

    In winter, the diets of Japanese macaques, also known as snow monkeys, are influenced more by food availability than by food preference. Although the monkeys prefer to eat vegetation and land-dwelling invertebrates, those food sources may become unavailable because of extensive snow and ice cover, blank the monkeys to hunt for marine animals in any streams that have not frozen over.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • forces

    • to force

    • forcing

    • forced

    ID: 50445680 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of finite and nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. The nonfinite present participle “forcing” is correctly used to form a participial phrase that supplements the main clause “those...cover,” describing the effects on monkeys of the lack of food sources.

    Choice A is incorrect because the finite present tense verb “forces” can’t be used in this way to supplement the main clause (“those...cover”). Choice B is incorrect. While the nonfinite to-infinitive “to force” could be used to form a subordinate clause that supplements the main clause (“those...cover”), to-infinitives conventionally express purpose, and nothing in the sentence suggests that the food sources become unavailable for the purpose of forcing monkeys to hunt marine animals. Choice D is incorrect because the finite past tense verb “forced” can’t be used in this way to supplement the main clause (“those...cover”).

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 267a13e2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 267a13e2

    In 2010, archaeologist Noel Hidalgo Tan was visiting the twelfth-century temple of Angkor Wat in Cambodia when he noticed markings of red paint on the temple blank the help of digital imaging techniques, he discovered the markings to be part of an elaborate mural containing over 200 paintings.   

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • walls, with

    • walls with 

    • walls so with 

    • walls. With

    ID: 267a13e2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period after “walls” is used correctly to mark the boundary between the first sentence (“In...walls”) and the second sentence (“With…techniques”), which starts with a supplementary phrase.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences (“In...walls” and “with...paintings”) are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice C is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction “so” can’t be used in this way to join sentences.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 403d7bb5

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 403d7bb5

    According to Naomi Nakayama of the University of Edinburgh, the reason seeds from a dying dandelion appear to float in the air while blank is that their porous plumes enhance drag, allowing the seeds to stay airborne long enough for the wind to disperse them throughout the surrounding area.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • falling,

    • falling:

    • falling;

    • falling

    ID: 403d7bb5 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The word “falling” occurs in the middle of a clause and isn’t part of a supplement, so we don’t need any punctuation after it. We can see this more clearly if we simplify the rest of the sentence: “The reason seeds appear to float while falling is that their plumes enhance drag.” .

    Choice A is incorrect. This doesn’t complete the text in a way that conforms to the conventions of Standard English. The word “falling” occurs in the middle of a clause and isn’t part of a supplement, so we don’t need any punctuation after it. We can see this more clearly if we simplify the sentence: “The reason seeds appear to float while falling is that their plumes enhance drag.” . Choice B is incorrect. This doesn’t complete the text in a way that conforms to the conventions of Standard English. The word “falling” occurs in the middle of a clause and isn’t part of a supplement, so we don’t need any punctuation after it. We can see this more clearly if we simplify the sentence: “The reason seeds appear to float while falling is that their plumes enhance drag.” . Choice C is incorrect. This doesn’t complete the text in a way that conforms to the conventions of Standard English. The word “falling” occurs in the middle of a clause and isn’t part of a supplement, so we don’t need any punctuation after it. We can see this more clearly if we simplify the sentence: “The reason seeds appear to float while falling is that their plumes enhance drag.” .

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID fcab3630

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: fcab3630

    In his Naturalis historia, Pliny the Elder praised Hipparchus’s star catalog, a second-century BCE list of roughly 850 different stars’ celestial positions. For centuries, scholars dreamed about locating a copy of this legendary lost blank fantasy (partially) became reality in 2022, when researchers uncovered traces of the star catalog on a palimpsest, a reused parchment.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • work, that

    • work that

    • work. That

    • work and that

    ID: fcab3630 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period is used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence ("For…work") and another ("That…parchment").

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences ("For…work" and "that…parchment") are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice D is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction "and" can’t be used in this way to join sentences.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID a7fdf862

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: a7fdf862

    Azulejos, mosaics made of glazed ceramic tiles, can be found throughout Portugal. These mosaics beautify places such as blank stations, and public squares.  

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • libraries train

    • libraries: train

    • libraries—train  

    • libraries, train

    ID: a7fdf862 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of items in a simple series. The comma after "libraries" is used conventionally to separate the first and second items ("libraries" and "train stations") in the series.

    Choice A is incorrect because it fails to separate the first two items ("libraries" and "train stations") in the series. Choice B is incorrect because a colon can’t be used in this way to separate items in a simple series. Choice C is incorrect because a dash can’t be used in this way to separate items in a simple series.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 21e58a83

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 21e58a83

    Jetties—long, narrow structures that extend from a landmass into the water—are often constructed to protect coastlines from erosion. Jetties can sometimes have the opposite blank obstructing the natural flow of sand along the shore can lead to increased erosion in some areas.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • effect, though;

    • effect, though

    • effect; though

    • effect, though,

    ID: 21e58a83 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma to separate the supplementary adverb "though" from the preceding main clause ("Jetties can sometimes have the opposite effect") and uses a semicolon to join the next main clause ("obstructing…areas") to the rest of the sentence. Further, placing the semicolon after "though" logically indicates that the information earlier in this sentence (that jetties can sometimes cause erosion) is contrary to what might be assumed from the information in the previous sentence (that jetties are often constructed for the purpose of protecting coastlines from erosion).

    Choice B is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the two main clauses with appropriate punctuation. With "though…areas" functioning as a subordinate clause following the comma, this choice illogically indicates that the following information (that obstructing the natural flow of sand along the shore can sometimes lead to erosion) is contrary to the information earlier in the sentence (that jetties can sometimes cause erosion). Instead, the information following "though" supports the previous claim about the erosive effects of jetties. Choice C is incorrect because it’s not conventional to use a semicolon in this way to separate a main clause from a dependent clause. Further, it illogically indicates that the following information (that obstructing the natural flow of sand along the shore can sometimes lead to erosion) is contrary to the information earlier in the sentence (that jetties can sometimes cause erosion). Instead, the information following "though" supports the previous claim about the erosive effects of jetties. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Commas can’t be used in this way to set off a supplementary word or phrase between two main clauses.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID de3dd17d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: de3dd17d

    Planetary scientist Briony Horgan and her colleagues have determined that as much as 25 percent of the sand on Mars is composed of impact spherules. These spherical bits of glass form when asteroids collide with the planet, ejecting bits of molten rock into the atmosphere that, after cooling and solidifying into glass, blank back onto Mars’s surface.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • to rain

    • raining

    • having rained

    • rain

    ID: de3dd17d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. "That…[rain] back onto Mars’s surface" is a relative clause that describes the "bits of molten rock." Forming the clause requires a conjugated, finite verb, and this is the only choice that provides that.

    Choice A is incorrect. "To rain" is an infinitive and can’t serve as the main verb of a clause. A conjugated verb is needed here to form the main verb of the relative clause "that…[rain] back onto Mars’s surface," which describes the "bits of molten rock." Choice B is incorrect. "Raining" is a present participle and, on its own, can’t serve as the main verb of a clause. A conjugated verb is needed here to form the main verb of the relative clause "that…[rain] back onto Mars’s surface," which describes the "bits of molten rock." Choice C is incorrect. "Having rained" is a perfect participle and can’t serve as the main verb of a clause. A conjugated verb is needed here to form the main verb of the relative clause "that…[rain] back onto Mars’s surface," which describes the "bits of molten rock."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID c102f9b0

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: c102f9b0

    Lê Lương Minh became the thirteenth secretary-general of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) in January 2013, making blank the first time the organization would appoint a Vietnamese leader.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • these

    • those

    • this

    • some

    ID: c102f9b0 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun-antecedent agreement. The singular pronoun "this" agrees in number with the singular antecedent "Lê Lương Minh became the thirteenth secretary-general of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) in January 2013." The pronoun "this" is referring back to the singular event described earlier in the sentence in which Minh became secretary-general of ASEAN.

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural pronoun "these" doesn’t agree in number with the singular antecedent "Lê Lương Minh became the thirteenth secretary-general of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) in January 2013." Choice B is incorrect because the plural pronoun "those" doesn’t agree in number with the singular antecedent "Lê Lương Minh became the thirteenth secretary-general of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) in January 2013." Choice D is incorrect because the indefinite pronoun "some" is ambiguous in this context; the resulting sentence leaves unclear what marks the first time the organization appointed a Vietnamese leader.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 6b49f5f1

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 6b49f5f1

    In 1727, dramatist Lewis Theobald presented a new play, Double Falsehood, at a London theater. Theobald claimed that his drama was based on a little-known play by William Shakespeare, Cardenio. Many, including poet Alexander Pope, were blank historians have determined that Shakespeare’s company did perform a play called Cardenio in 1613.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • skeptical but

    • skeptical, but

    • skeptical,

    • skeptical

    ID: 6b49f5f1 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. There are two independent clauses in the sentence, each with a subject and a verb: "many...were skeptical" and "historians have determined…." These clauses can be grammatically joined by a comma and the coordinating conjunction "but."

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice results in a run-on sentence, which occurs when two independent clauses are joined without punctuation. Two independent clauses can’t be joined by just the coordinating conjunction "but." A comma would also be required. Choice C is incorrect. This choice creates a punctuation error called a comma splice. This sentence contains two independent clauses ("Many…were skeptical" and "historians have determined…"). A comma alone can’t join two independent clauses. That requires a comma and a coordinating conjunction. Choice D is incorrect. This choice results in a run-on sentence, which occurs when two independent clauses are joined without punctuation. This sentence contains two independent clauses ("Many…were skeptical" and "historians have determined…"), which need to be either joined by a semicolon, joined by a comma and a coordinating conjunction, or separated by a period.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID ecba68b5

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: ecba68b5

    Mathematician Grigori Perelman, sometimes in conjunction with mathematicians Richard S. Hamilton and Shing-Tung Yau, blank credited with proving the Poincaré conjecture. Having built on Hamilton’s previous work to solve the proof, Perelman has insisted that Hamilton receive credit. Yau later found and closed gaps in Perelman’s proof, persuading some mathematicians that he deserves credit as well.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • are

    • have been

    • are being

    • is

    ID: ecba68b5 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "is credited" agrees in number with the singular subject "mathematician Grigori Perelman."

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb "are credited" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "mathematician Grigori Perelman." Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "have been credited" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "mathematician Grigori Perelman." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "are being credited" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "mathematician Grigori Perelman."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 2dd1b8bf

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 2dd1b8bf

    Compared to that of alumina glass, blank silica glass atoms are so far apart that they are unable to re-form bonds after being separated.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • silica glass is at a significant disadvantage due to its more dispersed atomic arrangement:

    • silica glass has a more dispersed atomic arrangement, resulting in a significant disadvantage:

    • a significant disadvantage of silica glass is that its atomic arrangement is more dispersed:

    • silica glass’s atomic arrangement is more dispersed, resulting in a significant disadvantage:

    ID: 2dd1b8bf Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice makes “silica glass’s atomic arrangement” the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase “compared to that of alumina glass.” In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that silica glass’s atomic arrangement—and not another noun in the sentence—is being compared to the atomic arrangement (“that”) of alumina glass.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “silica glass” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that silica glass itself (rather than its atomic arrangement) is being compared to alumina glass’s atomic arrangement. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “silica glass” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that silica glass itself (rather than its atomic arrangement) is being compared to alumina glass’s atomic arrangement. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “a significant disadvantage” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that “a significant disadvantage” is being compared to alumina glass’s atomic arrangement.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 577b09fa

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 577b09fa

    Robin Wall Kimmerer of the Citizen Potawatomi Nation is a bryologist, a plant scientist who specializes in mosses. To Kimmerer, mosses are Earth’s most adaptable plants: they can clone blank enter a dormant state in times of drought, and grow in areas that don’t have soil.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • themselves;

    • themselves,

    • themselves. And

    • themselves

    ID: 577b09fa Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of items in a series. The comma after “themselves” is used conventionally to separate the first item (“they can clone themselves”) and the second item (“enter a dormant state in times of drought”) in the series of things mosses can do. 

    Choice A is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to separate items in a simple series such as this. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with “And enter.” Choice D is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the first and second items in the series.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 59094d87

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 59094d87

    The Tantaquidgeon Museum in Uncasville, Connecticut, was founded in 1931 with the goal of showcasing the culture and history of the Mohegan blank today, nearly a century later, it is the oldest Native-owned and -operated museum in the country.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Tribe, and

    • Tribe

    • Tribe and

    • Tribe,

    ID: 59094d87 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. This choice uses a comma and a coordinating conjunction (“and”) to join two independent clauses (“The Tantaquidgeon…Tribe” and “Today…country”).

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice results in a grammar error known as a run-on sentence. The clauses before and after “Tribe” are both independent, so they need to be separated with some sort of punctuation. Choice C is incorrect. This choice results in a grammar error known as a run-on sentence. The clauses before and after “and” are both independent, so they can’t be linked with just a conjunction. A comma would also be required. Choice D is incorrect. This choice results in a grammar error called a comma splice. The clauses before and after “Tribe” are both independent, so they can’t be linked with just a comma. A coordinating conjunction like “and” or “but” would also be required.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 8772475b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 8772475b

    For thousands of years, humans have used domesticated goats (Capra hircus) to clear land of unwanted vegetation. When it comes to their diets, goats are notoriously blank they will devour all kinds of shrubs and weeds, leaving virtually no part of any plant unconsumed.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • indiscriminate and

    • indiscriminate,

    • indiscriminate

    • indiscriminate: 

    ID: 8772475b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between two main clauses. In this choice, a colon is correctly used to mark the boundary between one main clause ("goats are notoriously indiscriminate") and another main clause ("they will devour all kinds of shrubs and weeds") and to introduce the following explanation of goats’ nondiscriminatory behavior when it comes to what they eat.

    Choice A is incorrect because when coordinating two longer main clauses such as these, it’s conventional to use a comma before the coordinating conjunction. Furthermore, the conjunction "and" fails to indicate that what follows is an explanation of goats’ nondiscriminatory behavior when it comes to their diets. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses ("goats…indiscriminate" and "they…weeds"). Choice C is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses ("goats…indiscriminate" and "they…weeds") are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 0ff8477b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 0ff8477b

    Food and the sensation of taste are central to Monique Truong’s novels. In The Book of Salt, for example, the exiled character of Bình connects to his native Saigon through the food he prepares, while in Bitter in the Mouth, the character of Linda blank a form of synesthesia whereby the words she hears evoke tastes.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • experienced

    • had experienced

    • experiences

    • will be experiencing

    ID: 0ff8477b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense. In this choice, the present tense verb “experiences” is consistent with the other present tense verbs (e.g., “connects” and “prepares”) used to describe the events in Truong’s novels. Furthermore, it’s conventional to use the present tense when discussing a literary work.

    Choice A is incorrect because the past tense verb “experienced” isn’t consistent with the other present tense verbs used to describe the events in Truong’s novels. Choice B is incorrect because the past perfect tense verb “had experienced” isn’t consistent with the other present tense verbs used to describe the events in Truong’s novels. Choice D is incorrect because the future progressive tense verb “will be experiencing” isn’t consistent with the other present tense verbs used to describe the events in Truong’s novels.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID b260c65a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: b260c65a

    Earth is not a perfect sphere. Due to the blank gravitational pull, Earth bulges out on the sides closest to and farthest from the Moon. This distorting pull is known as a tidal force, and it is responsible for the changes in water levels that are called high and low tides.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Moon’s

    • Moons

    • Moons’

    • Moon

    ID: b260c65a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of possessive nouns. The singular possessive noun "Moon’s" correctly indicates that there is only one Moon, and it has a gravitational pull.

    Choice B is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive noun "Moon’s," not the plural noun "Moons." Choice C is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive noun "Moon’s," not the plural possessive noun "Moons’." Choice D is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive noun "Moon’s," not the singular noun "Moon."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 83c9c503

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 83c9c503

    Nigerian American artist Toyin Ojih Odutola uses black-ink pens to create highly detailed drawings of human figures. Her portrait of novelist Zadie blank is displayed in the National Portrait Gallery in London. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Smith:

    • Smith—

    • Smith

    • Smith,

    ID: 83c9c503 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between a subject and a verb. No punctuation is needed when, as in this case, a subject ("Her portrait of novelist Zadie Smith") is immediately followed by a main verb ("is displayed").

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 9f737b2a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 9f737b2a

    In Death Valley National Park’s Racetrack Playa, a flat, dry lakebed, are 162 rocks—some weighing less than a pound but others almost 700 pounds—that move periodically from place to place, seemingly of their own volition. Racetrack-like trails in the blank mysterious migration.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • playas sediment mark the rock’s

    • playa’s sediment mark the rocks

    • playa’s sediment mark the rocks’

    • playas’ sediment mark the rocks’ 

    ID: 9f737b2a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of plural and possessive nouns. The singular possessive noun “playa’s” and the plural possessive noun “rocks’” correctly indicate that the sediment is that of one playa (the Racetrack Playa) and that there are multiple rocks that have mysteriously migrated across the sediment.

    Choice A is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive noun “playa’s” and the plural possessive noun “rocks’,” not the plural noun “playas” and the singular possessive noun “rock’s.” Choice B is incorrect because the context requires the plural possessive noun “rocks’,” not the plural noun “rocks.” Choice D is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive noun “playa’s,” not the plural possessive noun “playas’.” 

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID c52652c9

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: c52652c9

    The human brain is primed to recognize faces—so much so that, due to a perceptual tendency called pareidolia, blank will even find faces in clouds, wooden doors, pieces of fruit, and other faceless inanimate objects. Researcher Susan Magsamen has focused her work on better understanding this everyday phenomenon.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • she

    • they

    • it

    • those

    ID: c52652c9 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. "It" is a singular pronoun used to stand in for objects. Since the antecedent in this case is the singular noun phrase "the human brain," "it" is a perfect pronoun to use here.

    Choice A is incorrect. Although "she" is a singular pronoun, it is reserved for people and animals, not objects like "the human brain." Choice B is incorrect. "They" is a plural pronoun, but we need a singular pronoun to represent the antecedent "the human brain." Choice D is incorrect. "Those" is a plural pronoun, but we need a singular pronoun to represent the antecedent "the human brain."

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID ba8ebf49

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: ba8ebf49

    The poem Beowulf begins with the word “hwæt,” which is an Old English blank as “hark!” or “listen!” in some versions, the word was playfully rendered as “bro!” by Maria Dahvana Headley in her 2020 translation of the poem.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • exclamation, translated

    • exclamation and translated

    • exclamation translated

    • exclamation. Translated

    ID: ba8ebf49 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period is used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence ("The poem…exclamation") and another sentence that begins with a supplementary element ("Translated…poem"). The supplementary element "translated as ‘hark!’ or ‘listen!’ in some versions" modifies the subject of the second sentence, "the word" (referring to hwæt).

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice after "exclamation." A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice B is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction "and" can’t be used in this way to join sentences. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice after "versions." A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 188f7e3c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 188f7e3c

    In 2016, engineer Vanessa Galvez oversaw the installation of 164 bioswales, vegetated channels designed to absorb and divert stormwater, along the streets of Queens, New York. By reducing the runoff flowing into city sewers, blank

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • the mitigation of both street flooding and the resulting pollution of nearby waterways has been achieved by bioswales.

    • the bioswales have mitigated both street flooding and the resulting pollution of nearby waterways.

    • the bioswales’ mitigation of both street flooding and the resulting pollution of nearby waterways has been achieved.

    • both street flooding and the resulting pollution of nearby waterways have been mitigated by bioswales.

    ID: 188f7e3c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice makes the noun phrase “the bioswales” the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase “By reducing…sewers.” In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that the bioswales—and not another noun in the sentence—are reducing runoff flowing into city sewers.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “the mitigation…waterways” immediately after the modifying phrase results in unclear modification. The resulting sentence makes it hard to determine what is responsible for “reducing the runoff”: the bioswales or some other noun in the sentence. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “the bioswales’ mitigation…waterways”  immediately after the modifying phrase results in unclear modification. The resulting sentence makes it hard to determine what is responsible for “reducing the runoff”: the bioswales or some other noun in the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “street flooding and the resulting pollution” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the “flooding and pollution” are reducing runoff flowing into city sewers.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 36944347

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 36944347

    Official measurements of the Mississippi River’s length vary: according to the US Geologic Survey, the river is 2,300 miles long, whereas the Environmental Protection Agency records its length as 2,320 miles. This disparity can be explained in part by the fact that rivers such as the Mississippi expand and contract as blank sediment.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • they accumulate

    • one accumulates

    • it accumulates

    • we accumulate

    ID: 36944347 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The noun that goes with "expand and contract" is "rivers," a plural noun. "They" is a third-person plural pronoun, so it can correctly stand in for "rivers."

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice creates a pronoun-antecedent agreement error. "One" is a singular pronoun, but the noun that goes with "expand and contract" is "rivers," a plural noun. Choice C is incorrect. This choice creates a pronoun-antecedent agreement error. "It" is a singular pronoun, but the noun that goes with "expand and contract" is "rivers," a plural noun. Choice D is incorrect. This choice creates a pronoun-antecedent agreement error. The noun that goes with "expand and contract" is the plural noun "rivers." Rivers are not people, so "we" can’t be used to stand in for it.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID a466679a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: a466679a

    In 1976, the Inuit rock group Sikumiut recorded the album People of the Ice. Though only their first record, it shows a band already skilled at the difficult task of making music that sounds easy and fun. On songs like “Utirumavunga,” Lucassie Koperqualuk’s guitar riffs effortlessly blank Charlie Adams’s delightfully catchy vocal melodies.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • blend, with

    • blend. With

    • blend; with

    • blend with

    ID: a466679a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a verb and a prepositional phrase. No punctuation is needed between the verb “blend” and the prepositional phrase “with Charlie Adams’s delightfully catchy vocal melodies.” The prepositional phrase completes the idea of the sentence, explaining with what Koperqualuk’s guitar riffs blend.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb and the prepositional phrase.  Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb and the prepositional phrase.  Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb and the prepositional phrase.  

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID a8fa749a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: a8fa749a

    Nigerian author Buchi Emecheta’s celebrated literary oeuvre includes The Joys of Motherhood, a novel about the changing roles of women in 1950s blank a television play about the private struggles of a newlywed couple in Nigeria; and Head Above Water, her autobiography.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Lagos, A Kind of Marriage,

    • Lagos; A Kind of Marriage,

    • Lagos, A Kind of Marriage:

    • Lagos; A Kind of Marriage

    ID: a8fa749a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of items in a complex series (a series including internal punctuation). In this choice, the semicolon after “Lagos” is conventionally used to separate the first item (“The Joys…Lagos”) and the second item (“A Kind…Nigeria”) in the series. Further, the comma after “Marriage” correctly separates the title “A Kind of Marriage” from the supplementary phrase (“a television…Nigeria”) that describes it.

    Choice A is incorrect because the comma after “Lagos” doesn’t match the semicolon used later in the series to separate the second item (“A Kind…Nigeria”) from the third item (“and…autobiography”). Choice C is incorrect because the comma after “Lagos” doesn’t match the semicolon used later in the series to separate the second item (“A Kind…Nigeria”) from the third item (“and…autobiography”). Additionally, a colon can’t be used in this way to separate the title “A Kind of Marriage” from the supplementary phrase (“a television…Nigeria”) that describes it. Choice D is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the title “A Kind of Marriage” from the supplementary phrase (“a television…Nigeria”) that describes it.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 898f182c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 898f182c

    Richard Spikes was a prolific African American inventor known for his contributions to automotive engineering. Between 1907 and 1946, he patented many inventions, blank an automobile turn signal, a safety brake, and—most famously—the first automatic gearshift.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • included

    • includes

    • including

    • will include

    ID: 898f182c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. The nonfinite present participle "including" is correctly used to form a participial phrase that supplements the main clause "he patented many inventions," listing several of Spikes’s patented inventions.

    Choice A is incorrect because the finite past tense verb "included" can’t be used in this way to supplement the main clause "he patented many inventions." Choice B is incorrect because the finite present tense verb "includes" can’t be used in this way to supplement the main clause "he patented many inventions." Choice D is incorrect because the finite future tense verb "will include" can’t be used in this way to supplement the main clause "he patented many inventions."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 6e5bf3a8

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 6e5bf3a8

    Even though bats prefer very sweet nectar, the plants that attract them have evolved to produce nectar that is only moderately sweet. A recent study blank why: making sugar is energy-intensive, and it is more advantageous for plants to make a large amount of low-sugar nectar than a small amount of high-sugar nectar.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • explains

    • explaining

    • having explained

    • to explain

    ID: 6e5bf3a8 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of finite and nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. A main clause requires a finite verb to perform the action of the subject (in this case, “a recent study”), and this choice supplies the finite present tense verb “explains” to indicate that the study explains why plants that attract bats have evolved to produce moderately sweet nectar. 

    Choice B is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “explaining” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “having explained” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice D is incorrect because the nonfinite to-infinitive “to explain” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID fa36d803

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: fa36d803

    Long attributed to Jacques-Louis David, the preeminent Neoclassical painter of his day, the 1801 painting Marie Joséphine Charlotte du Val d’Ognes gained fresh attention in the 1990s when art historians discovered that the painting—which depicts a solitary young woman sketching—was actually the work of little-known French portrait blank Marie-Denise Villers (1774–1821).

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • artist—

    • artist

    • artist:

    • artist,

    ID: fa36d803 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation between titles and proper nouns. No punctuation is needed to set off the proper noun "Marie-Denise Villers" from the title that describes Villers, "little-known French portrait artist."

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed. Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 84658166

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 84658166

    In 1943, in the midst of World War II, mathematics professor Grace Hopper was recruited by the US military to help the war effort by solving complex equations. Hopper’s subsequent career would involve more than just blank as a pioneering computer programmer, Hopper would help usher in the digital age.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • equations, though:

    • equations, though,

    • equations. Though,

    • equations though

    ID: 84658166 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation to mark boundaries between supplements and clauses. The comma after “equations” is used to separate the independent clause (“Hopper’s…equation”) from the supplementary adverb phrase “though.” The colon after “though” is used to mark the boundary between the clause ending with “though” and the following clause (“as…age”). A colon used in this way introduces information that illustrates or explains information that has come before it. In this case, the colon after “though” introduces the following explanation of how Hopper’s subsequent career would involve more than just solving equations: she would become a pioneering computer programmer.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to join two independent clauses (“Hopper’s…though” and “as…age”) such as these. Choice C is incorrect because it results in an illogical sequence of sentences. Placing the period after “equations” and beginning the next sentence with “Though” illogically suggests that the following information (that Hopper would help usher in the digital age) is contrary to the information in the previous sentence (Hopper’s subsequent career would involve more than just solving equations). Instead, the information that follows supports the information from the previous sentence by explaining how her work and influence extended beyond solely solving equations. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two independent clauses (“Hopper’s…though” and “as…age”) are fused without punctuation.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 7c48a6dd

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 7c48a6dd

    In the late 1960s, inspired in part by the sight of laundry hanging on a clothesline, African American abstract painter Sam Gilliam began to create his iconic “Drape” paintings. He applied bold, saturated hues to large canvases and blank them from ceilings or walls, causing the drooping fabric to cascade in dramatic loops and curves.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • to have suspended

    • suspending

    • to suspend

    • suspended

    ID: 7c48a6dd Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The past tense of "suspended" matches the past tense of "applied," which has the same subject ("he") and takes place in the same context: "He applied…and [he] suspended."

    Choice A is incorrect. The perfect infinitive "to have suspended" doesn’t match the past tense of "applied," and it can’t serve as a verb on its own. These are both verbs with the same subject and in the same context, so there’s no need to shift tenses. Choice B is incorrect. The present participle "suspending" doesn’t match the past tense of "applied," and it can’t serve as a verb on its own. These are both verbs with the same subject and in the same context, so there’s no need to shift tenses. Choice C is incorrect. The infinitive "to suspend" doesn’t match the past tense of "applied," and it can’t serve as a verb on its own. These are both verbs with the same subject and in the same context, so there’s no need to shift tenses.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID e3c1b4f7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: e3c1b4f7

    Digital artist Jung (Lulu) Chen primarily uses a suite of software tools to create illustrations for children’s books. To manifest the warm and welcoming atmospheres that are a signature of her blank she occasionally relies on more traditional art techniques, such as painting with watercolors.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • work, though,

    • work, though

    • work; though,

    • work, though;

    ID: e3c1b4f7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within a sentence. The comma after "work" pairs with the comma after "though" to separate the supplementary element "though" from the rest of the sentence. This supplementary element signals that what follows is an exception to Chen using software tools to create illustrations, and the pair of commas indicates that this element could be removed without affecting the grammatical coherence of the sentence.

    Choice B is incorrect because the comma after "work" must be paired with a comma after "though" to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be paired with a comma in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be paired with a comma in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 5cc85f01

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 5cc85f01

    A conceptual artist and designer embraced by both the art world and the fashion blank Mary Ping was chosen to curate the exhibition Front Row: Chinese American Designers for the Museum of Chinese in America.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • world

    • world:

    • world;

    • world,

    ID: 5cc85f01 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a supplementary phrase and a main clause. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the supplementary phrase (“A conceptual artist…world”), which describes Mary Ping, and the main clause (“Mary…America”).

    Choice A is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the supplementary phrase (“A conceptual artist…world”) and the main clause (“Mary…America”) with appropriate punctuation. Choice B is incorrect because a colon can’t be used in this way to join the supplementary phrase (“A conceptual artist…world”) and the main clause (“Mary…America”). In this context, the colon incorrectly suggests that the information in the supplementary phrase is an explanation or amplification of the information in the main clause (Mary Ping being chosen to curate the exhibition), which isn’t the case. Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join the supplementary phrase (“A conceptual artist…world”) and the main clause (“Mary…America”). Semicolons are conventionally used to separate two main clauses or to separate items in a complex series.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 8d53e7a0

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 8d53e7a0

    Slam poet Elizabeth Acevedo’s debut novel The Poet X, winner of the 2018 National Book Award for Young People’s Literature, is composed of blank protagonist, fifteen-year-old Xiomara Batista.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • poems putatively written by the novel’s

    • poem’s putatively written by the novel’s 

    • poem’s putatively written by the novels’

    • poems putatively written by the novels’

    ID: 8d53e7a0 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. Nothing belongs to the “poems” in the sentence, so it should not be possessive—just a simple plural noun. The protagonist does belong to the novel—it’s the protagonist of the novel—so “novel” needs to be a singular possessive noun.

    Choice B is incorrect. This doesn’t complete the text in a way that conforms to the conventions of Standard English. This choice uses the singular possessive “poem’s,” but the text indicates that it should be the simple plural “poems”: there is more than one poem, and nothing belongs to the poems. Choice C is incorrect. This doesn’t complete the text in a way that conforms to the conventions of Standard English. This choice uses the singular possessive “poem’s,” but the text indicates that it should be the simple plural “poems”: there is more than one poem, and nothing belongs to the poems. This choice also uses the plural possessive “novels’,” which is incorrect because there is only one novel. Choice D is incorrect. This doesn’t complete the text in a way that conforms to the conventions of Standard English. This choice uses the plural possessive “novels’,” which is incorrect because there is only one novel, so it should be the singular possessive “novel’s.” .

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID cabe71d4

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: cabe71d4

    Both Sona Charaipotra, an Indian American, and Dhonielle Clayton, an African American, grew up frustrated by the lack of diverse characters in books for young people. In 2011, these two writers joined forces to found CAKE Literary, a book packaging blank specializes in the creation and promotion of stories told from diverse perspectives for children and young adults.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • company,

    • company that

    • company

    • company, that

    ID: cabe71d4 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use and punctuation of an integrated relative clause. This choice correctly uses the relative pronoun “that” and no punctuation to create an integrated relative clause that provides essential information about the noun phrase (“a book packaging company”) that it modifies.

    Choice A is incorrect because it doesn’t use a relative pronoun to link the verb phrase beginning with “specializes” to the noun phrase that it modifies (“a book packaging company”). Choice C is incorrect because it doesn’t use a relative pronoun to link the verb phrase beginning with “specializes” to the noun phrase that it modifies (“a book packaging company”). Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the integrated relative clause beginning with “that specializes” and the noun phrase that it modifies (“a book packaging company”).

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 61160f0a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 61160f0a

    Author Madeline L’Engle, blank to create a suspenseful tone that draws the reader in, begins her novel A Wrinkle in Time with descriptions of “wraithlike shadows” and “the frenzied lashing of the wind.”

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • looked

    • looks

    • is looking

    • looking

    ID: 61160f0a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. The nonfinite present participle verb “looking” is correctly used to form a subordinate clause that describes the intent behind how L’Engle begins her novel.

    Choice A is incorrect because the finite past tense verb “looked” can’t be used in this way to form a subordinate clause. Choice B is incorrect because the finite present tense verb “looks” can’t be used in this way to form a subordinate clause. Choice C is incorrect because the finite present progressive tense verb “is looking” can’t be used in this way to form a subordinate clause.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 7b950fc2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 7b950fc2

    In 2000, Nora de Hoyos Comstock, herself an owner of a successful consulting firm, sought to increase Latina representation in corporate blank founded Las Comadres para las Americas, an international community that for over two decades has served as a resource and information network for Latina business professionals.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • settings she

    • settings, she

    • settings and she

    • settings. She

    ID: 7b950fc2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. It appropriately uses a period to mark the end of one independent clause ("In 2000…settings") and the start of another ("She founded…professionals").

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice results in a run-on sentence error. Both the clause before the blank ("In 2000…settings") and the clause after the blank ("she…professionals") are independent clauses, so they need to be separated by punctuation. Choice B is incorrect. This choice results in a comma splice error. It incorrectly joins two independent clauses with just a comma. Linking two independent clauses with a comma also requires the use of a coordinating conjunction (like for, and, nor, but, or, yet, or so). Choice C is incorrect. This choice results in a run-on sentence, an error caused when two independent clauses are joined without punctuation or appropriate conjunctions. Since both the clause before the blank ("In 2000…settings") and the clause after the blank ("she…professionals") are independent, a comma would be required in addition to the coordinating conjunction "and."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 75f49353

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 75f49353

    The Progressive Era in the United States witnessed the rise of numerous Black women’s clubs, local organizations that advocated for racial and gender equality. Among the clubs’ leaders blank Josephine St. Pierre Ruffin, founder of the Women’s Era Club of Boston.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • was

    • were

    • are

    • have been

    ID: 75f49353 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested here is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb “was” agrees in number with the singular subject “Josephine St. Pierre Ruffin.”

    Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb “were” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “Josephine St. Pierre Ruffin.” Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb “are” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “Josephine St. Pierre Ruffin.” Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb “have been” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “Josephine St. Pierre Ruffin.”

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 20a6a4ed

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 20a6a4ed

    Anthropologist Lívia Barbosa, of the Universidade Federal Fluminense in Brazil, blank food and sociability in contemporary Brazil—specifically, how foods such as cabidela (a rice and rabbit dish) and churrasco (a barbeque dish) function as central mechanisms in building social relationships, values, and identities.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • studies

    • are studying

    • have studied

    • study

    ID: 20a6a4ed Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "studies" agrees in number with the singular subject "anthropologist Lívia Barbosa."

    Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "are studying" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "anthropologist Lívia Barbosa." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "have studied" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "anthropologist Lívia Barbosa." Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb "study" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "anthropologist Lívia Barbosa."

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID a03008de

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: a03008de

    The Proto-Nilotic language, common ancestor of fifty-five African languages with similar linguistic properties, blank like all protolanguages, hypothetical: there’s no direct evidence these ancestral languages actually existed.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • is,

    • are,

    • have been,

    • were,

    ID: a03008de Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "is" agrees in number with the singular subject "the Proto-Nilotic language."

    Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "are" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "the Proto-Nilotic language." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "have been" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "the Proto-Nilotic language." Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb "were" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "the Proto-Nilotic language."

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID c88ba1b7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: c88ba1b7

    In the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries, automobiles were commonly referred to as horseless carriages after the older technology they still resembled. Known as the Brass Era, this period in automotive design is remembered for its grandeur and artistry, its vehicles blank by collectors for their ornate detailing and gleaming brass fittings.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • are highly prized

    • had been highly prized

    • highly prized

    • were highly prized

    ID: c88ba1b7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms in a sentence. The nonfinite past participle phrase "highly prized" is correctly used to form a supplementary element that modifies the main clause "this…artistry," describing memorable features of Brass Era automotive design.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Using the finite present tense verb phrase "are highly prized" creates a second main clause in the sentence, and two main clauses can’t be joined in this way with only a comma after "artistry." Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Using the finite past perfect tense verb phrase "had been highly prized" creates a second main clause in the sentence, and two main clauses can’t be joined in this way with only a comma after "artistry." Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Using the finite past tense verb phrase "were highly prized" creates a second main clause in the sentence, and two main clauses can’t be joined in this way with only a comma after "artistry."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 1b97cce9

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 1b97cce9

    Hegra is an archaeological site in present-day Saudi Arabia and was the second largest city of the Nabataean Kingdom (fourth century BCE to first century CE). Archaeologist Laila Nehmé recently traveled to Hegra to study its ancient blank into the rocky outcrops of a vast desert, these burial chambers seem to blend seamlessly with nature.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • tombs. Built

    • tombs, built

    • tombs and built

    • tombs built

    ID: 1b97cce9 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period after “tombs” is used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence (“Archaeologist...tombs”) and another (“Built...nature”).

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice C is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction “and” can’t be used in this way to join the two sentences. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences (“Archaeologist...tombs” and “Built...nature”) are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID fff4c7f4

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: fff4c7f4

    American poet Emily Dickinson wrote many of her poems on scraps of paper, but she also took steps to collect these works. From 1858 to around 1864, for example, she copied more than 800 of blank into forty homemade booklets (known as fascicles).

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • them

    • this

    • that

    • it

    ID: fff4c7f4 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The pronoun "them" agrees with the plural antecedents "poems" and "works."

    Choice B is incorrect. "This" is a singular pronoun, but its antecedents, "poems" and "works," are plural. Choice C is incorrect. "That" is a singular pronoun, but its antecedents, "poems" and "works," are plural. Choice D is incorrect. "It" is a singular pronoun, but its antecedents, "poems" and "works," are plural.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 40c3589d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 40c3589d

    Luci Tapahonso is the inaugural poet laureate of the Navajo Nation. Her book Sáanii Dahataal/The Women Are Singing—a combination of fiction and memoir, poetry and blank serves as a testament to her versatility as a writer.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • prose;

    • prose

    • prose,

    • prose—

    ID: 40c3589d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. “A combination of fiction and memoir, poetry and prose” is a nonessential supplement, so it needs to be set off from the rest of the sentence with a pair of matching punctuation marks. We already have a dash at the beginning of the supplement, so we need to add a dash at the end of the supplement to match. 

    Choice A is incorrect. This doesn’t complete the text in a way that conforms to the conventions of Standard English. “A combination of fiction and memoir, poetry and prose” is a nonessential supplement, so it needs to be set off from the rest of the sentence with a pair of matching punctuation marks. We already have a dash at the beginning of the supplement, so we need to add a dash at the end of the supplement to match. Choice B is incorrect. This doesn’t complete the text in a way that conforms to the conventions of Standard English. “A combination of fiction and memoir, poetry and prose” is a nonessential supplement, so it needs to be set off from the rest of the sentence with a pair of matching punctuation marks. We already have a dash at the beginning of the supplement, so we need to add a dash at the end of the supplement to match. Choice C is incorrect. This doesn’t complete the text in a way that conforms to the conventions of Standard English. “A combination of fiction and memoir, poetry and prose” is a nonessential supplement, so it needs to be set off from the rest of the sentence with a pair of matching punctuation marks. We already have a dash at the beginning of the supplement, so we need to add a dash at the end of the supplement to match. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID b15724fc

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: b15724fc

    American writer Edwidge Danticat, who emigrated from Haiti in 1981, has won acclaim for her powerful short stories, novels, and blank her lyrical yet unflinching depictions of her native country’s turbulent history, writer Robert Antoni has compared Danticat to Nobel Prize–winning novelist Toni Morrison.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English? 

    • essays, praising

    • essays and praising

    • essays praising

    • essays. Praising

    ID: b15724fc Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period after “essays” is used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence (“American…essays”) and another (“praising…Morrison”). The participial phrase beginning with “Praising” modifies the subject of the second sentence, “writer Robert Antoni.”

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice B is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction “and” can’t be used in this way to join sentences. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences (“American…essays” and “Praising…Morrison”) are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID c5d39bc7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: c5d39bc7

    Scientists believe that, unlike most other species of barnacle, turtle barnacles (Chelonibia testudinari) can dissolve the cement-like secretions they use to attach blank to a sea turtle shell, enabling the barnacles to move short distances across the shell’s surface.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • it

    • themselves

    •  them

    • itself

    ID: c5d39bc7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun-antecedent agreement. The plural reflexive pronoun “themselves” agrees in number with the plural antecedent “turtle barnacles,” correctly indicating what is attached to a sea turtle shell.  

    Choice A is incorrect because the singular pronoun “it” doesn’t agree in number with the plural antecedent “turtle barnacles.” Choice C is incorrect because it results in an unclear and confusing sentence. In this context, it’s unclear what the plural pronoun “them” refers to. Choice D is incorrect because the singular reflexive pronoun “itself” doesn’t agree in number with the plural antecedent “turtle barnacles.”

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID e2759b92

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: e2759b92

    Occupying a significant part of modern-day Nigeria, the Kingdom of Benin was one of the major powers in West Africa between the thirteenth and nineteenth centuries. It blank ruled by Oba Ewuare I from 1440 to 1473.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • is

    • will be

    • has been

    • was

    ID: e2759b92 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense in a sentence. In this choice, the past tense verb “was ruled” correctly indicates that Oba Ewuare I ruled the Kingdom of Benin in the distant past (from 1440 to 1473). This past tense verb choice is consistent with the other past tense verb (“was”) used to describe the Kingdom of Benin.

    Choice A is incorrect because the present tense verb “is ruled” doesn’t indicate that Oba Ewuare I ruled the Kingdom of Benin in the distant past. Choice B is incorrect because the future tense verb “will be ruled” doesn’t indicate that Oba Ewuare I ruled the Kingdom of Benin in the distant past. Choice C is incorrect because the present perfect tense verb “has been ruled” doesn’t indicate that Oba Ewuare I ruled the Kingdom of Benin in the distant past.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID a872c60a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: a872c60a

    The pedagogy of the Suzuki method is rooted in several central blank by Japanese violinist Shinichi Suzuki, who sought to parallel the linguistic learning environment, the method emphasizes playing instruments from a very young age and teaches students as young as three to play simple classical pieces such as “March in G.”

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • tenets. Developed

    • tenets developed

    • tenets that, developed

    • tenets, developed

    ID: a872c60a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. This choice correctly uses a period to mark the boundary between one sentence ("The pedagogy...tenets") and another ("Developed...‘March in G’"). The participial phrase "developed by Japanese violinist Shinichi Suzuki" modifies the subject of the next sentence, "the method."

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences ("The pedagogy...tenets" and "Developed...‘March in G’") are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice C is incorrect because it creates a confusing and illogical sentence structure. The relative pronoun "that" followed by a comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 615f001e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 615f001e

    Consider the mechanics of the pinhole camera: light passes through a small hole, resulting in a focused projected image. A ray diagram reveals how this blank the hole’s small size restricts light to a single ray, all light passing through the hole can only arrive at a single destination, eliminating diffraction and ensuring a clear image.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • works because

    • works. Because

    • works, it’s because

    • works: it’s because

    ID: 615f001e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period is used to correctly mark the boundary between one sentence ("A ray...works") and another ("Because...image").

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two sentences ("A ray…works" and "Because…image") are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Since the contraction "it’s" creates a main clause, the comma after "single ray" can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between two main clauses ("it’s...ray" and "all light…image").

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 594b4a94

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 594b4a94

    The field of geological oceanography owes much to American blank Marie Tharp, a pioneering oceanographic cartographer whose detailed topographical maps of the ocean floor and its multiple rift valleys helped garner acceptance for the theories of plate tectonics and continental drift.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • geologist,

    • geologist

    • geologist;

    • geologist:

    ID: 594b4a94 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. “Marie tharp” is essential information that completes the first clause — the first clause doesn’t function without it. So we don’t want to separate it with punctuation. 

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice creates a punctuation error. “The field of geological oceanography owes much to American geologist” is unclear: which geologist are we talking about? We need the “Marie Tharp” for clarity, which means it’s essential information and should not be separated by a comma. Choice C is incorrect. This choice creates a punctuation error. “The field of geological oceanography owes much to American geologist” is unclear: which geologist are we talking about? We need the “Marie Tharp” for clarity, which means it’s essential information and should not be separated by a semicolon. Choice D is incorrect. This choice creates a punctuation error. “The field of geological oceanography owes much to American geologist” is unclear: which geologist are we talking about? We need the “Marie Tharp” for clarity, which means it’s essential information and should not be separated by a colon. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 5ad2a12c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 5ad2a12c

    The First Folio, published in 1623, is the first collection of William Shakespeare’s plays. The collection blank 18 plays that might otherwise have been lost, such as Julius Caesar and Macbeth.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • to be including

    • including

    • to include

    • includes

    ID: 5ad2a12c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. A main clause requires a finite (tensed) verb to perform the action of the subject (in this case, "the collection"), and this choice supplies the finite present tense verb "includes" to indicate what is in the collection.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite to-infinitive "to be including" doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice B is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite participle "including" doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite to-infinitive "to include" doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 02871a0d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 02871a0d

    In her large-scale sculpture Casa-Isla, artist Edra Soto included references to her childhood in Puerto Rico. For example, the sculpture’s steel panels have a crisscrossing pattern inspired by the iron gates blank

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Soto would see in her neighborhood?

    • Soto would see in her neighborhood.

    • would Soto see in her neighborhood.

    • would Soto see in her neighborhood?

    ID: 02871a0d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is end-of-sentence punctuation. This choice correctly uses a period to punctuate a declarative sentence ("For example...neighborhood").

    Choice A is incorrect. It’s unconventional to use a question mark in this way to punctuate a declarative sentence. Choice C is incorrect. The structure requires a declarative clause at the end of the sentence that states where Soto saw the steel panels, not an incomplete interrogative clause that asks a direct question, such as "would Soto see in her neighborhood." Choice D is incorrect. The structure requires a period and a declarative clause at the end of the sentence that states where Soto saw the steel panels, not an incomplete interrogative clause asking a direct question, such as "would Soto see in her neighborhood?"

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 2fd05c15

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 2fd05c15

    In crafting her fantasy fiction, Nigerian-born British author Helen Oyeyemi has drawn inspiration from the classic nineteenth-century fairy tales of the Brothers Grimm. Her 2014 novel Boy, Snow, Bird, for instance, is a complex retelling of the story of Snow White, while her 2019 novel blank offers a delicious twist on the classic tale of Hansel and Gretel.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • ­­Gingerbread—

    • ­­Gingerbread,

    • Gingerbread

    • ­­Gingerbread:

    ID: 2fd05c15 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a subject and a verb. When, as in this case, a subject (“her 2019 novel Gingerbread”) is immediately followed by a verb (“offers”), no punctuation is needed.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 1448f43f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 1448f43f

    Unsupervised machine learning is an approach that computer scientists like Nina Miolane use to engineer artificial intelligence technologies. It involves training computer algorithms to organize unlabeled data sets. Multitask learning is another approach. blank involves training computer models to perform multiple tasks at the same time.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Those

    • They

    • It

    • Some

    ID: 1448f43f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun-antecedent agreement. The singular pronoun "it" agrees in number with the singular antecedent "multitask learning" and clearly indicates what multitask learning involves.

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural demonstrative pronoun "those" doesn’t agree in number with the singular antecedent "multitask learning." Choice B is incorrect because the plural pronoun "they" doesn’t agree in number with the singular antecedent "multitask learning." Choice D is incorrect because the indefinite pronoun "some" is ambiguous in this context; the resulting sentence leaves unclear what exactly "involves training computer models."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 175df826

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 175df826

    In the 2011 documentary The Barber of Birmingham, civil rights activist James Armstrong recounts how his barbershop in Birmingham, Alabama, blank as a political hub for members of the Black community during the 1950s.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • serving

    • having served

    • served

    • to serve

    ID: 175df826 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. Relative clauses, such as the one beginning with "how," require a finite (tensed) verb, a verb that can function as the main verb of a clause. This choice correctly supplies the clause with the finite past tense verb "served."

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite participle "serving" doesn’t supply the clause with a finite verb. Choice B is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite participle "having served" doesn’t supply the clause with a finite verb. Choice D is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite to-infinitive "to serve" doesn’t supply the clause with a finite verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID bce9910f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: bce9910f

    Light of Truth is a bronze and marble sculpture by artist Richard Hunt. It honors civil rights icon Ida B. Wells. The sculpture blank in a tree-lined plaza in Chicago, just a few blocks from where Wells lived.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • are standing

    • have been standing

    • stands

    • were standing

    ID: bce9910f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "stands" agrees in number with the singular subject "sculpture."

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb "are standing" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "sculpture." Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "have been standing" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "sculpture." Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb "were standing" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "sculpture."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 97e7bedc

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 97e7bedc

    Oyster mushrooms typically get their nutrients from the damp logs on which they grow, but the fungi are also carnivorous, with the ability to kill and consume microscopic worms known as nematodes. As researcher Yen-Ping Hsueh has shown, the mushrooms release a toxin that is deadly to nematodes that blank in contact with it.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • has come

    • comes

    • is coming

    • come

    ID: 97e7bedc Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The plural verb "come" agrees in number with the plural subject "nematodes."

    Choice A is incorrect because the singular verb "has come" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "nematodes." Choice B is incorrect because the singular verb "comes" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "nematodes." Choice C is incorrect because the singular verb "is coming" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "nematodes."

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID c8540a5b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: c8540a5b

    Swedish scientists Eva Engvall and Peter Perlmann developed a method for measuring the concentration of different proteins in a biological sample. Their blank ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay), is used to detect and measure proteins that indicate the presence of certain diseases.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • method (called

    • method—called

    • method, called

    • method called

    ID: c8540a5b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of a supplementary element within a sentence. The comma after “method” pairs with the comma after the closing parenthesis to separate the supplementary element “called ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)” from the rest of the sentence. This supplementary element functions to identify the name of Engvall and Perlmann’s method, and the pair of commas indicates that this element could be removed without affecting the grammatical coherence of the sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because an opening parenthesis can’t be paired with a comma to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice B is incorrect because a dash can’t be paired with a comma to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID e15c50b2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: e15c50b2

    A standard Argo float, a type of autonomous robot, measures temperature and salinity in the upper regions of ice-free oceans. More advanced floats can measure a wider range of blank and monitor seasonal ice zones.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • variables: travel to greater depths

    • variables, travel to greater depths,

    • variables travel to greater depths,

    • variables, travel to greater depths;

    ID: e15c50b2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of items in a series. The comma after “variables” is used conventionally to separate the first and second items in the series, and the comma after “depths” is used conventionally to separate the second and third items.

    Choice A is incorrect because a colon can’t be used in this way to separate items in a simple series. Choice C is incorrect because a comma is needed after “variables” to separate the first and second items in the series. Choice D is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to separate items in a simple series.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 988c78eb

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 988c78eb

    Former First Lady of the United States Eleanor Roosevelt and Indian activist and educator Hansa Mehta were instrumental in drafting the United Nations’ Universal Declaration of Human Rights, a document that blank the basic freedoms to which all people are entitled.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • have outlined

    • were outlining

    • outlines

    • outline

    ID: 988c78eb Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb “outlines” agrees in number with the singular subject “document.”

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb “have outlined” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “document.” Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb “were outlining” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “document.” Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb “outline” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “document.” 

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 96499989

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 96499989

    Fans of science fiction will blank multiple references to classic sci-fi stories in Janelle Monáe’s song lyrics, including her recurring nods to the plot of the 1927 sci-fi film Metropolis.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • appreciate the

    • appreciate. The

    • appreciate, the

    • appreciate: the

    ID: 96499989 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested here is punctuation between a verb and object. No punctuation is needed between the verb ("appreciate") and its object ("the multiple references..."). The object helps complete the idea of the verb—in this case, it explains what fans of science fiction will appreciate—and any punctuation between the two results in an ungrammatical sentence.

    Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb and its object. Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb and its object. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb and its object.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID fdb16e20

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: fdb16e20

    Quantum particles of light—photons—provide an unhackable means of transmitting encryption keys over networks, as attempts to observe particles in quantum states will invariably alter the particles blank dismantle any information they transmit.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • and in the process,

    • and, in the process,

    • and in the process—

    • and, in the process

    ID: fdb16e20 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. This choice uses paired punctuation in the form of two commas to set off the nonessential phrase "in the process."

    Choice A is incorrect. The phrase "in the process" is a nonessential element and needs to be set off with paired punctuation. We need a comma after "and" to match the one after "process." Choice C is incorrect. The phrase "in the process" is a nonessential element and needs to be set off with paired punctuation, so we would need a dash after "and" to match the one following "process." Choice D is incorrect. The phrase "in the process" is a nonessential element and needs to be set off with paired punctuation. We would need a comma after "process" to match the one following "and."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 7e37affc

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 7e37affc

    That the geographic center of North America lay in the state of North Dakota was conceded by all blank establishing its precise coordinates proved more divisive.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • involved:

    • involved,

    • involved

    • involved;

    ID: 7e37affc Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within a sentence. This choice uses a semicolon in a conventional way to join the first main clause ("That the...involved") and the second main clause ("establishing...divisive"). Further, the semicolon is the most appropriate choice when joining two separate, parallel statements, such as here, where the information following the semicolon contrasts with the information before.

    Choice A is incorrect because placing a colon after "involved" illogically indicates that the information in the second main clause (the precise location was the subject of disagreement) explains or amplifies the information in the previous main clause (the general location was agreed upon by all). Instead, the information in the second clause contrasts with the previous information. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 28166dc6

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 28166dc6

    In knot theory (the mathematical study of curved, closed loops), knots are characterized by their crossing numbers—that is, the number of times the knotted thread crosses over itself. The trefoil knot and the figure-eight knot, each with a crossing number below five, blank among the simplest possible knots with the fewest number of crossings.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • was

    • are

    • has been

    • is

    ID: 28166dc6 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The plural verb "are" agrees in number with the plural compound subject "the trefoil knot and the figure-eight knot." The two types of knots joined by "and" function as a plural subject and thus require a plural verb.

    Choice A is incorrect because the singular verb "was" doesn’t agree in number with the plural compound subject "the trefoil knot and the figure-eight knot." Choice C is incorrect because the singular verb "has been" doesn’t agree in number with the plural compound subject "the trefoil knot and the figure-eight knot." Choice D is incorrect because the singular verb "is" doesn’t agree in number with the plural compound subject "the trefoil knot and the figure-eight knot."

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 4565a53c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 4565a53c

    Lucía Michel of the University of Chile observed that alkaline soils contain an insoluble form of iron that blueberry plants cannot absorb, thus inhibiting blueberry growth. If these plants were grown in alkaline soil alongside grasses that aid in iron solubilization, blank Michel was determined to find out.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • could the blueberries thrive. 

    • the blueberries could thrive. 

    • the blueberries could thrive?

    • could the blueberries thrive?

    ID: 4565a53c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is end-of-sentence punctuation. This choice correctly uses a question mark to punctuate the interrogative clause “could the blueberries thrive,” which asks a direct question at the end of the sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because a period can’t be used in this way to punctuate an interrogative clause, such as “could the blueberries thrive,” at the end of a sentence. Choice B is incorrect because the context requires an interrogative clause. The declarative clause “the blueberries could thrive” incorrectly indicates that it was known that the blueberries could thrive in alkaline soil, whereas Michel had yet to find this out. Choice C is incorrect because a question mark can’t be used in this way to punctuate a declarative clause, such as “the blueberries could thrive,” at the end of a sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID f40b447c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: f40b447c

    Featuring jagged peaks of black ink surrounded by hazy swirls of blue and green paint, Zhang Daqian’s 1983 painting Panorama of Mount Lu is inspired by the tradition of qinglü shanshui, a type of Chinese landscape painting blank by the use of blue and green hues to depict ethereal, otherworldly landscapes. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • has been characterized

    • will be characterized

    • characterized

    • is characterized

    ID: f40b447c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. The nonfinite past participle "characterized" is correctly used within a supplementary element that modifies the main clause "Zhang...shanshui," defining qinglü shanshui and explaining some of its identifying traits.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Using the finite present perfect tense verb "has been characterized" creates a second main clause in the sentence, and the two main clauses can’t be joined in this way by only the comma before "a type." Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Using the finite future tense verb "will be characterized" creates a second main clause in the sentence, and the two main clauses can’t be joined in this way by only the comma before "a type." Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Using the finite present tense verb "is characterized" creates a second main clause in the sentence, and the two main clauses can’t be joined in this way by only the comma before "a type."

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 7a0d9031

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 7a0d9031

    In many of her landscape paintings from the 1970s and 1980s, Lebanese American artist Etel Adnan worked to capture the essence of California’s fog-shrouded Mount Tamalpais region through abstraction, using splotches of color to represent the area’s features. Interestingly, the triangle representing the mountain itself blank among the few defined figures in her paintings.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • are

    • have been 

    • were

    • is

    ID: 7a0d9031 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject–verb agreement. The singular verb “is” agrees in number with the singular subject “the triangle.”

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb “are” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “the triangle.” Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb “have been” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “the triangle.” Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb “were” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “the triangle.”

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 91fbd59d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 91fbd59d

    Award-winning cinematographer James Wong Howe was known for his innovative filming techniques. While filming a boxing match for the movie Body and Soul blank Howe had a handheld camera operator wear roller skates. This allowed the operator to move smoothly around actors in a boxing ring, creating an immersive experience for viewers.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • (1947), and

    • (1947),

    • (1947) and

    • (1947)

    ID: 91fbd59d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a supplementary element and a main clause. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the supplementary phrase (“While...1947”), which indicates when the action occurred, and the main clause (“Howe had a handheld camera operator wear roller skates”).

    Choice A is incorrect because a comma paired with the conjunction “and” can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between the supplementary element (“While…1947”) and the main clause (“Howe…skates”). Choice C is incorrect because the conjunction “and” can’t be used in this way to join the supplementary element (“While…1947”) and the main clause (“Howe…skates”). Choice D is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the supplementary element and the main clause with appropriate punctuation.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID d46ac7e7

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: d46ac7e7

    A second-generation Japanese American, Wataru Misaka blank in World War II (1941-45) and won two amateur national basketball championships at the University of Utah when he joined the New York Knicks for the 1947-48 season, becoming the first non-white basketball player in the US’s top professional league.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • already served

    • was already serving

    • already serves

    • had already served

    ID: d46ac7e7 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. Misaka served in World War II before he joined the New York Knicks in 1947. To show that a past occurrence took place before another past occurrence, we need to use “had” + the past tense form of the verb. This is called the past perfect tense.

    Choice A is incorrect. Misaka served in World War II before he joined the Knicks. Both events are in the past, but his service in World War II happened earlier, so we need a verb that makes it clear that his service (and the two national championships) had ended by the time he joined the Knicks. Choice B is incorrect. “Was already serving” forms the continuous past tense, which we use when we’re showing a past action that was ongoing. Misaka served in World War II before he joined the Knicks. Both events are in the past, but they’re not happening at the same time, so we shouldn’t use the continuous past tense here. Choice C is incorrect. Misaka served in World War II in the past, so we shouldn’t use the present tense “serves.”

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID b1e8b87f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: b1e8b87f

    Winding through the ice atop Norway’s Jotunheim Mountains is the Lendbreen pass, an ancient route that was used by hunters, farmers, traders, and travelers in the Middle Ages before eventually falling into disuse. Recently, archeologists have blank knives, horseshoes, wool tunics, and thousands of other artifacts from the icy pass.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • unearthed:

    • unearthed,

    • unearthed—

    • unearthed

    ID: b1e8b87f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. No punctuation should separate the verb "unearthed" and its objects (i.e, what was "unearthed"): "knives, horseshoes, wool tunics, and thousands of other artifacts."

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice creates a punctuation error, separating the verb "unearthed" from its objects (i.e, what was "unearthed") with a colon. Choice B is incorrect. This choice creates a punctuation error, separating the verb "unearthed" from its objects (i.e, what was "unearthed") with a comma. Choice C is incorrect. This choice creates a punctuation error, separating the verb "unearthed" from its objects (i.e, what was "unearthed") with a dash.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 2b6e1c06

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 2b6e1c06

    A government body officially known as the Althing, blank

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • the world’s oldest parliaments include one which first met in 930 CE, Iceland’s.

    • Iceland’s parliament is one of the oldest in the world, first meeting in 930 CE.

    • the first meeting of one of the oldest parliaments in the world, Iceland’s, was in 930 CE.

    • 930 CE was the year when Iceland’s parliament, one of the oldest parliaments in the world, first met.

    ID: 2b6e1c06 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice makes the noun phrase "Iceland’s parliament" the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase "a government body officially known as the Althing." In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that Iceland’s parliament—and not another noun in the sentence—is the government body known as the Althing.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase "the world’s oldest parliaments" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the world’s oldest parliaments are a government body known as the Althing. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase "the first meeting" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the first meeting of Iceland’s parliament was a government body known as the Althing. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase "930 CE" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the year 930 CE is a government body known as the Althing.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 3595a991

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 3595a991

    In 1930, Japanese American artist Chiura Obata depicted the natural beauty of Yosemite National Park in two memorable woodcuts: Evening at Carl Inn and Lake Basin in the High Sierra. In 2019, blank exhibited alongside 150 of Obata’s other works in a single-artist show at the Smithsonian American Art Museum.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • it was

    • they were

    • this was

    • some were

    ID: 3595a991 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun–antecedent agreement. The plural pronoun “they” agrees in number with the plural antecedent “woodcuts” and clearly identifies what was exhibited at the Smithsonian American Art Museum.

    Choice A is incorrect because the singular pronoun “it” doesn’t agree in number with the plural antecedent “woodcuts.” Choice C is incorrect because the singular pronoun “this” doesn’t agree in number with the plural antecedent “woodcuts.” Choice D is incorrect because the plural pronoun “some” is illogical in this context (referring to “some” of two woodcuts).

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID f45ae404

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: f45ae404

    The city of Amsterdam partnered with consultants to develop Public Eye—an ethical AI-powered crowd-monitoring blank video streamed from cameras in heavily touristed areas, the AI algorithm determines crowd sizes without, in the interest of protecting individuals’ privacy, retaining the footage.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    •  system—analyzing

    • system, analyzing

    • system. Analyzing

    • system analyzing

    ID: f45ae404 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period is used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence ("The city…system") and another ("Analyzing…footage"). The participial phrase beginning with "analyzing" modifies the subject of the second sentence, "the AI algorithm."

    Choice A is incorrect. Placing a dash before "analyzing" creates a confusing and ambiguous modifying element ("analyzing...areas") and a comma splice between "areas" and "the AI algorithm." (A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences.) Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences ("The city…system" and "analyzing…footage") are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 1ee4485c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 1ee4485c

    Journalists have dubbed Gil Scott-Heron the “godfather of rap,” a title that has appeared in hundreds of articles about him since the 1990s. Scott-Heron himself resisted the godfather blank feeling that it didn’t encapsulate his devotion to the broader African American blues music tradition as well as “bluesologist,” the moniker he preferred.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • nickname, however

    • nickname, however;

    • nickname, however,

    • nickname; however,

    ID: 1ee4485c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between a main clause and two supplementary elements. In this choice, the commas after “nickname” and “however” are correctly used to separate the supplementary adverb “however” from the main clause (“Scott-Heron…nickname”) on one side and the supplementary participial phrase (“feeling…bluesologist”) on the other.

    Choice A is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the supplementary adverb “however” and the supplementary phrase (“feeling…bluesologist”). Choice B is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join the supplementary adverb “however” and the supplementary phrase (“feeling…bluesologist”). Choice D is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join the main clause (“Scott-Heron…nickname”) and the supplementary word and phrase (“however” and “feeling…bluesologist”). Moreover, placing the semicolon after “nickname” illogically signals that the following information (Scott-Heron’s feeling that the nickname didn’t encapsulate his devotion to the blues tradition) is contrary to the information in the previous clause (Scott-Heron’s resistance to the nickname).

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID e31b0056

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: e31b0056

    Mary Madden of Ohio blank a fierce advocate of women’s voting rights in the late 1800s. The dedication of Madden and her fellow activists was rewarded in 1920, when the Nineteenth Amendment to the US Constitution guaranteed American women the right to vote.  

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • are

    • was

    • have been

    • were

    ID: e31b0056 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "was" agrees in number with the singular subject "Mary Madden of Ohio."

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb "are" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "Mary Madden of Ohio." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "have been" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "Mary Madden of Ohio." Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb "were" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "Mary Madden of Ohio."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 31362d2d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 31362d2d

    If simple sugars such as ribose and glycolaldehyde blank Earth from elsewhere and survived impact—a possibility astrophysicist Nicolle Zellner outlined in a 2020 study—the sugars could have reacted with other molecules that were already present on the planet to form the nucleotides that are the structural components of RNA and DNA.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • reach

    • had reached

    • will reach

    • are reaching

    ID: 31362d2d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense. In this choice, the past perfect verb “had reached” is used correctly to describe a past action that was completed before another action in the past. Specifically, in this hypothetical scenario about the origins of RNA and DNA on Earth, the simple sugars had to have reached Earth before they could react with other molecules on the planet.

    Choice A is incorrect because the present tense verb “reach” doesn’t indicate that the simple sugars reached Earth before reacting with other molecules on the planet. Choice C is incorrect because the future tense verb “will reach” doesn’t indicate that the simple sugars reached Earth before reacting with other molecules on the planet. Choice D is incorrect because the present progressive verb “are reaching” doesn’t indicate that the simple sugars reached Earth before reacting with other molecules on the planet.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 667a0587

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 667a0587

    In early 1700s England, it was legal for shops to sell prints of artists’ engravings without the artists’ permission. This changed in 1735 with the passage of the Engravers’ Copyright blank gave engravers control over the distribution and sale of all prints made from their designs.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Act, which

    • Act; which

    • Act. Which

    • Act 

    ID: 667a0587 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation between a main clause and a supplementary element. In this choice, the comma is used correctly to mark the boundary between the main clause ("This...Act") and the supplementary relative clause ("which...designs") that provides additional information about the Engravers’ Copyright Act.

    Choice B is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between a main clause and a supplementary relative clause. A semicolon is conventionally used to join two main clauses, and "which...designs" isn’t a main clause. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment. Choice D is incorrect. Joining the main clause and the additional information about the Engravers’ Copyright Act ("gave...designs") without the comma and relative pronoun "which" results in a confusing and ungrammatical sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID d2cf0e11

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: d2cf0e11

    Inventor John Friedman created a prototype of the first flexible straw by inserting a screw into a paper straw and, using dental floss, binding the straw tightly around the blank When the floss and screw were removed, the resulting corrugations in the paper allowed the straw to bend easily over the edge of a glass.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • screw’s thread’s.

    • screws’ threads.

    • screw’s threads.

    • screws threads’.

    ID: d2cf0e11 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of plural and possessive nouns. The singular possessive noun “screw’s” and the plural noun “threads” correctly indicate that there is only one screw and it has multiple threads.

    Choice A is incorrect because the context requires the plural noun “threads,” not the singular possessive noun “thread’s.” Choice B is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive noun “screw’s,” not the plural possessive noun “screws’.” Choice D is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive noun “screw’s” and the plural noun “threads,” not the plural noun “screws” or the plural possessive noun “threads.’”

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 1d971f75

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 1d971f75

    Photographer Ansel Adams’s landscape portraits are iconic pieces of American art. However, many of the blank of landscapes were intended not as art but as marketing; a concessions company at Yosemite National Park had hired Adams to take pictures of the park for restaurant menus and brochures.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • photographer’s early photo’s

    • photographers early photo’s

    • photographer’s early photos

    • photographers early photos

    ID: 1d971f75 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. There’s only one photographer (Adams), and the photos are his, so the singular possessive "photographer’s" is correct. There’s more than one photo, and nothing belongs to the photos, so the simple plural "photos" is correct.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice uses the singular possessive "photo’s," which isn’t correct. There’s more than one photo, and they don’t possess anything, so the noun should be the simple plural "photos." Choice B is incorrect. This choice uses the simple plural "photographers" and the singular possessive "photo’s," which aren’t correct. There’s only one photographer (Adams) and there’s more than one photo. Choice D is incorrect. This choice uses the simple plural "photographers," which isn’t correct. There’s only one photographer (Adams).

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 2bca654a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 2bca654a

    Forming extensive networks via mycorrhizal association—that is, a symbiotic relationship between plants and fungi—blank

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • it is the entanglement of pine trees’ roots and the fungus Tricholoma matsutake’s fungal hyphae that makes nutrient transport possible.

    • the transport of nutrients is possible through the entanglement of pine trees’ roots and the fungus Tricholoma matsutake’s fungal hyphae.

    • nutrients can be transported through the entanglement of pine trees’ roots and the fungus Tricholoma matsutake’s fungal hyphae.

    • pine trees and the fungus Tricholoma matsutake can transport nutrients through their entangled tree roots and fungal hyphae.

    ID: 2bca654a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice makes the noun phrase "pine trees and the fungus Tricholoma matsutake" the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase "forming…association." In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that the pine trees and fungus—and not another noun in the sentence—are forming the networks.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the it-cleft "it is" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically and confusingly suggests that "it" is forming extensive networks. Furthermore, it’s not conventional to follow a long introductory modifying element with an it-cleft construction because it results in an unnecessarily wordy and confusing sentence, such as this. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of "the transport of nutrients" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the transport of nutrients is forming extensive networks. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of "nutrients" immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that nutrients are forming extensive networks.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID f40ca576

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: f40ca576

    Each year in the fall, when the weather starts to cool in the northern hemisphere, millions of North American monarch butterflies journey south. Searching for food and warmer habitats, they blank thousands of miles—from as far north as Canada all the way down to Mexico—on this annual migration.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • flew

    • were flying

    • had flown

    • fly

    ID: f40ca576 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense. In this choice, the present tense verb “fly” is consistent with the other present tense verb ( “journey”) used to describe the butterflies’ yearly migration. Together, these simple present tense verbs correctly indicate that the migration is a current, yearly occurrence.

    Choice A is incorrect. The simple past tense verb “flew” isn’t consistent with the other present tense verb used to describe the butterflies’ yearly migration. Choice B is incorrect. The past progressive tense verb “were flying” isn’t consistent with the other present tense verb used to describe the butterflies’ yearly migration. Choice C is incorrect. The past perfect tense verb “had flown” isn’t consistent with the other present tense verb used to describe the butterflies’ yearly migration.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID c101fc44

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: c101fc44

    How do scientists determine what foods were eaten by extinct hominins such as Neanderthals? In the past, researchers were limited to studying the marks found on the fossilized teeth of skeletons, but in 2017 a team led by Laura Weyrich of the Australian Centre for Ancient DNA tried something blank the DNA found in Neanderthals’ fossilized dental plaque.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • new: sequencing

    • new; sequencing

    • new, sequencing:

    • new. Sequencing

    ID: c101fc44 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. “A team…tried something new” is an independent clause leading to an explanation of what the new thing was. A colon can only be used at the end of an independent clause, and typically introduces further explanation that expands upon the first clause, which makes a colon the perfect choice here.

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice results in a punctuation error. “Sequencing…dental plaque” can’t stand on its own as a sentence, and so it can’t be linked to the independent clause “a team…tried something new” with a semicolon. Only two independent clauses can be connected in this way. Choice C is incorrect. This choice results in a punctuation error. If “sequencing” is included in the first clause, it can no longer stand on its own as a complete idea. Since a colon can only come at the end of an independent clause, using one in this way creates an error. Choice D is incorrect. This choice results in a sentence fragment. “Sequencing…dental plaque” can’t stand on its own as a sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 0bcb4417

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 0bcb4417

    Oglala Lakota poet Layli Long Soldier’s star quilt poems offer an unusually open-ended reading experience. With blank eight panels of text stitched together in the shape of a traditional eight-pointed Lakota star quilt, the poems present viewers with a seemingly infinite number of ways to read them.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • their

    • it’s

    • they’re

    • its

    ID: 0bcb4417 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of possessive determiners. The plural possessive determiner "their" agrees in number with the plural noun "the poems," thus indicating that the poems had eight panels of text stitched together in the shape of a traditional eight-pointed Lakota star quilt.

    Choice B is incorrect because "it’s" is the contraction for "it is" or "it has," not a possessive determiner. Choice C is incorrect because "they’re" is the contraction for "they are," not a possessive determiner. Choice D is incorrect because the singular possessive determiner "its" doesn’t agree in number with the plural noun "the poems."

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID dddfa043

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: dddfa043

    Before the Erie Canal was completed in 1825, transporting goods by wagon between New York City and the Midwest took up to forty-five days and cost one hundred dollars per ton. By linking the Hudson River to Lake blank canal reduced transport time to nine days and cut costs to six dollars per ton.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Erie; the

    • Erie (the

    • Erie, the

    • Erie: the

    ID: dddfa043 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a supplementary phrase and a main clause. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the introductory supplementary phrase (“By linking the Hudson River to Lake Erie”), which identifies how the canal reduced transport time, and the main clause (“the canal reduced transport time to nine days and cut costs to six dollars per ton”).

    Choice A is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between a supplementary phrase (“By…Erie”) and the main clause (“the canal...ton”). Choice B is incorrect because an open parenthesis can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between a supplementary phrase (“By…Erie”) and the main clause (“the canal...ton”). Choice D is incorrect because a colon can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between an introductory supplementary phrase (“By…Erie”) and the main clause (“the canal...ton”).

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID be37d4ae

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: be37d4ae

    During the English neoclassical period (1660–1789), many writers imitated the epic poetry and satires of ancient Greece and Rome. They were not the first in England to adopt the literary modes of classical blank some of the most prominent figures of the earlier Renaissance period were also influenced by ancient Greek and Roman literature.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • antiquity, however

    • antiquity, however,

    • antiquity, however;

    • antiquity; however,

    ID: be37d4ae Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of a supplementary phrase following a clause. This choice uses a comma to separate the supplementary adverb phrase "however" from the independent clause it modifies ("They...antiquity") and uses a semicolon to join the first independent clause ("They...antiquity") and the second independent clause ("some...literature"). Further, placing the semicolon after "however" indicates that the information in the clause that this is part of (that neoclassical writers were not the first to adopt classical literary modes) is contrary to what might be assumed from the information in the previous sentence (that the neoclassical writers were unique in imitating classical epic poetry and satires).

    Choice A is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary after "however" between the two independent clauses with appropriate punctuation. Choice B is incorrect because the comma after "however" can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between the two independent clauses. Choice D is incorrect because placing the semicolon after "antiquity" illogically indicates that the information in the clause that this is part of (that prominent Renaissance figures were also influenced by classical literature) is contrary to the information in the previous clause (that neoclassical writers were not the first to adopt classical literary modes).

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 94de423a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 94de423a

    In a rural area along the border between Oklahoma and Texas, amateur astronomers gather each year to observe the night sky at the Okie-Tex Star Party. Like most star parties, Okie-Tex takes place in an area with low light pollution, blank dark skies and ideal stargazing conditions.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • ensuring

    • this will ensure

    • ensures

    • it ensures

    ID: 94de423a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. The nonfinite present participle "ensuring" is correctly used to form a supplementary element that modifies the main clause "Okie-Tex takes place in an area with low light pollution," describing the viewing conditions of the star party.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. The pronoun "this" and the finite future tense verb "will ensure" would add an additional main clause to this sentence, and the comma after "pollution" can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Choice C is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite present tense verb "ensures" can’t be used in this way to form a supplementary element to modify the main clause. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. The pronoun "it" and the finite present tense verb "ensures" would add an additional main clause to this sentence, and the comma after "pollution" can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID c8607bdf

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: c8607bdf

    “Praise Song for the Day,” Elizabeth Alexander’s 2009 inaugural poem, asserts that “We cross dirt roads and highways…to see what’s on the other side.” Alexander’s use of “we” blank Americans’ collective efforts and shared desire to seek new opportunity.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • evokes

    • are evoking

    • have evoked

    • evoke

    ID: c8607bdf Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "evokes" agrees in number with the singular subject "Alexander’s use."

    Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "are evoking" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "Alexander’s use." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "have evoked" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "Alexander’s use." Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb "evoke" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "Alexander’s use."

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID b6de636f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: b6de636f

    At 1,377 meters, the Tsing Ma Bridge in China is one of the longest suspension bridges in the blank the Golden Gate Bridge in the United States, at 1,280 meters, is even longer.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • world but

    • world, but,

    • world,

    • world, but

    ID: b6de636f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma and the coordinating conjunction "but" to join the first main clause ("At...world") and the second main clause ("the...longer").

    Choice A is incorrect because when coordinating two main clauses such as these, it’s conventional to use a comma before the coordinating conjunction. Choice B is incorrect because a comma isn’t needed after the conjunction "but." Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID c15069eb

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: c15069eb

    Latin America is known to have dozens, if not hundreds, of popular dance forms. Only five of these dances are included in international ballroom dance blank rumba, samba, cha-cha-cha, paso doble, and jive—the last of which is grouped with the other Latin dances despite not having Latin roots.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • competitions, however:

    • competitions, however,

    • competitions, however;

    • competitions; however,

    ID: c15069eb Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of supplementary elements within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma to separate the supplementary adverb "however" from the preceding main clause ("only...competitions"), and it uses a colon to introduce the list of dances that follows ("rumba…jive"). Further, placing the colon after "however" rather than before indicates that the information in the preceding main clause (only...competitions) is contrary to what might be assumed from the information in the previous sentence (Latin America has many more dance forms).

    Choice B is incorrect. The comma after "however" can’t be used in this way to introduce a series ("rumba...jive"). Choice C is incorrect because it isn’t conventional to use a semicolon in this way to introduce a series of items, such as the list of dances. Choice D is incorrect because placing the semicolon after "competitions" illogically indicates that the following list of five Latin American dances ("rumba...jive") is contrary to the information in the previous clause (only five Latin American dances are included in international ballroom dance competitions).

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 5aae2475

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 5aae2475

    Stomata, tiny pore structures in a leaf that absorb gases needed for plant growth, open when guard cells surrounding each pore swell with water. In a pivotal 2007 article, plant cell blank showed that lipid molecules called phosphatidylinositol phosphates are responsible for signaling guard cells to open stomata. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • biologist, Yuree Lee

    • biologist Yuree Lee,

    • biologist Yuree Lee

    • biologist, Yuree Lee,

    ID: 5aae2475 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation between titles and proper nouns. No punctuation is needed to offset the proper noun "Yuree Lee" from the title "plant cell biologist" that describes Lee.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed around the proper noun "Yuree Lee." Setting the phrase off with punctuation suggests that it could be removed without affecting the coherence of the sentence, which isn’t the case.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID db2e480a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: db2e480a

    By the time Hawaiian king Kamehameha III blank the throne, the number of longhorn cattle, first introduced to the islands in 1793, had drastically increased, and so too had the need for paniolo (Hawaiian cowboys) to manage the wild herds that then roamed throughout the volcanic terrain.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • ascended

    • will ascend

    • ascends

    • is ascending

    ID: db2e480a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. "Ascended" is in the simple past tense. Since Kamehameha became king in the past, this makes the most sense.

    Choice B is incorrect. "Will ascend" is in the future tense, but we wouldn’t know about Kamehameha III’s ascent if it hadn’t happened yet. The information in the sentence, as well as the tense of other verbs, tells us that the events described happened in the past. Choice C is incorrect. "Ascends" is in the simple present tense. However, the information in the sentence, as well as the tense of other verbs, tells us that the events described happened in the past. Choice D is incorrect. "Is ascending" is in the continuous present tense, which we use to show that something is ongoing, but this doesn’t make sense here—the information in the sentence, as well as the tense of other verbs, tells us that the events described happened in the past.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 4c9a2aee

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 4c9a2aee

    Wanda Diaz-Merced is an astrophysicist who lost her sight when she was young. Diaz-Merced’s condition inspired her to develop software that can translate scientific data into sound. Sound-based tools blank scientists to detect subtle patterns in data. Such patterns may not be evident in traditional graphs.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • has enabled

    • enable

    • is enabling  

    • enables

    ID: 4c9a2aee Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The plural verb "enable" agrees in number with the plural subject "sound-based tools."

    Choice A is incorrect because the singular verb "has enabled" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "sound-based tools." Choice C is incorrect because the singular verb "is enabling" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "sound-based tools." Choice D is incorrect because the singular verb "enables" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "sound-based tools."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID b0fb36ad

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: b0fb36ad

    Unique among animal species, humans use our vocal apparatuses primarily for two separate communicative purposes: to talk and to sing. The question of what cross-cultural traits distinguish these distinct modes, and secondarily what pressures led humans to develop them in the first place, blank neuropsychologist Daniela Sammler’s 2024 study “Signatures of Speech and Song: ‘Universal’ Links despite Cultural Diversity.”

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • animates

    • have animated

    • animate

    • animating

    ID: b0fb36ad Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "animates" agrees in number with the singular subject "question."

    Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "have animated" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "question." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "animate" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "question." Choice D is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite participle "animating" doesn’t supply the clause with a finite verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID a30567fd

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: a30567fd

    Nuhād al-Ḥaddād, known as Fairuz, was one of the most beloved Lebanese singers of the twentieth century. Her broad singing repertoire—which included traditional forms, such as the Arabic qasida and maqam, alongside modern pop and jazz styles—lent Fairuz a timeless, cross-generational appeal, blank her the moniker “the soul of Lebanon.”

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • earned

    • had earned

    • earning

    • earn

    ID: a30567fd Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The word "earning" is being used to introduce an additional modifying phrase, which describes how Fairuz’s repertoire lent her cross-generational appeal. When a verb ends in -ing and doesn’t have a helper verb like "is" before it, it can be used to modify a noun or verb. This is appropriate here.

    Choice A is incorrect. The underlined verb is being used to introduce additional descriptive information, which is set off from the rest of the sentence by a comma. Because there is no subject here, a finite form of the verb (like "earned") creates an error. We need another form of the verb that doesn’t require a subject and can introduce descriptive information. Choice B is incorrect. The underlined verb is being used to introduce additional descriptive information, which is set off from the rest of the sentence by a comma. Because there is no subject here, a finite form of the verb (like "had earned") creates an error. We need another form of the verb that doesn’t require a subject and can introduce descriptive information. Choice D is incorrect. The underlined verb is being used to introduce additional descriptive information, which is set off from the rest of the sentence by a comma. Because there is no subject here, a finite form of the verb (like "earn") creates an error. We need another form of the verb that doesn’t require a subject and can introduce descriptive information.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 329255db

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 329255db

    Bengali author Toru Dutt’s A Sheaf Gleaned in French Fields (1876), a volume of English translations of French poems, blank scholars’ understanding of the transnational and multilingual contexts in which Dutt lived and worked.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • has enhanced

    • are enhancing

    • have enhanced

    • enhance

    ID: 329255db Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb “has enhanced” agrees in number with the singular subject “A Sheaf Gleaned in French Fields,” which is the title of a book of poems.

    Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb “are enhancing” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “A Sheaf Gleaned in French Fields.” Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb “have enhanced” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “A Sheaf Gleaned in French Fields.” Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb “enhance” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “A Sheaf Gleaned in French Fields.”

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 603755a5

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 603755a5

    In 1959, marine biologist Dr. Albert Jones founded the Underwater Adventure Seekers, a scuba diving blank that is the oldest club for Black divers in the United States and that has helped thousands of diving enthusiasts become certified in the field.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • club

    • club,

    • club—

    • club, and

    ID: 603755a5 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. “That is…field” is an essential supplement, so we should not use punctuation to separate it from “scuba diving club.” .

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice creates a punctuation error. “That is…field” is an essential supplement, so we should not use a comma (or any kind of punctuation) to separate it from “scuba diving club.” . Choice C is incorrect. This choice creates a punctuation error. “That is…field” is an essential supplement, so we should not use a dash (or any kind of punctuation) to separate it from “scuba diving club.” . Choice D is incorrect. This choice creates a run-on sentence. It makes “that is…United States” into an awkward independent clause, but it also makes “that has…field” into its own awkward independent clause without the correct punctuation separating it. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID ad046778

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: ad046778

    To humans, it does not appear that the golden orb-weaver spider uses camouflage to capture its blank the brightly colored arachnid seems to wait conspicuously in the center of its large circular web for insects to approach. Researcher Po Peng of the University of Melbourne has explained that the spider’s distinctive coloration may in fact be part of its appeal.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • prey, rather,

    • prey rather,

    • prey, rather;

    • prey; rather,

    ID: ad046778 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses within a sentence. The semicolon is correctly used to join the first main clause (“To humans…prey”) and the second main clause (“rather…approach”). Further, the comma after the adverb “rather” is correctly used to separate the adverb from the main clause (“the brightly…approach”) it modifies, logically indicating that the information in this clause (how the spider’s behavior appears to humans) is contrary to the information in the previous clause (how the spider’s behavior does not appear to humans).

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without appropriate punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice C is incorrect. Placing the comma between the first main clause “To humans…prey” and the adverb “rather” illogically indicates that the information in the first main clause is contrary to what came before, which doesn’t make sense in this context.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 7ce4ee13

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 7ce4ee13

    After immigrating from Mexico and obtaining U.S. citizenship, Octaviano Ambrosio Larrazolo entered politics, earning a reputation for being a fervent defender of Hispanic civil rights. In 1919 Larrazolo was elected governor of blank in 1928 he became the nation’s first Hispanic U.S. Senator. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • New Mexico and

    • New Mexico,

    • New Mexico, and

    • New Mexico

    ID: 7ce4ee13 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma and the coordinating conjunction "and" to join the first main clause ("In 1919 Larrazolo was elected governor of New Mexico") and the second main clause ("in 1928 he became the nation’s first Hispanic US Senator").

    Choice A is incorrect because when coordinating two longer main clauses such as these, it’s conventional to use a comma before the coordinating conjunction. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID aa443c4b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: aa443c4b

    Recent pollen analyses of the Aran Islands have led some researchers to propose that the now treeless islands were once wooded. This hypothesis blank that certain trees, such as P. sylvestris, survived without interruption or human intervention throughout the Holocene cannot stand, researchers Michael O’Connell and Karen Molloy counter, unless other explanations can first be ruled out.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • suggesting

    • suggested

    • suggests

    • has suggested

    ID: aa443c4b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. The nonfinite present participle "suggesting" is correctly used to form a restrictive participial phrase ("suggesting...Holocene") within the main clause ("This hypothesis...cannot stand..."). This participial phrase functions as part of the sentence’s subject ("This...Holocene"), providing essential identifying information about what the hypothesis states—namely, that certain trees survived without interruption or human intervention throughout the Holocene.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite verb "suggested" can’t be used in this way within the subject of the sentence. Choice C is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite verb "suggests" can’t be used in this way within the subject of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite verb "has suggested" can’t be used in this way within the subject of the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 0a114526

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 0a114526

    In 1937, Chinese American screen actor Anna May Wong, who had portrayed numerous villains and secondary characters but never a heroine, finally got a starring role in Paramount Pictures’ Daughter of Shanghai, a film that blank “expanded the range of possibilities for Asian images on screen.”

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • critic, Stina Chyn, claims

    • critic, Stina Chyn, claims,

    • critic Stina Chyn claims

    • critic Stina Chyn, claims,

    ID: 0a114526 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The conventions being tested are punctuation use between titles and proper nouns and between verbs and integrated quotations. No punctuation is needed to set off the proper noun “Stina Chyn” from the title that describes Chyn, “critic.” Because “Stina Chyn” is essential information identifying the “critic,” no punctuation is necessary. Further, no punctuation is needed between the verb “claims” and the following quotation because the quotation is integrated into the structure of the sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed before or after the proper noun “Stina Chyn.” Setting the critic’s name off with commas suggests that it could be removed without affecting the coherence of the sentence, which isn’t the case. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed before or after the proper noun “Stina Chyn.” Setting the critic’s name off with commas suggests that it could be removed without affecting the coherence of the sentence, which isn’t the case. Additionally, no punctuation is needed between “claims” and the integrated quotation. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb “claims” and its subject, “critic Stina Chyn.” Additionally, no punctuation is needed between the verb “claims” and the integrated quotation.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID a2293b3f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: a2293b3f

    A harpsichord may look just like a piano, but the difference between the two instruments is easy to hear. When a harpsichord’s keys are pressed, the strings inside the blank are plucked, not struck.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • instrument:

    • instrument

    • instrument—

    • instrument,

    ID: a2293b3f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between a subject and a verb. When, as in this case, a subject ("the strings inside the instrument") is immediately followed by a main verb ("are plucked"), no punctuation is needed.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb. Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 5aa1fffd

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 5aa1fffd

    Where blank Interestingly, it was invented by an author. It first appears in the novel Through the Looking Glass by English author Lewis Carroll.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • did the word “chortle” come from.

    • the word “chortle” did come from?

    • did the word “chortle” come from?

    • the word “chortle” come from.

    ID: 5aa1fffd Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is end-of-sentence punctuation. This choice correctly uses a question mark to punctuate the interrogative sentence "where did the word ‘chortle’ come from," which asks a direct question.

    Choice A is incorrect because a period can’t be used in this way to punctuate an interrogative sentence, such as "where did the word ‘chortle’ come from." Choice B is incorrect because "where the word ‘chortle’ did come from" does not follow the conventional structure of a direct question in Standard English. It’s conventional in Standard English to follow the interrogative word "where" with an auxiliary verb (such as "did") when asking a direct question. Choice D is incorrect because "where the word ‘chortle’ come from" does not follow the conventional structure of a direct question in Standard English. It’s conventional in Standard English to follow the interrogative word "where" with an auxiliary verb (such as "did") when asking a direct question. Furthermore, a period can’t be used in this way to punctuate an interrogative sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID a5079e0d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: a5079e0d

    Horsepower is a unit of measurement used to determine how much power a vehicle produces. The measurement is based on how much and how quickly weight can be blank one unit of mechanical horsepower is equivalent to the amount of power it takes to lift 550 pounds one foot off the ground in one second.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • moved, for example,

    • moved,

    • moved; for example,

    • moved

    ID: a5079e0d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within a sentence. This choice uses a semicolon in a conventional way to join the first main clause ("The measurement...moved") and the second main clause ("for example...second").

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a coordinating conjunction, a comma can’t be used in this way to join the two main clauses ("The measurement…moved" and "for example…second"). Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join the two main clauses ("The measurement…moved" and "one unit…second"). Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses ("The measurement…moved" and "one unit…second") are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 831b55ec

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 831b55ec

    Louise Bennett (1919–2006), also known as “Miss Lou,” was an influential Jamaican poet and folklorist. Her innovative poems blank the use of Jamaican Creole (a spoken language) in literature.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • popularized; 

    • popularized,

    • popularized

    • popularized:

    ID: 831b55ec Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between a verb and an object. No punctuation is needed between the verb "popularized" and its object "the use of Jamaican Creole." The object helps complete the idea of the verb—in this case, it explains what Louise Bennett popularized—and any punctuation between the two results in an ungrammatical sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb and its object. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb and its object. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb and its object.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 42cc9236

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 42cc9236

    If you try on one of artist Nick Cave’s signature Soundsuits, you can expect to swish, rustle, or clang every time you move. Cave makes his suits out of found objects, everything from ceramic birds to broken record players. He carefully considers the sound an object makes before using blank in a suit.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • this

    • that

    • these

    • it

    ID: 42cc9236 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested here is pronoun-antecedent agreement. The singular pronoun "it" agrees in number with the singular antecedent "object."

    Choice A is incorrect. The singular pronoun "this" is used to refer to a specific thing, but here there is no specific object being referred to. Instead, the sentence is referring back to a hypothetical object that Cave might use in a Soundsuit. Choice B is incorrect. The singular pronoun "that" is used to refer to a specific thing, but here there is no specific object being referred to. Instead, the sentence is referring back to a hypothetical object that Cave might use in a Soundsuit. Choice C is incorrect because the plural pronoun "these" doesn’t agree in number with the singular antecedent "object."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 81ac953e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 81ac953e

    In 1899, Swedish chemist Svante Arrhenius developed an equation to answer a long-standing question: why do chemical reactions speed up at higher temperatures? The Arrhenius equation, named for its creator, blank an important concept in modern chemistry.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • have remained

    • remain

    • remains

    • are remaining

    ID: 81ac953e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. This choice uses the singular verb "remains" to match the singular subject "equation."

    Choice A is incorrect. The singular noun "equation" doesn’t match with the plural verb conjugation "have remained." Choice B is incorrect. The singular noun "equation" doesn’t match with the plural verb conjugation "remain." Choice D is incorrect. The singular noun "equation" doesn’t match with the plural verb conjugation "are remaining."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID b32eab9f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: b32eab9f

    Increased gender diversity is revitalizing the field of economics, according to Harvard’s Claudia Goldin. The trailblazing accomplishments of Goldin, winner of the 2023 Nobel Prize in Economics for her work on women in the labor force, blank to the value of scholars of diverse backgrounds in spurring research into previously unexplored, but vitally important, topics.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • attests

    • has attested

    • is attesting

    • attest

    ID: b32eab9f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The plural verb "attest" agrees in number with the plural subject "trailblazing accomplishments."

    Choice A is incorrect because the singular verb "attests" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "trailblazing accomplishments." Choice B is incorrect because the singular verb "has attested" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "trailblazing accomplishments." Choice C is incorrect because the singular verb "is attesting" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "trailblazing accomplishments."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 50801257

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 50801257

    In 1994, almost 200 years after the death of Wang Zhenyi, the International Astronomical blank the contributions of the barrier-breaking 18th-century astronomer and author of “Dispute of the Procession of the Equinoxes,” naming a crater on Venus after her.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Union would finally acknowledge

    • Union to finally acknowledge

    • Union, having finally acknowledged

    • Union, finally acknowledging

    ID: 50801257 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. It’s the only choice that offers a form of the verb “acknowledge” that can go with the subject “International Astronomical Union” to make a complete sentence. This might seem like an odd use of “would,” but when speaking from a point of view in the past, we can actually use “would” to express something that happened later. That’s the case here: 200 years after Wang Zhenyi’s death, the IAU would finally acknowledge her contributions.

    Choice B is incorrect. This choice creates a sentence fragment. There’s no main verb elsewhere in the sentence, so we need a form of the verb “acknowledge” that can go with the subject “the International Astronomical Union” and serve as that main verb. “To acknowledge” can’t do that. Choice C is incorrect. This choice creates a sentence fragment. There’s no main verb elsewhere in the sentence, so we need a form of the verb “acknowledge” that can go with the subject “the International Astronomical Union” and serve as that main verb. “Having acknowledged” can’t do that. Choice D is incorrect. This choice creates a sentence fragment. There’s no main verb elsewhere in the sentence, so we need a form of the verb “acknowledge” that can go with the subject “the International Astronomical Union” and serve as that main verb. The “-ing” form can’t do that.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 028752cd

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 028752cd

    The Dust Bowl was a period of severe drought that plagued the Great Plains of the US during the 1930s. During this time, dust storms blank over 100 million acres of land. They even reached as far east as New York City.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • are affecting

    • will have affected

    • will affect

    • affected

    ID: 028752cd Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense in a sentence. In this choice, the past tense verb "affected," used in conjunction with the phrase "during this time," correctly indicates that the dust storms occurred in the 1930s.

    Choice A is incorrect because the present progressive tense verb "are affecting" doesn’t indicate that the dust storms occurred in the 1930s. Choice B is incorrect because the future perfect tense verb "will have affected" doesn’t indicate that the dust storms occurred in the 1930s. Choice C is incorrect because the future tense verb "will affect" doesn’t indicate that the dust storms occurred in the 1930s.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 1f39ab8b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 1f39ab8b

    In the novel Things Fall Apart by Chinua Achebe, Okonkwo is a leader of Umuofia (a fictional Nigerian clan) and takes pride in his culture’s traditions. However, when the arrival of European missionaries brings changes to Umuofia, the novel asks a central question: How blank

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Umuofia’s traditions will be affected.

    • will Umuofia’s traditions be affected.

    • Umuofia’s traditions will be affected?

    • will Umuofia’s traditions be affected?

    ID: 1f39ab8b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The clause before the colon tells us that the novel “asks a question,” so the clause after the colon should be in the conventional form of a question: with the verb before the subject, and a question mark at the end. 

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice ends the sentence with a period, which isn’t right. The clause before the colon tells us that the novel “asks a question,” so the clause after the colon should be that question. Choice B is incorrect. This choice ends the sentence with a period, which isn’t right. The clause before the colon tells us that the novel “asks a question,” so the clause after the colon should be that question. In Standard English, questions place the verb before the subject and end with a question mark. Choice C is incorrect. This choice doesn’t conform to the conventions of Standard English. In Standard English, questions place the verb before the subject.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID a14eef71

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: a14eef71

    In 2015, a team led by materials scientists Anirudha Sumant and Diana Berman succeeded in reducing the coefficient of friction (COF) between two surfaces to the lowest possible level—superlubricity. A nearly frictionless (and, as its name suggests, extremely slippery) state, blank

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • when their COF drops below 0.01, two surfaces reach superlubricity.

    • two surfaces, when their COF drops below 0.01, reach superlubricity.

    • reaching superlubricity occurs when two surfaces’ COF drops below 0.01.

    • superlubricity is reached when two surfaces’ COF drops below 0.01.

    ID: a14eef71 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The subject of the modifier “a nearly frictionless state” is “superlubricity.” Subject-modifier placement requires a modifier and its subject to be next to one another, so “superlubricity” must be the first word in the missing clause.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice creates a subject-modifier placement error. The subject of the modifier “a nearly frictionless state” is “superlubricity.” Subject-modifier placement requires a modifier and its subject to be next to one another, so “superlubricity” must be the first word in the missing clause. Choice B is incorrect. This choice creates a subject-modifier placement error. The subject of the modifier “a nearly frictionless state” is “superlubricity.” Subject-modifier placement requires a modifier and its subject to be next to one another, so “superlubricity” must be the first word in the missing clause. Choice C is incorrect. This choice creates a subject-modifier placement error. The subject of the modifier “a nearly frictionless state” is “superlubricity.” Subject-modifier placement requires a modifier and its subject to be next to one another, so “superlubricity” must be the first word in the missing clause.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 5fd86f4b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 5fd86f4b

    The ghazal, a poetic form originating in seventh-century Arabic poetry, has an intricate structure. The twentieth-century Kashmiri American poet Agha Shahid Ali explains that each one of a ghazal’s couplets, while adhering to the patterns of rhyme (qafia) and refrain (radif) established in the poem’s opening lines (matla), blank thematically and logically autonomous, resulting in a poem with “a stringently formal disunity.”

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • is

    • were

    • have been

    • are

    ID: 5fd86f4b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. The singular verb "is" agrees in number with the singular subject "each one of a ghazal’s couplets." While the prepositional phrase "of a ghazal’s couplets" within the subject contains a plural noun, the head of the subject ("each one") is singular, indicating that each individual couplet (not the couplets as a group) is "thematically and logically autonomous," or self-standing.

    Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "were" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "each one of a ghazal’s couplets." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "have been" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "each one of a ghazal’s couplets." Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb "are" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "each one of a ghazal’s couplets."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID f868d438

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: f868d438

    In 2018, the innovative works of Congolese sculptor and architect Bodys Isek blank were featured in City Dreams, a solo exhibition at New York’s Museum of Modern Art.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Kingelez;

    • Kingelez,

    • Kingelez

    • Kingelez:

    ID: f868d438 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a subject and a verb. No punctuation is needed when the subject of a sentence is immediately followed by a main verb. In this case, the sentence’s subject (“the innovative works of Congolese sculptor and architect Bodys Isek Kingelez”) is followed by the main verb “were featured,” and no punctuation should come between them.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 60dd03bc

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 60dd03bc

    Located in the northern United States, the Great Lakes Basin contains roughly 35,000 islands. Lake Superior has Grand Island, for example. Lake Michigan has Belle Isle. Lake Huron, though, is home blank the largest island of them all: Manitoulin Island.  

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • to;

    • to—

    • to

    • to,

    ID: 60dd03bc Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between a preposition and its complement. No punctuation is needed between the preposition "to" and its complement "the largest island of them all." The complement completes the meaning of the preposition in the phrase "home to the largest island of them all," and any punctuation within it results in an ungrammatical sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the preposition and its complement. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the preposition and its complement. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the preposition and its complement.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 6d4b2e1e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 6d4b2e1e

    The 1977 play And the Soul Shall Dance depicts two Japanese American farming families in Depression-era Southern California. Critics have noted the way pioneering blank compares the experiences of issei (Japanese nationals who emigrated to America) and nisei (their American-born children).

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • playwright, Wakako Yamauchi,

    • playwright, Wakako Yamauchi

    • playwright Wakako Yamauchi,

    • playwright Wakako Yamauchi

    ID: 6d4b2e1e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation between titles and proper nouns. No punctuation is needed to set off the proper noun "Wakako Yamauchi" from the title that describes Yamauchi, "pioneering playwright." Because "Wakako Yamauchi" is essential information identifying the "pioneering playwright," no punctuation is necessary.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed before or after the proper noun "Wakako Yamauchi." Setting the playwright’s name off with commas suggests that it could be removed without affecting the coherence of the sentence, which isn’t the case. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the title "pioneering playwright" and the proper noun "Wakako Yamauchi." Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the proper noun "Wakako Yamauchi" and the verb "compares."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 39ac6498

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 39ac6498

    In forecasting weather events, meteorologists sometimes discuss the role of atmospheric rivers. What are atmospheric rivers, and how blank Part of the water cycle, atmospheric rivers are narrow channels of moisture moving through the atmosphere. In certain conditions, these “rivers” can release some of their moisture as precipitation. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • do they affect our weather.

    • they do affect our weather.

    • do they affect our weather?

    • they do affect our weather?

    ID: 39ac6498 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is end-of-sentence punctuation. This choice correctly uses a question mark to punctuate the coordinated interrogative clauses "What are atmospheric rivers" and "how do they affect our weather," both of which ask direct questions.

    Choice A is incorrect because a period can’t be used in this way to punctuate an interrogative clause, such as "how do they affect our weather," at the end of a sentence. Choice B is incorrect because the structure requires an interrogative clause and a question mark at the end of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because the structure requires an interrogative clause at the end of the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID b85c19ed

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: b85c19ed

    The violins handmade in the seventeenth century by Italian craftsman Antonio Stradivari have been celebrated as some of the finest in the world. In close collaboration with musicians, Stradivari introduced changes to the shape of a traditional violin, flattening some of the instrument’s curves and making blank lighter overall.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • those

    • one

    • them

    • it

    ID: b85c19ed Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun–antecedent agreement. The singular pronoun “it” agrees in number with the singular antecedent “violin” and thus indicates that the traditional violin (and not its curves) was made lighter.

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural pronoun “those” doesn’t agree in number with the singular antecedent “violin.” Choice B is incorrect because the singular pronoun “one” is ambiguous in this context; the resulting sentence leaves unclear what Stradivari made lighter. Choice C is incorrect because the plural pronoun “them” doesn’t agree in number with the singular antecedent “violin.”

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 109d5bbb

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 109d5bbb

    With some 16,000 in attendance, the Second World Black and African Festival of Arts and blank or FESTAC ‘77, as the event was more commonly known—became the largest pan-African event on record. FESTAC drew people from around the world to Lagos, Nigeria, for a monthlong celebration of Black and African art, scholarship, and activism.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Culture:

    • Culture—

    • Culture,

    • Culture

    ID: 109d5bbb Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The text uses a dash to introduce a nonessential element that explains the acronym FESTAC. The dash matches the dash that comes after “known,” ending the descriptive aside.

    Choice A is incorrect. A colon can only come after an independent clause, which isn’t the case here. Choice C is incorrect. While punctuation is required to set off “or FESTAC…known” from the rest of the sentence, nonessential elements must be separated from the sentence with matching punctuation. Since a dash appears on the other side of the element, we can’t use a comma here. Choice D is incorrect. The descriptive aside “or FESTAC…known” is a nonessential element that must be separated with punctuation from the rest of the sentence. This choice fails to add the necessary punctuation before the nonessential element.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID b5ff8f8e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: b5ff8f8e

    The element carbon has the highest melting point blank all the elements on the periodic table—3,500 degrees Celsius.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • of

    • of—

    • of,

    • of:

    ID: b5ff8f8e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between a preposition and its complement. No punctuation is needed between the preposition "of" and its complement "all the elements on the periodic table." The complement completes the meaning of the preposition in the phrase "the highest melting point of all the elements on the periodic table," and using punctuation to separate the complement from the preposition results in an ungrammatical sentence.

    Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the preposition and its complement. Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the preposition and its complement. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the preposition and its complement.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 18382e67

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 18382e67

    In Marisol’s 1968 sculpture Mi Mama y Yo, gone are the types of pop culture references that made the Parisian-born Venezuelan American artist a star at the height of the pop art movement. In blank place is a far more personal subject: a sculptural depiction of the artist as a young girl with her mother. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • its

    • they’re

    • their

    • it’s

    ID: 18382e67 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of possessive determiners. The plural possessive determiner "their" agrees in number with the plural noun "types" and thus indicates that the more personal subject matter of Marisol’s 1968 sculpture takes the place of those types of pop culture references that made Marisol a star.

    Choice A is incorrect because the singular possessive determiner "its" doesn’t agree in number with the plural noun "types." Choice B is incorrect because "they’re" is the contraction for "they are," not a possessive determiner. Choice D is incorrect because "it’s" is the contraction for "it is" or "it has," not a possessive determiner.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 56770dda

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 56770dda

    In his 1963 exhibition Exposition of Music—Electronic Television, Korean American artist Nam June Paik showed how television images could be manipulated to express an artist’s perspective. Today, Paik blank considered the first video artist.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • will be

    • had been

    • was

    • is

    ID: 56770dda Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense. In this choice, the present tense verb "is," used in conjunction with the word "today," correctly indicates that Paik is currently considered the first video artist.

    Choice A is incorrect because the future tense verb "will be" doesn’t indicate that Paik is currently considered the first video artist. Choice B is incorrect because the past perfect tense verb "had been" doesn’t indicate that Paik is currently considered the first video artist. Choice C is incorrect because the past tense verb "was" doesn’t indicate that Paik is currently considered the first video artist.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 3fee46f2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 3fee46f2

    Sociologist Todd Gitlin co-opted the term “recombinant,” normally used in reference to genetic engineering, to describe serialized television shows of the 1980s. Gitlin’s use of the term referenced TV studios’ practice of repackaging successful narrative formulas as new blank even shows that varied only slightly from other shows still attracted sizeable audiences.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • content, in that era

    • content; in that era,

    • content in that era,

    • content, in that era,

    ID: 3fee46f2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within a sentence. This choice uses a semicolon in a conventional way to join the first main clause ("Gitlin’s…content") and the second main clause beginning with a supplementary phrase ("in…audiences"). Further, placing a comma after "era" separates the supplementary phrase "in that era" from the rest of the main clause that follows ("even…audiences").

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Further, this choice fails to mark the boundary between the supplementary phrase "in that era" and the rest of the main clause that follows ("even…audiences"). Choice C is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses ("Gitlin’s…content" and "in…audiences") are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID d073983d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: d073983d

    Known for her massive photorealistic paintings of African American figures floating or swimming in pools, Calida Garcia blank was the logical choice to design the book cover for Ta-Nehisi Coates’s The Water Dancer, a novel about an African American man who can travel great distances through water.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Rawles—

    • Rawles:

    • Rawles,

    • Rawles

    ID: d073983d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a subject and a verb. When, as in this case, a subject (“Calida Garcia Rawles”) is immediately followed by a verb (“was”), no punctuation is needed.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb. Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 02913383

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 02913383

    “He was just the man for such a place, and it was just the place for such a man.” This line is from Frederick Douglass’s autobiography Narrative of the Life of Frederick Douglass (1845). It’s an example of antimetabole, a writing technique that blank emphasis by repeating a statement in a reversed order.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • create

    • are creating

    • have created

    • creates

    ID: 02913383 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "creates" agrees in number with the singular subject "technique."

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb "create" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "technique." Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "are creating" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "technique." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "have created" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "technique."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID e92a7ad3

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: e92a7ad3

    In the Inca Empire (1438–1533), ayllus blank family clans that ranged in size from small groups to thousands of people.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • is

    • was

    • has been

    • were

    ID: e92a7ad3 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The plural verb "were" agrees in number with the plural subject "ayllus," which are described as plural "family clans."

    Choice A is incorrect because the singular verb "is" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "ayllus." Choice B is incorrect because the singular verb "was" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "ayllus." Choice C is incorrect because the singular verb "has been" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "ayllus."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID c468db1c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: c468db1c

    A group of ecologists led by Axel Mithöfer at the Max Planck Institute for Chemical Ecology in Germany examined the defensive responses of two varieties of the sweet potato blank TN57, which is known for its insect resistance, and TN66, which is much more susceptible to pests.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • plant. 

    • plant;

    • plant 

    • plant:

    ID: c468db1c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between a main clause and a supplementary phrase. In this choice, a colon is correctly used to mark the boundary between the main clause (“A group…plant”) and the supplementary element (“TN57…pests”) and to introduce the following elaboration on the specific varieties of sweet potato plants that were examined.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with “TN57.”  Choice B is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join the main clause (“A group…plant”) and the supplementary element (“TN57…pests”). A semicolon is conventionally used to join two main clauses, whereas a colon is conventionally used to introduce an element that explains or amplifies the information in the preceding clause. Choice C is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the main clause (“A group...plant”) and the supplementary element (“TN57...pests”) with appropriate punctuation.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 8a9d2f4e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 8a9d2f4e

    Researchers studying the “terra-cotta army,” the thousands of life-size statues of warriors found interred near the tomb of Emperor Qin Shi Huang of China, were shocked to realize that the shape of each statue’s ears, like the shape of each person’s ears, blank unique.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • are

    •  is

    • were

    • have been

    ID: 8a9d2f4e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "is" agrees in number with the singular subject "the shape."

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb "are" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "the shape." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "were" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "the shape." Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb "have been" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "the shape."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 576b2c70

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 576b2c70

    A member of the Cherokee Nation, Mary Golda Ross is renowned for her contributions to NASA’s Planetary Flight Handbook, which blank detailed mathematical guidance for missions to Mars and Venus.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • provided

    • having provided

    • to provide

    • providing

    ID: 576b2c70 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of finite verbs in a relative clause. Relative clauses, such as the one beginning with “which,” require a finite verb, a verb that can function as the main verb of a clause. This choice correctly supplies the clause with the finite past tense verb “provided.”

    Choice B is incorrect because the non-finite participle “having provided” doesn’t supply the clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because the non-finite to-infinitive “to provide” doesn’t supply the clause with a finite verb. Choice D is incorrect because the non-finite participle “providing” doesn’t supply the clause with a finite verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 78e978b5

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 78e978b5

    The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) tracks comparative price list data for its thirty-eight member countries. For instance, in July 2021, a hypothetical basket of goods priced at 100 US dollars (USD) in the United States would have cost 62 USD and 110 USD in fellow OECD blank and Luxembourg, respectively.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • nations, Chile

    • nations; Chile

    • nations: Chile

    • nations Chile

    ID: 78e978b5 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation between titles and proper nouns. No punctuation is needed to set off the coordinated noun phrase "Chile and Luxembourg" from the title that describes the two countries, "fellow OECD nations." Because the proper nouns "Chile and Luxembourg" are essential information identifying the "fellow OECD nations," no punctuation is necessary.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the country names ("Chile and Luxembourg") and the title ("fellow OECD nations") describing them. Further, setting the countries’ names off with commas suggests that they could be removed without affecting the coherence of the sentence, which isn’t the case. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the country names ("Chile and Luxembourg") and the title ("fellow OECD nations") describing them. Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the country names ("Chile and Luxembourg") and the title ("fellow OECD nations") describing them. Placing a colon after "nations" would confusingly suggest that these were the costs of the basket of goods for "fellow OECD nations" in general, not for Chile and Luxembourg specifically.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID d4fe8f03

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: d4fe8f03

    Paintings by the renowned twentieth-century US blank were featured in Artist to Artist, an exhibition at the Smithsonian Art Museum that paired the works of artists whose career trajectories intersected in meaningful ways.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • artists: Thomas Hart Benton and Jackson Pollock,

    • artists Thomas Hart Benton and Jackson Pollock

    • artists Thomas Hart Benton, and Jackson Pollock,

    • artists, Thomas Hart Benton and Jackson Pollock

    ID: d4fe8f03 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation around noun phrases. No punctuation is needed because the coordinated noun phrase "Thomas Hart Benton and Jackson Pollock" is a restrictive appositive, meaning that it provides essential identifying information about the noun phrase before it, "the renowned twentieth-century US artists."

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the noun phrase "the renowned twentieth-century US artists" and the restrictive appositive "Thomas Hart Benton and Jackson Pollock." Additionally, no punctuation is needed between the sentence’s subject ("paintings by the renowned twentieth-century US artists Thomas Hart Benton and Jackson Pollock") and the main verb ("were featured"). Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the coordinated elements "Thomas Hart Benton" and "Jackson Pollock." Additionally, no punctuation is needed between the sentence’s subject ("paintings by the renowned twentieth-century US artists Thomas Hart Benton and Jackson Pollock") and the main verb ("were featured"). Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the noun phrase "the renowned twentieth-century US artists" and the restrictive appositive "Thomas Hart Benton and Jackson Pollock."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID dfbf5d33

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: dfbf5d33

    In 1453, English King Henry VI became unfit to rule after falling gravely ill. As a result, Parliament appointed Richard, Third Duke of York, who had a strong claim to the English throne, to rule as Lord Protector. Upon recovering two years later, blank forcing an angered Richard from the royal court and precipitating a series of battles later known as the Wars of the Roses.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Henry resumed his reign,

    • the reign of Henry resumed,

    • Henry’s reign resumed,

    • it was Henry who resumed his reign, 

    ID: dfbf5d33 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice ensures that the introductory phrase “upon recovering two years later” appears immediately before the noun it modifies (“Henry”), clearly establishing that Henry recovered two years later.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “the reign of Henry” immediately after the introductory phrase illogically suggests that the reign of Henry recovered two years later. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “Henry’s reign” immediately after the introductory phrase illogically suggests that Henry’s reign recovered two years later. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the function word “it” immediately after the introductory phrase illogically suggests that “it” recovered two years later.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID cf08e2fd

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: cf08e2fd

    From 1912 to 1951, Charlotta Bass owned and operated the newspaper The California Eagle. While it was under Bass’s leadership, The Eagle blank one of the US’s most influential Black-owned newspapers.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • will become

    • became

    • is becoming

    • to become

    ID: cf08e2fd Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The conventions being tested are the use of verbs to express tense and the use of verb forms within a sentence. In this choice, the past tense verb "became" is consistent with the other past tense verbs ("owned," "operated," and "was") used to indicate that, at a period of time in the past, Bass’s leadership resulted in her newspaper becoming one of the most influential Black-owned newspapers in the US. In addition, "became" supplies the main clause with a finite (tensed) verb, which is required to perform the action of the subject (in this case, "The Eagle").

    Choice A is incorrect because the future tense verb "will become" isn’t consistent with the other past tense verbs used to discuss Bass and her newspaper. Choice C is incorrect because the present progressive verb "is becoming" isn’t consistent with the other past tense verbs used to discuss Bass and her newspaper. Choice D is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite to-infinitive "to become" doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID bb4557cf

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: bb4557cf

    The relationship between genomes and epigenomes reveals how cells with identical DNA develop different blank whereas the genome in each cell contains a complete DNA sequence, the epigenome consists of chemical compounds that determine which traits in the sequence will be expressed.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • functions

    • functions,

    • functions and,

    • functions:

    ID: bb4557cf Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of a colon within a sentence. In this choice, the colon correctly introduces the following explanation of the different functions of genomes and epigenomes.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses ("The relationship…functions" and "whereas…expressed") are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses ("The relationship…functions" and "whereas…expressed"). Choice C is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction "and" can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Furthermore, "and" fails to indicate that what follows is an explanation of how cells with identical DNA develop different functions.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID da53d726

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: da53d726

    In February 1919, following the end of the First World War, women from ten countries around the world convened the Inter-Allied Women’s Conference in Paris. The conference’s goals were blank ensure women’s participation in the proceedings of the Paris Peace Conference, to secure the right of women to serve in the League of Nations, and to advocate for human rights.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • threefold: to

    • threefold. To

    • threefold to

    • threefold; to

    ID: da53d726 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within a sentence. In this choice, the colon correctly introduces the series of goals held by the 1919 Inter-Allied Women’s Conference.

    Choice B is incorrect because placing a period after "threefold" results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with "To." Choice C is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The main clause ("The conference’s goals were threefold") and the series supplement ("to…rights") are fused without punctuation. Choice D is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to introduce a series. A semicolon is conventionally used to join two main clauses, whereas a colon is conventionally used to introduce a series, making the colon the better choice in this context.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID f2eaaf5d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: f2eaaf5d

    At eight paragraphs long, the preamble to the constitution of blank country in Western Asia—is much longer than the one-paragraph preamble to the United States Constitution.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Bahrain—a 

    • Bahrain, a

    • Bahrain a

    • Bahrain: a

    ID: f2eaaf5d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of a supplementary element within a sentence. The dash after “Bahrain” pairs with the dash after “Asia” to separate the supplementary element “a country in Western Asia” from the rest of the sentence. 

    Choice B is incorrect because a comma can’t be paired with a dash in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice C is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because a colon can’t be paired with a dash in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID ec08463d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: ec08463d

    Botanists recognize over fifty different species of sunflower. One species, the silverleaf sunflower, blank both an early-flowering ecotype that tends to grow in coastal areas and a late-flowering ecotype that grows inland.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • having included

    • including

    • to include

    • includes

    ID: ec08463d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. This verb needs to function as the main verb in the sentence, with the subject “one species,” so it needs to be conjugated. This choice gives us the singular present tense “includes,” which is the only conjugated form of the verb among the choices. 

    Choice A is incorrect. This doesn’t complete the text in a way that conforms to the conventions of Standard English. This verb needs to function as the main verb in the sentence, with the subject “one species,” so it needs to be conjugated. “Having included” is a participle form of the verb: it’s not conjugated and doesn’t function like a normal verb. Choice B is incorrect. This doesn’t complete the text in a way that conforms to the conventions of Standard English. This verb needs to function as the main verb in the sentence, with the subject “one species,” so it needs to be conjugated. “Including” is the gerund form of the verb: it’s not conjugated and doesn’t function like a normal verb. Choice C is incorrect. This doesn’t complete the text in a way that conforms to the conventions of Standard English. This verb needs to function as the main verb in the sentence, with the subject “one species,” so it needs to be conjugated. “To include” is the infinitive form of the verb: it’s not conjugated. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 0b005ae2

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 0b005ae2

    Recently unearthed Neronian tools in France dating to 54,000 years ago and attributed to Homo sapiens may provide evidence that interactions between Neanderthals and modern humans occurred 10,000 years earlier than was previously blank finding that, if true, would overturn current theories about H. sapiens migration during the Upper Paleolithic.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • supposed; a

    • supposed. A

    • supposed a

    • supposed, a

    ID: 0b005ae2 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the main clause ("Recently...supposed") and the supplementary element ("a finding...Paleolithic") that provides additional information about the implications of the Neronian tool discovery.

    Choice A is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join the main clause ("Recently...supposed") and the supplementary element ("a finding...Paleolithic"). Choice B is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with "a finding." Choice C is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The main clause ("Recently...supposed") and the supplementary element ("a finding...Paleolithic") are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 4a90a978

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 4a90a978

    In 1990, California native and researcher Ellen Ochoa left her position as chief of the Intelligent Systems Technology Branch at a NASA research center blank the space agency’s astronaut training program.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • to join

    • is joining

    • joined

    • joins

    ID: 4a90a978 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of nonfinite verb forms in a sentence. The nonfinite to-infinitive verb "to join" is correctly used to form a subordinate clause that expresses why Ochoa left her position (to join the training program).

    Choice B is incorrect because the finite verb "is joining" can’t be used in this way to indicate Ochoa’s action of joining the training program. A conjunction such as "and" would be needed to coordinate "is joining" with the previous finite verb, "left." Choice C is incorrect because the finite verb "joined" can’t be used in this way to indicate Ochoa’s action of joining the training program. A conjunction such as "and" would be needed to coordinate "joined" with the previous finite verb, "left." Choice D is incorrect because the finite verb "joins" can’t be used in this way to indicate Ochoa’s action of joining the training program. A conjunction such as "and" would be needed to coordinate "joins" with the previous finite verb, "left."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 59e41600

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 59e41600

    Why are Rome’s famous concrete structures, such as the Colosseum, still standing after 2,000-plus years, when modern concrete may not even last for fifty? Scientists blank that the secret to Roman concrete’s durability was its unique blend of ingredients, which included volcanic ash and seawater.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • explain

    • having explained

    • explaining

    • to explain

    ID: 59e41600 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. The main clause of a sentence requires a finite (tensed) verb, and this choice supplies the finite present tense verb “explain” to indicate what the scientists do.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite participle “having explained” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite participle “explaining” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice D is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite to-infinitive “to explain” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID eb03096e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: eb03096e

    According to the University of Hawaiʻi at Mānoa, aloha ʻāina is “a recognition, commitment, and practice sustaining the ea—or life breath” between the Hawaiian people and their natural environments. The concept has been proudly embodied blank Native Hawaiians for generations, contributing to the lush flora and renowned beauty of the islands.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • by;

    • by:

    • by,

    • by

    ID: eb03096e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between a preposition and its complement. No punctuation is needed between the preposition "by" and its complement "Native Hawaiians." The complement completes the meaning of the preposition in the phrase "proudly embodied by Native Hawaiians," and any punctuation within it results in an ungrammatical sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the preposition and its complement. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the preposition and its complement. Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the preposition and its complement.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID d75d57a0

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: d75d57a0

    While many video game creators strive to make their graphics ever more blank others look to the past, developing titles with visuals inspired by the “8-bit” games of the 1980s and 1990s. (The term “8-bit” refers to a console whose processor could only handle eight bits of data at once.)

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • lifelike but

    • lifelike

    • lifelike,

    • lifelike, but

    ID: d75d57a0 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a subordinate clause and a main clause. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the subordinate clause (“While…lifelike”) and the main clause (“others look to the past”).

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in an incomplete sentence with no main clause. Choice B is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the subordinate clause (“While…lifelike”) and the main clause (“others…past”). Choice D is incorrect because it results in an incomplete sentence with no main clause.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID a427a52c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: a427a52c

    The Lion Light system, developed by Kenyan inventor Richard Turere, consists of LED lights installed around the perimeter of livestock pastures. Powered with blank the blinking LEDs keep lions away at night, thus protecting the livestock without risking harm to the endangered lions.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • energy collected, by solar panels, during the day

    • energy collected by solar panels during the day

    • energy collected by solar panels during the day,

    • energy, collected by solar panels during the day,

    ID: a427a52c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a supplementary phrase and a main clause. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the supplementary phrase (“powered…day”), which describes how the LEDs are powered, and the main clause (“the blinking…night”).

    Choice A is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the supplementary phrase and the main clause with appropriate punctuation. Furthermore, placing commas around the phrase “by solar panels” suggests that it could be removed without affecting the coherence of the sentence, which isn’t the case. Choice B is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the supplementary phrase and the main clause with appropriate punctuation. Choice D is incorrect. Placing commas around the phrase “collected by solar panels during the day″ suggests that it could be removed without affecting the coherence of the sentence, which isn’t the case.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 6997261f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 6997261f

    In 2009, researchers determined that pottery fragments from a cave in China were close to 18,000 years old. These are some of the oldest blank of pottery ever found.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • pieces:

    • pieces,

    • pieces

    • pieces—

    ID: 6997261f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between a noun and a prepositional phrase. No punctuation is needed between the noun "pieces" and the prepositional phrase "of pottery." The prepositional phrase provides essential information about what kind of pieces were found, so it shouldn’t be separated from the rest of the noun phrase ("some of the oldest pieces") with punctuation.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the noun phrase "some of the oldest pieces" and the prepositional phrase "of pottery." Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the noun phrase "some of the oldest pieces" and the prepositional phrase "of pottery." Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the noun phrase "some of the oldest pieces" and the prepositional phrase "of pottery."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 3daf126e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 3daf126e

    A model created by biologist Luis Valente predicts that the rate of speciation—the rate at which new species form—on an isolated island located approximately 5,000 kilometers from the nearest mainland blank triple the rate of speciation on an island only 500 kilometers from the mainland.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • being

    • to be

    • to have been

    • will be

    ID: 3daf126e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is finite and nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. Relative clauses, such as the one beginning with “that,” require a finite verb, a verb that can function as the main verb of a clause. This choice correctly supplies the clause with the finite future tense verb “will be.” 

    Choice A is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “being” doesn’t supply the clause with a finite verb. Choice B is incorrect because the nonfinite to-infinitive “to be” doesn’t supply the clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because the nonfinite to-infinitive “to have been” doesn’t supply the clause with a finite verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 975eda7c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 975eda7c

    For thousands of years, people in the Americas blank the bottle gourd, a large bitter fruit with a thick rind, to make bottles, other types of containers, and even musical instruments. Oddly, there is no evidence that any type of bottle gourd is native to the Western Hemisphere; either the fruit or its seeds must have somehow been carried from Asia or Africa.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • to use

    • have used

    • having used

    • using

    ID: 975eda7c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is finite and nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. A main clause requires a finite verb to perform the action of the subject (in this case, “people in the Americas”), and this choice supplies the finite past perfect tense verb “have used” to indicate what people in the Americas used the gourd for. 

    Choice A is incorrect because the nonfinite to-infinitive “to use” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “having used” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb. Choice D is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “using” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 5ee7fb04

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 5ee7fb04

    In modern plays, actors typically won’t acknowledge the blank do so breaks the fourth wall, a metaphorical barrier between actors and audiences that allows viewers to suspend the knowledge that they’re watching a staged performance.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • audience. As to

    • audience to

    • audience. To

    • audience, to

    ID: 5ee7fb04 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period is used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence ("In modern…audience") and another ("To do…performance").

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with "as." Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences ("In modern…audience" and "To do…performance") are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID a12e3b8a

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: a12e3b8a

    Customers who are satisfied with how a company resolves a service issue may regard that company more positively than they would if no such issue had occurred. This idea is known as the service recovery blank research suggests that it has important implications for customer loyalty and retention.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • paradox, 

    • paradox

    • paradox, and

    • paradox and,

    ID: a12e3b8a Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma and the coordinating conjunction "and" to join the first main clause ("This idea…paradox") and the second main clause ("research…retention").

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice D is incorrect because when coordinating two longer main clauses such as these, it’s conventional to use a comma before the coordinating conjunction, not after it.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID c04e9136

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: c04e9136

    The 2022 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded to three pioneers in the field of click chemistry: two-time Nobel laureate Barry Sharpless, who coined the term “click chemistry” in 1998; Carolyn Bertozzi, founder of the Bertozzi Group at blank and Morten Meldal, a professor at the University of Copenhagen in Denmark. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Stanford

    • Stanford,

    • Stanford:

    • Stanford;

    ID: c04e9136 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. This choice correctly uses a semicolon to punctuate a complex list (which is made up of items that have commas in them).

    Choice A is incorrect. This is a complex list, indicated by the semicolon between "1998" and "Carolyn Bertozzi." What comes after the blank is a separate list item, so punctuation is needed after "Stanford." Choice B is incorrect. This is a complex list, indicated by the semicolon between "1998" and "Carolyn Bertozzi." The items in this list have internal punctuation in the form of commas and must therefore be separated by semicolons to avoid confusion. Choice C is incorrect. This is a complex list, indicated by the semicolon between "1998" and "Carolyn Bertozzi." Colons aren’t used to separate items in a list.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 588887b9

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 588887b9

    In 1881, French chemist Camille Faure redesigned the rechargeable lead-acid battery. Faure’s design greatly increased the amount of electricity that the original battery, which the French physicist Gaston Planté blank fifteen years earlier, could hold.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • is inventing

    • will invent

    • invents

    • had invented

    ID: 588887b9 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. Faure redesigned the battery in 1881, and the original battery was invented “fifteen years earlier.” Notice that this is the only choice in the past tense. To indicate that a past occurrence took place before another past occurrence, we need to use “had” + the past tense form of the verb. This is called the “past perfect” tense.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice creates a tense error. Planté invented the original battery in the past, so we shouldn’t use the present tense “is inventing.” Choice B is incorrect. This choice creates a tense error. Planté invented the original battery in the past, so we shouldn’t use the future tense “will invent.” Choice C is incorrect. This choice creates a tense error. Planté invented the original battery in the past, so we shouldn’t use the present tense “invents.”

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID c49e946e

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: c49e946e

    As the fourteenth US librarian of Congress, Carla Hayden has many responsibilities. These include overseeing the Library of Congress’s collections, which boast more than 162 million blank the US Copyright Office, which registers copyright claims and advises Congress on copyright law; and appointing the US poet laureate.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • items managing

    • items, managing

    • items; managing

    • items. Managing

    ID: c49e946e Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of elements in a complex series. It’s conventional to use a semicolon to separate items in a complex series with internal punctuation, and in this choice, the semicolon after "items" is conventionally used to separate the first item ("overseeing…items") and the second item ("managing…law") in a list of Hayden’s responsibilities.

    Choice A is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the first item and the second item in the complex series. Choice B is incorrect because a comma after "items" doesn’t match the semicolon used later to separate the second and third items in the series ("managing…law" and "and appointing the US poet laureate"). Choice D is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with "Managing."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 6d247c13

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 6d247c13

    The Boston Saloon was one of the most popular African American–owned establishments in nineteenth-century Nevada. blank by businessman William A.G. Brown, the saloon was known to offer elegant accommodations and an inclusive environment.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Created

    • Creates

    • Creating

    • Create

    ID: 6d247c13 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. The nonfinite past participle "created" is correctly used to form a supplementary element that modifies the noun phrase "the saloon," identifying who established the Boston Saloon.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite present tense verb "creates" can’t be used in this way to form a supplementary element to modify the noun phrase "the saloon." Choice C is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite present participle "creating" can’t be used in this way to form a supplementary element to modify the noun phrase "the saloon." Choice D is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite present tense verb "create" can’t be used in this way to form a supplementary element to modify the noun phrase "the saloon."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID fe41f258

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: fe41f258

    In ancient Greece, an Epicurean was a follower of Epicurus, a philosopher whose beliefs revolved around the pursuit of pleasure. Epicurus defined pleasure as “the absence of pain in the body and of trouble in the blank that all life’s virtues derived from this absence.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • soul,” positing

    • soul”: positing 

    • soul”; positing

    • soul.” Positing 

    ID: fe41f258 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between a main clause and a participial phrase. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the main clause (“Epicurus…‘soul’”) and the participial phrase (“positing…absence”) that provides additional information about how Epicurus defined pleasure.

    Choice B is incorrect because a colon can’t be used in this way to join a main clause and a participial phrase. Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join a main clause and a participial phrase. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with “positing.”

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 4c06427b

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 4c06427b

    Interest in mechanotransduction, the mechanism by which cells sense and convert mechanical stimuli into biochemical signals, is expanding because of innovative work by biomedical scientists—many of whom, like neuroscience and biophysics expert Elba Serrano, blank this mechanism to better understand how the body’s neurological and biomechanical systems interact.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • is studying

    • has studied

    • study

    • studies

    ID: 4c06427b Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. The plural verb "study" agrees in number with the plural subject "many."

    Choice A is incorrect because the singular verb "is studying" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "many." Choice B is incorrect because the singular verb "has studied" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "many." Choice D is incorrect because the singular verb "studies" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "many."

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 8790d061

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 8790d061

    While constructing the Limyra Bridge, ancient Roman builders relied on temporary wooden beams to support the stone and brick structure. These temporary supports, a construction system known as blank were removed when the bridge was completed.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • falsework;

    • falsework

    • falsework,

    • falsework:

    ID: 8790d061 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within a sentence. The comma after "falsework" pairs with the comma after "supports" to separate the supplementary element "a construction system known as falsework" from the rest of the sentence. This supplementary element functions to clarify the term "these temporary supports," and the pair of commas indicates that this element could be removed without affecting the grammatical coherence of the sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be paired with a comma in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence. Choice B is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplemental element from the rest of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because a colon can’t be paired with a comma in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 8a264a54

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 8a264a54

    With a blend of traditional design elements, such as arched Gothic ceilings, and modern ones, such as floor-to-ceiling blank design splits the difference between old and new, a mixture that is increasingly seen in home interiors in the US.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • windows; transitional

    • windows—transitional

    • windows. Transitional

    • windows, transitional

    ID: 8a264a54 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the introductory subordinate clause ("With…windows") and the main clause ("transitional design splits the difference between old and new").

    Choice A is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to separate the subordinate clause ("With…windows") from the main clause ("transitional…new"). Choice B is incorrect because a dash can’t be used in this way to separate the subordinate clause ("With…windows") from the main clause ("transitional…new"). Choice C is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with "with."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 9902d2de

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 9902d2de

    The Alvarez theory, developed in 1980 by physicist Luis Walter Alvarez and his geologist son Walter Alvarez, maintained that the secondary effects of an asteroid impact caused many dinosaurs and other animals to die blank it left unexplored the question of whether unrelated volcanic activity might have also contributed to the mass extinctions.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • out but

    • out, but

    • out

    • out, 

    ID: 9902d2de Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma and the coordinating conjunction “but” to join the first main clause (“the Alvarez…out”) and the second main clause (“it left…extinctions”).

    Choice A is incorrect because when coordinating two longer main clauses such as these, it’s conventional to use a comma before the coordinating conjunction. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 1c65db8f

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 1c65db8f

    A species of Byropsis algae produces toxins to avoid being eaten by predators. However, in some cases, the toxins the organism uses to protect itself from predation actually blank its attractiveness to predators. The Hawaiian sea slug, for example, not only tolerates Byropsis toxins but actually uses them for protection in the same way the algae does.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • is increasing

    • increase

    • increases

    • has increased

    ID: 1c65db8f Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The plural verb "increase" agrees in number with the plural subject "toxins."

    Choice A is incorrect because the singular verb "is increasing" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "toxins." Choice C is incorrect because the singular verb "increases" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "toxins." Choice D is incorrect because the singular verb "has increased" doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject "toxins."

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID cd2443c0

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: cd2443c0

    A pioneer in the field of taphonomy (the study of how organic remains become fossils), blank may be just as prevalent in the fossil record as those of thick-shelled organisms.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • fossils of thin-shelled organisms, Anna Behrensmeyer demonstrated in a 2005 analysis,

    • Anna Behrensmeyer demonstrated in a 2005 analysis that fossils of thin-shelled organisms

    • it was demonstrated in a 2005 analysis by Anna Behrensmeyer that fossils of thin-shelled organisms

    • a 2005 analysis—by Anna Behrensmeyer—demonstrated that fossils of thin-shelled organisms

    ID: cd2443c0 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice makes the noun phrase “Anna Behrensmeyer” the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase “a pioneer…fossils.” In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that Anna Behrensmeyer—and not another noun in the sentence—is a pioneer in the field of taphonomy.

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “fossils of thin-shelled organisms” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the “fossils” are a pioneer in the field of taphonomy. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the pronoun “it” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that “it” is a pioneer in the field of taphonomy. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “a 2005 analysis” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that “a 2005 analysis” is a pioneer in the field of taphonomy. 

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID e44db0a0

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: e44db0a0

    Because a cycle of lunar phases blank 29.5 days to complete, it’s possible to observe two full moons in a single month, one at the beginning and one at the end. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • are taking

    • have taken

    • take

    • takes

    ID: e44db0a0 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "takes" agrees in number with the singular subject "a cycle of lunar phases."

    Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb "are taking" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "a cycle of lunar phases." Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "have taken" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "a cycle of lunar phases." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "take" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "a cycle of lunar phases."

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 64a40675

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 64a40675

    In 1953, a fellow performer tripped on legendary jazz musician Dizzy Gillespie’s trumpet, bending its bell upward. When Gillespie tested the damaged instrument, he realized that he blank sound of a bent bell over that of a straight one. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • preferred; the

    • preferred the

    • preferred, the

    • preferred. The

    ID: 64a40675 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between a verb and its object. No punctuation is needed between the verb "preferred" and its object "the sound of a bent bell over that of a straight one." The object helps complete the idea of the verb—in this case, it explains what type of sound Gillespie preferred—and any punctuation between the two results in an ungrammatical sentence.

    Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb and its object. Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb and its object. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb and its object.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID b8e13a74

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: b8e13a74

    Josephine Paddock and Florence Esté were among the 300 artists who exhibited at the 1913 Armory Show, a groundbreaking New York City art exhibition that introduced modernism to American audiences. Though shocking at the time, an abstract cubist painting exhibited by Marcel Duchamp—one of several works that received scorn from critics—blank the Western art canon more than a century later.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • has entered 

    • have entered

    • were entering

    • enter

    ID: b8e13a74 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb "has entered" agrees in number with the singular subject "an abstract cubist painting."

    Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "have entered" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "an abstract cubist painting." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "were entering" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "an abstract cubist painting." Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb "enter" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "an abstract cubist painting."

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 265e7f4c

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 265e7f4c

    The Globe Theatre in London is a reconstruction of the famed venue where many of Shakespeare’s plays were first performed. In 1613, a prop cannon blank during a performance and ignited the Globe’s thatched roof. No one was hurt, but in two hours the original Globe was gone.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • malfunctions

    • will malfunction

    • has malfunctioned

    • malfunctioned

    ID: 265e7f4c Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense. In this choice, the past tense verb "malfunctioned" is consistent with the other past tense verbs ("ignited" and "was") used to describe the destruction of the original Globe Theatre.

    Choice A is incorrect because the present tense verb "malfunctions" isn’t consistent with the other past tense verbs used to describe the destruction of the original Globe Theatre. Choice B is incorrect because the future tense verb "will malfunction" isn’t consistent with the other past tense verbs used to describe the destruction of the original Globe Theatre. Choice C is incorrect because the present perfect tense verb "has malfunctioned" isn’t consistent with the other past tense verbs used to describe the destruction of the original Globe Theatre.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 96e5da01

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 96e5da01

    The alga species Chlorella vulgaris is very efficient at making oxygen. For this reason, scientists are currently exploring ways to use this species in space. C. vulgaris might be used, for example, to build future biological air exchange systems that blank oxygen for astronauts. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • are producing

    • produced

    • produce

    • have produced

    ID: 96e5da01 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense. Simple present tense verbs can be used to describe actions that tend to occur, including in a hypothetical or future scenario. In this case, the simple present tense verb “produce” indicates what the air exchange systems might be able to do in the future (produce oxygen for astronauts).

    Choice A is incorrect. The present progressive tense verb “are producing” suggests that the oxygen is currently being produced, not that it might be produced in the future. Choice B is incorrect because the past tense verb “produced” suggests that the oxygen was produced in the past, not that it might be produced in the future. Choice D is incorrect because the present perfect tense verb “have produced” suggests that the oxygen has been produced from a point in the past up to the present, not that it might be produced in the future.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 2c4cd76d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 2c4cd76d

    Researchers studying magnetosensation have determined why some soil-dwelling roundworms in the Southern Hemisphere move in the opposite direction of Earth’s magnetic field when searching for blank in the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic field points down, into the ground, but in the Southern Hemisphere, it points up, toward the surface and away from worms’ food sources.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • food:

    • food,

    • food while

    • food

    ID: 2c4cd76d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is colon use within a sentence. A colon used in this way introduces information that illustrates or explains information that has come before it. In this case, the colon introduces the following explanation of why some roundworms in the Southern Hemisphere move in the opposite direction of Earth’s magnetic field.

    Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to join two long independent clauses (“Researchers…food” and “in…sources”) such as these. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two clauses (“Researchers…food” and “in…sources”) are fused without punctuation. Furthermore, the conjunction “while” fails to indicate that what follows is an explanation of why some roundworms in the Southern Hemisphere move in the opposite direction of Earth’s magnetic field. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two clauses (“Researchers…food” and “in…sources”) are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID 12bd5b75

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 12bd5b75

    With its towering, six-spired exterior of granitelike quartz monzonite, the Salt Lake Temple is one of the most instantly recognizable structures in the state of Utah. However, many people do not know that blank built over the course of forty years, with construction beginning in 1853 and ending in 1893.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • it was

    • one was

    • they were

    • both were

    ID: 12bd5b75 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun-antecedent agreement. The singular pronoun "it" agrees in number with the singular antecedent "the Salt Lake Temple."

    Choice B is incorrect because the singular pronoun "one" is ambiguous in this context; the resulting sentence leaves unclear whether there is only one Salt Lake temple or multiple. Choice C is incorrect because the plural pronoun "they" doesn’t agree in number with the singular antecedent "the Salt Lake Temple." Choice D is incorrect because the plural pronoun "both" doesn’t agree in number with the singular antecedent "the Salt Lake Temple."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 3ed5ebb4

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 3ed5ebb4

    In her analysis of Edith Wharton’s The House of Mirth (1905), scholar Candace Waid observes that the novel depicts the upper classes of New York society as “consumed by the appetite of a soulless blank an apt assessment given that The House of Mirth is set during the Gilded Age, a period marked by rapid industrialization, economic greed, and widening wealth disparities.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • materialism”; and

    • materialism” and 

    • materialism,”

    • materialism”

    ID: 3ed5ebb4 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a main clause and a supplementary noun phrase. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the main clause (“scholar…materialism”) and the supplementary noun phrase (“an apt assessment”) that describes Waid’s observation about how The House of Mirth depicts the upper classes of New York society.

    Choice A is incorrect because a semicolon and the conjunction “and” can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between a main clause and a supplementary noun phrase. Choice B is incorrect. Joining the main clause (“scholar…materialism”) and the following noun phrase with the conjunction “and” results in a confusing and illogical sentence that suggests that the novel depicts the upper classes of New York society as “an apt assessment,” which doesn’t make sense in this context. Choice D is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the main clause and the supplementary noun phrase with appropriate punctuation.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 67614549

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Medium
    ID: 67614549

    After winning the 1860 presidential election, Abraham Lincoln appointed Edward Bates, Salmon P. Chase, and William H. Seward to his cabinet. Lincoln’s decision was surprising, since each of these men had run against him, but historians have praised it, noting that Lincoln blank his rivals’ diverse talents to strengthen his administration.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • has leveraged

    • is leveraging

    • will leverage

    • leveraged

    ID: 67614549 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    D

    Rationale

    Choice D is the best answer. The subject of the verb is “Lincoln,” and the first sentence tells us that we’re talking about something that Abraham Lincoln did in 1860. So the simple past tense “leveraged” fits the logic of the text.

    Choice A is incorrect. This choice creates a tense issue. “Has leveraged” is the present perfect tense, which is used for an action that began in the past and continues into the present. Lincoln started leveraging his rivals’ talents in 1860—it’s definitely not still happening today. So the present perfect tense isn’t appropriate. Choice B is incorrect. This choice creates a tense issue. “Is leveraging” is the present tense, but Lincoln leveraged his rivals’ talents in 1860, so the present tense isn’t appropriate. Choice C is incorrect. This choice creates a tense issue. “Will leverage” is the future tense, but Lincoln leveraged his rivals’ talents in 1860, so the future tense isn’t appropriate.

    Question Difficulty:

    Medium

    Question ID 78b88c04

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Hard
    ID: 78b88c04

    Joshua Hinson, director of the language revitalization program of the Chickasaw Nation in Oklahoma, helped produce the world’s first Indigenous-language instructional app, Chickasaw blank Chickasaw TV, in 2010; and a Rosetta Stone language course in Chickasaw, in 2015.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • Basic; in 2009, an online television network;

    • Basic; in 2009, an online television network,

    • Basic, in 2009; an online television network,

    • Basic, in 2009, an online television network, 

    ID: 78b88c04 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of items in a complex series. It’s conventional to use a semicolon to separate items in a complex series with internal punctuation, and in this choice, the semicolon after “2009” is conventionally used to separate the first item (“the world’s…2009”) and the second item (“an online…2010”) in the series of things that Hinson helped create. Further, the comma after “Basic” correctly pairs with the comma after “app,” and the comma after “network” correctly pairs with the comma after “TV” to set off the supplemental elements (“Chickasaw Basic” and “Chickasaw TV”) that provide the names of the app and the TV network, respectively. Altogether, the punctuation in this choice results in a sentence that clearly indicates that Hinson helped make a language app in 2009, an online TV network in 2010, and a language course in 2015.  

    Choice A is incorrect because it fails to punctuate the complex series in a way that makes clear that Hinson helped make a language app in 2009, an online TV network in 2010, and a language course in 2015. Choice B is incorrect because it fails to punctuate the complex series in a way that makes clear that Hinson helped make a language app in 2009, an online TV network in 2010, and a language course in 2015. Choice D is incorrect because the comma after “2009” doesn’t match the semicolon used to separate the second and third items in the complex series.

    Question Difficulty:

    Hard

    Question ID d1482e27

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: d1482e27

    One of the earliest known maps is a Babylonian clay tablet thought to be almost 4,500 years old. The map blank the area of a plot of land, shows a river valley, and includes the cardinal directions.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • describes

    • describe

    • have described

    • are describing

    ID: d1482e27 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    A

    Rationale

    Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. The singular verb "describes" agrees in number with the singular subject "map."

    Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb "describe" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "map." Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb "have described" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "map." Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb "are describing" doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject "map."

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID 9f0ac61d

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Boundaries
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: 9f0ac61d

    Dolores Huerta’s advocacy on behalf of farmworkers was rooted in her experience as a schoolteacher in Stockton, California, in the early 1950s. Hoping to help her students and their families outside the blank Huerta left teaching to start the Stockton chapter of the Community Service Organization, a group focused on the needs of local farmworkers.

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • classroom.

    • classroom;

    • classroom,

    • classroom

    ID: 9f0ac61d Answer
    Correct Answer:

    C

    Rationale

    Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the introductory participial phrase ("Hoping…classroom") and the main clause ("Huerta…farmworkers").

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with "hoping." Choice B is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between the participial phrase ("Hoping…classroom") and the main clause ("Huerta…farmworkers"). Choice D is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the participial phrase ("Hoping…classroom") and the main clause ("Huerta…farmworkers").

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy

    Question ID bd11fe93

    Assessment
    SAT
    Test
    Reading and Writing
    Domain
    Standard English Conventions
    Skill
    Form, Structure, and Sense
    Difficulty
    Easy
    ID: bd11fe93

    Dr. Rocío Paola Caballero-Gill is a paleoceanographer. This means that Dr. Caballero-Gill doesn’t just study oceans as they are today. She uses chemistry and fossil evidence blank oceans as they were in the past. 

    Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

    • has studied

    • to study

    • studied

    • studies

    ID: bd11fe93 Answer
    Correct Answer:

    B

    Rationale

    Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. The nonfinite to-infinitive verb “to study” is correctly used to form a subordinate clause that indicates what Dr. Caballero-Gill uses chemistry and fossil evidence for (to study oceans as they were in the past).

    Choice A is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite verb “has studied” can’t be used in this way to form a subordinate clause that indicates what Dr. Caballero-Gill uses the evidence for. Choice C is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite verb “studied” can’t be used in this way to form a subordinate clause that indicates what Dr. Caballero-Gill uses the evidence for. Choice D is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite verb “studies” can’t be used in this way to form a subordinate clause that indicates what Dr. Caballero-Gill uses the evidence for.

    Question Difficulty:

    Easy